CHILD AND ADOLESCENT DEVELOPMENT

1. Yuan always waits at his neighbor Gerald every morning. He enjoys seeing him while biking and imitates the actions of
Gerald while he rides his own bike. Who is the proponent of Social Learning Theory which applies in the situation?
A. Bandura C. Bruner
B. Kohlberg D. Skinner
RATIONALIZATION: A- Albert Bandura developed the Social Learning Theory and advocated that “children learn
from what they see in the environment.”
2. A child submitted a poor written report but packaged with brightly colored paper. This showcases_______.
A. Art over academics C. art over science
B. Substance over “porma” D. “porma” over substance
RATIONALIZATION: D- When a student focuses more on designs and embellishments rather than of content of a
report, then it shows “porma” over substance.
3. With the use of mnemonics, the students are able to _____information.
A. Analyze C. understand
B. Apply D. remember
RATIONALIZATION: D-mnemonics like “My Dear Aunt Sally” to mean multiplication, division, addition and
subtraction help students remember information easily
4. According to Krathwohls’ affective domain of objectives,________ is the lowest level of affective behavior.
A. Valuing C. responding
B. Organization D. characterization
RATIONALIZATION: C-the arrangement of Krathwohls’ affective domain is responding, valuing, organization and
characterization.
5. A boy is closer to his mother and a girl is close to her father. These instances are under_.
A. Oedipal complex C. phallic stage
B. Latent stage D. Pre-genital stage
-
SOCIAL DIMENSIONS OF EDUCATION
1. Teacher Abi asks one of her students, “What do you want to become when you grow up?” This question is an indication of
what kind of philosophy?
A. Progressivism C. Existentialism
B. Naturalism D. Idealism
RATIONALIZATION: D-idealism because it stresses the existence of ideas independent from the material world.
Ideas that which exist in the mind are the only reality.
2. Teacher Jessy has not only explained the concept of Philosophy of Education but also imparted this to her students. This
demonstrates what kind of philosophy?
A. Naturalism C. Realism
B. Idealism D. Perennialism
RATIONALIZATION: C-realism concerns with what is real, actual. For ideas to be realized, they must be transferred
or demonstrated.
3. Which pillar of learning aimed in the acquisition of the instrument of understanding in order to develop the students’ learn-
to-learn skills?
A. Learning to do C. learning to live together
B. Learning to know D. learning to be
RATIONALIZATION: B- learning to know implies learning how to earn by developing one’s concentration, memory
skills and ability to think, acquiring the instrument of understanding.
4. In his class, Teacher Jakob always presents principles and values so as to encourage his students to examine them and decide
for themselves whether to accept them or not. What kind of philosophy does he practice?
A. Idealism C. Humanism
B. Essentialism D. Existentialism
RATIONALIZATION: D-Existentialism is a philosophy that emphasizes subjectivity, freedom and responsibility.
5. When a teacher emphasizes that man’s sense should be trusted because they are the only way to acquire knowledge, the
teacher can be regarded as____.
A. Naturalist C. Empiricist
B. Realist D. Pragmatist
RATIONALIZATION: C-empiricism upholds that the only source of knowledge is the senses and sense-based
experience.


PRINCIPLES AND STRATEGIES OF TEACHING
1. The school conducted a general student election for the Supreme Student Council. The election is patterned after the
COMELEC system. The school is using what kind of technique?
A. Symposium C. Panel discussion
B. Simulation D. Dramatization
RATIONALIZATION: B-simulation is an activity that simulates “almost real-life situation”. Other applications of
simulation are the following: simulated flight for aviation students, assigning student to be the mayor of the day.
2. During problem solving method, the teacher’s primary role is:
A. Director C. lecturer
B. Clarifier D. judge
RATIONALIZATION: B-during problem solving activities, the teacher acts as a clarifier especially when students are
in doubt how to go about the problem.
3. Which among the following devices can be a scaled replica of a certain object?
A. Mock ups C. globes
B. Models D. maps
RATIONALIZATION: B- models like Heart Models are scaled replicas.
4. Which of the following would be the best choice if a teacher would like to focus on attitudinal change?
A. Dramatization C. role play
B. Field study D. simulation
RATIONALIZATION: C-role playing allows the child to shows his own personal emotions and therefore is a good
option when focusing on attitudinal change.
5. This method relies heavily upon showing the learners a model performance.
A. Activity C. reporting
B. Demonstration D. field study
1. Which violate(s) the principle of respect?
I. Teacher A tells her students that what Teacher B taught is wrong.
II. To retaliate, Teacher B advises students not to enroll in Teacher A’s class.
III. Teacher C secretly gives way to a special favor (e.g. add 2 points to grade) requested by
student A who is vying for honors.
A. II and III
B. I, II and III
C. I and II
D. I and III
2. Which is/are in accordance with the principle of pedagogical competence?
I. Communication of objectives of the course to students
II. Awareness of alternative instruction strategies
III. Selection of appropriate methods of instruction
A. I and III
B. I, II and III
C. III only
D. II and III
3. With a death threat over his head, Teacher D is directed to pass an undeserving student.
Which will a utilitarianist do?
A. Pass the student, why suffer the threat?
B. Don’t pass him; live by your principle of justice. You will get reward, if not in this life, in the
next.
C. Pass the student. That will be of use to the student, his parents and you.
D. Don’t pass him. You surely will not like someone to give you a death threat in other to pass.
4. Teacher A knows of the illegal activities of a neighbor but keeps quiet in order not to be
involved in any investigation. Which foundational principle of morality does Teacher A fail to
apply?
A. The end does not justify the means
B. The end justifies the means
C. Always do what is right
D. Between two evils, do the lesser evil
5. To earn units for promotion, a teacher pays her fee but does not attend class at all. Does
this constitute professional growth?
A. Not immediately but yes after promotion
B. It depends on the school she is enrolled in
C. No, it is simply earning MA units for promotion
D. Yes, just enrolling in an MA program is already professional growth
6. If a teacher asks more higher-order questions, he has to ask more _______ questions.
A. fact
B. close
C. convergent
D. concept
7. Misdemeanor has a “ripple effect”. This implies that as a classroom manager, a teacher
___________.
A. reinforces positive behavior
B. responds to misbehavior promptly
C. is consistent in her classroom management practice
D. count 1 to 10 before she deals with a misbehaving student
8. Based on Edgar Dale’s “Cone of Experience”, which activity is farthest from the real thing?
A. Watching demo
B. Attending exhibit
C. Video disc
D. Viewing images
9. The students of Teacher Y scan an electronic encyclopedia, view a film on subject, or look
at related topics at the touch of a button right there in the classroom. Which device/s does
teacher Y’s class have?
A. Teaching machines
B. CD
C. Video disc
D. Videotaped lesson
10. Which is an INAPPROPRIATE way to manage off-task behavior?
A. Redirect a child’s attention to task and check his progress to make sure he is continuing
work
B. Make eye contact to communicate what you wish to communicate
C. Move closer to the child to make him feel your presence
D. Stop your class activity to correct a child who is no longer on task
11. To be an effective classroom manager, a teacher must be friendly but must at the same
time be_________.
.
A. confident
B. businesslike
C. analytical
D. buddy-buddy
12. Which software is needed when one wants to perform automatic calculations on numerical
data?
A. Database
B. Spreadsheet Program
C. Microsoft Word
D. Microsoft Powerpoint
13. Which of the following questions must be considered in evaluating teacher-made materials?
A. Is the material new?
B. Does the material simulate individualism?
C. Is the material expensive?
D. Is the material appropriate?
14. Kounin claims that “with-it-ness” is one of the characteristics of an effective classroom
manager. What is one sign of “with-it-ness”?
A. Giving attention to students who are having difficulty with school work
B. Seeing only a portion of the class but intensively
C. Knowing where instructional materials are kept
D. Aware of what’s happening in all parts of the classroom
15. Which of these is one of the ways by which the internet enables people to browse
documents connected by hypertext links?
A. URL
B. Browser
C. Welcome page
D. World Wide Web
16. Which characteristics must be primary considered as a choice of instructional aids?
A. Stimulate and maintain students interests
B. Suited to the lesson objectives
C. Updated and relevant to Filipino setting
D. New and skillfully made
17. You can exhibit referent power on the first day of school by ________.
A. telling them the importance of good grades
B. giving your students a sense of belongingness and acceptance
C. making them feel you know what you are taking about
D. reminding your students your authority over them again and again
18. I would like to use a model to emphasize particular part. Which of these would be MOST
appropriate?
A. Realia
B. Audio recording
C. Stimulation
D. Mock up
19. What must a teacher do to ensure orderly transitions between activities?
A. Allow time for the students to socialize in between activities
B. Have the materials ready at the start of the activity
C. Assign fewer exercise to fill the allotted time
D. Wait for students who lag behind
20. The task of setting up routine activities for effective classroom management is a task that a
teacher should undertake_________. .
A. as soon as the students have adjusted to their schedules
B. on the very first day of school
C. every day at the start of the session
D. every homeroom day




