MCAT Full-Length Tests

Dear Future Doctor, The following Full-Length Test and explanations are an opportunity to bring it all together in simulation. Do not engage in Full-Length practice until you have adequately prepared your knowledge and critical thinking skills in Subject, Topical, and Section tests. Simply g the tests is inadequate; a solid understanding of your performance through your Score Reports and the explanations is necessary to diagnose your specific weaknesses and address them before Test Day. All rights are reserved pursuant to the copyright laws and the contract clause in your enrollment agreement and as printed below. Misdemeanor and felony infractions can severely limit your ability to be accepted to a medical program and a conviction can result in the removal of a medical license. We offer this material for your practice in your own home as a courtesy and privilege. Practice today so that you can perform on test day; this material was designed to give you every advantage on the MCAT and we wish you the best of luck in your preparation. Sincerely,

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PHYSICAL SCIENCES ANSWER KEY
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. B A C C B C D C B B A D B D B A B D A D 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. B D C B B B C A C A D C D B C D A A C B 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. B C D A B C C A B C B D D C A C B B A D 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. A D C B D D A C C B C C B D A D D

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Passage I (Questions 1–6)
1. B

Since the two component forces are in serial in the Maxwell model, the elastic force is no longer applicable after time zero; and according to the equation for the viscous component, a given amount of force will continue to stretch the material as time progress. The Voight model, on the other hand, has a given length shared by both elasticity and viscosity, such that as the viscous component is stretched over time, it is also limited by the resistant elastic force that increases as the material is elongated. The correct answer is therefore choice (B).
2. A

This requires you to know the definition of Young’s modulus, which represents the stiffness of a material. It is a property of solids and therefore, does not involve viscosity. Eliminate choices (B) and (D). In order to increase stiffness, you need to increase the value of k. Based on the equation F = kx, a stiff material will require a large force to produce a small amount of deformation. Given a large F and a small x, k must be increased to increase Young’s modulus; choice (A) is correct.
3. C

According to the passage, the viscosity of the material can be attained from the equation F=␮v, where ␮ is the viscosity. Since the force F is given and is constant, the remaining information required is v, which is the speed of deformation—choice (C) is correct. Both choices (B) and (D) combined can allow one to evaluate the speed of elongation, but neither by itself is a sufficient.
4. C

First, work W = Fd. Given the constant force of 25 N, you need to calculate the total distance d that is stretched over the 1 second time period. First, calculate the instantaneous stretch of the elastic component, which is x = F/k after a little rearrangement of the equation provided in the passage. We then add the stretch of the viscous component in one second, which would be x=Ft/␩, if we substitute x/t for v (the definition for velocity). The total calculated elongation should equal 5 m for the elastic stretch plus 5 m for the viscous stretch; a total of 10 m. Substituting back to our equation for work, we get W=(25N)(10m) = 250 J. Choice (C) is correct.
5. B

At time t = 0, the viscous component has yet to come into play, since it is time-dependent. Hence, the initial elongation would simply be the elongation of the spring component, which is determined by the equation F = kx. To determine the elongation x, shuffle the equation, using F=F0 to get x=F0/k .
6. C

This model is a combination of both the Maxwell and Voight model. Though it may seem rather complex, it can be analyzed by its parts. First, it has an elastic spring in series with a Voight material. Since from the Maxwell model, you know that an elastic spring will deform instantaneously, you can narrow the answer choices to (A) and (C), where there is a short vertical component of the graph showing an instant displacement. After t = 0, the Voight material should take over with the asymptotic curve as shown in choice (C). Choice (A) is a simple spring, while choice (B) is a simple damper. Choice (D) is incorrect since it does not display an asymptotic limit , which we expect when no damper is present in series. Choice (D) represents a damper in series with a Voight material.
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Passage II (Questions 7–12)
7. D

In the passage, you learned that the color of a coordination complex is the result of a promotion of an electron from a low-energy d orbital to a higher energy orbital. Therefore, any transition metal complex that is colorless must not be able to effect this transition. This leaves you with two possibilities: either the complex has no electrons in d orbitals or all the d orbitals are filled so no electrons can be promoted. The first possibility makes no sense–the definition of a transition metal is that it has electrons in d orbitals. Therefore, the second option is your best bet. This matches what you already know about zinc ions; they are d10, meaning that there are 10 electrons in the d orbitals—all full. Now take a look at the answer choices. (D) matches this prediction; the eg orbitals are the higher-energy orbitals in a crystal field, so if they are full, all the d orbitals are filled. This will make a promotion impossible. The complex will be colorless. Choice (A) makes no sense—when a metal loses electrons, its properties change, so even a colorless metal could still have colored complexes once it lost electrons to become an ion. Choices (B) and (C) might seem tempting, but there is no evidence in the passage or the question stem that the crystal field splitting energy is either small or large, so there is no way to say what the frequency of light would be if an electron could be promoted. In any case, all orbitals are filled for this complex.
8. C

This question might seem daunting when you first read the stem—there are so many possibilities! Don’t panic; just keep the passage information in mind as you read the answer choices. The answer choices are limited to information about color, so you know that the question is asking you to say something about the color of two solutions: a solution of K3[CrBr6] and a solution of K3[Cr(CN)6]. Now things are a lot simpler. What is the difference between these two solutions? This, too, might seem complicated, but as is often the case on the MCAT, you really only need one piece of information to answer this question correctly. That piece of information is going to come from the spectrochemical series given at the end of the passage. Take a look, and you will see that bromide and cyanide ions lie at opposite ends of that spectrum. Whatever difference there is between these two solutions, it will be related to high and low spins. As cyanide ions replace bromide ions, the solution will be changing from high spin to low spin. According to the passage, this is going to mean a larger crystal field splitting energy—a larger transition for an electron to make. In addition to the enlargement of the splitting, you also need to consider the fact that as the complex changes from high spin to low spin, there will be more opportunities for promotion. This is because there will be more electrons in the lower energy levels and more available orbitals into which these electrons can be promoted. There will be more promotions, so the intensity of the color will increase. Therefore, the answer is (C). (A) makes a false comparison between bromide and cyanide—in CFT, most of the ligands will be negatively charged, so a negative charge will not be enough to draw parallels between pairs of ligands. (B) assumes that the ions are all in solution together—you know this isn’t true because a complex is one unit. (D) tells you that the ⌬0 decreases, but you know that it increases, so (D) is incorrect.

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9. B

Many MCAT questions follow the pattern of this one: ask a yes or no question (or a question with two possible answers) and give two possible explanations for each. So, you can use some strategy to eliminate half the answer choices right off the bat. In this case, you can choose to eliminate both “no” answers, both “yes” answers or you can choose to eliminate wrong answers based on their explanations, then decide whether “yes” or “no” corresponds to the correct explanation. All the answer choices mention the paired or unpaired nature of electrons in a manganese complex. That’s your clue to take a look at the electron configuration of that metal ion. Mn2+ has five d electrons, so it will have unpaired electrons regardless of whether it is high or low spin. (If it is high spin, there will be five unpaired electrons—one in each d orbital. If it is low spin, there will be one unpaired electron in a t2g orbital and 4 paired electrons in t2g orbitals.) Knowing that there are unpaired electrons, you can eliminate (A) and (C). Now, you need to refer to the passage or to your outside knowledge to determine whether unpaired electrons lead to paramagnetism. The passage states that a paramagnetic substance is one which contains unpaired electrons, so the answer must be (B).
10. B

The first thing to do here is to take a look at the electron configuration of the Fe2+ ion. Iron(II) has six electrons. This means that when it is high spin, it will have four unpaired electrons. When it is low spin, it will have no unpaired electrons, because all the electrons will be in the three t2g orbitals. Once all the electrons are paired, the complex will be diamagnetic; it will have lost its paramagnetic properties, so (B) is correct.
11. A

Beware of extraneous information in question stems when you’re taking the MCAT! It doesn’t matter whether a complex is low spin or high spin when it comes to the total number of electrons that can fill all the d orbitals. Every transition metal has five d orbitals, each of which can hold two electrons, so ten electrons would fill the d orbitals of a coordination complex. Therefore, (A) is correct.
12. D

At first, it might seem that this question makes no sense because the first compound, Mn(NO3)2, isn’t a coordination complex. Don’t be fooled, though; the question stem tells you that you’re dealing with an aqueous solution. Therefore, it is a coordination complex with Mn(NO3)2 as the central “ion” and water molecules as ligands. Now your job is to compare H2O and CN– with Cl–. Don’t fall into the next trap, either—just because cyanide and chloride are both negatively charged doesn’t mean they’re the most similar. What you need to do is consult the spectrochemical series. Water is high spin, while cyanide is low spin. Where does chloride fall on the spectrum? It is even more high spin than water, so the complex will be high spin. Therefore, choice (D) is correct.
Passage III (Questions 13–18)
13. B

The question gives a speed, a distance, and wants you to find time. Here the rate is Mach 3, which equals the ratio of the speed of the jet to the speed of sound. Since the jet is going 3 times as fast as the speed of sound, the speed of the jet is 900 m/s. The question asks the time required to fly around the circumference of the Earth.

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16. If choice (A) were true. without increasing its velocity. The only thing we can be sure of is that the frequency of sound is constant as it passes from one medium to another: choice (B). the larger Mach number must mean a smaller speed of sound. the swimmers could be so deep underwater that the wave has so much longer to travel before it can reach them. = ␲d Ϸ (3)(1. since the intensity of the sound wave may be different depending on whether the nose or the back is emitting the wave. So. since the speed of sound in air does change as you change altitude. 17. The passage states this is exactly what happens when the jet flies at the speed of sound.5 ϫ 105 s Ϸ 13 hours. if frequency is constant. Therefore. and a beat will be detected. density must have decreased: choice (D) is correct. Remember that the speed of sound is inversely proportional to the density of the medium through which it is propagated. the Doppler effect indicates that the detector will record a smaller frequency for the sound emitted by that jet. Choice (B) is incorrect since the frequency of a wave passing from one medium to another is constant. and the speed of the jet is constant. Therefore. the frequencies of sound emitted by the two jets are now different. the waves would be ahead of the jet. If speed decreases. Mach number is the speed of the jet over the speed of sound. 14. but speed changes between two media. you would expect the two people swimming to hear it first. Since sound travels faster in denser substances. The speed of sound is decreasing as the altitude increases. Since. Finally. wavelength must also change: choice (D) is incorrect. In other words. 5 . then the sound waves have to travel through air and then through water to reach them. D The passage mentions that the Mach number of a jet can increase as it ascends. the jets start at the same place and emit identical sound waves. As one jet speeds up. However. Finally. Initially.0 × 102 m/s ϭ 0. we do not know how deep the people are underwater. choice (B). it travels faster in water than in air.Circum. 15. thus even though it travels faster it may take more time to reach them then their friend. so there are no beats.28 ϫ 107 m) Ϸ 4 ϫ 107 m (4 × 107 m) ᎏᎏ → t = 9. A Remember that beat frequency is the difference between frequencies of a combined sound wave. B If the two people are underwater. Choice (A) is wrong. B The figure indicates that the waves are building up in front of the jet. Choice (C) is illustrated in the passage and choice (D) would involve a change in the jet’s speed that is not illustrated by the figure. the beat frequency increases from zero to some larger frequency. choice (C) is never implied.

the final velocity is zero. so one can say that the force on the spring is proportional to the change in speed of the chair: since. So. while hydrogen bonds form. 22. These forces are equal. Once this transfer has occurred. the passage states that a dilute solution of potassium hydroxide is used. Choice (B) is incorrect because as protons are lost from carbonic acid.18. This is a trigonal planar geometry. B In the section on Experiment 2. the solution will lose its blue color to become clear. 6 from each of the three oxygen atoms (18) and 2 from the negative charge on the whole ion. the bicarbonate ion has a charge of –1. Therefore. charge separation is not favored by Coulomb’s Law. the force is proportional to the original velocity of the jet. choice (D). From this. The answer is (B). a proton is transferred from a carbonic acid molecule to a water molecule. These will be arranged according to the following Lewis structure: O C 2- O O Using VSEPR Theory. the spring will elongate under that force according to Hooke’s law: F = kx. they do not have a significant effect on the Ka values. CO32–. This will neutralize the hydroxide ions and cause the solution to become acidic. this will result in atoms that are in a plane with 120º separations. Since bromothymol blue is colorless in acidic solution. 21. the chair experiences a force equal to its mass times acceleration. you can eliminate choices (C) and (D). so the solution starts out with a blue color. Choice (C) is incorrect because the molecular geometry of bicarbonate ion is not changed by losing a hydrogen ion. A In Reaction 1. Start out by writing: -] [H3O+][HCO3 [H3O+][CO23] ᎏᎏ Ka ϭ and Ka ϭ ᎏᎏ -] [H2CO3] 1 2 [HCO3 6 . recognize that as solid carbon dioxide dissolves in the aqueous solution. D As the jet decelerates. Passage IV (Questions 19–24) 19. the concentration of bicarbonate ion increases. D The key to answering this question correctly is to write equilibrium expressions for Reactions 1 and 2. you know that the three oxygen atoms will repel each other as much as possible. any positively charged species will be difficult to remove. it will combine with water to form carbonic acid. 20. This will be basic. has 24 valence electrons: 4 from carbon. Choice (D) is incorrect because. D Carbonate. Then.

Any of these could have been eliminated with a little thinking! 24. set up a table of values: H2CO3(aq) Initial concentration (M) Change in concentration (M) Equilibrium concentration (M) 0. two of the oxygen atoms have single bonds to carbon.Then. C To calculate the equilibrium concentration of the bicarbonate ion.3ϫ10–7 All the other answer choices are traps: (A) is simply the Ka2 value. but in the one shown. 4. Each oxygen atom should be identical.2ϫ10–4 M. The following three resonance structures are relevant: O C C O 2- O C O 2- O C O O 2- O 7 .034 –x 0. this gives x = 1.034 – x The next step is to solve for x. solve for hydronium ion concentration in each equation to get: -] Ka2[HCO3 Ka1[H2CO3] [H3O+] ϭ ᎏᎏ and [H3O+] ϭ ᎏᎏ -] [CO2[HCO3 3] Now it is clear that only choice (D) makes sense. while one of them is double-bonded. B Take a look at the Lewis structure you drew for question 2. (B) is the Ka1 value and (D) is the initial concentration of carbonic acid. Each of the oxygen atoms is equivalent. 23.034 – x +H2O(l) H3O+(aq) Ϸ0 +x +x + HCO3–(aq) 0 +x +x Now set up the following equation: Ka -] [H3O+][HCO3 ϭ ᎏᎏ [H2CO3] 1 x2 ϭᎏ 0. so there must be enough resonance structures to account for that.

