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MCT-0001/08

PRE MOCK CAT - 1

Answers and Explanations

Check detailed analysis of this test at

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Total

Questions

Time Taken

(Min)

Total

Attempts

Correct

Attempts

Incorrect

Attempts

Net

Score

TOTAL 75 150

MY PERFORMANCE

Logical Reasoning based

Data Interpretation

Language Comprehension

and English Usage

Quantitative Ability Section I 25

Section II 25

25 Section III

1 1 2 2 3 5 4 1 5 4 6 4 7 2 8 2 9 5 10 1

11 3 12 1 13 1 14 4 15 3 16 1 17 5 18 1 19 3 20 1

21 4 22 5 23 4 24 1 25 3 26 3 27 1 28 2 29 3 30 2

31 2 32 3 33 2 34 5 35 4 36 5 37 4 38 4 39 4 40 5

41 1 42 4 43 3 44 1 45 3 46 2 47 1 48 2 49 5 50 1

51 2 52 1 53 5 54 1 55 3 56 4 57 3 58 1 59 5 60 3

61 4 62 2 63 4 64 5 65 1 66 3 67 4 68 3 69 3 70 3

71 5 72 3 73 4 74 5 75 2

2 PRE MOCK CAT - 1

1. 1 Let Shefali have ‘7x’ red and ‘x’ black marbles with her.

∴ Total number of marbles with her = 8x.

Let, Parul have ‘9y’ red and ‘y’ black marbles with her.

Total number of marbles with her = 10y

It is given that 8x + 10y = 90

or 4x + 5y = 45

⇒ ‘x’ should be a multiple of 5

The value of ‘x’ is 5 or 10.

And the value of ‘y’ is 5 or 1.

So, Parul has 9 or 45 red marbles with her.

2. 2 Let ‘a’ and ‘b’ be the length of sides of the rectangle.

Given, 2a + b = 100 and Area = ab

( )( ) ·

1

Area 2a b

2

If sum of 2 positive quantities is constant, then the product is

maximum when the two positive quantities are equal.

∴ b = 50 units and a = 25 units

Maximum Area = 50 × 25 = 1250 sq. units

3. 5

7 77 777 77777777

7 7 7 7

8

+ + + …+

= (–1)

7

+ (–1)

77

+ .... (–1)

77777777

= –1 –1 –1 .... 8 times = –8

Therefore, the remainder when –8 is divided by 8 is zero.

4. 1 If they travel in the same direction they will met at 10 – 3 = 7

distinct points.

If they travel in opposite direction they will meet at 10 + 3 = 13

distinct points.

Hence the ratio = 7 : 13

5. 4 Given LCM of 6

6

,

8

8

and ‘n’ is 12

12

⇒ LCM of (2

6

× 3

6

, 2

24

and ‘n’) is 2

24

× 3

12

So, ‘n’ can take the following values

2

0

× 3

12

, 2

1

× 3

12

, 2

2

× 3

12

, …, 2

24

× 3

12

.

So, the number of values that ‘n’ can take is 25.

6. 4 For real roots, − ≥

2

b 4ac 0 .

Here, maximum possible value of 4ac is 480 which is less

than the minimum value of b

2

that is 22

2

= 484. So, every

combination of values of ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ will give real roots. So,

‘a’ and ‘c’ can be chosen at a time in

6

C

2

ways. But ‘a’ and ‘c’

are distinct. Therefore, number of quadratic equations that

can be formed = (

6

C

2

× 2) × 3 = 15 × 2 × 3 = 90.

7. 2 If Tania solves more than 12 problems on any day then in

three days period she can solve a maximum of 20 + 6 + 6 = 32

problems. On the other hand she could have solved 36

problems over this span by solving 12 problems each day.

So to achieve the maximum she must not solve more than 12

problems on any day except possibly the last day.