ANSWER KEY:
1. C
2. B
3. C
4. C
5. C
6. D
7. B
8. D
9. A
10. D
11. A
12. B
13. D
14. D
15. B
16. B
17. C
18. D
19. B
20. B
Cooperative Learning has been proven to be effective for all types of students, including
academically gifted, mainstream students and English language learners (ELLs) because it
promotes learning and fosters respect and friendships among diverse groups of students. In fact,
the more diversity in a team, the higher the benefits for each student. Peers learn to depend on
each other in a positive way for a variety of learning tasks.
Students typically work in teams of four. This way, they can break into pairs for some activities,
and then get back together in teams very quickly for others. It is important, however, to establish
classroom norms and protocols that guide students to:
 Contribute
 Stay on task
 Help each other
 Encourage each other
 Share
 Solve problems
 Give and accept feedback from peers

SOME COOPERATIVE LEARNING STRATEGIES
There are some popular strategies that can be used with all students to learn content (such
as science, math, social studies, language arts, and foreign languages). However, they are
particularly beneficial to ELLs for learning English and content at the same time. Most of
these strategies are especially effective in teams of four:

1. Round Robin
Present a category (such as "Names of Mammals") for discussion. Have students take turns
going around the group and naming items that fit the category.
2. Roundtable
Present a category (such as words that begin with "b"). Have students take turns writing
one word at a time.
3. Writearound
For creative writing or summarization, give a sentence starter (for example: If you give an
elephant a cookie, he's going to ask for...). Ask all students in each team to finish that
sentence. Then, they pass their paper to the right, read the one they received, and add a
sentence to that one. After a few rounds, four great stories or summaries emerge. Give
children time to add a conclusion and/or edit their favorite one to share with the class.
4. Numbered Heads Together
Ask students to number off in their teams from one to four. Announce a question and a time
limit. Students put their heads together to come up with an answer. Call a number and ask
all students with that number to stand and answer the question. Recognize correct
responses and elaborate through rich discussions.
5. Team Jigsaw
Assign each student in a team one fourth of a page to read from any text (for example, a
social studies text), or one fourth of a topic to investigate or memorize. Each student
completes his or her assignment and then teaches the others or helps to put together a
team product by contributing a piece of the puzzle.
6. Tea Party
Students form two concentric circles or two lines facing each other. You ask a question (on
any content) and students discuss the answer with the student facing them. After one
minute, the outside circle or one line moves to the right so that students have new partners.
Then pose a second question for them to discuss. Continue with five or more questions. For
a little variation, students can write questions on cards to review for a test through this "Tea
Party" method.
After each Cooperative Learning activity, you will want to debrief with the children by asking
questions such as: What did you learn from this activity? How did you feel working with your
teammates? If we do this again, how will you improve working together?
A simple way to start Cooperative Learning is to begin with pairs instead of whole teams.
Two students can learn to work effectively on activities such as the following:

1. Assign a math worksheet and ask students to work in pairs.
2. One of the students does the first problem while the second acts as a coach.
3. Then, students switch roles for the second problem.
4. When they finish the second problem, they get together with another pair and
check answers.
5. When both pairs have agreed on the answers, ask them to shake hands and
continue working in pairs on the next two problems.
Literature circles in groups of four or six are also a great way to get students working in
teams. You can follow these steps:

1. Have sets of four books available.
2. Let students choose their own book.
3. Form teams based on students' choices of books.
4. Encourage readers to use notes, post-its, and discussion questions to analyze their
books.
5. Have teams conduct discussions about the book.
6. Facilitate further discussion with the whole class on each of the books.
7. Have teams share what they read with the whole class.
8. For the next literature circles, students select new books.

44 Benefits of Collaborative Learning:
1. Develops higher level thinking skills
2. Promotes student-faculty interaction and familiarity
3. Increases student retention
4. Builds self esteem in students
5. Enhances student satisfaction with the learning experience
6. Promotes a positive attitude toward the subject matter
7. Develops oral communication skills
8. Develops social interaction skills
9. Promotes positive race relations
10. Creates an environment of active, involved, exploratory learning
11. Uses a team approach to problem solving while maintaining individual accountability
12. Encourages diversity understanding
13. Encourages student responsibility for learning
14. Involves students in developing curriculum and class procedures
15. Students explore alternate problem solutions in a safe environment
16. Stimulates critical thinking and helps students clarify ideas through discussion and debate
17. Enhances self management skills
18. Fits in well with the constructivist approach
19. Establishs an atmosphere of cooperation and helping schoolwide
20. Students develop responsibility for each other
21. Builds more positive heterogeneous relationships
22. Encourages alternate student assessment techniques
23. Fosters and develops interpersonal relationships
1. School curriculum reflects the world’s economic and political integration and
industrialization. what does these point in curriculum development.

A. The trend towards the classical approach to curriculum development
B. The trend toward the globalization and localization
C. The trend toward participatory curriculum development
D. The shift in the paradigm of curriculum development from a process-oriented to a product-
oriented one

2. You choose cooperative learning as a teaching approach. What thought is impressed on
your students?

A. Interaction is a must, but not necessarily face to-face interaction
B. Student’s success depends on the success of the group
C. Student’s individuality evaluate how effectively their group worked.
D. The accountability for learning is on the group not on the individual

3. What principle is violated by overusing the chalkboard, as though it is the only education
technology available?
A. Isolated use
B. Flexibility
C. Variety
D. Uniformity

4. “When more senses are stimulated, teaching and learning become more effective.” What is
an application of this principle?
A. Appeal to student’s sense of imagination
B. Use multisensory aids
C. Make your students touch the instructional material
D. Use audiovisual aids because the eyes and the ears are the most important senses in
learning.
5. Which is a classroom application of the theory of “operant conditioning”?
A. Help student see the connectedness of facts, concepts, and principles
B. Create a classroom atmosphere that elicits relaxation
C. Reinforce a good behavior to increase the likelihood that the learner will repeat the
response
D. Make students learn by operating manipulatives

6. Here is the test item.
“From the data presented in the table, form generalizations that are supported by the
data”.
Under what type of question does this item fall?
A. Convergent
B. Evaluative
C. Application
D. Divergent

7. I want to teach concepts, patterns and abstractions. Which method will be MOST
appropriate?
A. Discovery
B. Indirect instruction
C. Direct instruction
D. Problem solving

8. Teacher A teaches English as a Second Language. She uses vocabulary cards, fill-in-the-
blanks sentences, dialogues, dictation and writing exercises in teaching a lesson about
grocery shopping. Based on this information, which of the following is a valid conclusion?
A. The teacher wants to make her teaching easier by having less talk
B. The teacher emphasizing reading and writing skills
C. The teacher is teaching in a variety of ways because not all students learn in the same
manner
D. The teacher is applying Bloom’s hierarchy of cognitive learning

9. Teacher A an experienced teacher, does daily review of past lessons in order
to _____ .
A. introduce a new lesson
B. reflect on how he presented the previous lessons
C. provide his pupils with a sense of continuity
D. determine who among his pupils are studying