C When a substance sublimes.25ϫ108 m/s. C The first things we should take notice of upon reading the question are: This is a Roman numeral question. so the answer is (B). The question is asking about which forces do work. 28. The answer is (C). ⌬G must be negative. Carbon dioxide sublimes at room temperature because the energy of the air surrounding it is sufficient to effect a phase transformation. 27. Since they operate spontaneously. its speed is reduced to: 3ϫ108 m/s c v ϭ ᎏᎏ ϭ ᎏᎏ ϭ 2. 4/3 n answer choice (B). Notice that answer choice (D) is impossible. B In a galvanic or voltaic cell. it is converted from solid to gas using the heat of its surroundings. Gases have greater entropy than solids. 3nR 3(2)R 2 answer choice (A). so the entropy change for sublimation must be positive. eliminating answer choices as we go along. entropy increases. B When light enters a medium with an index of refraction n.Discrete Questions 25. The change in internal energy is therefore 900 – 600 = 300 J. Passage V (Questions 29–33) 29. So the gas in this case absorbs 900 J of heat energy. Since the CO2 molecules are absorbing heat. and does 600 J of work. We should test the most popular statement first. Whenever an ideal gas undergoes a change in internal energy. 8 . its temperature changes as well: 2⌬U 2(300) 3 ⌬U ϭ ᎏᎏnR⌬T→⌬T ϭ ᎏ ϭ ᎏ ϭ 100/R K. so their reactions must be spontaneous. A A gas absorbs heat and does work—this should remind you of the First Law of Thermodynamics: ⌬U ϭ Q –W. These cells are used to do work. the oxidation and reduction reactions are carried out in separate compartments. as nothing can travel faster than the speed of light in a vacuum. which means we need to understand what it means for forces to do work. 26.

D We need to determine what additional information would be necessary to determine the speed of the boxes at some time t. and force F points to the right. 30. it’s removing energy from the system. ␮N. the upper box must exert contact force C to the left on the lower box. Since we’re given the time elapsed in the problem. When an applied force is perpendicular to the displacement. so start there. From kinematics: vf = v0 + at. It might be tempting to go ahead and work out on your own which forces are doing work on the lower box. Static friction exists between the two boxes as they accelerate. then the work done by that force on the object is zero. What is the normal force N in this situation? The vertical force that the lower box exerts on the upper box. the work done is negative: this force isn’t adding energy to the system. we have all we need. the weight of the upper box acts on the upper box. when does one object slide with respect to the other? When the static frictional force needed to counterbalance the applied force reaches and then passes its maximum value. 31. So statement II is false. The contact force C is the force due to friction on the upper box due to the lower box. So the maximum value of the static frictional force is ␮m2g. then the work done on the object by the force is W = Fd. Since the upper box is not accelerating in the vertical direction. let’s check that statement III is true. in statement II? Strictly speaking.When an object is displaced a certain distance d through the actions of a force F. The correct answer is choice (D). it does work on the lower box. In general. not a homework question. so v0 = 0. leaving choice (C) as the correct answer. but remember: this is an MCAT question. A A moment’s reflection on this problem should lead you to realize that whether or not the upper box slides is a function of friction. Does the applied force F do work on the lower box? Yes—the lower box is displaced to the right (in Figure 1). and the correct answer is choice (A). and N = m2g. not the lower box. The passage indicates that the boxes start from rest. by Newton’s third law. It points to the right (think about it: it’s the force that causes the upper box to accelerate to the right. When the force points in the opposite direction to the displacement. pointing in the direction of the displacement. the normal force is balanced by its weight. 9 . For completeness.) Since the lower box exerts contact force C on the upper box to the right. the force is resisting attempts to displace the object. What about the weight of the upper box. and the acceleration a is given in the passage. Jump immediately to the statements and evaluate them. This is a kinematics problem—in all kinematics problems. Statement I appears in the most answer choices. Eliminate choice (D). the passage gives you the coefficient of static friction as m. begin by figuring out what you already know. so C had better point to the right. Since this force points opposite to the direction of displacement.

the force that pushes the upper box forward with respect to the ground is lessened as well. but that is not necessary to answer this question correctly. so the acceleration a must satisfy F = (m1+m2)a. The top box begins to slide when the contact force between the boxes switches over from static friction to kinetic friction. which is 4/3 times the old acceleration. As the contact force is now smaller. Since the coefficient of kinetic friction is generally less than the coefficient of static friction. so you can trust your gut. answer choice (C). so the top box must be slowing down. once the top box starts sliding. the force of kinetic friction is less than the maximum force due to static friction. a’.” Go with that instinct—the physical scenario in this passage is in line with everday experiences. Since m1 = 3m2. the impediment to the forward motion of the lower box is lessened. 33. The only external force on the system of boxes is F. The new acceleration of the system. the motion of both boxes is no longer identical. 3 F a = ᎏᎏ ᎏ 4 m1 . is F/m1. This problem can be analyzed in great detail. 10 . Choice (D) is correct.32. and the acceleration of the lower box increases. The acceleration of the upper box decreases. the force F is applied only to the box with mass m1. Let’s start with the motion of the system of boxes. and then asked to compare the current acceleration of the system to the acceleration of the lower box if the top box were removed. D We are told in the problem that the mass of the lower box is three times the mass of the upper box. After the top box is removed. C Now that the top box is sliding. Thinking physically about the scenario in this problem will back up our gut reaction. it should fall off the back. The structure of the answer choices indicates to us that we need to figure out two things: Does the acceleration of the bottom box increase or decrease? Does the acceleration of the top box increase of decrease? Your gut instinct may be to think “well. Note that you could have eliminated answer choices (A) and (B) right away by realizing that removing mass from the system while keeping the force constant was going to increase the acceleration by some amount. while simultaneously.

36. C O Ti O Titanium is bonded to two oxygen atoms in TiO2. The transfer of chloride ions from titanium ion to the aqueous acid form might lead you to label this an exchange reaction. so humid conditions will make this reaction more favorable. This eliminates choices (A) and (D). Therefore. Each oxygen has a charge of –2. it is a hydrolysis reaction. D You are asked to characterize the type of reaction you are given. the presence of a base will drive the equilibrium to the right. DG. Finally.) Now examine statement (II). which will drive the reaction because of the stability of titanium. it is +4 in both cases. all involve the formation of one of two stable substances: solid titanium or titanium dioxide. You know these can’t be correct because the oxidation state of Ti does not change from reactants to products. substituting bromine for chlorine.Passage VI (Questions 34–39) 34. it has the electronic configuration of argon. The fundamental aspect of this process is the reaction between liquid water and titanium tetrachloride. you are already done because only choice (C) does not contain statement (I). Will performing the reaction in the presence of hydrogen gas affect the production of titanium dioxide? A side reaction similar to Reaction 2 is very likely to occur here: TiCl4(g) ϩ 2H2(g)→Ti(s) ϩ 4HCl(g) 11 . you should immediately think of the Gibbs free energy. A Once titanium has lost all four of its valence electrons. 35. This leaves you with (C) and (D). (C) or (D) would apply if titanium had not yet lost its electrons by ionization. as shown in the Lewis dot structure above. The reaction in choice (B) is extremely similar to Reaction 2 as shown in the passage. however. it will not inhibit production of titanium dioxide. B When you’re asked about the spontaneity of a reaction. It is very unlikely that this stable compound would undergo a corrosion reaction to form a gaseous “tetraoxide”. just substitute chlorine for bromine. Is humidity going to affect Reaction 1? Most certainly—the reaction is between titanium tetrachloride and water. Will performing the reaction in the presence of a base affect the reaction? Since acid is produced. consider statement (III). [Ar]. The reaction in (C) forms solid titanium. You know that a reaction with a negative Gibbs free energy is spontaneous. 38. so titanium must have a charge of +4. Whenever a substance reacts with water. Any choice that contains statement (I) should be eliminated. but (D) is a better choice. Choices (A) and (B) both involve redox chemistry. 39. C Consider statement (I) first since it appears most often in the answer choices. (Notice that just by doing this. so it is not unlikely. it will not inhibit the reaction. 37. The reaction in (D) is very similar to Reaction 1. so the answer is (B). A Titanium dioxide forms spontaneously according to Reaction 1. The other three reactions. Therefore.

you can see that m1 = 2 and m2 = 3 yields a depth of 400 nm. If they were coming in shallow. B Answer choice (D) is certainly wrong. m␭ d ϭ ᎏᎏ → 2 d ϭ m1ϭ (400)/2 ϭ 200m1. so choices (A) and (B) are incorrect. Passage VII (Questions 40–44) 40. The formula assumes that the rays are coming in close to the vertical. Choice (D) is incorrect: it’s because the indices of refraction are different that refraction occurs at all. choice (C) is wrong. we’ve already stated the correct answer: choice (C). In fact. n1 sin␪1 ϭ n2 sin␪2. as nothing prevents light from entering a medium with a higher index of refraction at any angle. m2 yield the same d? By trial and error. but something much longer. 41.This will reduce the amount of titanium dioxide produced. 12 . The angle of refraction has no dependence at all upon the wavelength of the light. and a layer with a higher index of refraction. To employ the formula given in the passage. which integer pair m1. B There are two bright maxima.5 So. Similarly. Answer choice (D) is correct—it’s ray 2 that meets the second soap-air boundary. One of the rays isn’t going to undergo a phase shift. because the phaseshift that wave undergo on reaching a boundary with a higher index of refraction doesn’t depend on the angle of incidence. inside the film. and so the equation no longer applies to constructive interference. A soap bubble is surrounded on air on both sides. so statement (III) is the only one that applies. The thin film is layered between a medium of lower index of refraction. 42. 1. 800/3 d ϭ m2ϭ ( ᎏ 2 ) ϭ 400/3 m2 The question is. Choice (B) is correct. What determines the degree to which light is refracted? Snell’s Law. the path length through the film would no longer be 2d. Are all the conditions for the soap bubble the same as those for the thin film? No. choice (B). we need to know what the wavelengths of those two sources are inside the film: 400 nm 600 nm ␭ ϭ ᎏ ϭ 233 nm. at 400 nm and 600 nm. D C 43.5 1. ␭ ϭ ᎏ ϭ 400 nm.

emits a higher energy. green. 46.44. not from s to s. (D) is completely false. So the act of melting from a solid to a liquid allows the reaction to begin. they mix and begin to react. Red is the lowest energy and violet is the highest energy. We also know from common sense that (B) is false—you can go to the store and buy fireworks. shorter wavelength of light than does sodium (yellow light). leaving only (C). C The reaction is a redox reaction. Choice (A) is true—solid reactants do not mix and therefore cannot react. 47. sodium perchlorate would not be a good oxidizer. As energy increases. Passage VIII (Questions 45–50) 45. the wavelength gets shorter. (A) is not balanced (too many Al atoms. not keep them in separate compartments. Using the equation from the passage. B Red is a longer wavelength (ROYGBIV) and therefore less energetic form of light than green light. indicating that at least two atoms are going to change oxidation states. Consequently. (D) is the exact opposite of what is stated in the passage. 49. So potassium. orange. 48. indicating that either (A) or (C) is correct (oxygen is a 2– ion). The electrons are excited from the s to the d orbital (level 5 in strontium. but we are told that dextrin is used to bind the reactants together. the reaction is between the perchlorate and the fuel. right? (C) is tempting. So the presence of sodium (in the form of sodium perchlorate) will eliminate the desired red color. when white light is shone upon a film with d = 900 nm. which emits violet light. 13 . ␭ ϭ 600 nm and 400 nm can be seen. So the correct answer is (B). A The passage states that the composition melts upon ignition. blue. and m=4. Al produces a 3+ ion (see periodic table). violet). yellow. dextrin is not used as an inhibitor. The correct answer is choice (A). not enough O atoms). 2d 1800 nm ␭ ϭ ᎏᎏ = ᎏᎏ. B Remember ROYGBIV (red. C The passage states that the yellow produced by sodium generally washes out all other colors in the firework. not the cation and the fuel. A There are two fringes between 400 nm and 700 nm—the visible spectrum. (A) and (B) are wrong because the reactivity of sodium and potassium are not at issue. (B) and (D) have Al with a +4 charge and can therefore be eliminated. which allows them to react. Consequently. level 6 in barium). When the reactants are melted. m m Only two values of m yield wavelengths in the visible spectrum: m=3. So the difference between energy levels in the strontium atom is less than in the barium atom. indigo.

5 N. The overall charge of the ion is –2.33 s. 54. The difference between +6 and +3 is 3. D The magnetic quantum number indicates how an orbital behaves in an electric field. This should immediately point you to (D). The shape of the electron cloud is determined by the magnetic quantum number. So (C) makes sense: melting the oxidizer and fuel allows them to mix and begin reacting. We can eliminate choices (C) and (D). resulting in a charge of –14. So the beats occur three times per second. Your thumb now points to the right—that is the direction of the force. (A) is false because the dextrin is not used to separate the oxidizer and fuel. C The oxidation number of chromium in Cr2O72– is 3. not the heat from the fuse. Curl your fingers in the direction of the field. D When the weight of the mass is in balance with the restoring force from the spring. Choice (B) is correct. x 0. that is the beat frequency (fb ϭf1 – f2). 53. out of the page. 52. Discrete Questions 51. 55. Now you can use the right-hand rule to determine the direction of the force: your fingers point with the moving charges. The number of valence electrons about a nucleus and the number of protons in the nucleus are determined by the location of the element on the periodic table. This may be calculated as follows: the oxidation number of oxygen in Cr2O72– is –2. choice (C). leaving +12 for the two chromium atoms.5 T)ϭ1. The correct answer is choice (A).06 m choice (D). (B) is false because we know that the reaction generates heat and is therefore exothermic. C The passage states that ignition melts the reactants. B The magnetic force on a current-carrying wire is: FϭILBϭ(1 A)(3 m)(0. Each has a charge of +6.50. then: mg (2 kg)(10 m/s2) ᎏ ᎏᎏ kx ϭ mg → k ϭ ᎏ ϭ ϭ 333 N/m. A 14 . up the page. As the two sounds are 3 Hz apart. or once every one-third of a second: 0. (D) is false because the redox reaction between the oxidizer and fuel causes the oxidizer to release its oxygen. The radial size of an electron cloud is determined by the principal quantum number (A). There are seven oxygen atoms.

