1 Power Series - Examples

I. Find the radius of convergence and the set of convergence of the "basic" power series

n0
x
n
, "geometric" series

n0
x
n
n!
, "exponential" series

n0
(1)
n
x
2n
(2n)!
, "cosine" series

n0
(1)
n
x
2n+1
(2n + 1)!
, "sine" series

n0
C
n

x
n
, "binomial" series
where C
n

=
( 1)( 2):::( n + 1)
n!
for n _ 1, and C
0

def
= 1
The geometric series

n0
x
n
Remember we already proved it is convergent only for [x[ < 1 and that the sum is
1

n=0
x
n
= lim
n!1
n

k=0
x
k
= lim
n!1
1 x
n+1
1 x
=
1
1 x
for [x[ < 1
Or, we can do it the "standard" way.
First note that in this case, the coecients are "a
n
" = 1 for all n _ 0
Then radius of convergence is
r = lim
n!1

a
n
a
n+1

= lim
n!1

1
1

= 1
Consequently the geometric series is convergent for all [x[ < 1 and
divergent for all [x[ > 1
For x = 1 we get the series

n0
1
n
, which is divergent by necessary test
since 1
n
does not converge to zero.
For x = 1 we get the series

n0
(1)
n
, which is divergent by necessary test
since (1)
n
does not converge to zero.
Finally the set of convergence is (1; 1) and
1

n=0
x
n
=
1
1 x
for [x[ < 1
1
The exponential series

n0
x
n
n!
In this case the coecients are "a
n
" =
1
n!
for all n _ 0. We set 0!
def
= 1
The radius of convergence is
r = lim
n!1

a
n
a
n+1

= lim
n!1

1
n!
1
(n+1)!

= lim
n!1
(n + 1)!
n!
= lim
n!1
(n + 1) = +
Consequently the exponential series is convergent for all x R .
Consider the sum of the exponential series, call it "exp"
exp(x) =
1

n=0
x
n
n!
= 1 +
x
1!
+
x
2
2!
+ ::: , for all x R
Properties.
1) exp(0) = 1 , let exp(1) =
1

n=0
1
n!
not
= e
2) exp(x + y) = exp(x) exp(y) for all x; y R , or equivalently
1

n=0
(x + y)
n
n!
=
_
1

n=0
x
n
n!
_

_
1

n=0
y
n
n!
_
3) exp(x) ,= 0 for all x R since
exp(x) exp(x) = exp(x x) = exp(0) = 1
and consequently
exp(x) =
1
exp(x)
for all x R
4) exp is indenitely derivable on R and
(exp(x))
0
= exp(x) for all x R
5) exp(x) > 0 for all x R
Remark.
The function we dened as "exp" is actually the exponential function since
exp(2) = exp(1) exp(1) = e
2
exp(k) = exp(1 + 1 + ::: + 1
. .
k times
) = exp(1) ::: exp(1) = e
k
exp(1) = exp(
1
k
+
1
k
+ ::: +
1
k
. .
k times
) = exp(
1
k
) ::: exp(
1
k
) =
_
exp(
1
k
)
_
k
= exp(
1
k
) = [exp(1)]
1
k
= e
1
k
Therefore
exp(
m
n
) = e
m
n
that is
exp(x) = e
x
for all x Q
Since these two functions "exp" and the "classical" exponential e
x
are continuous on R , being equal on Q ,
implies they are equal on R
exp(x) = e
x
for all x R
Proof. No we prove properties 1 - 5
2
1)
exp(0) =
1

n=0
0
n
n!
= 1 +
0
1!
+
0
2
2!
+ ::: = 1
2) we do not prove this here.
3) follows from (2) as shown
4) the sum of a power series is indenitely derivable and in this case
(exp(x))
0
=
_
1

n=0
x
n
n!
_
0
=
1

n=0
nx
n1
n!
=
1

n=1
x
n1
(n 1)!
n1=p
=
1

p=0
x
p
p!
= exp(x)
5) since exp is continuous on R and non zero (by 3) it is either positive, either negative. By (1) exp(0) = 1 ,
therefore exp is positive, that is
exp(x) > 0 for all x R