10. To teach the democratic process to the pupils, Biag Elementary School decided that the
election of class officers shall be patterned after local elections. There are qualifications set
for candidates, limited period for campaign and rules for posting campaign materials, etc.
Which of the following did the school use?
A. Symposium
B. Simulation
C. Role playing
D. Philips 66

11. Teacher S teaches a lesson in which students must recognize that ¼ is the same 0.25.
They use this relationship to determine that 0.15 and 0.20 are slightly less than ¼. Which of
the following concept/s is/are being taught?
A. Numeration skills
B. Place value of decimals
C. Numeration skills of decimals and relationships between fractions and decimals
D. Relationship between fraction and decimals

12. To nurture students’ creativity, which activity should a teacher AVOID?
A. Ask “hat if…” questions
B. Ask divergent thinking questions
C. Emphasize the need to give right answers
D. Be open to “out-of-this-world” ideas

13. After reading an essay. Teacher B wants to help sharpen her students’ ability to interpret.
Which of these activities will be most appropriate?
A. Drawing conclusions
B. Making inferences
C. Getting the main idea
D. Listing facts separately from opinion

14. Bruner’s theory on intellectual development moves from inactive to iconic and symbolic
stages. Applying Bruner’s theory. How would you teach?
A. Be interactive in approach
B. Begin with the abstract
C. Begin with the concrete
D. do direct instruction

15. In a Social studies class. Teacher I presents a morally ambiguous situation and asks
student what they would do. On whose theory is Teacher I’s technique based?
A. Bandura
B. Piaget
C. Kohberg
D. Bruner

16. What does Gagne’s hierarchy theory propose for effective instruction?
A. Be concerned with the socio-emotional climate in the classroom
B. Teach beginning with the concrete
C. Sequence instruction
D. Reward good behavior

17. Based on Freud’s theory, which operate/s when a student strikes a classmates at the
height of anger?
A. Ego
B. Id
C. Id and Ego interact
D. Superego

18. With assessment of affective learning in mind, which does NOT belong to the group?
A. Cloze test
B. Moral dilemma
C. Reflective writing
D. Diary entry

19. If a teacher wants to measure her students’ ability to discriminate, which of these is an
appropriate type of test item as implied by the direction?
A. “Outline the Chapter on The Cell”.
B. “Summarize the lesson yesterday”.
C. “Group the following items according to shape”.
D. “State a set of principle that can explain the following events”.

20. Which can be said of Arielle who obtained a score of 75 out of 100 items in a Grammar
objective test?
A. She performed better than 25% of her classmates
B. She answered 75 items in the test correctly
C. Her rating is 75
D. She answered 75% of the test items correctly



Answer Key:

1. B
2. B
3. B
4. B
5. C
6. D
7. D
8. C
9. C
10. B
correction for question # 7 the correct answer is B because A and D are example of indirect
instruction and question # 8 the correct must be letter D.

here are the list for answer key for 11-20

11-C
12-C
13-D
14-C
15-C
16-C
17-B
18-A
19-C
20-B

1. Which is the process of removing from the cells and bloodstream substances that are of no further u
se to our body?
A. Respiration C. Digestion
B. Circulation D. Excretion

2. Which is an accessory organ of digestion whose function is to store and concentrate bile which is secr
eted by the liver?
A. Spleen C. Gall bladder
B. Urinary bladder D. Pancreas

3. Identify the genetic engineering process that join cells of similar characteristics that are often closely
related.
A. DNA typing C. Cloned DNA
B. Protoplast fusion D. Hybridoma

4. What is the most significant cause of dwindling biodiversity?
A. Depletion of ozone layer
B. Large plant consumption
C. Global warming
D. Destruction of habitat

5. Because she has a wide forehead, her grandma says she will be a bright student. What could be inferr
ed from his belief?
A. The cerebrum coordinates the action of all parts.
B. The frontal lobe of the brain is the cerebrum.
C. The front part is inactive when we think.
D. The thalamus is located in the sides.

6. The phenotypic ratio in the offspring resulting from a cross Tt x Tt is
A. 1:3 C. 1:2:1
B. 4:0 D. 3:1

7. Acid rain is brought about by burning tremendous amount of fossil fuel. Which are some harmful gase
s that are released from burning fossil fuels?
A. Hydrogen and oxygen C. Carbon dioxide and helium
B. Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen D. Ozone and water vapor

8. Which part of the brain is responsible for thinking and reasoning?
A. Medulla C. Thalamus
B. Cerebellum D. Cerebrum
9. Name the gaseous hormone which is commonly used in inducing ripening of fruits.
A. Enzyme C. Traces
B. Methylene D. Ethylene

10. Protein is one of the most essential food nutrients needed before and after birth, otherwise irreversi
ble mental retardation may occur. Which are some good sources of protein?
A. Corn, potato, bread
B. Noodles, orange, apple
C. Beans, eggs, milk
D. Garlic, pepper, eggplant

11. Which is an abiotic component that affects life in an ecosystem?
A. Animals C. Temperature
B. Plants D. Humans

12. Which is the following animals exhibits incomplete metamorphosis?
A. Butterfly C. Grasshopper
B. Moth D. Skipper

13. What processes are responsible for the occurrence of the hydrologic cycle?
A. Evaporation and sublimation
B. Transpiration and evaporation
C. Condensation and transpiration
D. Evaporation and condensation

14. Today, researchers have discovered chemical indicators in the genetic material which can trace thos
e who are predisposed to heart attack. What is this technique?
A. Irradiation C. Gene-splicing technology
B. In-breeding technique D. Linkage

15. Which describes the type of cells that all animals are made of?
A. Endoplasmic C. Compound
B. Eukaryotic D. Prokaryotic

16. The fleshy part of the cashew which we eat is its_____________.
A. Ovule C. Penduncle
B. Ovary D. Receptacle

17. Lipase aids in the digestion of______________.
A. Enzymes C. Salts
B. Proteins D. Fats

18. Cells of us unicellular organisms, like bacteria and bluegreen algae are simple in structure. They are
classified as_________________.
A. Eukaryotic C. Procaryotic
B. Nucleod D. Caryotic

19. Insulin which enables the liver to store sugar secreted by the______________.
A. Pituitary gland C. Islets of langerhans
B. Adrenal medulla D. Adrenal cortex

20. Which is the procedure of calculating the age of an object that contains radioactive isotopes?
A. Rock decay C. Fossil examination
B. Radiometric dating D. Fossil indexing

21. As the test of the seed breaks, which structures come out first and grow into the first true leaves and
roots?
A. Two seed-leaves C. Plumule and radicle
B. Micropyle and epicotyl D. Testa and tegmen

22. What type of muscle occurs in the walls of hollow structure like ducts, blood vessels and intestines w
hose contraction is “involuntary”?
A. Straited C. Smooth
B. Skeletal D. Cardiac

23. Where does exchange of materials between the blood and the cells take place?
A. Arteries C. Platelets
B. Veins D. Capillaries

24. Butterflies and mosquitoes have mouthparts in the form of a long, narrow, coiled tube called______
____.
A. Mandibles C. Antennae
B. Proboscis D. Filament

25. Which is the ring of muscle that serves as the opening between the stomach and the small intestines
?
A. Septum C. Anal
B. Sphincter D. Rectal

26. Which are the tiny organs located each segment that are used for locomotion by the earthworms?
A. Flagella C. Pseudopodia
B. Cilia D. Setae

27. Which lung disorder is present when the alveolar walls breakdown and gas exchange is disturbed?
A. Macrophage destruction C. Bronchial irritation
B. Emphysema D. Pulmonary crisis

28. Why is it not advisable to drink sea water?
A. It can result in swelling.
B. The cells will burst instantly.
C. The cells will melt.
D. It can cause dehydration of the cells.

