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1. Pneumocystis pneumoniae in AIDS: A) may have an extra pulmonary presentation

B) is always associated with X-ray changes C) is caused by a bacterium D) elevated serum
antibodies to P. carinii helpful diagnostically E) is best treated with intravenous pentamidine

2.Regarding tetanus: A) failure to culture Clostridium tetani from the wound would make the
diagnosis doubtful B) infection confers lifelong immunity C) there is a characteristic EEG
D) Clostridium-specific intravenous immunoglobulin is of no benefit once spasm has started
E) cephalic tetanus causes severe dysphagia

3. Recurrent genital herpes infection: A) is significantly helped by topical acyclovir B) tends to

diminish over time C) is due to herpes simplex virus 1 in the majority of cases D) is precipitated by
menstruation E) is not transmitted once the lesions are painless

4. Cutaneous anthrax: A) causes a black eschar which overlies pus B) lesions are usually painful and
tender C) lesions are associated with marked oedema D) has a mortality of 20% despite antibiotics
E) is very likely to occur in people exposed to anthrax spores

5. Complications of measles include: A) common occurrence of severe corneal ulceration

B) cancrum oris C) higher incidence of acute appendicitis D) post-measles encephalopathy one
month later E) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis occurs years after an attack of measles

6. Chikenpox is associated with the following:- A) pnemonitis B) pancreatitis

C) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis D) erythema marginatum E) cerebellar encephalopathy

7. Cavitating pneumonia is characteristically caused by- A) histoplasmosis

B) micropolysporum faenii C) legionella pneumonia D) mycoplasma pneumonia E) klebsiella spp.

8. Falciparum malaria: A) acute infection is not associated with splenomegaly B) is associated with
periodic fever in a minority of cases C) has an incubation period of 8-15 days D) may present as a
gastroenteritis E) may be treated with primaquine

9. Corynebacterium diphtheriae A) may cause skin infection B) is most unlikely to cause infection
in an individual with a positive Schick test C) mitis strain is generally more virulent than the intermedius
strain D) infection is often complicated by myocardial fibrosis after recovery from severe infection
E) toxin is better absorbed through the nasal than the pharyngeal mucosa

10. In amoebic dysentry: A) symptoms may resemble those of duodenal ulcer B) periods of
alternating diarrhoea and constipation suggest an underlying carcinoma C) the motions have a
characteristic sweet smell D) hepatic amoebiasis is a rare complication E) metronidazole is the
treatment of first choice

11. The following are early features of poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis: A) Oliguria

B) low C3 complement levels C) Convulsions D) focal glomerular lesions E) dyspnoea

12. The following are features of Legionnaire's disease: A) it has a mortality of 15-20% in all cases
B) it has an attack rate of approximately 5% C) it is caused by a gram negative bacillus
D) fatal cases usually have renal failure E) patients who recover may have long term lung damage
from the disease
13. Insect borne diseases include: A) trypanosomiasis B) lymphogranuloma venereum
C) Dengue fever D) onchocerciasis E) schistosomiasis

14. In the CNS infected with the HIV: A) toxoplasma may give rise to focal neurological signs
B) HIV may be isolated from brain tissue C) pyrazinamide is effective sole treatment
D) Cyrptococcus neoformans most commonly cause cryptococcoma E) progressive multifocal
leucoencephalopathy is a direct result of HIV virus

15. The following typically cause multiple, painful genital ulcers: A) Circinate balanitis
B) Herpes simplex C) Chancroid D) Primary syphilis E) Granuloma inguinale

16. The follwing are true of rabies virus infection: A) it can be carried by foxes for several weeks
B) it can be harmless to small animals C) it is found only in the brain at autopsy D) fatal infections
always make dogs mad E) it can have an incubation period longer than 6 months

17. Cryptosporidiosis in HIV +ve individuals A) presents with bloody diarrhoea

B) can produce upto 10 litres of liquid faeces per day C) is the commonest cause of diarrhoea in
these patients D) is effectively eradicated by spiramycin in the majority of cases
E) can produce sclerosing cholangitis with inflammation and ulceration of intra and extra
hepatic bile ducts

18. Giardia lamblia infection: A) may be asymptomatic B) is usually waterborne

C) is eradicated by mebendazole D) causes steatorrhoea E) diagnosed by stool culture

19.The following are characteristic of tuberculoid leprosy: A) hypo-pigmented areas of skin

B) skin smears yielding mycobacterium leprae C) thickened peripheral nerves
D) symmetrical 'glove + stocking' anaesthesia E) a chronic ulcer on the sole of the foot

20. Some of the features of infectious mononucleosis are: A) Vesicular rash on the neck and body
B) Haemorrhagic spots on the palate C) Increased levels of AST (aspartate aminotransferase)
D) Arthritis E) Aseptic meningitis

21. The following statements are true of typhoid fever: A) the initial clinical presentation may be
mistaken for a psychiatric disorder B) spastic paraparesis is a recognised complication
C) neutrophil leucocytosis is usually a feature during the first week of illness D) can treated
successfully with cefotaxime E) heart failure is a recognised complication

22.Regarding HIV: A)Destroyed by Aldehyde B)Destroyed by Chlorhexidine C) ELISA test detect

antigen D) CD4 cell count low within 7 days E) Zidovudine is an effective drug

23.In kala Azar A) Sandfly is the vector and promastigote is the infected form. B)Culture is not
possible in artificial laboratory media C) kedrowsky’s bacilli is used for CFT D) Oppourtunistic
infections lead to fatality E) PKDL is not diagnosed serologically

24. HIV reservoir in the body: A) Peripheral Blood B)Kidny C) Spleen D)Tonsil E)Lymph node.

25.Rgarding infecive form of microbes:

A) E. Histolytica……..Mature Cyst
B) Female mosquito infected with ……Sporozoite
E)Strongyloides………Filariaform larva.