So, maximum number of problems she could have solved

= 99 × 12 + 20 = 1208

8. 2

A

B

C

O

N

P

60°

AB = BC and ∠ · ° ABC 60

⇒ ∆ABCis an equilateral triangle

Now see that

ABOP

is a rectangle.

and BAN 60 ∠ · ° ⇒ ∠ · ° − ° · ° NAP 90 60 30

and

1

ANP 90 45

2

∠ · × ° · °

Now in ∆ANP ,

NPA 180 45 30 105 ∠ · ° − ° − ° · °

And hence

NPO NPA OPA

105 90 15

∠ · ∠ − ∠

· ° − ° · °

9. 5 After the first operation the quantity of pure milk remaining in

the solution =

− | `

×

. ,

30 10

30

30

L

After the second operation the quantity of pure milk remaining

in the solution

− − | ` | `

× ×

. , . ,

30 10 40 10

30

30 40

| ` | `

· × ×

. , . ,

2 3

30

3 4

L

Similarly after (n – 1) such operations the quantity of pure milk

remaining in the solution

2 3 n

30

3 4 n 1

| ` | ` | `

· × × ×…×

+

. , . , . ,

·

+

60

L

n 1

Alternative method:

After first, second and third operation; pure milk quantities are

20 L, 15 L and 12 L respectively.

Put n = 2, 3, and 4 in the choices.

Only option (3) is satisfied.

Short cut:

When no operation is carried out, quantity of pure milk = 30 L

⇒ n – 1 = 0

⇒ n = 1

Putting n = 1 in the options, only option (3) gives 30 as the

result.

10. 1 After ‘n’ such operations, the quantity of pure milk the remaining

in solution

2 3 n 1

30

3 4 n 2

+ | ` | ` | `

· × × ×…×

+

. , . , . ,

=

60

n 2 +

L

The quantity of water remaining in the solution

60

(30 10n) L

n 2

| `

· + −

+

. ,

After each operation, effectively, 10L of water is being added.

Ratio of quantity water to milk after ‘n’ such operations

| ` | `

· + −

+ +

. , . ,

60 60

(30 10n) :

n 2 n 2

= n(n + 5) : 6

For n = 10

Required Ratio = 25 : 1

11. 3 We have 4 parts from first cut.

From second cut we will have 3 + 4 = 7 parts

∴ Number of parts will always be of the form 3n + 1, where

‘n’ is a natural number.

Only, option (3) satisfies the condition.

3 PRE MOCK CAT - 1

12. 1

___

___

First die Second die Third die

1 2 (3, 4, 5, 6) — 4 outcomes

1 3 (4, 5, 6) — 3

1 4 (5, 6) — 2

1 5 (6) — 1

Total 10 ·

___

___

First die Second die Third die

2 3 (4, 5, 6) — 3

2 4 (5, 6) — 2

2 5 (6) — 1

Total 6 ·

First die Second die Third die

3 4 (5,6) — 2

3 5 6 — 1

Total 3 ·

First die Second die Third die

4 5 6 1 −

So, total number of out comes = 10 + 6 + 3 + 1 = 20

Total chances = 6 × 6 × 6 = 216

Probability =

Favourable chances

Total chances

=

20 5

216 54

·

13. 1 Let the common difference of the arithmetic progression be

‘d’.

Sum of first 30 terms of the arithmetic progression

[ ]

30

2x( 29) (30 1)d

2

· − + −

15( 58 29d) 0 ⇒ − + ·

d 2 ⇒ ·

Sum of 28

th

, 29

th

and 30

th

term of this arithmetic progression

= 3(–29) + (27 + 28 +29) × 2 = 81

14. 4 Let the weight and height of the tree be ‘w’ and ‘h’ respectively.

⇒ h = aw + bw

2

where a and b are constants.

Here,

6 = 40a + 40

2

. b

8 = 50a + 50

2

. b

11 1

a and b

100 1000

⇒ · ·

If h = 5,

2

11 1

5 w w

100 1000

· +

Solving, w = 35 approximately.

Short cut:

h = 8 ⇒ w = 50

h = 6 ⇒ w = 40

h = 5 ⇒ some quantity moderately less than 40.