Remark. We may ask why this "exponential" series ? where does it come from ?
Well, it seems natural to ask if there is a power series which does not change by derivation
_
1

n=0
a
n
x
n
_
0
=
1

n=0
a
n
x
n
just as the exponential function does (e
x
)
0
= e
x
. It is simple computation to show that necessarily the
coecients must be
a
n
=
1
n!
And this is how we get the "exponential" series.
Sine & Cosine series
Consider the series

n0
(1)
n
x
2n
(2n)!
= 1
x
2
2!
+
x
4
4!

x
6
6!
+ :::

n0
(1)
n
x
2n+1
(2n + 1)!
=
x
1!

x
3
3!
+
x
5
5!

x
7
7!
+ :::
In this case innitely many coecients are null,
"a
2n+1
" = 0 for "cosine" and "a
2n
" = 0 for "sine"
So we cannot use the formula for the radius of convergence
r = lim
n!1

a
n
a
n+1

The general formula works

r =
1
limsup
n
_
[a
n
[
but computing "limsup" is not quite "handy".
Remember we want to nd the values of x R for which the cosine and sine series are convergent. These are
actually number series depending on x as a parameter.
Apply ratio test (which means we consider consecutive terms)

(1)
n+1
x
2(n+1)
(2(n+1))!
(1)
n
x
2n
(2n)!

(1)
n+1
x
2(n+1)
(1)
n
x
2n
(2n)!
(2n + 2)!

x
2
(2n + 2)(2n + 1)

n!1
0 < 1
3
Since the limit is zero no matter the value of x, it follows (by ratio test) the "cosine" series is convergent for all
x R

(1)
n+1
x
2(n+1)+1
(2(n+1)+1)!
(1)
n
x
2n+1
(2n+1)!

(1)
n+1
x
2n+3
(1)
n
x
2n+1
(2n + 1)!
(2n + 3)!

x
2
(2n + 3)(2n + 2)

n!1
0 < 1
Since the limit is zero no matter the value of x, it follows (by ratio test) the "sine" series is convergent for all
x R
Consider the sum of these power series and call them
cos(x)
not
=
1

n=0
(1)
n
x
2n
(2n)!
sin(x)
not
=
1

n=0
(1)
n
x
2n+1
(2n + 1)!
Properties.
1) cos 0 = 1 , sin0 = 0
2) cos is even function, sin is odd function
3) cos and sin are indenitely derivable on R and
(cos x)
0
= sinx , (sinx)
0
= cos x
4)
cos
2
x + sin
2
x = 1 for all x R
Proof.
1) This is easy computation
cos 0 =
1

n=0
(1)
n
0
2n
(2n)!
= 1
0
2
2!
+
0
4
4!

0
6
6!
+ ::: = 1
sin0 =
1

n=0
(1)
n
0
2n+1
(2n + 1)!
=
0
1!

0
3
3!
+
0
5
5!
+ ::: = 0
2) it is clear that
cos(x) = cos x and sin(x) = sinx
3) cos and sin are indenitely derivable as sums of power series and
(cos x)
0
=
_
1

n=0
(1)
n
x
2n
(2n)!
_
0
=
1

n=0
(1)
n
(2n)x
2n1
(2n)!
=
=
1

n=1
(1)
n
x
2n1
(2n 1)!
n1=p
=
1

p=0
(1)
p+1
x
2p+1
(2p + 1)!
= sinx
(sinx)
0
=
_
1

n=0
(1)
n
x
2n+1
(2n + 1)!
_
0
=
1

n=0
(1)
n
(2n + 1)x
2n
(2n + 1)!
=
=
1

n=0
(1)
n
x
2n
(2n)!
= cos x
We may also use "explicit" notation, if more suggestive
(cos x)
0
=
_
1
x
2
2!
+
x
4
4!

x
6
6!
+ :::
_
0
=
= 0
2x
2!
+
4x
3
4!

6x
5
6!
+ ::: =
_
x
1!

x
3
3!
+
x
5
5!
+ :::
_
= sinx
4
(sinx)
0
=
_
x
1!

x
3
3!
+
x
5
5!

x
7
7!
+ :::
_
0
=
=
1
1!