29. It is a process of accelerated biodegradation of moist kitchen waste into a humus-
like product. What is this process?
A. Shredding C. Composting
B. Recycling D. Reuse

30. In a carbon-oxygen cycle where does the oxygen come from?
A. Animals C. Plants
B. Water D. Soil




1. GNASH is related to TEETH as LISTEN is related to ____________.
a. hear
b. ears
c. resolve
d. dissuade
2. BREAD is related to BUTTER as POTATOES is related to ____________.
a. gravy
b. steak
c. margarine
d. lamb
3. PORCINE is related to PIG as BOVINE is related to ____________.
a. boy
b. cow
c. sheep
d. iodine
4. TAILOR is related to NEEDLE as MECHANIC is related to ____________.
a. engineer
b. screwdriver
c. tool chest
d. brush
5. DISTANCE is related to MILE as LIQUID is related to ____________.
a. milk
b. quart
c. water
d. meter
6. AUTOMOBILE is related to HIGHWAY as LOCOMOTIVE is related to ____________
.
a. station
b. train
c. track
d. engine
7. SUGGEST is related to REQUIRED as REQUEST is related to ____________.
a. ask
b. demand
c. suspect
d. allow
8. PROBLEM is related to SOLUTION as POISON is related to ____________.
a. hemlock
b. nitrate
c. arsenic
d. antidote
9. SAW is related to CUT as YARDSTICK is related to ____________.
a. foot
b. inch
c. measure
d. tool
10. AMBIGUOUS is related to CLARITY as TEMPORARY is related to ____________.
a. transient
b. permanence
c. clear
d. fragile
11. BOOK is related to CHAPTER as SONG is related to ____________.
a. stanza
b. sing
c. music
d. instrument
12. DELICACY is related to GOURMET as INSECT is related to ____________.
a. bee
b. pollen
c. frog
d. hive
13. AGILE is related to NIMBLE as FAST is related to ____________.
a. swift
b. slow
c. perpetual
d. racy
14. CHEMIST is related to LABORATORY as ARTIST is related to ____________.
a. canvas
b. museum
c. easel
d. studio
15. MOVIES is related to PROJECTOR as RECORDS is related to ____________.
a. speakers
b. tape recorder
c. phonograph
d. radio
16. STOOPED is related to POSTURE as SLURRED is related to ____________.
a. diction
b. stance
c. music
d. action
17. RETRACT is related to STATEMENT as VOID is related to ____________.
a. escape
b. avoidance
c. contract
d. empty
18. FELONY is related to MISDEMEANOR as KILL is related to ____________.
a. maim
b. bury
c. murder
d. guilty
19. BEGGAR is related to POOR as FOX is related to ____________.
a. skunk
b. slow
c. large
d. sly
20. SCALPEL is related to KNIFE as NURSE is related to ____________.
a. doctor
b. assistant
c. hospital
d. operation



ANSWER KEY and EXPLANATION
1. B – The first word is the action of the second word.
2. A – The second is usually put on the first word.
3. B – The first word means “pertaining to” the second word.
4. B – The second word is a tool of the first word.
5. B – The second word is a measure of the first word.
6. C – The first word travels on the second word.
7. B – The second word is an imperative (“must”) of the first word.
8. D – The second word overcomes the first word.
9. C – The first word is the tool to do the second word.
10. B – The first word is the opposite of the second word.
11. A – The second word is a part of the first word.
12. C – The first word is eaten by the second word.
13. A – The first word is a synonym of the second word.
14. D – The second word is where the first word works.
15. C – The second word plays the first word.
16. A – The first word is a n impairment of the second word.
17. C – The first word nullifies the second word.
18. A – The first word is a more serious degree of the second word.
19. D – The second word is a characteristic of the first word.
20. B – The first word is a medical term for the second word.
1. What is the missing term in the series? 2, 5, 11, 23, 47, ____
a. 115 b. 95 c. 105 d. 125
2. A store owner makes a 25% profit by selling an item for P800.00. How much is his profit?
a. P 1,400.00 b. P 200.00 c. P 250.00 d. P 160.00
3. The simplest expressions for 25/100 is ______
a. 1 b. 4 c. ½ d. 1/4
4. If the ratio of women to men in a meeting is 4 to 1, what percent of the persons in the
meeting are men?
a. 80% b. 20% c. 33 1/3 % d. 25%
5. Joel repacks a 60 kg sack of sugar into small packs of 750 g. How many small packs can
be made?
a. 90 b. 45 c. 55 d. 80
6. How much bigger is 550 than 375?
a. 175 b. 73 c. 45 d. 431
7. The product of 2 numbers is 36, and their ratio is 1: 4. Which of these is the smaller
number?
a. 9 b. 12 c. 3 d. 2
8. An Arithmetic book is 2 ½ cm thick. How many copies can be placed in a meter long shelf?
a. 44 b. 40 c. 36 d. 45
9. What is the smallest positive number that is a multiple of both 12 and 14?
a. 36 b. 42 c. 84 d. 168
10. 40% of 35 is what percent of 140?
a. 28% b. 29% c. 10% d. 14%
11. An employee earning P 9,200.00 a month will receive 15% increase next month. How
much will his/her new salary be?
a. P10,500 b. P10,530 c. P10,580 d. 10,560
12. In a certain school, the ratio of boys to girls is 3 to 7. If there are 150 boys and girls in the
school, how many boys are there?
a. 45 b. 90 c. 105 d. 75
13. A park has a triangular shape. It has a base of 12m and a height of 9m. What is the area?
a. 122 sq. m b. 42 sq. m. c. 108 sq. m. d. 54 sq. m.
14. The length of a new piece of chalk is about _________.
a. 1mm b. 10mm c. 10cm d. 1 cm
15. If 50% of x is 20, what is 30% of x?
a. 30 b. 12 c. 20 d. 16
16. Which of these fractions has the greatest value?
a. 4/5 b. 9/16 c. 7/10 d. 5/8

17. Which of the following is exactly divisible by 3 and 11?
a. 357404 b. 114345 c. 991111 d. 135792
18. If the variance of distribution is 25, then the standard deviation is _________.
a. 30 b. 5 c. 625 d. 12.5
19. Which of these numbers is greater than ¼ ?
a. 0.04 b.0.09 c. 1/8 d. 1/0.04
20. A senior class of 50 girls and 70 boys sponsored a dance. If 40% of the girls and 50% of
the boys attended the dance, approximately what percent attended?
a. 44 b. 46 c. 42 d. 40
21. What is the smallest positive integer that has 6, 8, and 10 as factors?
a. 300 b. 240 c. 80 d. 120
22. Joseph has more money than Mila but less than Billy. If the amounts held by Joseph, Mila
and Billy are x, y, and z respectively, which of the following is TRUE?
a. Z<X<Y b. X<Z<Y c. Y<X<Z d. Y<Z<X
23. How many ounces of pure acid must be added to 20 ounces of a solution that is 5% acid in
strength?
a. 2 ½ b. 1 c. 3 d. 5
24. Michael is 15 years older than this brother Rafael. However, y years ago Michael was twice
as old as Rafael. If Rafael is now x years old and x>y, find the value of x – y.
a. 13 b. 14 c. 15 d. 16
25. What percent is ¾ of ?
a. 65% b. 90% c. 80% d. 75%
26. What is the median of the following numbers? 8,5,7,5,9,9,1,8,10,5 and 10.
a. 9 b. 8 c. 5 d. 7
27. A certain pole casts a shadow 24 feet long. At the same time another pole 3 feet high casts
a shadow 4 feet long. How high is the first pole, given that the heights and shadows are in
proportion?
a. 20 ft. b. 24 ft. c. 18 ft. d. 21 ft.