A This is a classic MCAT Physics question. B The current is running up and down the antenna. nor is there a connection between power and frequency (A) or period (B). POCl3 has 10 electrons around the phosphorus atom. Passage IX (Questions 57–62) 57. 15 . ask yourself what is meant by “expanded octet”. so (C) is the correct answer. An expanded octet is an atom that is surrounded by more than the usual eight electrons. the electron will be forced downwards: the answer is choice (B). Since the field points upwards. we can derive the frequency: c 3ϫ108 ᎏ ᎏ fϭᎏ ϭ ϭ 6 ϫ 107 Hz. which is increased by boosting the power.7 ϫ 10 s. In this case. When current runs up the antenna. experience a force opposite to the field direction. D The intensity of an electromagnetic wave is a function of the amplitude. resulting in a higher intensity. There is no connection to the length of the antenna rods (choice (C)). answer choice (A). increasing the voltage of the AC generator will increase the power of the signal (P = IV). 59. in a circle around the antenna. In this case. asking you to derive a property of an electromagnetic wave. 60. In order to determine which compound has an expanded octet. draw the Lewis structures for each answer choice: Clearly. point your thumb upwards and curl your fingers in the direction of the field. point your thumb down: now the magnetic field circles the antenna in the other direction. inside an electric field. B A negatively charged particle will. C In order to answer this question. From the wavelength.56. you are given the wavelength and asked to produce the period. ␭ 5 1 –7 –8 ᎏ The period is the reciprocal of the frequency: T ϭᎏ 6 ϫ 10 ϭ1. The correct answer is choice (B). The correct answer is choice (D). 58. However. When the current points down.

to move the charge +ne across potential V will require an amount of work equal to the change in potential energy of the charge: W ϭ ⌬U ϭ (ϩne)(V) ϭϩneV. Passage X (Questions 63–67) 63. It is true that the electric field no longer runs along the width of the strip. instead of the width. we are given the power and the time. Since the behavior of the charge carriers does change. answer choice (A). The next thing to do is begin your treatment of the limiting reagent problem. In this case. D Another classic MCAT Physics problem: the MCAT loves power. choice A is incorrect. so equimolar amounts of the two will not cause the reaction to go to completion. and we know that a new Hall voltage is created. using the values you’re given along with the stoichiometry of the reaction: mol NaN3 106 g NaN3ϫᎏᎏ 65 g NaN3 ϭ 1.63 mol NaN3 16 . thumb points out of the page (F)). Reaction 2 has a 6:1 ratio of sodium to iron oxide. in this case along the depth of the strip instead of the width (D). Notice that the length of travel has no effect on the work done—like any conservative force. then the magnetic force on the current is going to be out of the page (fingers point up the page (v). so answer choice B is correct. Always remember that power is energy per unit time. 62. answer choice (D). In this case. By inspection of the answer choices. you know that the key to answering correctly will be to determine whether the reactants are present in stoichiometric amounts or whether a limiting reagent issue will arise. it’s only the initial and final states that count. The electric field doesn’t point in the opposite direction (C). and asked to compute the energy: E P ϭ ᎏtᎏ → E ϭ Pt ϭ (50000 W)(60 s) ϭ 3 ϫ10 6 J ϭ 3 MJ. If the magnetic field now points from right to left. fingers curl to the left (B). C This question asks whether a reaction will go to completion. A The change in potential energy in moving a charge q across a potential ⌬V is: ⌬Uϭq⌬V. The charges are going to separate across the depth of the strip instead of the width. In this case.61. Calculate the molar amounts of Na(l) and Fe2O3(s) by performing dimensional analysis. the electric field that forms will also run along the depth. So. the first thing to do is recognize that choice (A) may be eliminated immediately.

17 . excess sodium is present. However. B In this case. the meaning of root mean square speed is not important. 65. To calculate the root-mean-square speed. you only need to determine the molar mass of nitrogen to answer this question correctly. Since the answer choices are conveniently given in terms of RT. If the quotient is equal to 6. you’ll want to calculate the resulting number of moles of elemental sodium: 2 mol Na 1. and M is the molar mass of the gas in kilograms per mole. 64. Shasta. you should know that root-mean-square speed is a measure of the typical speed of molecules in a gas at thermal equilibrium. Take a look at the Ideal Gas Law to see how these two factors will affect the volume of the experimental balloon: PVϭnRT Manipulate the equation to examine the effects of pressure and temperature: nRT ᎏ Vϭᎏ P Notice that a decrease in pressure and a decrease in temperature will cause competing effects—lowering the pressure causes an increase in volume. designed to test your knowledge of the ideal gas law and its applications. sodium is the limiting reagent. so choice (B) is correct.63 by 0.2 molFe2O3 The next step is to compare the stoichiometry of Reaction 2 with the molar amounts you just calculated. However. Do this by dividing 1. The molar mass of nitrogen is approximately 28 grams per mole. 1. D Ί๶๶๶ This is a conceptual question. this is a pure calculation question. while lowering the temperature causes a decrease in volume. If the quotient is less than 6. so you have to take that into account as well. Only (D) conveys this appropriately.63 mol Na ᎏᎏ 0. the temperature is slightly lower at high altitudes.4 This is greater than 6.22. If the quotient is greater than 6 (the molar ratio of sodium to iron oxide in Reaction 2) then iron oxide is the limiting reagent. then stoichiometric amounts of reactant are present. urms ϭ ᎏ M where R is the ideal gas constant. the pressure will be lower than it is at sea level.Now that you know the number of moles of sodium azide.22 mol Fe2O3 ϭ 7.63 mol NaN3ϫᎏᎏ 2 mol NaN3 ϭ 1. At a high altitude such as that of Mt. and the reaction will go to completion. use the following formula: 3RT ᎏ.63 mol Na Now you’re ready to take a look at the iron oxide present in the reaction chamber: mol Fe2O3 35 g Fe2O3ϫᎏᎏ 159 g Fe2O3 ϭ 0. Therefore. T is the temperature of the system in Kelvins. choice (C) is correct.

A The MCAT expects you to know that substances in their elemental states have oxidation numbers equal to zero. Choice (C) is wrong because the final potential energy of the products is not equal to the potential energy of the reactants. answer choice (C).2 ϭ – 3. the total work done by friction is choice (C). the product.66. because the activation energy will be lower with a catalyst. elemental iron (Fe) will have an oxidation number of zero. In this case. Therefore. however.5)(10)2 ϭ 25 J KEi ϭ ᎏ 2 KEf ϭ 0 J.2 seconds. so products are lower in energy than reactants. Therefore. C The disk that started at 4 m/s decelerated to 0 m/s in 1. C The amount of work done by a force over a distance is W = Fd. 18 . the reaction is spontaneous. Now. according to the table in experiment 1. The key to answering it correctly is knowing how a catalyst works. not higher. There are two iron atoms in iron oxide. A catalyst is a substance that takes part in a chemical reaction and speeds it up. But since you have both the starting (10 m/s) and ending (0 m/s) speed. Choice (A) is wrong because the energy of the products will not be higher than that of the reactants. so each must have a charge of +3. but undergoes no permanent change itself. there are no forces or distances available. This will be manifest in the height of the peak between products and reactants in the energy profile. 25 J. 0– 4 vf –v0 2 ᎏ aϭᎏ ϭ t 1. choice (D) is correct. The amount of work done by friction is equal to the change in kinetic energy of the object: 1 ᎏ (0. Therefore. Choice (B) is also wrong. 67. Since oxygen has a charge of –2 and there are three of them. you can apply the work-energy theorem to this problem. D This question indirectly tests your knowledge of reaction mechanisms. Using kinematics. the iron atoms must balance the charge with +6. 69.3 m/s . How does a catalyst speed up a reaction? It does this by lowering the activation energy of the reaction. you just need to determine the oxidation number of iron in iron oxide. Passage XI (Questions 68–72) 68. This allows you to eliminate choices (C) and (D).

Therefore. and the correct answer choice is (C). in a fluid with a density of 1. D The excess pressure that affects a submerged object is hydrostatic gauge pressure. choice (B) is correct. 19 .2 g/cm3. where ␳ is the density of the fluid. ␳gh. these are considered in relation to the surroundings. d ϭ v0t + ᎏ 2 answer choice (C). Again. 74. C It might be tempting to reason that the heavier the mass. Surface A actually stops the disk the quickest among the four. the hydrostatic pressure is: kg 2 ⌬P ϭ ␳gh ϭ 1200 ᎏ m3 (10 m/s )(2 m) ϭ 24000 Pa. Newton’s second law indicates that: ma ϭ ␮mg → a ϭ ␮g The acceleration is mass-independent. you must compare apples to apples: each of the pucks must start with the same initial speed. C The disk started at 4 m/s and came to a stop in about one second. the force of friction is ␮mg. so it is also incorrect. Kinematics tell us: 1 2 ᎏat ϭ (4)(1)–(0. the normal force on a disk equals the disk’s weight: N = mg. since experiment 2 uses only 4 m/s as a starting speed. A closed system is one for which energy can be exchanged with the surroundings while matter is kept separate. 72. ( ) which is close to answer choice (D). it is similar to the correct answer but gives just the opposite conclusion. Discrete Questions 73. Choice (D) describes an open system. B The MCAT loves to ask about systems being studied. so the deceleration was about 4 m/s2. Consequently. 71. You must use the data from experiment 1 for a starting speed of 4 m/s. choice (B) is the correct answer. But while it’s certainly true that the frictional force goes up with mass. Since this is the force that provides the acceleration. For example. choice (B) is correct.70. the acceleration is mass independent. At a depth of 2 m. However. B The surface with the largest coefficient of kinetic friction will be the one who put a stop to the disk the quickest. the higher the acceleration will be. Choice (A) is incorrect because this is the definition of an isolated system. Don’t get thrown off by choice (C).5)(4)(1)2 ϭ 2 m.

If you heat the water. the answer is (D). D It might be easiest to handle this question by using conservation of energy. 77. so choice (C) must be incorrect. D Ice melts at 0ºC. so (A) is the correct answer. not all of the ice can melt. Hence. so choice (D) must be incorrect. Therefore. Therefore. the temperature of a substance does not change. more salt will dissolve. 76. During the phase transition. the addition of other substances and in the gas phase. and the final energy is all potential: KEi ϭ PEf 1 ᎏ ᎏ(100)(v)2 ϭ (100)(10)(20) 2 v2 ϭ 400 → v ϭ 20 m/s. the solubility of the salt will change. If you used a different solvent with a lower polarity than water. less salt would dissolve. However. the solvent. so choice (B) must be incorrect. Since the chemist only heats the ice for a moment. If you add another solute. A Solubility is affected by a number of factors. it undergoes a phase transition.75. The initial energy is all kinetic. The correct answer is choice (D). 20 . adding more salt will not change its solubility. This means that as it is heated. eliminate (C). pressure. including temperature. you can eliminate choices (A) and (B). Think of a glass of water as the solvent and table salt as the substance being dissolved. only choice (A) does not affect solubility. once the solution is saturated with salt.

D 117. A 100. 84. C 127. A 129. C 132. B 108. A 112. 81. B 120. B 123. C 105. A 135. 96. B 134. B 119. C 114. 90. A 131. C 130. A 104. D 136. 89. D 109. 79. 88. B B D B D B B C A A C A C B B B 94. 85. 93. 86. C A D C A A 110. 92. 82. C 107. A 21 . 83. 99. 91. C 103. 87. C 118. D 126. D 125. A 106. D 111.VERBAL REASONING ANSWER KEY 78. B 116. C 133. 97. C 102. D 128. B 137. C 113. D 121. A 122. B 124. 95. A 115. 98. 80. A 101.

These factors do not relate to winds. (A) is too general and strays from the passage’s purpose. Paragraph 3 discusses some possible environmental changes that could alter the delicate balance that keeps the thermohaline circulation going. B Reread the section around line 55 to prepare to answer this question. Refer to the question stem. The author mentions water cascading off the continental shelf to illustrate how deep water is created. which asks what scientific analysis would be most relevant for climate change. D To tackle this question. 22 . B Scan for the phrase and study its context to answer this logic question. The question stem asks you why the author chose to provide an example of a change in the salinity of part of the ocean. It is logical that if the winds decrease then the evaporation rate will also decrease. (D) refers to continental runoff and precipitation which are mentioned in the next sentence but not relevant to the question. 80. Precipitation totals may be interesting but won’t tell scientists much by themselves. (C) is incorrect because a change in the winds would cause some kind of change in evaporation rates. (B) is a detail contained within the passage and may look like a tempting answer. To answer this question you need to apply this information to the answer set. Paragraph 2 describes the factors involved in the sinking of the water. the author describes how prevailing wind patterns increase evaporation rates of surface waters in the North Atlantic. You are looking for a big picture answer. Don’t get bogged down in the science. 79. In both paragraphs 1 and 3 the author mentions how a disruption in the thermohaline circulation could have a detrimental effect on climate. (A) is a faulty use of a detail. evaluate how the author views climate change. (C) is way outside the scope of the passage. Continental run-off decreases the salinity of the ocean by adding freshwater. You know that the passage’s purpose is to explain the creation of deep-water and stress its importance in global climate. Human evolution has not even been mentioned in passing. 78. Choice (D) paraphrases the main purpose of the passage and is the correct answer. (C) is a faulty use of detail. (D) is a Distortion since a drop in salinity would occur in the ocean. At the beginning of paragraph 2.Passage I (Questions 78–83) Topic and Scope: The ocean’s thermohaline circulation and how disruptions in the circulation patterns might cause dramatic climate changes Paragraph 1 explains the importance of the ocean in climate patterns and introduces the concept of thermohaline circulation. Choice (B) addresses the passage’s purpose and allows the author to stress the fragility of thermohaline circulation. Note that the question proposes a decrease in prevailing winds in the Northern Hemisphere. This makes (B) the correct answer. Choice (A) restates the information contained in the passage while (B) contradicts it. not in the atmosphere.

(B) is a Distortion of a detail in the passage. D This inference question hits you with a lot of details so remember not to be intimidated by the answer choices. B This is a detail question. Paragraph 2 states that atmospheric absorption of heat. and paragraph 6 continuing education. (C) is opposite. In any case. Density is a function of salinity and temperature. misusing a detail found near line 21. B Study the context of the section mentioned in the question. Paragraphs 2 and 3 discuss why schools can’t currently implement standards. The only answer that is not mentioned is (B). Passage II (Questions 84–90) Topic and Scope: The need to implement national standards in teaching and the means to do so.81. (A) is FUD. and the passage describes how salinity and temperature cause water to sink. Notice that the author uses a superlative to describe the Atlantic’s salinity. 82. While the passage mentions wind patterns and evaporation. Paragraphs 4. deep water. That’s wrong and does not address the question. (D) is the correct answer. This sentence appears in paragraph 2. Prevailing wind patterns (A) increase evaporation rates which increase density. The author stresses the importance of the thermohaline circulation but discusses both the North Atlantic and the Southern Ocean. The atmosphere’s absorption of heat decreases the temperature of the water and does not relate to its salinity. choice (C). which is a Distortion of a detail mentioned in paragraph 3. 5 and 6 list the author’s recommendations: paragraph 4 teacher education. Identify and reread the section of the passage concerning the density of North Atlantic waters and remember that you want the answer that the passage contradicts or does not support. Continental runoff (D) affects water density by lowering salinity. which is to discuss deep-water formation and how its interruption could alter climate. increases density. the author makes it clear that it would alter world climate. It touches on the passage’s purpose. 23 . It’s the saltiest of all high-latitude waters. Choice (A) is too extreme. (B) contradicts the information contained in the passage. The scope of this paragraph concerns the factors involved in creating the ocean’s dense. 83. paragraph 5 teacher salaries. while the passage doesn’t provide how disruption of the thermohaline circulation would change climate. Paragraph 1 discusses the need for guidelines and the difference between setting them and implementing them. (D) states that the author mentions salinity in order to discuss the factors involved in wind patterns and evaporation rates. (C) is never mentioned in the passage. any water coming from the North would be coming from the North Pole and be cold. The last sentences of paragraph 2 discuss the thermocline and how tidal action cause the mixing of oceanic waters. Choice (B) is correct since the author’s use of a superlative reinforces the importance of salinity. Water in the North Atlantic doesn’t receive warm water from the North. The author would not endorse research focused on only one part of the ocean. and this question asks you to evaluate why the author mentions the Atlantic’s salinity.