3x
2
3!
+
5x
4
5!

7x
6
7!
+ ::: =
1
1!

x
2
2!
+
x
4
4!

x
6
6!
+ ::: = cos x
4) Notice that cos
2
x+sin
2
x = 1 for all x R , actually means the function in left side is constant ! Consequently
its derivative should be null.
Easy computation shows
_
cos
2
x + sin
2
x
_
0
= 2 cos x (cos x)
0
+ 2 sinx (sinx)
0
=
= 2 cos x (sinx) + 2 sinx (cos x) = 0
Therefore cos
2
x + sin
2
x = "constant" and since cos
2
0 + sin
2
0 = 1 + 0 = 1 we nally get cos
2
x + sin
2
x = 1
for all x R .
We do not prove these functions are actually the "classic" sine and cosine functions. Not right now.
"binomial" series
Consider the series

n0
C
n

x
n
,
where C
n

=
(1)(2):::(n+1)
n!
for n _ 1, and C
0

def
= 1
The name is justied by the fact that for a positive integer we actually get the classical binomial formula since
in such a case ( N)
for n _ we have
C
n

=
( 1)( 2):::( n + 1)
n!
=
!
n!( n)!
which is integer
and for all n _ we have
C
n

=
( 1)( 2):::( )::::( n + 1)
n!
= 0
So that for N we get
1

n=0
C
n

x
n
=

n=0
C
n

x
n
= (1 + x)

For the radius of convergence we may use ratio test

lim
n!1

C
n+1

x
n+1
C
n

x
n

= lim
n!1

( 1)( 2):::( n) n! x
n+1
( 1)( 2):::( n + 1) (n + 1)! x
n

=
= lim
n!1

x
n
n + 1

= [x[
By ratio test the binomial series is convergent for all [x[ < 1 and
divergent for [x[ > 1
We do not study now the convergence for x = 1 or x = 1.
II. Find the radius of convergence and the set of convergence for the power series
a)

n1
x
n
n2
n
b)

n1
(x + 3)
n
n
2
Proof. a) use ratio test
lim
n!1

x
n+1
(n+1)2
n+1
x
n
n2
n

= lim
n!1

x
n+1
n2
n
(n + 1)2
n+1
x
n

= lim
n!1

x
2
n
n + 1

=
[x[
2
5
Therefore, by ratio test the power series is
convergent for all
jxj
2
< 1 = [x[ < 2
and divergent for all
jxj
2
> 1 = [x[ > 2
For x = 2 we get the series

n1
2
n
n2
n
=

n1
1
n
which is divergent (harmonic series)
For x = 2 we get the series

n1
(2)
n
n2
n
=

n1
(1)
n
n
which is convergent by Leibniz test.
So nally the set of convergence is [2; 2).
b) use ratio test
lim
n!1

(x+3)
n+1
(n+1)
2
(x+3)
n
n
2

= lim
n!1

(x + 3)
n+1
n
2
(x + 3)
n
(n + 1)
2

= lim
n!1

(x + 3)
n
2
(n + 1)
2

= [x + 3[
Therefore by ratio test the power series is
convergent for all [x + 3[ < 1 =x (4; 2) and
divergent for all [x + 3[ > 1
For x + 3 = 1 =x = 2 we get the series

n1
(2 + 3)
n
n
2
=

n1
1
n
2
which is convergent (harmonic series)
For x + 3 = 1 =x = 4 we get the series

n1
(4 + 3)
n
n
2
=

n1
(1)
n
n
2
which is convergent by Leibniz test
So nally the set of convergence is [4; 2]
It is also possible to compute the sum of these power series.
a) Let
s(x) =
1

n=1
x
n
n2
n
=
1

n=1
1
n
_
x
2
_
n
, for [x[ < 2
Take the derivative and get
s(x)
0
=
_
1

n=1
1
n
_
x
2
_
n
_
0
=
1

n=1
n
n
_
x
2
_
n1
1
2
=
1
2
1

n=1
_
x
2
_
n1
=
=
1
2
1

n=0
_
x
2
_
n
. .
geometric series
=
1
2

1
1
x
2
=
1
2 x
Then integrate to get back to s(x)
s(x) =
_
s
0
(x)dx =
_
1
2 x
dx = ln(2 x) + C
Then for x = 0 we have
ln(2 0) + C = s(0) =
1