28. The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is 42 in. The 2 equal sides are each 3 times as long
as the third side. What are the lengths of the three sides?
a. 18, 21, 3 c. 21, 21, 21
b. 6, 6, 8 d. 18, 18, 6




329. If a certain job can be finished by 18 workers in 26 days, how many workers are needed
to finish the job in 12 days?
a. 45 b. 39 c. 24 d. 30

330. A box is 12 inches wide, 16 inches long, and 6 inches high. How many square inches of
paper would be needed to cover it on all sides?
a. 192 b. 720 c. 360 d. 900
331. P 8,000.00 is invested at 12% simple interest. What is the amount at the end of 2 years?
a. P 9,600 b. P 8,960 c. P 8,240 d. P9,920



Answer Key
1. B
2. D
3. D
4.B
5.D
6.A
7. C
8. B
9. C
10. C
11. C
12. A
13. D
14. C
15. B
16. A
17. B
18. B
19. D
20. B
21. D
22. C
23. B
24. C
25. D
26. B
27. C
28. D
29. B
30. A
31. D


_____1. The school will hold a science fair. You tried to make a project but failed. The next thing you do is
a. to ask your father to do it for you
b. not to submit a project anymore
c. to try and try until you produce one
d. to tell your teacher that you can’t make one

_____2. A medium sized egg has a mass of 67.5 grams. What is the average mass of one egg in kg?
a. 0.000675 kg b. 0.00675 kg c. 0.0675 kg d. 0.675 kg

_____3. Before inventing the incandescent bulb, Thomas Alva Edison made the experiment repeatedly.
What step of scientific method was shown?


a. Tentativeness
b. Drawing the final conclusions
c. Superstitions
d. Curiosity


_____4. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the definition of science?
a. Body of knowledge and theory
b. Discontinuing of explanation of universe
c. Collection of facts
d. Systematic and meaningful patterns

_____5. Which unit of measurements is NOT USED for measuring volume?


a. Liter
b. cm
2

c. cm
3

d. Gallon


_____6. An irregularly-shaped solid was drop in a graduated cylinder which has a read of 40 cm
3
. The water
rose to 45 cm
3
. What is the volume of the solid?


a. 5cm
3

b. 5cm
c. 5cm
2

d. 5cm
6



_____7. Jericho wants to know the mass of a piece of metal. What instrument should he use?


a. Spring balance
b. Equal-arm balance
c. Graduated Cylinder
d. Platform balance


_____8. Your sister has a fever and you want to know her body temperature. What apparatus will you use?


a. Graduated cylinder
b. Room thermometer
c. Clinical thermometer
d. Laboratory thermometer


_____9. What is the standard unit of mass in metric?


a. Meter
b. Kilogram

c. Kilometer
d. Pound


_____10. Which of the following branches of science deals with the study of matter, energy and their
transformation?


a. Chemistry
b. Physics
c. Biology
d. Genetics


_____11. What scientific attitude must a person posses in seeking answers to things in which he is greatly
interested?


a. Open-mindedness
b. Flexibility
c. Curiosity
d. Resourcefulness


_____12. Which one of the following is the mental attitude that acts from sound reasoning?


a. Scientific method
b. Scientific attitude
c. Scientific mind
d. Scientific skills


_____13. Joshua respects the ideas and opinions of his classmates. He is


a. open-minded
b. curious
c. flexible
d. investigative


_____14. Jenny wants to know the length of the table. What instrument will she use?


a. Spring balance
b. Graduated cylinder
c. Ruler
d. Thermometer


_____15. Joy learned in school that fertilizers affect the growth of plants. She wanted to know how the
amount of fertilizer used affects its growth. Which of the following should she do?
a. Ask her science teacher the correct answer.
b. Conduct an experiment to find out.
c. Look for the correct answer.
d. Write the Bureau of soils.

_____16. Michael saw some big crabs crawling on the sand. He wandered where they came from so he tried
investigating.


a. Concern for living things
b. Creativity
c. Curiosity
d. Responsibility

_____17. Which of this concept is always considered by the scientist?
a. Accurate observations are necessary to recognize problems.
b. Events in nature do not occur in a predictable way.
c. Experiments provide information that will always support prediction.
d. Predictions do not point the way to possible solutions to a problem.

_____18. Which of the following is a technological innovation in the field of communication?


a. Fiber Optics
b. Genetic engineering
c. Radioactive Dating
d. Tissue Culture


_____19. You have identified the problem in your experiment, what is the next step?
a. Formulate the hypothesis c. gather relevant data
b. Formulate the conclusion d. test the hypothesis

_____20. How are the terms experiment and scientific method related?
a. The scientist performs experiment.
b. The scientist solves problem in a logical and scientific manner.
c. A scientific method of solving a problem may include doing an experiment.
d. An experiment proves and disproves a hypothesis.

_____21. If a figure of big magnitude are to be handled mathematically, it is wise to use
a. conversion units c. scientific notation
b. extrapolation d. square root

_____22. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about science and technology?
a. Science is an organized knowledge about environment.
b. Science taught man the relationship of living things with their environments.
c. Technology helps improve man’s life.
d. Technology can provide all the solutions to the problems of the society.

_____23. Which of the following is considered as technology?
a. Production of antibiotics c. Invention of computer
b. Invention of calculator d. all of the above

_____24. Why is the planet earth NOT thrown away by its orbit?
a. It is controlled by its fast revolution.
b. There is a path that holds it firmly.
c. The size is just right to maintain its distance.
d. The sun’s gravitational pull and inertia put it.

_____25. The annual journey of the earth around the sun is called
a. rotation b. revolution c. transition d. precession

_____26. What is the point in the earth’s orbit nearest to the sun?
a. Equinox b. Solstice c. Aphelion d. Perihelion

_____27. What is the inclination of the Earth’s axis?
a. 33.5° b. 43.5° c.23.5° d.63.5°

_____28. Why does the sun rise in the east and set in the west?
a. The earth rotates west to east
b. The earth revolve counterclockwise
c. The earth revolve east to west
d. The sun rotates from north to south

_____29. A planet’s elliptical orbit means that the planet
a. keeps the same distance c. is very far from the sun
b. is very near the sun d. gets nearer and farther from the sun

_____30. When the vertical rays of the sun strike the equator, the whole earth will have
a. equals day and night c. longer night an shorter days
b. longer days and shorter nights d. shorter nights and shorter days

_____31. In summer, we see the sun rise early and set late. Why?
a. The tilt is neither away or toward the sun.
b. The tilt of the axis is away from the sun.
c. The tilt of the axis is toward the sun.
d. The tilt is changing in degrees.

_____32. The seasons of the year change mainly because of
a. changing wind direction in summer and winter.
b. changing speed of earth’s revolution.
c. the inclination of the axis and revolution.
d. the elliptical orbit of the earth and revolution.

_____33. Exactly how long does it take for the trip around the sun?
a. 365 days, 5 hours, 48 minutes, 46 sec c. 365 and ¼ days
b. 362 days, 5 hours, 46 minutes, 45 sec d. 364 ¼ days

_____34. What dangerous rays kill space travelers?
a. X-rays c. Gamma rays
b. Radio waves d. Cosmic rays

_____35. Which satellites are sent to explore other planets like Mars and Venus?
a. Weather satellites c. Space Probe satellites
b. Navigation satellites d. Communication satellites

_____36. Which cell produce electricity in spaceship?
a. Fuel cells c. Atomic cells
b. Nuclear cells d. Solar cells

_____37. What organisms may be taken along in the space flights as a source of oxygen?
a. Protozoan b. Fungi c. Algae d. Bacteria

_____38. What fuel rises from rockets?
a. Kerosene b. Helium c. Nuclear power d. Oxygen

_____39. When the moon is passing the point of its orbit directly between the earth and the sun and it cannot
be seen, this phase of the moon is
a. Full moon b. Crescent c. Gibbon d. New moon

_____40. An imaginary line at 23 ½ north latitude is called
a. Tropic of Capricorn (S) c. Arctic Circle
b. Tropic of Cancer (N) d. Antarctic Circle

_____41. It is the length of time between two consecutive vernal equinoxes - 365 days, 5 hours, 48 minutes,
46 seconds. This year is known as
a. Sidereal year c. Solar year
b. Calendar year d. Tropical year

_____42. The sun never sets at summer time in this part of the earth
a. Northern hemisphere c. North of Arctic Circle
b. Southern hemisphere d. South of Antarctic Circle

_____43. On two occasions of the year, day and night are of equal length everywhere in the earth. Such
occurrence is called
a. equinox c. summer solstice
b. contour Lines d. contour intervals

_____44. On topographic map, the numerous fine brown lines which clearly indicate the landforms that
shows variations in elevation are
a. index contours c. bench marks
b. contour lines d. contour intervals

_____45. To earth scientists, the most important features on a map are the landforms that shape the earth’s
surface and are shown in
a. Hydrographic maps c. Radioactivity maps
b. Geologic maps d. Contour Interval

_____46. Which of the following IS NOT mechanical weathering?
a. Water seeps into cracks in rocks and then freezes and expands.
b. Thin flakes or curved scales peel off due to temperature changes.
c. The roots of plants work their way into small cracks of rock.
d. Minerals are continuously removed from soil and rock by solution.