In addition. 89. the fact that students did better on their tests strengthens neither of these assertions. It does not stand to reason that the teachers should take the same tests as the students (D). A It would be a stretch to assume that older. The author does not address anywhere in the passage whether teachers should be accorded the same respect as doctors or lawyers (C) or whether they should all be on the same pay scale (A). 24 . Yet new tests cannot improve teaching unless teachers are in place who can live up to the new expectations—thus. so choice (A) is correct. C According to the passage. Nowhere in the passage is it suggested that teachers can determine their own curriculum regardless of national standards (D). There is no evidence in the passage to suggest that graduate schools can force higher payscales for teachers (B) or that they can improve equipment (D). it is in fact a Distortion of the recommendation made in the final paragraph. There is no evidence for (D) in the passage. While (A) and (B) are probably true. (C) would be correct only if those with science backgrounds are choosing to enter other fields despite the fact that they have been enrolled in teacher graduate schools. A In order for national standards to be implemented. 87. so choice (A) is correct here. and it is possible that the testing will drive the classroom instruction. the purpose of the comparison to doctors and lawyers is not to show that it is important for teachers to remain current. lack of proper equipment. nor allowing teachers to omit teaching what they did not understand (C). the main idea in this passage—is that national science standards are useful only when teachers have the strong content knowledge and necessary supplies to use them effectively. B Although choice (D) may seem tempting. 88. A The author discusses how important continuing education is for teachers and how these teachers need to be held accountable for their knowledge base. C The author’s assertion throughout the passage—in fact. The author would certainly not support the immediate implementation of national standards (D). choice (C) is correct. 86. 85. they should get paid like doctors and lawyers as well (B). nor does the term “national standards” imply that the standards would not be implemented across the whole country (B). (B) is the correct answer. 90. even if the author would probably agree that some sort of teacher assessment would be important. it is probably not a reasonable assumption that just because teachers should be retrained like doctors and lawyers. national standards can do more harm than good if they require teachers to teach things that either the teachers don’t know or for which there are not adequate classroom resources. choice (C) is correct. maintains the author. Hence. teachers need training. more experienced teachers would be an obstacle to instituting national standards. C The author would agree that what is tested has a lot to do with what is taught in the classroom. Therefore. and not holding teachers responsible for their continuing education. All of the other choices involve issues that are specifically mentioned as impediments to the success of national standards— teachers avoiding topics out of ignorance.84. Choice (C) is the only answer here that works.

is correct. the passage indicates that cave paintings cannot be considered both primitive and naive. I and II only. (A) is also inconsistent with the statement in the last paragraph that folk art tends to have direct appeal and simple charm. The passage does not provide a basis to infer that several works of folk art would be likely to be of less aesthetic value than several works of fine art. and thus provides a basis to infer that works of folk art would be more likely than works of fine art to meet this criteria. it does not indicate that folk art is likely to be misunderstood by viewers today. This sentence also indicates that primitive art is a type of folk art (statement I) and that it contrasts with naive art. Paragraph 1 introduces the notions “fine art” and “folk art. for its historical significance). and choice (B). Paragraph 2 asserts that fine artists had a tendency. B Paragraph 4 defines folk art as the art of a people. 91. what is similar and what is different in practice and appreciation of these two types of art. (C) is opposite to what would be correct. Paragraph 4 defines “folk art” and introduces the notion that one of the key principles for appreciation of folk art—that appropriate standards are not the same as those appropriate for evaluation of fine art—is also applied to the appreciation of modern art. and indicates how that characteristic is treated differently by those who are oriented toward the fine arts than by those who are oriented toward folk arts. specifically. springing from their customary way of life. Paragraph 3 defines primitive art. Although the passage indicates that that folk art was disparaged by early fine artists. 25 . Paragraph 5 introduces the notion that a characteristic normally identifying folk art can also be a characteristic of fine art—different styles exist. (A) is a Distortion. rather than as intrinsic to each of two essentially distinct forms of art. and expresses the author’s hypothesis regarding why this was so (primitive art was more easily valued. (D) is an incorrect inference. Thus. to consider more traditional art as inferior to their own creations. Paragraph 6 questions the importance of a distinction proposed by some: that folk art may be distinguished from fine art in that it has a practical purpose.” and suggests that the distinction be recognized as a convention of language. affirms it gained perceived value sooner than naive art. 92. in terms of their appeal to the viewer. B The first cave paintings can be defined as primitive art (statement II) based on the definition in the first sentence of paragraph 3. Paragraph 7 explains how fine art and folk art differ. at least at first. Choice (B) is correct because it is a paraphrase of this definition.Passage III (Questions 91–98) Topic and Scope: Folk art and fine art.

95. The passage indicates that the fine arts have “conventions” and that modern artists choose to violate “contemporary rules” of the fine arts. and a piece of modern art that violates today’s rules could be accepted as fine art in fifty years. The earlier part of the paragraph refers to “maturation. This implies that the rules of fine art are not static. Those who attended the exhibit are analogous to the young Mark Twain. (C) is not supported by the passage. it is not inconsistent with the passage to conclude that the rules of modern art could evolve. Rather.93.” and the Mark Twain quote is an ironic statement. Choices (A) and (B) are possible reasons why those who attended the exhibit were not impressed. the author can be inferred to agree that folk art and fine art share a common origin. If fine artists had exercised undue influence on the gallery. it would be more likely that the exhibit would not have been shown at all. This leaves (C). (C) is inconsistent with the passage’s focus on specific criteria which distinguish folk art and fine art. 96. Thus. The passage mentions both similarities and differences between folk art and fine art.” it does not indicate that the paintings were on canvas rather than. the change in Twain’s assessment of his father was not actually due to what his father had learned in seven years. However. it is their assessment that the passage refers to. D Since the author mentions that the a distinction between “fine art” and “folk art” postdated the first cave paintings and that primitive art is part of the history of art. 94. Clearly. While the country of origin of the masks that served as a model for Picasso’s Les Demoiselles d’Avignon is mentioned in the paragraph. the passage focuses on the social context (statement I) in which the artist’s skill was developed. (D) cannot be correct because of how folk art is defined in the first sentence of paragraph 4. While the second paragraph of the passage makes reference to the maturation of fine art. the reason can be inferred from the context of the statement. country of origin is not focused on as a way of distinguishing fine art from folk art. 26 . but provides no support for an overall judgment that they are more different than they are similar (A). Although the sentence in question refers to “folk painting. B The passage does not explicitly state why the exhibition at the National Gallery was greeted with disapproval. it also likens the early stages of fine art to adolescence. which is not supported by anything in the passage. Choice (A) cannot be correct because naive art and modern art are defined in a mutually exclusive way in lines 32–35 of paragraph 4. the intention of the artist is related to distinguishing modern art from folk art and modern art from the rest of fine art. questioning. C This question is best answered by an elimination strategy. choice (D). The intention of the artist (statement II) is not relevant to distinguishing folk art from fine art. (D) is a Distortion of the passage. then it is necessary to infer that the public would have had the capacity to appreciate the artistic work of particularly valuable folk art (had it been displayed). (B) cannot be correct because of how primitive art is defined in the first sentence of paragraph 3. and cynicism. for example. but due to Twain’s maturation. A By contrasting the close relationship of folk art with the traditional culture of an area to the close association of the fine arts with sophisticated urban centers. (B) is a Distortion of the passage. Thus. the best inference is choice (B). Which is more likely in this context? Is it the curators of the exhibit or the attendees who are most likely to have lacked a “mature” sense of the artistic value of folk art? If it was primarily the curators. on furniture.

particularly since the passage does not identify Roosevelt’s affiliation at the time of the 1912 election. Why would this be so? Choice (A) is most directly related to this point. but are not as directly related to the artist’s choice of working surface. Furthermore. While the tendency of younger artists to learn from skilled adults (A) is certainly characteristic of folk art. a sentence in which the fact that folk art is often executed as a decoration to objects of practical value is presumed to represent a fundamental distinguishing characteristic of folk art. Paragraph 5 expresses both the author’s hope that an alternative system might be adopted and also the author’s belief that this would be beneficial.97. “similarity” between candidates can be assessed on many different parameters.” by definition they collectively received more votes than Wilson. The remaining choices relate in some way to the economics of artistic life. and questions. Absent evidence that actual Taft or Roosevelt voters would have voted (in a two candidate race) for the other of the two. Statement I is not an assumption because it is not clear from the passage what role party affiliation played in the election. Since the referenced statement challenges this presumption on the basis of “economic constraints. A The argument assumes that voters considered Taft and Roosevelt (former and incumbent Republican presidents) similar. Thus. Paragraph 3 describes the Borda count. (B) is inconsistent with the statement in the passage that folk art springs naturally from customary way of life and beliefs. 99. A The referenced statement follows. and that Taft voters would not have switched to Wilson and Roosevelt voters would not have switched to Wilson. In contrast. Paragraph 1 suggests that the type of system used for casting and tabulating votes can affect the outcome of an election and influence what candidates will run for office.” the implication is that economic constraints are a consideration more external to the artist than his other artistic decisions. Paragraph 4 describes approval voting. since “sophisticated techniques” are not associated with folk art. Paragraph 2 describes the plurality system of voting. another alternative to the plurality system.. the passage does not state that both were Republicans at the time they ran for election in 1912. 27 . the passage provides no basis for this being less true in the fine arts. must be considered an assumption. It focuses directly on how economics may force the artist to choose objects that also have practical value.e. the passage indicates that styles of fine art are likely to diffuse to other areas. 98. i. (D) is only partly true. who must have received a minority of the popular vote. C Since the passage indicates that folk art “springs naturally from the customary way of life and beliefs of the people of a region. However.” artists living in the same area would be likely to be stylistically similar. Passage IV (Questions 99–104) Topic and Scope: The passage proposes that there is a problem with the plurality system of voting in multi-candidate contests and describes two alternative systems. The correct answer is choice (A). an alternative to the plurality system of voting. Statement II contradicts the author’s explicit statement. rather than for Wilson (statement III). if Taft and Roosevelt “split a majority of the popular vote. choice (C) is correct.

energy. would have received. those who have one strongly preferred candidate who is markedly different from the rest might hope that plu28 . (B) weakens the argument by providing evidence of a way in which Roosevelt and Taft could be considered quite different from one another. while Roosevelt and Taft would have been ranked second choice by each other’s voters. but would have had no voters who ranked him second. if opposed only by Wilson. The passage as a whole focuses on voting systems. rather than on characteristics of candidates. While. and this would have constituted a majority of the votes cast.” 102. In this case. when opposed by only one other major candidate. the phrase could reflect the attitude. Roosevelt and Taft would have received two points from each voter who ranked them first and one point from those who ranked them second. or a change in voting system had an impact on what candidates ran for office or what viewpoints they represented (D). a piece of information often attacks an assumption made in the argument. C In using the 1912 election as an example of the points made in the preceding two sentences. The implication is that Wilson would have lost under a Borda count. Had a Borda count been used. and would thus have been ranked second choice by each other’s voters. in a different context. Wilson would have received two points from each voter who ranked him first. A The passage mentions the 1912 Presidential election as an example of choice (A). A The passage uses the phrase “those in serious contention” to make a distinction among candidates in an election. or moral commitment of the candidate. (C) is outside the scope of the argument and neither strengthens nor weakens it. Evidence that Roosevelt was more similar to Wilson than to Taft would undermine this assumption.100. since Wilson was subsequently able to do so in 1916. If there were only the three candidates. 104. Statement II is not implied because the passage does not take any position on whether or not the voters in the 1912 election were sophisticated. There is no example of an election in which a different voting system produced a different outcome (B). The passage explicitly states that Roosevelt and Taft split “a majority of the popular vote. Thus. the argument assumes that Roosevelt and Taft were considered similar.” Thus. C To weaken an argument. statement I is implied. had Taft not run. Thus. (D) provides evidence to infer that Wilson might have been able to produce a majority for the Democrat party in 1912 if opposed only by either Roosevelt or Taft. Conversely. the passage does not provide a basis to infer that voters viewed either Roosevelt or Taft as “unable to win. 103. a sophisticated voter voted for his second choice (C). the author’s premises indicate that Wilson would have been third choice of both Roosevelt and Taft voters. 101. the author implies that Roosevelt and Taft were similar to each other and that they split the vote that either one. The only answer that makes sense in the context of the passage is that the distinction is between candidates who are more likely to win (“those in serious contention”) and those less likely to win (not in serious contention). choice (A) weakens the argument by providing evidence of a measure by which Roosevelt could be considered more like Wilson than like Taft. under the premises of the passage Roosevelt would have received Taft’s votes. none of these alternative meanings makes sense in the context of the distinctions on which the passage focuses. C Since approval voting provides the opportunity to vote for more than one candidate. it is reasonable to assume that those who favor the system in a particular election probably would be relatively happy with more than one candidate winning the election.

since the author complains that only history appears to change its techniques so frequently. According to the author. but the author is complaining about historians in general. not merely the New Historicists. A We’re told that New Historicism was first used by scholars studying Renaissance Italy. Paragraph 4 seems to go a little off track. Since the passage later criticizes the critics (confusing. and compare the works of major authors to nearly unknown writers. isn’t it?). but that history needs to change at all. (D) is off the mark. as the author criticizes the tendency of historians to switch their approaches to writing history every few years ago. where we’re told that the work of the New Historicists heightened both popular and academic interest. Thus. C Choice (A) certainly sounds good. 29 . as well as some of the initial criticisms. But the main argument here isn’t so much that history changes techniques more frequently than other disciplines. (C) is what some critics say about New Historicism. how good were they? 105. Of the other choices. which argues that these changes are necessary in order to form historical judgements. have overemphasized the cultural unity of past cultures. this historical approach uses several different academic disciplines to create something called “thick description”. However. we might even guess that the author is not in complete agreement with New Historicism’s critics. can be found in the second paragraph. critics claim. there is no basis to assume that preference for plurality reflects a resistance to change (A). since the similar candidates might “split” the votes of voters who were opposed to their preferred candidate. in the swift change of historical approaches. The New Historicists. followed by a complaint about the way history constantly changes its approaches. but why historians feel the need to constantly change their academic approaches. but it doesn’t follow that New Historicism necessarily clarified any problems in the field. since it does appear later in the passage. is that this casts doubt on earlier historical approaches—if we got rid of them so quickly. not simply the New Historicists. The author seems to be arguing for a complete halt. and thus overemphasized the importance. Paragraph 3 tells us about the main backlash against the New Historicists. when she complains that historians no longer make historical judgements. We don’t know if this is an actual fault. (A). Paragraph 2 tells us about some of the positive results of the New Historicism. or at least a slowdown. or even if our author agrees with that point. the correct answer. the correct inference is choice (C). is the best answer to that argument. The issue isn’t so much whether New Historicism is going strong or not. Passage V (Questions 105–110) Topic and Scope: The New Historicism approach to history. (D) appears to be true of historians in general. (C). The result. There is nothing in the passage to indicate that students who are more mathematically inclined (B) would prefer the plurality system of voting. 106.rality voting would give them an advantage. where scholars study entire cultures. Paragraph 1 introduces New Historicism. says the author. Choice (C) is a major trap answer. Since we don’t know what system the students are already used to. (B) is tempting.

especially since the paragraph never urges any of these scholars to try a more straightforward. The author never says. objective approach. we can infer that the new scholars are probably studying them too. 30 . the point expanded in the rest of the paragraph. Paragraph 3 gives an example. The flaw for the New Historicists was that they assumed all cultures had some sort of cohesion. they’re probably not too likely to study the ruling group of any area. Paragraph 6 describes experiments being done to learn more about animal mapping. including pornographers. But that’s not necessarily the same flaw. But because the New Historicists focus on marginalized groups. 109. and we can toss out choice (C). anthropologists and historians can even use the same methods used in the hard sciences. B The author tells us that the New Historicists study marginalized and understudied groups. Passage VI (Questions 111–116) Topic and Scope: How animals “map” their environments. Paragraph 2 discusses why animals can’t use their own body movements to “map”. is also out. (C) wouldn’t necessarily be inconsistent with the author’s admiration. A The passage tells us that the new scholars (not the New Historicists. either. Statement II is definitely tricky. so (A) and (C). so (D) is clearly out. As far as statement III goes. Paragraph 5 gives other examples of animals that store food to relocate it later. Since the author. as in (A). we don’t know whether or not the backlash provided any new historical insights. The author never contrasts history and hard sciences such as physics directly. admiring a book from this backlash seems pretty inconsistent. but the scholars who followed them) study the same groups as their predecessors. only that their approach often clouded the uniqueness of canonical texts—not quite the same thing. like the New Historicists. Paragraph 1 discusses the basic dichotomy between moving and unmoving objects. D Because history isn’t an actual science. Paragraph 4 Explains why that any isn’t really “mapping”. a desert ant. so she can’t be criticizing scholars for not using these methods. The author also never suggests that economists. where two contemporary works are compared. it lacks a single disciplinary approach.107. only that it’s flawed. these new scholars study the same marginalized groups. since the passage notes that. D The answer can’t be choice (B). Since the New Historicists studied marginalized groups. so we can’t infer that. 110. since the passage never claims that the New Historicists unfairly concealed anything. 108. The same thing goes for (C). So statement I is correct. the flaw of the backlash scholars is that they aren’t really studying anything new. that the backlash against the New Historicism lacks all claim to originality. seems to be against the need for this historical backlash against the New Historicists. let alone the uniqueness of Dante. however. so choice (A) is out. The New Historicists also try to study works in the context of other works from the era.