n=1
0
n
n2
n
= 0 = C = ln2
6
So nally
s(x) =
1

n=1
x
n
n2
n
= ln2 ln(2 x)
More over the sum of the convergent series (for x = 2) is
1

n=1
(1)
n
n
= lim
x&2
s(x) = lim
x&2
[ln2 ln(2 x)] = ln2 ln4 = ln2
1

n=1
(1)
n
n
= ln2
b) Let
s(x) =
1

n=1
(x + 3)
n
n
2
for all [x + 3[ _ 1 =x [4; 2]
Take the derivative and get
s(x)
0
=
_
1

n=1
(x + 3)
n
n
2
_
0
=
1

n=1
n(x + 3)
n1
n
2
=
1

n=1
(x + 3)
n1
n
=
=
1
x + 3
1

n=1
(x + 3)
n
n
Then take again the derivative
_
1

n=1
(x + 3)
n
n
_
0
=
1

n=1
n(x + 3)
n1
n
=
1

n=1
(x + 3)
n1
=
1

n=0
(x + 3)
n
=
1

n=0
(x + 3)
n
=
1
1 (x + 3)
=
1
2 + x
Therefore we integrate now to get back to
s(x)
0
=
1
x + 3
1

n=1
(x + 3)
n
n
=
1
x + 3
_
1
2 + x
dx =
ln[2 + x[ + C
x + 3
and nally
s(x) =
_
s
0
(x)dx =
_
ln[2 + x[ + C
x + 3
dx
Unfortunately we cannot compute the antiderivative, and all we get is an integral reprezentation for the sum.

III. Find the sum of the power series

n1
n + 1
n
x
n
Proof. First compute the radius of convergence. Use ratio test
lim
n!1

n+1+1
n+1
x
n+1
n+1
n
x
n

= lim
n!1

(n + 2)n
(n + 1)
2
x

= [x[
Consequently by ratio test the power series is
convergent for [x[ < 1 and
divergent for [x[ > 1
7
Consider the sum function
s(x) =
1

n=1
n + 1
n
x
n
for [x[ < 1
We can integrate to get
_
s(x)dx =
_
_
1

n=1
n + 1
n
x
n
_
dx =
1

n=1
__
n + 1
n
x
n
dx
_
=
=
1

n=1
1
n
x
n+1
= x
1

n=1
1
n
x
n
Next take the derivative for
_
1

n=1
1
n
x
n
_
0
=
1

n=1
n
n
x
n1
=
1

n=1
x
n1
=
1

n=0
x
n
=
1
1 x
for [x[ < 1
Then integrate the result to go back to
1

n=1
1
n
x
n
=
_
1
1 x
dx = ln(1 x) + C
For x = 0 we get
0 =
1

n=1
1
n
0
n
= ln(1 0) + C = C = 0
So we nally get
s(x) =
__
s(x)dx
_
0
=
_
x
1

n=1
1
n
x
n
_
0
= (xln(1 x))
0
=
= ln(1 x) x
1
1 x
=
x
x 1
ln(1 x)
s(x) =
x
x 1
ln(1 x) for [x[ < 1
Remark. The sum function has a nite limit at x = 1 , namely
lim
x&1
s(x) = lim
x&1
_
x
x 1
ln(1 x)
_
=
1
2
ln2 =
1
2
ln2
However this does not imply the series is convergent for x = 1,
which is actually divergent for x = 1 ,
1

n=1
n+1
n
(1)
n
by necessary test.