_____47. A less obvious but equally-destructive form of soil erosion is called sheet wash. This occurs when
a. each gully enlarges with energy rain until a series of miniature canyons are produced.
b. water washes out small gullies running up and down slopes.
c. water strips away exposed topsoil lowly and evenly.
d. topsoil exposed area is blown away as cloud of dust and drifting sand.

_____48. Which process IS NOT intended primary to decrease soil erosion?
a. Strip cropping c. Soil creep
b. Contour plowing d. Crop rotation

_____49. Water dripping continuously from the cave will eventually produce a long ice like deposit of calcites
which hangs from the roof. This is called
a. Stalactite b. Stalagmite c. Sinks d. Geode

_____50. The ground water which accumulates above the aquifer underground has many sources. Which of
the following is a source of this kind of water?
a. Flood water c. Connate water
b. Meteoric water d. Magnetic water

_____51. A type of hot spring that, at intervals, throws steam and water high in the air is known as
a. geyser c. alkali spring
b. hillside spring d. mud flow

_____52. Faulting frequently forms like basins in the depression between tilted rocks. This type of lake is
formed through the process called
a. glacial action c. volcanic action
b. river action d. diastrophism

_____53. Basins that became partly or completely filled with fresh and decayed vegetation, sediments and
water called
a. ponds b. swamps c. Lakes d. playas

_____54. Which IS NOT considered a composition of true pure dry air?


a. Nitrogen b. Oxygen c. Carbon dioxide d. ozone


_____55. Sometimes a layer of warm air exists above a layer of cool air next to the ground and it traps the
polluted air because the upper warm air acts as a lid to prevent it from being carried away. This condition
is called


a. temperature inversion
b. temperature immersion
c. fountain layer
d. ozone layer


_____56. A type of barometer used to measure approximate altitude above the earth’s surface is the


a. barograph
b. altimeter
c. mercurial barometer
d. aneroid barometer


_____57. Because of the earth’s rotation on air movement, the path of things that move over the earth tends
to curve sidewise. This is known as


a. coriolis effect
b. doldrums
c. circumpolar whirl
d. mountain breeze


_____58. At night, the land cools faster than the water, then the wind blows from the land towards the water.
This is known as


a. sea breeze
b. land breeze
c. valley breeze
d. mountain breeze

_____59. All of the following instruments are used to measure humidity in the air except


a. hydrometer
b. hygrometer
c. wet and dry bulb thermometer
d. psychrometer


_____60. Thin, feather like clouds with a delicate appearance, frequently arranged in bends across the sky
sometimes called mare’s tail is


a. cirrostratus b. cirrocumulus c. cirrus d. stratus

_____61. Some kind of microscopic particles are required upon which the water may collect and condense
known as condensation nuclei. An example is


a. dust
b. smoke
c. salt particles
d. all of the above


_____62. A type of front is formed when moving cold air mass wedges its way under a warm air mass. It is
called


a. cold front
b. warm front
c. stationary front
d. violent front



_____63. One valuable electronic weather instrument is radar. What is it used for?

I. To give the precise location and extent of storms
II. To tract hurricane
III. To measure the speed of high altitude air
IV. To predict earthquakes

a. I & II b. I, II, & III c. II, III, & IV d. II & IV

_____64. A special property of minerals which gives off light rays after exposure to ultraviolet light is called


a. fluorescence b. phosphorescence c. luminescence d. irradiation

_____65. How can the changes in temperature break rocks?
a. Minerals expand and contract at uniform rate.
b. Minerals contract and not expand.
c. Minerals expand and do not return to their original size.
d. Minerals expand and do not contract in unequal amount.

_____66. Which part of a fold may form a mountain?


a. Anticline b. Syncline c. Trough d. Crest


_____67. Which of the changes in the surface of the earth is a chemical change?
a. The edges of the earth’s crust plates bend or rock when they bump each other.
b. Rocks under great pressure and temperature become harder, denser and produce new minerals.
c. Salt crystal form when water containing dissolved sediments evaporates.
d. The rising warm air from ocean gets cold and form the ocean gets cold and forms cloud in the sky.

_____68. Suppose you have samples of rocks which are hard, layered and contains small particles of shells
or remain of plants and animals. How do you classify these rocks?


a. Metamorphic rock
b. Igneous rock
c. Sedimentary rocks
d. A mixture of three types


_____69. The molten rock material found inside the earth is


a. magma b. lava c. extrusive d. sediment

_____70. What element makes the 70% of the earth’s crust?


a. Oxygen and Silicon
b. Sodium and Magnetism
c. Iron and Calcium
d. Iron and Nickel


_____71. What natural form changes the rock into a metamorphic rock?


a. Cutting force of sea waves
b. Extremely high temperature
c. Expulsion from volcano
d. Erupting force of running water


_____72. Which of the following planets has NO atmosphere?


a. Mercury b. Earth c. Venus d. Mars


_____73. In a swimming pool, as we go deeper, water pressure


a. increases
b. decreases
c. stays the same
d. is balanced


_____74. What characteristic do air, water and minerals have in common?


a. They contain atoms
b. Their atoms are close together
c. Their atoms are moving at the same speed
d. Their atoms are separate from great distance


_____75. Insecticide spray cans are provided with caution labels: “keep in a cool place”. What will happen if
these cans are stored in a hot environment?


a. The can will burst.
b. The can will collapse.
c. Nothing will happen to the can.
d. The can will corrode faster


_____76. If water pressure decreases when depth decreases, we can say that
a. water pressure is proportional to depth.
b. water pressure is inversely proportional to depth.

c. water pressure is independent of the depth.

d. depth is dependent on the water pressure.


_____77. Due to the sinking of the faulting in the islands, huge sea waves rose and swept four towns into
the sea. These are called
a. Tsunamis b. Isostasies c. sea quakes d. fissures

_____78. What instruments detect earthquakes?


a. Barometer b. Clinometer c. Siesmograph d.Thermograph

_____79. What happens when air is heated?


a. It remains the same.
b. It expands and rises.
c. It remains at sea level.
d. It expands and moves down.


_____80. The nearest galaxy to the Milky Way is


a. Andromeda
b. Sirius
c. Large Magellanic Cloud.
d. Cygnus


_____81. A mountain cannot be formed by


a. volcanic eruption
b. folding
c. faulting
d. weathering


_____82. We usually feel uncomfortable during humid days. A humid day is a condition in which air is


a. warm and dry
b. warm and moist
c. cold and moist
d. cold and dry


_____83. Which process involves chemical weathering?


a. Oxidation
b. Hydration
c. Carbonation
d. all of the above


_____84. Some homeowners cover their concrete fences with creeping plants. What would be the effect of
those plants on the concrete fences?
a. These plants will decorate on the fences.
b. The growth of the plants inside crevices can split the rock apart.
c. These plants produce weak acids which can dissolve and break down concrete fences.
d. The growth of the plants can cause the rocks to move closer.

_____85. Which of the following statements is true about water?


a. It is denser at 10C.
b. It is denser at 50C.
c. It is denser between 60C-70C.
d. It is denser at 85C.


_____86. Why do fogs disappear the moment the sun comes out?
a. The water droplets that make up the fog change to visible vapor as they are warmed by the sun.
b. The water droplets increase in number as the sun comes out.
c. The water droplets become water vapor.
d. Fogs become clouds as the sun comes out.