114. claiming that fairy tales provide children with an outlet for dealing with their anxieties and even gives them solutions to such struggles in ways that children can understand.” Paragraph 3 continues this discussion and addresses parent’s concerns about children’s fears and emotions. (D) is contradicted by other information in the passage. By presenting good and evil so clearly. you must alter variables one at a time to see what each one’s individual contribution is. common sense suggests that one object could more easily be moved than several objects could. this goes against choices (A) and (B). and presents the thesis that such polemical tales actually are more effective for helping children to deal with basic issues of life and death than are modern stories. Also. If you did them all at once. 115. themselves. and common sense suggests that the reverse is likely true. so (B) is out. perform any computations. 116. A If in every instance animals operate similarly. 31 .111. There is no reason to suspect that it is easier to remember many objects than one object. contradicting (D). A The passage clearly states that navigational errors would multiply rapidly in an kinesthetic system because small movements would throw the system off. 113. C This question requires you to consider what events are more likely or easier than others. There is no evidence for (A) and (D). it is reasonable to assume that something about animals requires them to act that way. this supports choice (A). There is no reason to think that the muscles. (D) is contradicted by information in the passage. This would eliminate choice (C). D If we find that every example of something operates similarly. we would assume that this animal will find food the way other animals do. that would actually be a new experiment. (C) is the correct answer. (A) is the best choice. Paragraph 2 develops this thesis by discussing the polarization of the existential dilemma as it is present in fairy tales. then it is reasonable to assume that a newly found example will operate in the same way. There is no evidence for (B) and (D). C In an experiment. There is no evidence to support (B) or (C). lending no support to (A). This would eliminate choice (A). 112. (D). this is choice (C). B Choice (B) is the best answer because it takes into account the fact that animals need to use these cues from a distance. fairy tales allow children to better comprehend the differences than if the issues were more ambiguous or “true to life. (C) is directly contradicted by information in the passage. So. Passage VII (Questions 117–124) Topic and Scope: The benefits of fairy tales in comparison to modern “safe” children’s stories Paragraph 1 introduces the underlying psychoanalytic aspects present in the simplistic plots of fairy tales. by a configuration of landmarks.

(C) is outside the scope. are discussed. since the validity of psychoanalytic examination of literature is not at issue. B The central thesis of the passage is that traditional fairy tales are more beneficial to children’s growth and development than modern stories that attempt to provide “safe” plots and characters. since the passage never discusses the intentions of the authors of children’s stories. nor the utopic lives presented in many fairy tales and the effects of such perfection on child readers. and (C) are all discussed in paragraph 2 as support of the main idea expressed in the first sentence of the paragraph that fairy tales “state an existential dilemma briefly and pointedly. (C) is the opposite of the author’s belief that the inclusion of evil characters in fairy tales is a useful and necessary element of fairy tales. (C) is a Distortion of the differences between modern stories and fairy tales. since children’s own instinctive responses are never mentioned. A By stating that children need the symbolic suggestions of fairy tales in order to understand life and death issues and mature properly. B The author professes that children gain comfort from the typical fairy tale endings. and (D) is a Distortion of part of paragraph 3 where parents’ fears. suggesting that children are able to discriminate between fiction and reality in the meaning of the fairy tale (B). since it would in fact disprove the central thesis of the passage. (C) is a Distortion of the middle part of the final paragraph. which claim that “safe” stories do not discuss death. which discusses parents’ discomfort with their children’s fears or negative emotions. Choices (A) and (D) are outside the scope. limits of existence. 120. (D) contradicts the first sentence of the paragraph. misusing the statement made in lines 7–8 that “struggling against what seem like overwhelming odds” can give meaning to life. and a FUD. but that they can also discern that “living happily ever after” should not be taken literally. and their relation to different types of stories. D Moral lessons and values are never mentioned directly by the author as a benefit of the polarities in fairy tale plots. and that Freud’s recommendation to struggle against odds to find meaning in life is encapsulated by these types of stories. aging.” 121. Choice (B) does not give any indication as to whether or not the fictional representations lead to a deeper understanding of good and bad.” just like choice (C). 32 . Choices (A). Choice (A) is outside the scope.” and is a Distortion of the first sentence of Paragraph 3. implying that such modernization is in fact detrimental to children’s maturation. with the word “always. (D) is opposite and would undermine the author’s assertion. Choice (A) is a Distortion of the final sentence of the passage. the author suggests that parents may not be able to provide this type of instruction to their own children. 119. B Paragraph 1 lays out the argument that fairy tales present children with conflicts between good and evil. (A) is the opposite of the third sentence in paragraph 2. (B). (B) is the opposite of the last few sentences of paragraph 1. as described in paragraphs 1 and 2. or the wish for eternal life.117. C The final sentences in paragraph 3 attest to the fact that the fairy tale “addresses itself directly to anxieties and fears. 122. which clearly implies that the “dark side” of humanity does exist and should be acknowledged. 118. (D) is too extreme.

stronger regulation. Why does the author mention Freud and his “prescription”? The author is using the reference to state an idea (“major struggles are fundamental to living”) which is central to his own argument about fairy tales. like (C). and greater public understanding of wetland values. in the second and last sentences of the opening paragraph. Paragraph 1 relates the history of wetlands conversion in the mid-19th and mid-20th centuries. D This is a common type of Evaluation question. whereas the author says nothing good about modern stories. it’s simply a view that accords with the author’s. (B) is implied in the final sentence of paragraph 2. Paragraph 2 provides a detailed list of wetlands functions and benefits which have been lost. 124. including both governmental and private efforts to prevent the continued erosion and loss of these environmentally important areas. sounds murky—it just doesn’t fit. but Freud’s prescription is not an analogy. is characteristic of fairy tales. Choice (B) is opposite. The author implies that this second method would be more effective. the author’s purpose is to counterpose Freud’s idea to the dominant cultural attitude. B “Safe” stories paint an overly rosy picture of life. and the Emergency Wetlands Resources Acts is mentioned as an example of a stop-gap acquisition measure that is constrained by the small amount of federal funds allocated for wetlands protection. current protection methods. which contends that “…public health benefits have been lost to agricultural forestry and development enterprises 33 . smacks the nail on the head. (B). Passage VIII (Questions 125–131) Topic and Scope: Threats to wetlands. “Safe” stories don’t deal with problems (A) and they fail to depict struggles between good and evil (C). Paragraph 4 explains why the current approach. 126.” Paragraph 3 discusses the current obstacles to wetland protection laws and programs. (C) may have been tempting. If you were hesitant about (C). based on regional management and prioritization of the most severely-threatened areas. (C) is outside the scope. a paraphrase of the author’s point. 125. and choice (B). is ineffective and offers an alternative strategy. The other choices all sound positive. D The third sentence of paragraph 2 declares that budget concerns cause limits on the acquisition of new wetlands for preservation. By contrast. since the author’s contention is that federal funds are insufficient for wetlands preservation. (D) describes a theme that. using stringent permit guidelines that do not distinguish by wetland types or values. and (B) is a FUD from the second sentence of paragraph 2. that should have been a signal that something was not quite right. and problems with their effectiveness. (D) is clear-cut. No contradiction is being exposed. and which could have been achieved with less wetland loss through “regional planning.123. (A) is inconsistent with the passage. the author suggests. C Choices (A) and (D) are directly mentioned in Paragraph 1.

which declares that “the marketplace does not generally recognize the public benefits of wetlands. The author says the first “will always be limited by severe budget constraints” and will save only “a small percentage” of remaining wetlands. 130. Protection by private developers. 129. Statement III is a Distortion of the first sentence of paragraph 4. (C) is a Distortion of the phrase “Cooperating federal. Statement II is implied in the final sentence of the paragraph.” which suggests that an increase in wetlands purchases by private groups and trusts would benefit wetlands protection. 128. (A) incorrectly focuses on the need for legislation to save American wetland areas. Try not to get bogged down in minutiae. 127. Choices (B) and (C) both contain extreme language (“never” and “only”). the EWRA is an example illustrating the preceding generalization. All these choices are straightforwardly wrong and your only problem should be with their wordiness. For this reason. A Government and private acquisitions are mentioned in paragraph 3. (C) makes a recommendation—further study—that doesn’t appear in the passage. A The author suggests that federal.” (C) is a Distortion of this same sentence since no mention is made of either an increase in rezoning of wetlands nor of the impact of industry on the conversion of wetlands. and FUD of the “stringent permit guidelines” mentioned in the first sentence of the paragraph. (D) sounds okay until the end— the author never suggests that any policy will actually reverse the trend. and that although no “general federal authority” currently exists for the protection of wetlands systems. and to go straight to the key idea—like “reverse” in (D)—that makes each one wrong. C Just after mentioning “severe budget constraints” that limit government acquisition. (D) is halfright and half-wrong. “several authorities” do exist which could develop this conservation plan (last three sentences of paragraph 4). with the phrase “qualitatively important but quantitatively limited. choice (A) is a Distortion of the information in these sentences. (B) is a Distortion of the author’s criticism of the present approach. the author states that the Emergency Wetlands Resources Act (EWRA) allocates “only $40 million per year” in federal funding for wetland purchases. and local interests” and also uses extreme language by claiming that such collaboration is “the only way” to reach the goal of wetlands preservation. The most straightforwardly pessimistic choice (A) is the one you want.” indicating that increased recognition of these benefits might bring about a change in business decisions and behaviors. and local interests need to be considered. The second offers “quantitatively limited” protection. since the author never mentions that any areas of wetlands should be exempt from protective regulations. Although the EWRA is undeniably a piece of 34 . state. which infers that these organizations would cooperate for the purpose of wetlands protection. D The author describes only two strategies for protecting wetlands.” in the first and third sentences of paragraph 4. which is rephrased in choice (C).of all kinds. in paragraph 4. (B) makes a distinction among the three strategies that the passage does not support. C Statement I is implied in the middle of paragraph 3. So. the “present approach” and an “alternative strategy. and the marketplace generally does not favor such an approach. is also treated pessimistically—only “some” developers have tried to combine protection and profit. state. 131.

the author never implies that there’s a widespread perception that wetlands are not worth saving. or that the EWRA would be evidence of it. even outside the scope. and supports this explanation with scientific evidence about the discovery and composition of symbiotic star pairs. composition and development of symbiotic stars. for this particular question. the author never accuses the federal government of interfering with state government efforts. this question is only concerned with a specific reference found in paragraph 4. Paragraph 2 provides a potential explanation for this unusual radiation pattern. Choice (A) is FUD of information in paragraph 4. 132. Paragraph 3 continues to describe the structure of symbiotic stars. but that newer satellite-borne instruments can detect ultraviolet radiation that “cannot be detected by instruments on the ground. (C) is outside the scope because there is no size comparison made in paragraph 4. it is clearly meant to illustrate the problem of inadequate federal funding. which tells us that “the phase must be extremely brief. based on conjecture about other binary systems.” Choice (A) is FUD of the last sentence in paragraph 2—although symbiotic stars do exist outside of our galaxy. B The final sentence of the passage contains the reference to red giants and Mira variables. and not just to giant stars. and concludes with suggestions about the evolutionary course of symbiotic pairs. Paragraph 1 introduces a scientific curiosity—binary star systems whose radiation emission does not fit that pattern of that of other binary stars.” 133.” (B) is a Distortion of the information mentioned in paragraph 2. (B) is way off the mark. since they didn’t really understand what the star formations were.” Without these types of instruments. C Paragraph 2 clearly states that photographic plates only revealed the giant star in a symbiotic pair. Passage IX (Questions 132–137) Topic and Scope: Binary star systems and the discovery. and finishes with a conclusion about the mass of “the original cloud from which a symbiotic system is formed. Choice (D) is similarly misleading. perhaps as short as a million years. (D) is FUD of the sentence in paragraph 4 that tells us there is a “comparatively small number of known symbiotics in our galaxy. scientists were unable to study symbiotic stars.legislation. which declares that the “evolutionary course of a binary system is predetermined”—this sentence refers to binary systems in general. not the lack of helpful environmental legislation per se. as the answer choice does. Paragraph 4 presents some theories about the development of symbiotic stars. so anything from other parts of the passage is incorrect. Although paragraph 4 says the marketplace generally fails to recognize the benefits of wetlands. And (D) is a Distortion of the previous sentence in paragraph 4. and concludes with the possibility that symbiotic stars may mark a brief phase in the evolution of certain binary systems. 35 .

” so that binary stars must begin inside this cloud. for dangers of radiation are not mentioned in the passage. 137. (D) is a Distortion of the first sentence of the passage. (C) is stated in the second sentence of paragraph 3. A Paragraph 2 described the structure of symbiotic stars. (B) is outside the scope as well. (C) is FUD. (C) is a Distortion of parts of paragraphs 3 and 4.” (C) is a Distortion of the second sentence of paragraph 4. not that all binary systems do so.” 136. A Paragraph 4 tells us that the course of a binary system is “predetermined by the initial mass and angular momentum of the gas cloud within which binary stars are born. (D) is a Distortion of the previous sentence in paragraph 3. which is described in the final sentence of paragraph 3. since the mention of the nova does not prove the existence of matter transfer. D Paragraph 3 ends with a concluding sentence indicating that “Symbiotic stars may therefore represent a transitory phase in the evolution of certain types of binary systems. since the contrast made between symbiotic stars and other binary stars occurs earlier in paragraphs 1 and 2. Choice (B) is stated at the end of paragraph 1. which has both mass and motion.134. and (D) is stated at the first sentence of paragraph 4. since the usefulness of research methods is never discussed. 135. which tells us only that there are “several hundred million binary systems estimated…and thus theoretically detectable on sky-survey photographs…”. the answer choice here is formulated as a statement of fact. whereas the original sentence in the passage is much less certain. which mentions “transfer of matter from the larger partner to the smaller. B The “recurrent outburst of a nova” are used as a comparison to the outbursts that occur with symbiotic stars as a way of explaining a certain process observed in the latter that is similar to a well-documented and understood process that occurs with a nova. Again. Choice (A) is outside the scope for this question. for this sentence actually is a hypothetical—“if all binaries of modest mass normally pass through a symbiotic phase in their evolution…”—and the answer choice does not contain this all-important word “if” but instead turns this hypothetical statement into a definitive fact.” not around each other. Likewise.” Choice (A) is outside the scope. 36 . which together “travel around a common center. Choice (B) is a Distortion of the final sentence of paragraph 3. which claims only that symbiotic stars emit flares. and uses extreme language with the terms “all” and “must.