39 is too close

⇒ 35 should be the correct answer.

15. 3 Let the number be xy.

∴ 10x + y = q(x + y)

∴ (10 – q)x = y(q – 1)

or

x q 1

y 10 q

−

·

−

…(i)

If number xy is reversed, let it be equal to ‘p’ times the sum of

digits.

Then 10y + x = p(x + y)

⇒ x(p – 1) = y(10 – p)

or

x 10 p

y p 1

−

·

−

…(ii)

Comparing

10 p q 1

p 1 10 q

− −

·

− −

Solving, we get p = 11 – q

Alternative method:

Assume any number, say 12

12 = 4 × (1 + 2)

and 21 = 7 × 3

Substituting q = 4 in the options, only option (3) results in 7.

16. 1

1

f (n) 1– f (n – 1)

n

| `

·

. ,

n – 1

f (n) f (n – 1)

n

| `

⇒ ·

. ,

n – 1 n – 2

f (n) f (n – 2)

n n – 1

| ` | `

⇒ · ×

. , . ,

( ) ( )

− − − | ` | ` | `

⇒ · × × × ×

− −

. , . , . ,

n 1 n 2 n 3

f n ...... f 1

n n 1 n 2

.

1 1

f(n) f(1)

n n

⇒ · × ·

∴

1 1 1

......

f(1) f(2) f(9)

+ + +

= 1 + 2 + 3 + ..... + 9 = 45

17. 5 Assume a black cow gives ‘x’ L milk per day and a brown

cow gives ‘y’ L milk per day.

⇒ 5(4x + 3y) = 4(3x + 5y)

⇒ 8x = 5y

x 5

y 8

⇒ ·

Given that x = 10 L

∴ y = 16 L

18. 1 The quadrilateral formed by joining the mid-points of a rectangle

is a rhombus.

Area of rhombus =

1

2

× area of rectangle

Area of inner rectangle =

1

2

× (area of rhombus)

Let the area of the biggest rectangle be 1 square unit.

∴ Sum of area of all the rectangles obtained

= 1 +

1 1

4 16

+

+ .... ∞

4 PRE MOCK CAT - 1

=

1 4

1 3

1

4

·

−

square units

Sum of area of all the rhombuses

= + + + ∞ · ·

−

1

1 1 1 2

2

....

1 2 8 32 3

1

4

∴ Required ratio =

4

3

2

3

= 2 : 1

19. 3

___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___

H T U

(HTU) possible combinations

(1, 3, 2), (1, 5, 2), (1, 2, 4), (1, 6, 4), (1, 3, 6), (1, 5, 6)

(2, 6, 4), (2, 1, 6), (2, 3, 6), (2, 5, 6)

(3, 2, 4), (3, 6, 4), (3, 1, 6), (3, 5, 6)

(4, 1, 6), (4, 3, 6), (4, 5, 6)

(5, 1, 6), (5, 3, 6)

⇒ 19 combination

The remaining 3 places in 3! ways i.e. 6 ways

So total number of ways = 6 × 19 = 114 ways

20. 1

(ab × cd) (1 × 6)

ad = = = 12

1 bc

2

| `

. ,

1

× 2

(bc × de) 1 2

be = = =

cd 6 6

| `

. ,

1

6 ×

(cd × ef) 3 2

cf = = =

de 2 2

| `

. ,

1 3

ad : be : cf = 12 : : = 72 : 1 : 9

6 2

⇒

Alternative Method:

Let f = 1, then finding values subsequently,

1 3 1

e = , d = 4, c = , b = , a = 3

2 2 3

Value of ad : be : cf = 72 : 1 : 9

21. 4 Cost of a tubelight = Rs. t and cost of a bulb = Rs. b

t + b = 52

Cost of bulb drops by 20% and cost of tubelight increases by

50%

⇒ 1.5t + 0.8b = 50

Solving the two equations in ‘t’ and ‘b’,

t + b = 52

1.5t + 0.8b = 50

Multiplying first equation by 4 and second equation by 5,

4t + 4b = 208

7.5t + 4b = 250

Subtracting,

3.5t = 42

⇒ t = 12

Thus, cost of a tubelight = Rs. 12

22. 5 Given curves can be drawn as

(–3, 0)

y = |x|

y = –|x|

(– 3, 3) (3, 3)

(3, 0)

A

B

C

D

O

(3, – 3) (– 3, – 3)

The area generated by the three curves is the sum of the

areas of the triangles OAB and OCD.