_____87. Why is oxygen regarded as the life giving element on earth?
a. It supports burning of material
b. It is needed for many chemical processes in the body
c. It is given off by plants
d. It captures sunlight

_____88. In which setup does water drip last?


a. Set up A b. Set up B c. Set up C d. Both B and C

_____89. Which soil sample allows water to pass through once?
a. Sand b. Loam c. Clay d. none of the above

_____90. Which soil sample has the better drainage?
a. Sand b. Loam c. Clay d. all of the above

_____91. The low-lying flat clouds are


a. stratus clouds
b. cumulus clouds
c. nimbus clouds
d. nimbostratus clouds


_____92. What are rocks that form by cooling and hardening of molten materials?


a. Igneous rocks
b. Sedimentary rocks
c. Metamorphic rocks
d. Marble


_____93. When the moon is between the earth and the sun, we experience a


a. Lunar eclipse
b. Solar eclipse
c. Full moon
d. New moon


_____94. The seasons of the earth are caused by the
a. elliptical orbit and varying speed of revolution.
b. greater distance of the earth from the sun during winter than summer.
c. inclination of the axis of rotation to the planet of its orbit and revolution around the sun.
d. variation in the amount of energy given off by the sun.

_____95. Due to lack of rain in Metro Manila, weather scientist produce artificial rain by dropping dry ice from
airplane to humidify clouds. The process is known as


a. cloud seeding b. precipitation c. condensation d. evaporation


_____96. Energy from the underground hot springs is utilized in power plants located in Tiwi, Albay and Mt.
Makiling, Laguna. This energy is called


a. nuclear energy
b. hydroelectric energy
c. dendrothermal energy
d. geothermal energy

_____97. The thinning of the ozone layer is due to the use of


a. weed killers and insecticide.
b. hydrocarbons like gasoline.
c. supersonic transport and aerosol sprays.
d. mercury in gold mines.


_____98. The humid day is a condition in which you feel uncomfortable because the atmosphere is


a. warm and moist.
b. warm and dry.
c. cold and moist.
d. cold and dry.


_____99. Which of the following would be the effect of a rise on carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?


a. Cooling of the atmosphere
b. Increases in the solar radiation
c. Darkening of the air
d. Warming of the atmosphere


_____100. As soon as the planets make its regular trip around the sun, what unit of time is completed?
a. Day b. Night c. Year d. Month

_____101. What phenomenon on the earth is caused by its revolution?


a. Day and night
b. Seasons
c. Weather disturbance light
d. Light interference


_____102. Which part of the atmosphere filters the ultraviolet rays of the sun?


a. Stratosphere
b. Ozone layer
c. Exosphere
d. Troposphere


_____103. An eclipse occurs when the sun, moon and earth are in the same line. Which of the following
statements explain this?


a. Light travels in straight line.
b. Light can be refracted.
c. The speed and direction of light can be reflected.
d. Light can be reflected.



_____104. Why is the sun the only star which gives much heat and light to the earth?
a. The sun is bigger than the other stars.
b. The sun is hotter that other stars.
c. The sun is closer to the earth than the other stars.
d. The sun is moving faster than the other stars.

_____105. The greenhouse effect refers to the
a. absorption of the green color of the sunlight
b. reflection of the green color of the sunlight
c. release of oxygen by green plants in the atmosphere
d. dropping of heat rays by the earth’s atmosphere

_____106. Which kind of tide occurs during new moon and full moon?


a. Neap tide
b. Spring tide
c. Seasons tide
d. Cresent tide


_____107. Molten materials expelled outside the earth’s surface are called


a. magma b. lava c. steam d. dunes


_____108. Clouds help determine the weather conditions. Which of the following clouds is rain producing?


a. Cumulus b. Stratus c. Nimbus d. Cumulonimbus



_____109. Which part of the sun is visible during the total solar eclipse?


a. Photosphere
b. Corona
c. Chromosphere
d. Reversing layer


_____110. What is the difference between the cloud and water vapor?
a. A cloud contains bigger water molecules that the water vapor.
b. A cloud is found much higher in the atmosphere than the water vapor.
c. A cloud is liquid while water vapor is gas.
d. There is no significant difference between a cloud and water vapor.

_____111. What happens when warm moist air in the atmosphere is cooled?
a. Water drops are formed
b. It expands
c. It become less dense
d. It becomes lighter


_____112. Ozone gas is composed of


a. atomic oxygen
b. oxygen gas
c. three atoms of oxygen
d. two atoms of oxygen


_____113. The unequal heating of earth’s surface produces


a. convection current
b. convex current
c. concave current
d. radiation


_____114. The scientific phenomenon best described by the disappearance of either the sun or the moon is
the


a. eclipse
b. full moon
c. new moon
d. cresent


_____115. The process of breaking down rocks into pieces is


a. carbonation b. precipitation c. volcanism d. weathering


_____116.What is formed in collision of oceanic plates or and continental plates?


a. Ridge
b. Trench
c. Sea clip
d. Sea cave


_____117. The removal of soil from one place and its transport to other place is


a. erosion b. weathering c. siltation d. deposition



_____118. The planet which is clothed in a thick atmosphere of mainly carbon dioxide and has a surface
temperature of 480 C is


a. Mars b. Mercury c. Venus d. Jupiter


_____119.The theory that one of the formations of the planets suggest that dust from nebula gather in various
gravitational centers and then gather together to form the planets is


a. Accretion theory
b. Proto-planet theory
c. Big bang theory
d. Creation theory


_____120.The charged particles from the sun thrown to the poles by the Earth’s magnetic field and the impact
of the particles excites the molecule of the gases in the upper atmosphere and caused them to gives off
red and occasionally blue or violet light. This display of light is called


a. Aurora borealis
b. Aurora australis
c. solar flare
d. solar prominences



_____121.The halo observed during a total solar eclipse is called


a. chromosphere
b. photosphere
c. corona
d. sunspot


_____122. All planets in the solar system


a. have the same surface temperature.
b. can maintain human life.
c. revolve around the sun.
d. are exactly same size.


_____123.The planet which has a bright red or yellowish region is


a. Jupiter b. Mercury c. Hermes d. Mars


_____124.A planet that goes through phases as the moon does is


a. Jupiter b. Neptune c. Uranus d. Venus



_____125. Comets often have eccentric orbits. This means that


a. their orbits are circular.
b. their time of arrival are unpredictable.
c. the sun is closer to one end of the orbit.
d. they cannot be seen without a telescope.


_____126. The face in which we see the greatest illuminated area of the moon is


a. new moon b. gibbous c. full moon d. last quarter


_____127. When the earth passes into the dark part of the moon shadow, there is a


a. Lunar eclipse
b. A crescent
c. Solar eclipse
d. An annular eclipse



_____128. Coral reefs are the work of organisms such are coral and other sea animals and plants. Its form is
characterized by
a. Close attachment to the shore of an island or continent
b. Long narrow strips same distance from the shore with a lagoon between.
c. Roughly circular strips which enclose the lagoon
d. All of the above.

_____129. What do fossils tell us?
a. From them one can assemble a fairly good picture of ancient animals
b. Living things tend to record their own history
c. Some reveal what the organism is but a little or nothing about the creature itself
d. All of the above

_____130. The water table is the table below where the surface rocks are saturated with water. Which
is NOT a source of ground water?