A 148. B 140. D 178. B 187. D 164. B 183. B 150. C 139. D 149. B 206. C 208. C 160. C 166. B 141. A 165. D 199. D 168. C 211. B 151. A 153. A 152. D 144. C 190. B 37 . D 161. C 186. A 188. C 169. B 163. A 210. B 185. A 180. D 179. C 177. A 182. C 172. C 204. D 189. B 198. D 145. D 162. C 192. B 167. C 157. B 200. C 212. A 197. B 156. D 201. C 181. B 191. D 194. C 205. B 203. D 142. D 213. D 207. A 171. D 184. B 214. B 147. C 175. B 158. B 195. A 209. B 155. A 143. A 170. D 154. C 202. D 196.BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES ANSWER KEY 138. A 173. D 174. A 193. C 159. A 146. A 176.

141. thus. Lastly. the dendrites are the receivers of inter-neuronal transmission. however. second is the jejunum. The nervous system can also be divided into those cells that relate sensory information from the internal or external environment (afferent neurons) and those that bring reflexive or processed information to the effectors (such as muscle) in response to the sen38 . Recall that the small intestine is composed of three segments— first the duodenum. and third is the ileum. which is composed of all parts of the nervous system outside the brain and spinal cord proper. which would both affect earlier steps and which could both be bypassed by this supplement. The passage states that cobalamin deficiency causes demyelination. is correct. Both the autonomic and somatic divisions are subsets of the peripheral nervous system. though it is indispensable in the absorption of lipids and other nutrients. is not a necessary component of this process. and the ileum is where the cobalamin-IF complex is actually absorbed. this unmyelinated space is obviously not a site of demyelination. D Control of involuntary muscle groups falls within the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system. however. The same holds for choices (C) and (D). choice (A). So a supplement such as the proposed one would treat cobalamin deficiency due to this disorder. Myelin acts to insulate the axon and allow increased speed of propagation of an action potential down a given axon. choice (B). and choice (D) is incorrect. Thus.) Also. would not allow for the proper environment for both the release of cobalamin from its complex with food components and the binding of cobalamin with R-protein. 140. affect the other major factor—synaptic transmission of a message from neuron-to-neuron. B Recall that myelin is a major factor in the speed of neuronal transmission. C Theoretically. choice (A). Remember that every enzyme has optimal conditions (pH. Pernicious anemia is briefly mentioned at the end of the passage and is characterized by absent or deficient IF. The nodes of Ranvier are the areas of the axon between the myelinated segments which are devoid of myelin. Bile. The question describes an experiment being done at a site of the peripheral nervous system. which then connects to the first part of the colon. recall that myelin is composed of one type of cell in the peripheral nervous system—the Schwann cell. not choice (A). and a different cell type in the central nervous system— the oligodendrocyte. without which the enzymatic dissociation of the cobalamin-R-binder complex would not be possible. choice (D) which controls only voluntary muscle action. a person with a transcobalamin deficiency would still suffer from a lack of cobalamin despite such a supplementation. choice (B). (It does not.Passage I (Questions 138–143) 138. So choice (B) would also affect the absorption of cobalamin since the pancreas is a major source of the bicarbonate that allows for an alkaline environment in the duodenum. B A person given this supplement would only depend on the latter steps discussed in the first paragraph of this passage. one would still require both an absorptive surface (ileum) with the specific receptor and transcobalamin to transport the absorbed vitamin to the liver and red blood cells. there is no mention of a defect of synaptic transmission in cobalamin deficiency. medication that inhibits the production of gastric acid. Choice (D) would result in a person without an ileum. as opposed to the somatic division. temperature) under which it operates. choice (A) is incorrect. so you can assume that slower transmission in this case is due to a defect of the myelinating cells of the peripheral nervous system. thus choice (C) is incorrect. 139. and choice (B) is correct.

C. A Le Châtelier’s Principle states that if reactant is added. more soluble units. Removing water by another method. Therefore. G. (i. Think of the alphabet: “a before e” to help remember this sequence. and a peak at 2800 cm–1 indicates a C-H stretch. This suggests that water is present which agrees with the O-H stretch. D A sharp peak at 1735 cm–1 is indicative of a carbonyl. Thus. Isoamyl acetate is hydrophobic and will not dissolve in aqueous solution. will also work. thus. However. In this case. Addition of water would. which break down the lipids further into free fatty acids. These peaks would be present both in isoamyl acetate and in acetic acid. respectively. acetic acid would not be present in the final solution because the student extracted the reaction mixture with sodium bicarbonate. or the DNA segment with the most T’s and C’s. The passage states that the student forgot to dry the compound with anyhdrous sodium sulfate. the product removed must be water. The resulting salt (acetate) is water-soluble and so will be separated from the hydrophobic product. Choice C is incorrect because DNA is made of the four bases A. Communication to the sphincter muscles described in the question stem is via efferent neurons by definition. T. in fact.sory information gathered (efferent neurons). acetic acid will be deprotonated because it is the only acid in solution. D Lipid digestion begins once food reaches the small intestine. the reaction will be driven to product. the reaction will be driven to product. Similarly. choice (A). the stomach has no role in this process. A Recall that the purines are adenine (A) and guanine (G)—“PURe As Gold. if product is removed. uracil (U) is only found in RNA. replace “water” with “isopentyl alcohol and acetic acid) 146. the compound giving rise to the carbonyl and C-H stretches is most likely isoamyl acetate. Isoamyl acetate cannot be distilled from the solution because isopentyl alcohol and acetic acid would distill with it. Choices B and D also have some T’s and C’s. such as by adding a dehydrating material. These emulsified units are then acted on by lipases from the pancreas. 142. but much fewer than the segment given as choice A. if one product is to be removed by distillation. B Sodium bicarbonate is a base and will consequently deprotonate an acid. Passage II (Questions 144–149) 144.” The transcription process that will be most affected will be the one that must produce mRNA from the most A’s and G’s. The wide boiling point range and the presence of an OH stretch (broad band at 3200 cm–1) indicate the presence of some impurity. Fatty acids can then be absorbed by the cells lining the small intestine. choice (B).e. 39 . choice (C). efferent neurons could be involved in this effect of cobalamin deficiency. choice A is correct. The boiling point of isoamyl acetate is ~140°C according to the passage. 145. is secreted into the first part of the small intestine (the duodenum) where it begins to emulsify and break down lipids into smaller. Bile produced by the liver. For this reason. The boiling point of water is 100°C. 143. drive the reaction toward formation of products. Isopentyl alcohol is completely used in the reaction because it is the limiting reagent (remember acetic acid is used in excess!).

aldosterone. and therefore glucagon will not cross the lipid bilayer. on the other hand. Esterification is an addition-elimination reaction so no carbocation is formed (eliminate choice (C)) and an SN1 reaction does not take place (eliminate choice (D)). the Na+/K+ pump will slow down the rate of ion exchange. then we apply the reaction to the compound. Again. Compounds that exhibit the most hydrogen bonding have the highest boiling points. Of the answer choices given. 149. It occurs automatically. It will therefore distill first. thereby lowering intracellular osmolarity. testosterone. Acetyl chloride would not be found in the reaction mixture because it was not used in this reaction. Lipid-soluble hormones. Choices (C) and (D) are incorrect because both channels dissipate the function of the pump. isopentyl alcohol is unlikely. Alcohols have more hydrogen bonding than esters (alcohols have an O-H group. causing it to consume more ATP. First. B Glucagon is the only hormone that is not lipid-soluble like steroid hormones. Placement of an animal cell into a hypertonic environment creates a tendency for water to leak out of the cell because of high extracellular osmolarity. which are derived from cholesterol. A The carbonyl carbon is electrophilic (eliminate choice (B)). B This question is essentially asking which compound has the lowest boiling point and which the highest. Water-soluble hormones require membrane receptors in order to conduct the signal. 152. Noctyl alcohol has the highest boiling point and will distill last. Also suspect acetic acid because it is used in excess in the reaction. 148. Water usually does not appear in nmr spectra. and if it does it is a very broad peak due to extensive hydrogen bonding. since a hypertonic solution around the cell would decrease the concentration gradient such that there would be a significantly lower draw on ions to leave the cell. D An extreme shift such as 11. The rate at which this 40 .147. To prevent water loss from the cell. Note that this process has nothing to do with “need”. except with a different alkene. thereby maintaining cellular osmolarity.2 ppm is likely due to a carboxylic acid such as acetic acid. 151. Choice (B) is incorrect because a hypotonic medium outside the cell will increase the rate of ATP entry. A The net effect of the Na+/K+ pump is to transport one ion out of the cell. because it is the limiting reagent in the reaction and because the hydroxyl hydrogen in most alcohols is usually found around 5-6 ppm. esters do not). and estrogen are all lipid-soluble steroid hormones. The electron-withdrawing effects of the chloride ion make the carbonyl more electrophilic than acetic acid making it more susceptible to nucleophilic attack by the alcohol. Octane clearly has the least hydrogen bonding and so has the lowest boiling point. We recognize that the reaction is similar to the one depicted in Equation 4. those with the least hydrogen bonding have the lowest boiling points. Passage III (Questions 150–154) 150. can cross the lipid bilayer and bind to cytoplasmic or nuclear receptors. A The passage states that the small bleached region regains its fluorescence after the fluorescently labeled molecules exchange places with bleached molecules. we need to determine the correct structure.

When K+ exits the vesicle. 157. This occurs because it is energetically unfavorable to insert a finished protein molecule into the membrane and the cell meets the challenge by inserting the protein into the membrane as it is being synthesized. It will thus take longer for the bleached region to recover if proteins are labeled instead of lipids. not just bradykinin. the rate of lipid exchange is greater than the rate of protein exchange. Choice (B) is correct. Among the given answer choices. i. Choice (B) presents a model where pain mediated by a broad range of stimuli. lowering the overall charge of the vesicle’s interior. Choice (B) is correct. Since the lipids diffuse faster than proteins. 154. B The key to answering this question is realization that G protein-coupled receptors are transmembrane protein molecules and thus must be synthesized by ribosomes associated with the endoplasmic reticulum. C Since selective bradykinin antagonists block pain mediated only by bradykinin.. will be diminished. During their transfer from one layer of the bilayer to the other. lysosomal or excreted proteins. This means that if adenylyl cyclase is constitutively active then nociceptive response will be diminished. Choice (C) is correct. one can deduce that adenylyl cyclase is one of the enzymes that mediates dampening of the nociceptive response. An enzyme catalyzes a reaction by lowering its activation energy.e. 153. Choice (D) is correct. one must presume that pain mediated by other molecules such as ATP and protons must be intact. choice (C) presents a model where only pain mediated by bradykinin will be inhibited. Since the question stem indicates that adenylyl cyclase is activated in response to binding of endogenous stimuli to the G protein-coupled receptors. while the elements that are used only by bradykinin can be inhibited. B Since valinomycin permits passive transport of K+ across a membrane. Incorrect answer choices can be eliminated using the knowledge that enzymes do not modify the free energy or the enthalpy of reactants and products. which essentially means lowering the potential energy of the transition state intermediate. B The passage states that activation of the G protein-coupled receptors leads to an activation of a signaling pathway that dampens nociceptive response. 156. Choice (B) is incorrect because destabilization of lipid molecules before their transfer means that the free energy or the enthalpy of the reactants is raised. Ribosomes that are associated with ER synthesize all proteins that have to cross the membrane. The correct answer is (B). Passage IV (Questions 155–160) 155.exchange occurs is directly dependent on the diffusion rate of the fluorescently labeled molecules. lipid molecules represent the transition state from reactants (lipids on one side) to products (lipids on the other side). D To answer this question one must be familiar with the mechanism of enzyme action.g. e. The elements of the pain transduction pathway that are shared by bradykinin and other pain producing stimuli must thus be operating. transmembrane. the response to the endogenous pain stimuli will be reduced. K+ moves down its concentration gradient and out of the vesicle. Choices (A) and (D) can be eliminated because in both scenarios pain will be augmented rather than inhibited. Choice (A) is incorrect because if lipid molecules were stabilized after their transfer then the free energy or enthalpy of products would be lowered. it carries a positive charge.. 41 . The answer is choice (A).

Since oxaloacetate is the molecule regenerated at the end of the citric acid cycle. chemical or mechanical stimuli. Choices (B) and (D) are unsupported by the passage. Among the listed answer choices all but choice (C) present a scenario that will actually lead to activation of the postsynaptic neurons. because the chromatids have not yet separated. Choice (A) is incorrect because the free radical is on the same carbon as the bromine. Choice (B) is incorrect because the bromine is missing from the intermediate. Choice (C) is correct.158. describes a mechanism that can explain the inhibitory effect of opiates. D The passage states that G protein-coupled receptors are involved in dampening of the nociceptive signaling in response to endogenous pain stimuli. will lead to an increase in the number of excitatory neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft. C The action of opiates must account for the inhibition of postsynaptic neurons in the spinal cord. This indicates that the threshold for activating nociceptors in response to various stimuli is reduced under acidic conditions. B During the S phase. D Oxaloacetate is the molecule regenerated at the end of the citric acid cycle. Thus if the G protein-coupled receptors are blocked the sensation of pain will be increased rather than diminished. choice (C). Oxaloacetate combines with acetyl CoA. D Hydrogen bromide adds to alkenes in the presence of peroxides with a regioselectivity opposite to that predicted by Markovnikov’s rule. Choice (C) is correct. on the other hand. produced during pyruvate decarboxylation to form citrate. thereby stimulating postsynaptic neurons. the cells are still 2N. is the molecule that precedes oxaloacetate in the citric acid cycle. Choice (D) is correct. 163. 2N. Choice (C) is incorrect because the more substituted (Markovnikov) addition product would be formed. 160. Choices (A) and (B). protons augment nociceptor activation by thermal. opiates activate sodium channels. 42 . choice (A). anti-Markovnikov addition is observed and the less-substituted alkyl bromide is the major product. choice (B). Thus choice (B). The intermediate formed has the structure shown in choice (D). Inhibition of cation channels in postsynaptic neurons can prevent activation of those neurons in response to excitatory stimuli. choice (D) is correct. is correct. This mechanism is also described in the passage for the dampening of nociceptive signaling in response to pain producing stimuli. Discrete Questions (Questions 161–164) 161. the thermal stimulus generated by an actively respiring muscle can be augmented by acidity and become sufficiently strong to activate nociceptive neurons. even at the end of the S phase. Although the cell contains twice as much genetic materials as it did prior to the S phase. Thus. which inevitably leads to depolarization of the postsynaptic neurons. The reaction is a free-radical chain process in which a bromine atom adds to the double bond in the first propagation step. Choice (C). each chromosome is replicated to produce two identical sister chromatids joined by a centromere. Choice (A) is incorrect because the passage states that protons can directly activate nociceptive neurons only at pH values lower than 6. for example. 162. Malate. C The passage states that below pH 7. 159. In choice (D).