IV. Find the sum of the series

a)
1

n=1
(1)
n
1 + 3(n 1)
b)
1

n=1
(1)
n
2n(2n + 1)
Hint. Consider power series like
a)
1

n1
x
n
1 + 3(n 1)
b)
1

n1
x
n
2n(2n + 1)
compute the sum function s(x) and nd the sum of the number series as the limit
lim
x&1
s(x)

8
2 Taylor Expansion - Examples
1. First of all every sum of a power series has a Taylor expansion, the power series itself.
1
1 x
=
1

n=0
x
n
for [x[ < 1
e
x
=
1

n=0
x
n
n!
for all x R
sinx =
1

n=0
(1)
n
x
2n+1
(2n + 1)!
for all x R
cos x =
1

n=0
(1)
n
x
2n
(2n)!
for all x R
(1 + x)

=
1

n=0
C
n

x
n
for [x[ < 1
In particular we get Taylor expansion for other functions like
1
1 + x
=
1

n=0
(x)
n
=
1

n=0
(1)
n
x
n
for [x[ < 1
ln(1 + x) =
_
_
1

n=0
(1)
n
x
n
_
dx =
1

n=0
(1)
n
x
n+1
n + 1
+ C
1
1 + x
2
=
1

n=0
(x
2
)
n
=
1

n=0
(1)
n
x
2n
for [x[ < 1
arctg x =
_
1
1 + x
2
dx =
_
_
1

n=0
(x
2
)
n
_
dx =
1

n=0
(1)
n
x
2n+1
2n + 1
+ C for [x[ < 1
2. Find the Taylor expansion for f(x) = ln(1 + x) at x
0
= 2
Proof.
Take the rst derivative
f
0
(x) =
1
1 + x
the Taylor series looks like
1

n=0
f
(n)
(2)
n!
(x 2)
n
This is a power series centered at 2. Let y = x 2 and replace it in the above formula
1

n=0
f
(n)
(2)
n!
y
n
we get a power series centered at 0.
Therefore, since x = y + 2 we do the same for
f
0
(x) =
1
1 + x
=
1
1 + y + 2
=
1
3 + y
and now we try to write the last function as the sum of o power series.
9
The geometric series is the closest well known series.
1
1 A
=
1

n=0
A
n
for all [A[ < 1
Therefore
1
3 + y
=
1
3
1
1 (
y
3
)
=
1
3
1

n=0
(
y
3
)
n
for all

y
3

< 1
we get
1
3 + y
=
1

n=0
(1)
n
3
n+1
y
n
for all [y[ < 3
Consequently just replace y = x 2 and we get the power series
f
0
(x) =
1
1 + x
=
1

n=0
(1)
n
3
n+1
(x 2)
n
for all [x 2[ < 3
Then integrate the power series and get the Taylor expansion of the function f at 2
f(x) =
_
f
0
(x)dx =
_
_
1

n=0
(1)
n
3
n+1
(x 2)
n
_
dx =
=
1

n=0
(1)
n
3
n+1
(n + 1)
(x 2)
n+1
+ C for all [x 2[ < 3

3. Find the Taylor expansion at x = 0 for the functions f(x) = arcsinx

Proof. Take the derivative
f(x)
0
= (arcsinx)
0
=
1
_
1 x
2
=
_
1 x
2
_
1=2
=
now use binomial series for =
1
2
and get
f(x)
0
=
1

n=0
C
n
1=2
x
n
for [x[ < 1
Then integrate to get back
f(x) = arcsinx =
_
(arcsinx)
0
dx =
_
_
1

n=0
C
n
1=2
x
n
_
dx =
arcsinx =
1

n=0
C
n
1=2
x
n+1
n + 1
+ K for [x[ < 1
Since 0 = arcsin0 =
1

n=0
C
n
1=2
0
n+1
n+1
+ K = 0 + K , it follows that K = 0
To have a better idea we may also compute
C
n
1=2
=
1
n!
(
1
2
)(
1
2
1)(
1
2
2):::(
1
2
n + 1) =
=
(1)
n
1 3 5 ::: (2n 1)
n!2
n
=
(1)
n
(2n)!
2
2n
(n!)
2