a. Flood water
b. Meteoric water
c. Connate water
d. Magmatic water


_____131. At night the land cools faster than water. The wind blows from the land towards the water. This is
known as


a. sea breeze
b. land breeze
c. valley breeze
d. mountain breeze


_____132.The weather disturbance characterized by severe local storms accompanied by lightning and
thunder associated with rapidly rising columns of warm, moist air with corresponding down drafts of cooler
air is known as


a. low pressure area
b. tropical cyclone
c. tornado
d. thunder storm



_____133. Latitude is measured from


a. the prime meridian
b. the north pole
c. the equator
d. Greenwich, England

_____134. If you close the international dateline going east on the Monday, the next day would be


a. Monday b. Tuesday c. Wednesday d. Sunday

_____135. Which type of soil can hold more water?

a. Sandy soil b. Sand and humus c. Pebbles and boulderrs d.Sand and gravel





Answer key:
1. c
2.c
3.b
4.b
5. b
6.a
7.b/d
8.c
9.b
10.b
11.c
12.c
13.a
14.c
15.b
16.c
17.a
18.a
19.b
20.d
21.c
22.d
23.d
24.d
25.b
26.d
27.c
28.a
29.d
30. a
31. c
32.c
33.c
34. c
35.c
36.d
37.c
38.d
39.d
40.b
41.c
42.c
43.a
44.b
45.b
46.d
47.a
48.c
49.a
50.b
51.a
52.d
53.b
54.d
55.a
56.b
57.a
58.b
59.a
60.c
61.d
62.a
63.b
64.a
65.d
66.a
67.c
68.c
69.a
70.a
71.b
72.a
73.a
74.a
75.a
76.a
77.a
78.c
79.b
80.a
81.d
82.b
83.d
84.c
85.a
86.c
87.b
88.c
89.a
90.a
91.b
92.a
93.b
94. c
95.a
96.d
97.c
98.a
99.d
100.c
101.b
102.b
103.a
104.c
105.d
106.b
107.b
108.c
109.b
110.d
111.a
112.c
113.a
114.a
115.d
116.a
117.a
118.c
119.a
120.a/b
121.c
122.c
123.a
124.d
125.c
126.c
127.c
128.d
129.d
130.a
131.b
132.d
133.c
134.b
135.b


26. Based on Piaget's theory, what should a teacher provide for children in the sensimotor stage?

A. Games and other physical activities to develop motor skill.
B. Learning activities that involve problems of classification and ordering.
C. Activities for hypothesis formulation.
D. Stimulating environment with ample objects to play with.

27. Who among the following puts more emphasis on core requirements, longer school day,
longer academic year and more challenging textbooks?

A. Perennialist
B. Essentialist
C. Progressivist
D. Existentialist

28. The search for related literature by accessing several databases by the use of a telephone line
to connect a computer library with other computers that have database is termed
__________.

A. compact disc search
B. manual search
C. on-line search
D. computer search

29. With synthesizing skills in mind, which has the highest diagnostic value?

A. Essay test
B. Performance test
C. Completion test
D. Multiple choice test

30. Based on Piaget's theory, what should a teacher provide for children in the concrete
operational stage?

A. Activities for hypothesis formulation.
B. Learning activities that involve problems of classification and ordering.
C. Games and other physical activities to develop motor skills.
D. Stimulating environment with ample objects to play with.

31. Read the following then answer the question:
TEACHER: IN WHAT WAYS OTHER THAN THE PERIODIC TABLE MIGHT WE PREDICT
THE UNDISCOVERED ELEMENTS?
BOBBY: WE COULD GO TOTHE MOON AND SEE IF THERE ARE SOME ELEMENTS THERE
WE DON'T HAVE.
BETTY: WE COULD DIG DOWN TO THE CENTER OF THE EARTH AND SEE IF WE FIND
ANY OF THE MISSING ELEMENTS.
RICKY: WE COULD STUDY DEBRIS FROM THE METEORITES IF WE CAN FIND ANY.
TEACHER: THOSE ARE ALL GOOD ANSWERS BUT WHAT IF THOSE, EXCURSIONS TO
THE MOON, TO THE CENTER OF THE EARTH, OR TO FIND METEORITES WERE TOO
COSTLY AND TIME CONSUMING? HOW MIGHT WE USE THE ELEMENTS WE ALREADY
HAVE HERE ON EARTH TO FIND SOME NEW ONES?
Question: Which questioning strategy/ies does/do the exchange of thoughts above illustrate?

A. Funneling
B. Sowing and reaping
C. Nose-dive
D. Extending and lifting

32. Which is NOT a sound purpose for asking questions?

A. To probe deeper after an answer is given.
B. To discipline a bully in class.
C. To remind students of a procedure.
D. To encourage self-reflection.

33. The main purpose of compulsory study of the Constitution is to __________

A. develop students into responsible, thinking citizens
B. acquaint students with the historical development of the Philippine Constitution
C. make constitutional experts of the students
D. prepare students for law-making

34. A child who gets punished for stealing candy may not steal again immediately. But this does
not mean that the child may not steal again. Based on Thorndike's theory on punishment and
learning, this shows that __________

A. punishment strengthens a response
B. punishment removes a response
C. punishment does not remove a response
D. punishment weakens a response

35. As a teacher, you are a reconstructionist. Which among these will be your guiding principle?

A. I must teach the child every knowledge, skill, and value that he needs for a
better future.
B. I must teach the child to develop his mental powers to the full.
C. I must teach the child so he is assured of heaven.
D. I must teach the child that we can never have real knowledge of anything.

36. How can you exhibit expert power on the first day of school?

A. By making them feel you know what you are talking about.
B. By making them realize the importance of good grades.
C. By reminding them your students your authority over them again and again.
D. By giving your students a sense of belonging and acceptance.

37. A sixth grade twelve-year old boy comes from a dysfunctional family and has been abused
and neglected. He has been to two orphanages and three different elementary schools. The
student can decode on the second grade level, but he can comprehend orally material at the
fourth or fifth grade level. The most probable cause/s of this student's reading problem is/are
__________.

A. emotional factors
B. poor teaching
C. neurological factors
D. immaturity

38. Teacher Q does not want Teacher B to be promoted and so writes an anonymous letter
against Teacher B accusing her of fabricated lies Teacher Q mails this anonymous letter to the
Schools Division Superintendent. What should Teacher Q do if she has to act professionally?

A. Submit a signed justifiable criticism against Teacher B, if there is any.
B. Go straight to the Schools Division Superintendent and gives criticism verbally.
C. Hire a group to distribute poison letters against Teacher B for information dissemination.
D. Instigate student activists to read poison letters over the microphone.

39. In self-directed learning, to what extent should a teacher's scaffolding be?

A. To a degree the student needs it.
B. None, to force the student to learn by himself.
C. To the minimum, to speed up development of student's sense of independence.
D. To the maximum, in order to extend to the student all the help he needs.

40. If your Licensure Examination Test (LET) items sample adequately the competencies listed
in the syllabi, it can be said that the LET possesses __________ validity.

A. concurrent
B. construct
C. content
D. predictive

41. Which guideline must be observed in the use of prompting to shape the correct performance
of your students?

A. Use the least intrusive prompt first.
B. Use all prompts available.
C. Use the most intrusive prompt first.
D. Refrain from using prompts.

42. It is not wise to laugh at a two-year old child when he utters bad word because in his stage he
is learning to __________.

A. consider other's views
B. distinguish sex differences
C. socialize
D. distinguish right from wrong
43. In a treatment for alcoholism, Ramil was made to drink an alcoholic beverage and then
made to ingest a drug that produces nausea. Eventually, he was nauseated at the sight and smell
of alcohol and stopped drinking alcohoL Which theory explains this?

A. Operant conditioning
B. Social Learning Theory
C. Associative Learning
D. Attribution Theory

44. Which is a true foundation of the social order?

A. Obedient citizenry
B. The reciprocation of rights and duties
C. Strong political leadership
D. Equitable distribution of wealth

45. As a teacher, what do you do when you engage yourself in major task analysis?
A. Test if learning reached higher level thinking skills.
B. Breakdown a complex task into sub-skills.
C. Determine the level of thinking involved.
D. Revise lesson objectives.

46. In instructional planning it is necessary that the parts of the plan from the first to the last
have __________.

A. clarity
B. symmetry
C. coherence
D. conciseness

47. In a study conducted, the pupils were asked which nationality they preferred, if given a
choice. Majority of the pupils wanted to be Americans. In this case, in which obligation relative
to the state, do schools seem to be failing? In their obligation to __________.

A. respect for all duly constituted authorities
B. promote national pride
C. promote obedience to the laws of the state
D. instill allegiance to the Constitution

48. The best way for a guidance counselor to begin to develop study skills and habits in
underachieving student would be to __________.
A. have these underachieving students observe the study habits of excelling students
B. encourage students to talk about study habits from their own experiences
C. have them view film strips about various study approaches
D. give out a list of effective study approaches

49. What is most likely to happen to our economy when export continuously surpasses importis
a thought question on __________.

A. creating
B. relating cause-and-effect
C. synthesizing
D. predicting