Conjugation is the temporary joining of two organisms via a tube called a pilus. Choice (A) is the correct answer. Attack at any position leads to a carbocation with at least three resonance structures. Resonance generally dominates. As in all other mechanisms. Mitosis is the process of cellular division that results in the formation of two daughter cells that are genetically identical to each other and to the parent cell. The best carbocation in the ortho and para cases is tertiary. through which genetic material is exchanged. Electron-donating groups are therefore termed ortho/para directors. Thus the order of attack when X = CH3 or any other electron-donating group is: para (most) > ortho > meta (least). Based on carbocation stability. Passage V (Questions 165–170) 165. Transcription is the process whereby information coded in the base sequence of DNA is transcribed into a strand of mRNA.) Since the electrophilic attack affords a carbocation. so the process of transcription requires the presence of uracil. (If the X group can share lone pairs through resonance then the ortho and para carbocations can have a fourth resonance structure. Two major factors influence this.) The X group disfavors attack at the ortho position because it is more crowded than the meta or para positions. In the specific example of this question.164. is an electron-donating group. (An example of an overriding factor would be the C-H/C-LG periplanar requirement for the E2 reaction. while the best carbocation in the meta case is secondary. RNA contains the nucleotide uracil (U) rather than thymine (T). X = CH3. the attack leading to the most stable carbocation is favored. we predict attack at the ortho and para positions to be favored over meta attack. C The isomer of the product that is formed is controlled by the position of attack of the electrophile on the benzene ring. a mechanism step proceeds to give the most stable product if there are no other overriding factors. A Uracil is a nucleotide found only in RNA. Translation is the process whereby mRNA codons are translated into a sequence of amino acids. further improving their stability over the meta carbocation. Ortho attack: X E+ X H E + + X H E X + H E Meta attack: X E+ H X + E H + E + H E X X Para attack: X X X + + E+ E H E H E H + X 43 . so the carbocation stability issue is more important than the steric effect.

the bromine may be sufficiently electrophilic by itself. but not from meta attack. thus increasing the amount of positive charge on the bromine by decreasing its electron density. factors which make the benzene ring a better nucleophile will increase the rate of reaction (e-donating groups also produce more stable cations). For EAS. 168. it destabilizes an adjacent carbocation by increasing the net positive charge on that carbon.) Choice (D) is incorrect because AlBr3 is regenerated in the reaction. (In cases where an arenium ion with a full octet resonance structure is produced. UV light). CH3 CH3 CH3 + Br 3Al Br Br Br H Br AlBr 3 Br HBr + AlBr3 CH3 CH3 Br H Br H 167. This is the first step of the mechanism shown. D Reaction rate is controlled by the rate-determining step (rds) of the mechanism. B Electrophilic attack on the benzene ring disrupts aromaticity and forms a carbocation. When X is a electron-withdrawing group. This occurs in the carbocations resulting from ortho and para attack. thus. Rather.g. this step is attack of the electrophile on the aromatic ring. A more powerful electrophile is needed. HBr is the byproduct. The AlBr3 serves to increase the electrophilicity of the bromine by strongly polarizing the Al-Br bond. NO2 is an e-withdrawing group and thus nitrobenzene (III) is a weaker nucleophile than benzene (IV). This is the rds because aromaticity is sacrificed. CH3 is a weaker e-donating group than OCH3. Molecular bromine is not sufficiently electrophilic to overcome aromaticity. choice (A) is incorrect. Since the rds involves electrophilic attack. Electron-withdrawing groups are termed meta directors. The halogen dissociates to produce halogen atoms and then the halogen atoms initiate chains by abstracting hydrogens of the methyl group: 44 . and thus requires a powerful electrophile. The OCH3 group is a strong e-donating group which increases the e-density of the benzene ring making it a better nucleophile. In this case the order of attack is meta > para > ortho.166. C Side-chain halogenation takes place under conditions that favor the formation of radicals (e.

This provides a significant driving force for deprotonation over capture of chloride ion. Capture of a proton does not restore aromaticity whereas deprotonation does. Step 2 involves deprotonation and restoration of aromaticity which produces a product much more stable than the carbocation intermediate. Choices (A) and (D) are incorrect because. Answer B is correct. The rate determining step is the first step which involves electrophic attack and carbocation formation. H2OBr+ is a stronger electrophile (better able to accept electrons) because the bromine bears a positive charge (it is electron deficient). The benzyl radical then reacts with a halogen molecule to produce a benzyl halide and a halogen atom. H2OBr+ is an ion and is therefore highly soluble in H2O compared with Br2 (Answer D incorrect). The purpose of AlBr3 is to increase the electrophilic nature of Br2 by polarizing the Br-Br bond. Thus choice (A) is correct. Thus. If Choice (C) were correct. H2O is an excellent leaving group. whereas many aryl halides are UV-sensitive. 169. Also. exposure to UV light over short periods of time wouldn’t lead to significant decomposition. A In an EAS reaction. the rate-determining step is electrophilic attack on the benzene ring (not deprotonation of the aromatic ring) because it results in loss of aromaticity.Step 1: Br2 UV light 2 Br Step 2: Chain Propagation CH3 + Br Benzyl radical Step 3: CH2 + Benzyl radical Br2 Benzyl halide CH2Br + Br CH2 + HBr Abstraction of a halogen from the methyl group of toluene produces a benzyl radical. Steps 2 and 3 repeat. This automatically eliminates choices (B) and (C) which are potential energy diagrams for one-step reactions. 45 . and more stable than the starting materials since the reaction proceeds spontaneously. A The mechanism of an EAS reaction involves two steps. the carbocation intermediate must capture a nucleophilic bromide ion instead of losing a proton. 170.

Choice (A) is correct. 15 mmol/L of pure isomer will be required to have the same effect. 173. In contrast. The correct answer is choice (C). Thus during hemolysis. Since 30 mmol/L of racemic D. it allows intracellular components to mix with plasma. 46 . A The last sentence of the passage states that the L stereoisomer was responsible for all or most of the antiglycolytic activity of the racemic mixture. D The beginning of the third paragraph states that D. it diffuses into plasma. Since fluoride causes hemolysis. the plasma concentration of K+ will be raised significantly.L-glyceraldehyde. Choices (A). D. Choice (C) is not only unsupported by the passage.8 – 3 = 1. Choice (A) is incorrect because Na+ is present mostly in the plasma.L-glyceraldehyde increased the rate of glucose synthesis then an analysis would provide an overestimate of plasma glucose concentration thus rendering D.L-glyceraldehyde will have 50% or 15 mmol/L of the L isomer. Choice (B) is incorrect because if D. The average rate of disappearance is simply the slope of the line and is equal to (1.L-glyceraldehyde is an antiglycolytic agent and one can infer that it will inhibit a glycolytic enzyme. Potassium is found in high concentration inside cells and in low concentration outside cells due to the action of Na+/K+ ATPase. D. 174. Choice (D) is incorrect because after bicarbonate ion is made inside red blood cells. vecuronium competes but does not cause a depolarization and is classified as a competitive inhibitor. but also incorrect because if D.8 mmol. The net change of glucose concentration was thus 4.L-glyceraldehyde on blood after it was collected from patients. C To answer this question correctly you must know the relative intracellular and plasma concentration of various components in the blood.Lglyceraldehyde unsuitable as preserving agent.L-glyceraldehyde is an antiglycolytic agent the last thing it will do is increase the rate of glycolysis.Passage VI (Questions 171–175) 171. This corresponds with answer choice (A).L-glyceraldehyde are significantly different from those obtained from blood with no additives.L-glyceraldehyde will thus have no influence on insulin secretion by the pancreas. A From Figure 1. Passage VII (Questions 176–180) 176. (B) and (D) are incorrect because for urea. calcium and potassium there is almost no difference in concentration values obtained with and without D. thereby raising plasma concentration of intracellular components. 172.L-glyceraldehyde will thus interfere with measurements of creatinine. C Succinylcholine competes with acetylcholine for the receptor (paragraph 2) and causes a depolarization (activator). 175. Choice (B) is incorrect because albumin is a plasma protein. C Table 1 shows that creatinine concentration values for blood treated with D.8 to 3 mmol/L in 8 hours. Choice (A) is incorrect because the passage is discussing the effects of D. you can see that glucose concentration changes from approximately 4.8 mmol/L)/8 hr which is approximately 1/4.

choice (A). It is the channels remaining open that causes the subsequent paralysis. one alkene has fewer substituents than the other. Differentiation between statements I and II is impossible without further experimentation. would not allow the impulse to be transmitted to the skeletal muscle cells. the very binding of succinylcholine causes a depolarization. Alkene A has three substituents while alkene B has only two. The atoms are bonded in the same manner but have different arrangements in space. Choice (A) is incorrect because configurational isomers are stereoisomers (enantiomers or diastereomers). The correct answer is choice (D). leaving only elements related to signal transmission (statements I and II). Passage VIII (Questions 181–186) 181. Choices (A) and (C) are signs of increases in sympathetic activity. the muscle cell contraction apparatus must be intact. A The alkene in choice (A) is favored over that of choice (B) since it has more substituents on the double bond. choice (C). severing motor neural axons. B 2-Methyl-2-butene and 2-methyl-1-butene are constitutional isomers. Choice (C) is incorrect because although succinylcholine does bind and prevent ACh from binding. Choice (D) is incorrect because relative product distribution can be predicted according to the alkene substitution pattern.177. 178. However. within the muscle cells would prevent calcium binding to troponin. Choice (D) is incorrect because diastereomers are configurational isomers or stereoisomers. D Loss of the acetylcholine receptors. 47 . this will cause the actin-binding site to remain covered. in each case. C This experiment suggests that curare interferes with transmission of the signal to contract rather than contraction itself. 182. Choice (B) is incorrect because atropine (a parasympathetic blocker) would not be expected to interfere with edrophonium’s neuromuscular effects. As in spinal cord injury. The two alkenes have the same molecular formulas but the atoms are bonded in different arrangements. 180. 179. This rules out any elements of this apparatus (statement III). D Decreased heart rate and increased salivation are signs of parasympathetic activity. would also prevent impulse transmission. Because the muscle is able to contract with an external electrical depolarization. A Succinylcholine binds to the receptor and causes a depolarization (paragraph 2). Choices (B) and (C) are incorrect since. Succinylcholine depolarizes muscle cells individually as the succinylcholine reaches them. or choice (C). edrophonium increases parasympathetic activity (paragraph 4). Downregulating the acetylcholinesterase gene would result in hyperexcitation rather than paralysis. choice (B). molecules cannot be transformed into one another by rotation around single bonds. Choice (C) is incorrect because the alkenes have different substituents and consequently are formed in different amounts. The stability of an alkene is directly related to the number of substituents. The correct answer is I and II only. The correct answer is choice (A). Choice (D) is incorrect since conformers have different arrangements of atoms in a molecule according to rotation around single bonds. Preventing calcium ion release. Choice (D) is false because succinylcholine cannot cross the blood-brain barrier (paragraph 1) and would not suppress brain activity. Choice (B) describes allosteric binding (induced fit type).

When the electrons are more loosely held the atom is more polarizable and its electrons are more easily shared. Rather. This higher (not lower) basicity also significantly contributes to the product outcome. Discrete Questions (Questions 187–191) 187. The more electronegative species has a tighter hold on its electrons and does not share them as easily. Thus. The nucleophilic power of the cyanide ion would be reduced thus slowing the reaction. unimolecular) mechanisms indicate. and formamide have hydrogens that participate in hydrogen bonding and solvate the nucleophile. Polarizability is directly related to the magnitude of the force with which the electrons are attracted to the nucleus. (B) and (D) are incorrect because water. which forms a firm but elastic matrix to form cartilage. The solvent has no protons to participate in hydrogen bonding and. never a combination of the two. dilated ends of the bone. cylindrical shaft in between the epiphyses. Steric considerations reveal that removal of a proton to form the elimination product is achieved more easily than attack of the electrophilic carbon center to give the substitution product.183. In larger atoms. the electrons of the anion are more easily shared than those of the neutral compound. bimolecular). Epiphyses aren’t actually cells. the outer electrons are further from the positively-charged nucleus and so are less tightly held. Therefore. B An anion is a better nucleophile than the corresponding neutral compound since the electrons on the anion are not as tightly held. Choices (A). Choice (C) is incorrect since larger atoms are better nucleophiles. 184. Osteoblasts are the cells that help build bone and function antagonistically to osteoclasts. nucleophilic. bimolecular). methanol. which are the cells that help break down bone. A Chondrocytes are the specialized cells that secrete chondrin. 186. Choice (A) is incorrect since tert-butoxide ion is actually much more basic than methoxide ion. The electrons are more easily shared and so the atom is a better nucleophile. The diaphysis is the long. Choice (A) is incorrect since the reaction does not proceed through a carbocation intermediate as SN1 substitution (substitution. D The reaction is a second-order reaction that proceeds in one step. aprotic solvent. they are the rounded. Choice (A) is incorrect because a more electronegative species is less nucleophilic. C The best solvent choice is dimethylformamide since it is a polar. and the elimination product (the alkene) is formed via an E2 mechanism (elimination. nucleophilic. Choices (B) and (C) are incorrect because substitution and elimination reactions are either both unimolecular or both bimolecular. unimolecular) and E1 (elimination. 185. consequently. 1-Bromooctadecyl bromide is a primary halide that reacts with a good nucleophile (ethoxide ion) through a transition state involving a pentacoordinted carbon atom. Choice (D) is incorrect since the more polarizable a species is. Choice (C) is incorrect because the time and temperature differences are minimal when compared to the steric and basicity differences of the nucleophiles. the nucleophile (cyanide ion) is not solvated and is therefore a much more powerful nucleophile. B The tert-Butoxide ion is very bulky when compared to the methoxide ion. choice (A) is correct. The substitution product (the ether) is formed via an SN2 mechanism (substitution. the more nucleophilic it is. 48 .