10
4. Find the expansion in Taylor expansion of the following functions at corresponding points
a) f(x) = sinx , at x = 1
b) f(x) = cos x sinx , at x = 2
c) f(x) = cos
2
(x + 1) , at x = 0
d) f(x) =
2x + 1
3 x
at x = 2
Proof. a)
sinx = sin(x 1 + 1) = sin(x 1) cos 1 + cos(x 1) sin1 =
= cos 1
1

n=0
(1)
n
(x 1)
2n+1
(2n + 1)!
+ sin1
1

n=0
(1)
n
(x 1)
2n
(2n)!
b)
cos x sinx =
1
2
sin2x =
1
2
sin2(x 2 + 2) =
=
1
2
cos 2 sin2(x 2) +
1
2
sin2 cos 2(x 2) =
=
1
2
cos 2
1

n=0
(1)
n
2
2n+1
(x 2)
2n+1
(2n + 1)!
+
1
2
sin2
1

n=0
(1)
n
2
2n
(x 2)
2n
(2n)!
c)
cos
2
(x + 1) =
1 + cos 2(x + 1)
2
=
1
2
+
1
2
cos 2 cos 2x
1
2
sin2 sin2x =
=
1
2
+
1
2
cos 2
1

n=0
(1)
n
2
2n
x
2n
(2n)!

1
2
sin2
1

n=0
(1)
n
2
2n+1
x
2n+1
(2n + 1)!
d) now let x 2 = y and x = y + 2 , then change the "variable"
2x + 1
3 x
=
2(y + 2) + 1
3 (y + 2)
=
2y + 5
1 y
=
2(y 1) + 7
1 y
= 2 +
7
1 y
=
= 2 + 7
1

n=0
y
n
= 2 + 7
1

n=0
(x 2)
n
for [x 2[ < 1

5. Find the expansion in Taylor expansion of the following functions at x = 0

a) f(x) = x
2
arctg x b) f(x) = (2x + 3)e
x
Proof. Both cases follow the same pattern:
f = (a polynomial) (a function with Taylor expansion)
First get the Taylor expansion for the function, then multiply by the polynomial.
a) we already know the Taylor expansion for arctg x , namely
arctg x =
1

n=0
(1)
n
x
2n+1
2n + 1
Then
f(x) = x
2
arctg x = x
2
1

n=0
(1)
n
x
2n+1
2n + 1
=
1

n=0
(1)
n
x
2n+3
2n + 1
b) we have
e
x
=
1

n=0
x
n
n!
11
Then
f(x) = (2x + 3)e
x
= (2x + 3)
1

n=0
x
n
n!
= 2x
1

n=0
x
n
n!
+ 3
1

n=0
x
n
n!
=
=
1

n=0
2
x
n+1
n!
+
1

n=0
3
x
n
n!
=
1

n=1
2
x
n
(n 1)!
+ 3
1
1!
+
1

n=1
3
x
n
n!
=
= 3 +
1

n=1
_
1
(n 1)!
+
3
n!
_
x
n

Find the Taylor expansion at x = 1 for

f(x) =
1
x
2
3x + 2
Proof. Use the decomposition
1
x
2
3x + 2
=
1
(x 1)(x 2)
=
1
x 2

1
x 1
Then nd the Taylor for the two simple functions
1
x 2
and
1
x 1
then add the two power series to get the Taylor expansion of f .
The Taylor expansion we are looking for is a series centered at x = 1 , that is it is a power series for "powers"
of (x + 1) , namely
f(x) =
1

n=1
f
(n)
(1)
n!
(x + 1)
n
Finally we have the Taylor expansions
1
x 2
=
1
x + 1 3
=
1
3
1
1
x+1
3
=
=
1
3
1

n=1
_
x + 1
3
_
n
=
1

n=1
(1)
n+1
3
n+1
(x + 1)
n
1
x 1
=
1
x + 1 2
=
1
2
1
1
x+1
2
=
=
1
2
1

n=1
_
x + 1
2
_
n
=
1

n=1
(1)
n+1
2
n+1
(x + 1)
n
Finally by adding the two taylor series we get
f(x) =
1
x
2
3x + 2
=
1
x 2

1
x 1
=
=
1

n=1
(1)
n+1
3
n+1
(x + 1)
n

n=1
(1)
n+1
2
n+1
(x + 1)
n
=
=
1

n=1
(1)
n+1
_
1
3
n+1

1
2
n+1
_
(x + 1)
n

12