while a male who is a hemophiliac has a genotype of XhY. C CH3CH2CH NCH3 + H2O Electron withdrawal stabilizes the conjugate base of a carboxylic acid. that is the job of memory B cells. 1 X+Y. T cells are not. responsible for recognizing antigen upon secondary exposure to it. 190. D Helper T cells activate B cells and other T cells through the secretion of lymphokines. The proximity of the electron-withdrawing group to the carboxyl group determines the degree of stabilization of the carboxylate ion. not an imine. Rather. Choice (D) is correct. and 1/2 are hemophiliacs. 189. Thus. 1 XhY. Carbinolamines are intermediates in the formation of imines. but their job is to proliferate and produce a large number of cytotoxic T cells upon secondary exposure. 1/2 are carriers of the gene for hemophilia. This corresponds with answer choice (C). Utilizing a Punnett square. and I is the strongest acid. C If the normal X chromosome is denoted by X+. having a chlorine on the carbon. OH CH3CH2CHNHCH3 191. Cytotoxic T cells destroy foreign antigens. 1 XhXh. Choice (C) is an enamine. O CH3CH2CH + CH3NH2 CH3CH2CH NCH3 Choice (A) is incorrect because it is an amine. B Imines are formed from the reaction of an aldehyde or ketone and a primary amine. Suppressor T cells downregulate B and T cell activity against antigens. 49 . Choice (D) is a carbinolamine. and thus the acidity of a carboxylic acid is increased by the presence of an electron-withdrawing group such as chlorine. Acid III. 50% of the female children of a hemophilia carrier female and a hemophiliac male will be hemophiliacs. Thus the conjugate base of acid I is stabilized to the greatest extent. however. There is a class of memory T cells.188. is stronger than acid II where there is no chlorine present. formed by the reaction of an aldehyde or ketone with a secondary amine. a female who is a carrier for hemophilia has a genotype of X+Xh. the carbinolamine in choice D would spontaneously lose water to form the imine in the correct answer (B). of the female children. The imine in the correct answer choice (B) is formed by the reaction of propanal and methylamine. it may be determined that the genotypes of their offspring are 1 X+Xh. the carboxylate ion. Thus. and the X chromosome with the gene for hemophilia is denoted by Xh.

one can see that the second phase occurs earlier and earlier in time until curve D. 193. Hence. The first part of the adaptation curve demonstrates a predominance of cone adaptation. as demonstrated by the lower threshold. the curve demonstrating the greatest increase in sensitivity is also the curve showing the greatest drop in threshold. Based on the definition of threshold intensity. The graphs show a total sensitivity that is defined by the most sensitive photoreceptor. In other words. which shows the greatest reduction in threshold intensity between 0 and 40 minutes after the onset of darkness. At high pre-adapting intensities. the cones are at first more sensitive than cones but become less after the cone-rod break. but takes over after 10 minutes and achieves a higher sensitivity. note that this does not mean that cones do not adapt at low pre-adapting intensities (or that rods do not adapt at high pre-adapting intensities). (C). The correct answer is choice (D). The answer is curve A. choice (A) is too much of a generalization to be a correct statement. one should deduce that the threshold is inversely proportional to sensitivity. at low pre-adapting intensities. rod sensitivity is dominant during the second phase of the adaptation. A Choices (B). D Such a subject lacks functional cones. 195. thus showing a rod-cone break at the inflection point. Though the absolute sensitivity of rods may be higher. cones are more sensitive than rods in bright conditions. 194. Choice (A) is incorrect because sensitivity of the photoreceptor depends on the lighting condition (cones are more sensitive in bright light) or time in the dark during dark adaptation (cones are more sensitive at first but becomes less sensitive over time). D Based on the first paragraph of the passage. A Based on paragraph 2 of the passage. however. An absolute threshold is indeed reached such that any darker light is simply imperceptible by the human eye under any lighting conditions. which is faster than rod adaptation. The results of the experiment. If you understand that the first phase of adaptation is the cone-dominant phase. we learned that cones are more active in brighter conditions and rods are more active in darker conditions. at which point there is no longer a visible cone adaptation phase. B As explained above. the rods are more sensitive so the curve follows rod sensitivity. Another way to tackle this question is to see that all the curves with the exception of curve D have an inflection point. 50 . we know that dark adaptation involves an increase in sensitivity.Passage IX (Questions 192–196) 192. Rod adaptation occurs more slowly. show a descending threshold curve. and (D) are all correct in this question. Therefore. We are also told in the final paragraph that there is a dominance of cone sensitivity above the rod-cone break (the first phase) and a dominance of rod sensitivity at intensities below the break (the second phase). you should realize that a person without cones will only have the roddominant phase of adaptation. 196. However. The passage does not suggest that only one kind of photoreceptor is responsive at different light intensities. as suggested by choices (C) and (D). As the curves proceed from A to D (with lower pre-adapting intensities).

Qualitative tests rule out acetaminophen as the identity of the unknown.Passage X (Questions 197–202) 197. the acetaminophen reacts with carbonate to form the corresponding phenoxide ion: HO–C6H4–NH–COCH3 + CO32– –O–C H –NH–COCH 6 4 3 + HCO3– The phenoxide then acts as the nucleophile in the SN2 reaction with ethyl iodide to form phenacetin: –O–C H –NH–COCH 6 4 3 + CH3CH2I CH3CH2–O–C6H4–NH–COCH3 + I– 199. CH3 H C CH3 Ibuprofen CH2 CH3 CH * O HO 51 . Of the compounds in Table 1. therefore choice (D) is possible. The only explanation consistent with the qualitative test results is choice (B). The presence of excess H2O in the sample would cause a lowering of the melting point. Salicylic acid (mp 156-158°C) is the hydrolysis product of acetylsalicylic acid. B The narrow melting point range obtained for the recrystallized sample suggests the unknown is a pure compound (Choice (A) incorrect). B A chiral carbon has four different groups attached to it. D CH3 The mechanism for the Williamson ether synthesis is an SN2 reaction involving two steps: Initially. however (negative Hinsberg Test for 2º amine) so choice (D) must be incorrect. The IUPAC name for Ibuprofen is (±)-2-(␳isobutyl phenyl) propionic acid. Ibuprofen is the only one that contains a chiral center. 198. OH O O Salicylic acid Choice (C) is incorrect because esters are more prone to hydrolysis than amines.

The passage states the Hinsberg Test is conducted in aqueous base. 2° or 3°. does the Hinsberg test give different VISIBLE results depending on whether an amine is 1°. Because of the heterogeneous nature of this system.200. You should recognize that the sulfonamide derivative of a 1° amine will be acidic and will dissolve in aqueous base. D This question is asking if the Hinsberg method is useful for identifying an amine as either 1°. acidic hydrogen H R N H Cl O S O NaOH HCl R H N O S O 1o amine H2O NaOH H R N O S O HCl NaCl R Na N O S O water-insoluble (precipitate) water-soluble salt (clear solution) 52 . but this rapidly breaks down to liberate the original 3° amine. So the correct answer is choice (D). As shown in the following equations. whereas 3° amines do not give any isolable products other than the starting amine. Recall the chemistry of amines and decide when (and if) precipitates will form. In other words. The amine immediately reacts if it is 1° or 2° with the resulting HCl being neutralized by the base. Acidification of this solution will then precipitate the sulfonamide of a 1° amine. The passage tells you that sulfonamide derivatives of 2° amines are usually insoluble solids (neutral compounds!). 1° and 2° amines react to give sulfonamide derivatives with loss of HCl. In the latter case a quaternary “onium” salt may be formed as an intermediate. The Hinsberg Test is useful for distinguishing 1°. 2° or 3°? The best way to tackle this question is to replace the 2° amine in the Hinsberg equation from the passage with 1° and 3° amines. the rate at which the sulfonyl chloride reagent is hydrolyzed to the sulfonic acid is relatively slow. 2° and 3° amines.

while the second experiment showed that sperm derived from such mice don’t bind eggs as effectively as sperm from the ␣ or the wild type strains. B The IUPAC name for acetaminophen is N-(4-hydroxyphenyl) acetamide. Passage XI (Questions 203–208) 203. The first experiment showed that male mice deficient in ␤-galactosyltransferase are infertile. Choice (C) is correct. for example. can have a number of defects that would render this strain incapable of reproducing outside the laboratory conditions. The neutralization provides the driving force for the ligand exchange since the reverse reaction is prevented. Choice (D) is incorrect because such a conclusion can not be drawn based on the information in the passage. C The Ferric chloride test does not involve oxidation or reduction (Choices (A) and (B) incorrect) but relies on acid-base chemistry. C 53 . Strain ␣. 202. Choice (C) is therefore incorrect. Both of these experiments thus support Hypothesis 2 and suggest that ␤-galactosyltransferase is required for effective sperm-egg binding. Choice (B) is incorrect because the second experiment shows that some strain ␤ sperm do attach to eggs. Iron remains in the +3 oxidation state. Pyridine is a base and reacts with the HCl which is generated in the reaction to form pyridine(HCl). Choice (A) is incorrect because such a conclusion cannot be drawn from the experiments described in the passage.R R N R Cl O S O 2 NaOH NaCl 2 H2O R R N R Na O S O 3o amine insoluble starting amine insoluble HCl R R N R Cl H quaternary ammonium salt (soluble) 201. 4-hydroxy benzoic acid is the IUPAC name for salicylic acid which is the hydrolysis product of acetylsalicylic acid (IUPAC name is 2-acetoxy benzoic acid).

208. To decide between choices (A) and (B). Hence the experimental observation will support Hypothesis 1. 207. If reagents that change the specificity of ␤-galactosyltransferase for its substrate also inhibit sperm-egg interaction.e. C According to Hypothesis 1 those ␣-galactosyl residues must be present on the egg surface in order for sperm-egg binding to occur. Choice (A) would support Hypothesis 1 because strain ␣ eggs don’t express ␣-galactosyl residues on their surface and according to Hypothesis 1 shouldn’t be fertile. The isolated peptide turned out to be a 56-kDa peptide.204. Since an exogenous supply of oligosaccharides with N-acetyl-glucosaminyl residues will bind β-galactosyltransferase on the sperm surface and thereby prevent the attach54 . Choice (C) would contradict Hypothesis 2. Choice (B) is correct. The reason sperm will be unaffected by ␣-galactosyltransferase mutation is because sperm surface doesn’t contain ␣-galactosyl residues. The experiment described in the question stem is designed to isolate sperm proteins that bind to ZP-3. Choice (D) would also contradict Hypothesis 2 because if ␤-galactosyltransferase is the true sperm binding protein then excess of this enzyme would bind to the zona pellucida and prevent the sperm from attaching to an egg. A A competitive inhibitor is a substance that binds the active site of a protein thereby preventing it from interacting with its normal substrate. and choice (C) is correct. then eggs from strain a mice would be defective and strain ␣ females would be infertile. namely the β-galactosyltransferase and an oligosaccharide with N-acetyl-glucosaminyl residues. Choice (D) is correct. Hypothesis 1 were true). Consequently the observation that the removal of ␣-galactosyl residues from ZP3 does not effect sperm-egg binding would undermine Hypothesis 1. Choices (B) and (C) would neither support nor contradict Hypothesis 1. then this would support the essence of Hypothesis 2 which states that sperm-egg binding is mediated by ␤-galactosyltransferase and its substrate. Choice (C) is correct. according to which N-acetyl-glucosaminyl is a substrate for ␤-galactosyltransferases and its removal must interfere with sperm-egg attachment. ␣-galactosyl residues are important in sperm-egg binding. Therefore the best candidate for a competitive inhibitor must be a molecule that interferes with the receptor-ligand interaction of molecules described in Hypothesis 2. Hence strain ␣ sperm would be capable of attaching to normal eggs that express ␣-galactosyl residues. C D B 206. one must look at the experimental evidence. Choice (A) would not support nor contradict Hypothesis 2. which attaches ␣-galactosyl residues to oligosaccharides. the same peptide that was suggested by Hypothesis 1 to be the protein on the sperm surface that binds ZP3. but (according to Hypothesis 1) contains protein that binds those residues. Strain a lacks ␣-galactosyl residues because it is deficient in functional ␣-galactosyltransferase. Thus if ␣-galactosyl residues were essential for spermegg attachment (i. The experiments described in the passage provide evidence in support of Hypothesis 2. According to Hypothesis 1. 205. Among the given answer choices only oligosaccharides with N-acetyl-glucosaminyl and ␣-galactosyl residues resemble the substrates that bind β-galactosyltransferase and Sp56 respectively. One important characteristic of a competitive inhibitor is its resemblance to the actual substrate. which discusses sperm-egg attachment and not fertilization.

55 . Choice (B) is incorrect because the isotope label in on the carbonyl oxygen of the ester. The nucleophile is the oxygen atom of methyl alcohol. they often do not bind the active site. C The compound shown in the problem is an aldopentose.e. A D sugar can rotate plane-polarized light either in the (+) or the (–) direction. Choice (A) is therefore the correct answer to the problem. A The reaction is an example of acid-catalyzed esterification. 210. Choices (C) and (D) are incorrect because antibodies typically inhibit the action of proteins in a noncompetitive fashion. CH HO HO H O H H OH CH2OH Sugars belong to the D series when the hydroxyl group on the highest-numbered stereogenic center is in the same configuration as D-glyceraldehyde. not D or L. followed by elimination of the leaving group. In a pentose it is the configuration of the C-4 hydroxyl group (answer choice (C)) that determines the D or L configuration of the sugar. Discrete Questions (Questions 209–214) 209. choice (A) must be the correct answer. the oxygen atom of the alcohol (18O in this problem) becomes the singly-bonded oxygen atom of the ester product.ment of the sperm to the ZP3. The mechanism involves nucleophilic addition to the carbonyl group. Choice (A) is incorrect because the direction of optical rotation does not determine absolute configuration. Choice (D) is incorrect because C-5 is not a stereogenic center in a five-carbon sugar (pentose). Choice (C) is incorrect because it is not an ester. Choice (B) is incorrect because the configuration at the anomeric carbon determines whether the cyclic hemiacetal form of the sugar is + or –. O CH318OH + C6H5COH OH C6H5COH 18OCH 3 C6H5C18OCH3 + H2O O As the reaction shows. Choice (D) is incorrect because the isotope label is on the oxygen atom of water. This can be seen readily be examining the structure in its open-chain form. that is. not the ester. also known as Fischer esterification. on the right. i.

Cytosine base pairs with guanine via three hydrogen bonds. and choice D contains 4 G-C (or C-G) pairs. The pancreas is formed from the endoderm. choices A and B contain 2 G-C (or C-G) pairs.211. and 7 of a 9-carbon chain. The increased concentration of oxygen in the alveolar capillaries promotes oxygen uptake in the lungs. B The three primary germ layers—ectoderm. Thus the strand with the highest melting point is the strand shown in choice D. not 6 (hexane) or 8 (octane). 7 6 5 4 2 1 CH3CHCH2CH2CHCH3 CH2CH3 8 9 3 CH2CHCH3 CH3 This reveals methyl groups on carbons 2.4. and thymine base pairs with adenine via two hydrogen bonds. B Increasing concentrations of hydrogen ion in the blood result in a low pH. Remember that the longest chain of carbon atoms need not just be from left to right across the page. Thus the correct answer is choice (B). endoderm. Looking at the answer choices. while statement III increases hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen. Choices (A). The correct answer is therefore III only. Thus. 4. choice C contains 3 G-C (or C-G) pairs. and (D) incorrectly identify the longest chain. 56 . since there are more hydrogen bonds to be broken. or choice (B). 214. D DNA is composed of 4 nucleotides: cytosine (C). adenine (A). (B). Thus. statements I and II decrease hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen. Thus the stem of the name is nonane and the correct name is 2. and guanine (G). The spinal cord and skin are derived from the ectoderm. thymine (T). which decreases hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen. but can go “around corners. a strand of DNA that contains more (C) and (G) would have a higher melting point than one with less (C) and (G).” Begin numbering at the end of the chain closest to the first substituent. 213. Muscles and the heart are derived from the mesoderm. Increasing concentrations of carbon dioxide in the blood also decrease hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen. it is 9 carbons. C Be sure to expand parentheses and correctly identify the longest chain in order to assign a systematic (IUPAC) name to a compound.7-trimethylnonane. 212. and mesoderm—are formed during gastrulation.

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