=

( )

1

2 6 3 18 square units

2

¹ ¹

× × ·

' '

¹ ¹

23. 4 Area of a regular hexagon of side · ×

2

3

a 6 a

4

Area of a square of side b = b

2

× ·

2 2

3

6 a b

4

⇒ ·

2

2

b 3 3

2

a

⇒ ·

3/ 4

b 3

a 2

Required Ratio

1/ 4 3/ 4

4

4b 4 3 2 4

6a 3 6 2 3

× | `

· · · ·

× . ,

24. 1 3 a

1

. a

n+2

exists in all options.

∴ We will calculate it first.

n 2

1 n 2

n 2

1 1

a .a x x

x

x

+

+

+

| `| `

· + +

. ,. ,

n 3 n 1

n 3 n 1

1 1

x x

x x

+ +

+ +

· + + +

1 n 2 n 3 n 1

n 3 1 n 2 n 1

a .a a a

a a .a a

+ + +

+ + +

⇒ · +

⇒ · −

25. 3 If counting happens in base seven there would be 6000

numbers just as in the case of decimal there are 9000 numbers.

6, 9 here are the largest digits in their respective number

systems.

26. 3 The correct option explains through an example the last

sentence that leadership is more difficult to obtain than donors

and thus is the most logical continuation of the paragraph.

27. 1 The last sentence states that the companies do not achieve

differentiation despite innovating. The correct option takes it

further emphasizing the same that is, the companies spend a

lot on R&D but they do not achieve differentiation.

28. 2 Refer to the opening sentences of the paragraph that conveys

the underlying sense. It is about change in the larger scenario

and not just State Street.

5 PRE MOCK CAT - 1

29. 3 The author makes this comment in the first paragraph. The

universities and colleges mentioned are very well-known as

mentioned throughout the passage. The issue of dignity hints

at option (3) being correct. Option (4) is incorrect as no mention

of foreign aid has been made.

30. 2 The author mentions in the ninth paragraph "Mr. Birnsteel says,

is that he receives requests for money from his college, the

university and from individual faculties..". This makes option

(2) correct.

31. 2 The author mentions in the eleventh paragraph ""Alumni

confusion about whether to give to their college or the

university is something we are actively addressing now.."

and further the solution - ""Our message is that giving to your

college or the university as a whole is great, and both count

towards our capital campaign." The solution hints at the fact

that the problem was inaction and this makes option (2) correct.

32. 3 The first para of the passage gives the theme directly.

33. 2 “In the ‘80s, however, the data-crunchers had a crisis of

confidence.” This sentence opens the section that describes

the predicament being faced by them.

34. 5 “Tackling modest questions” was a conclusion which

economists in the 80’s finally arrived at. So, it cannot be

attributed to the old day economists.

35. 4 “I’ve always been someone who’s thought it’s better to answer

a small question well than to fail to answer a big question,”

Levitt says. This combined with ‘equivocation or plain gibberish’

mentioned earlier leads to choice 4.

36. 5 None of the choices 1 to 4 can be conclusively inferred from

the passage.

37. 4 The entire passage deals with Levitt’s quintessential style of

cracking problems and reaching answers using experiences

at the micro level to deal with the ones at the conventional and

macro level. This makes option 4 correct. To call Levitt a

dilettante would not be correct.

38. 4 Statement 1 is obviously a fact. Statements 2 & 3 are inferences

as they are conclusions drawn about the unknown based on

the known. Statement 4 is a judgement as it is an individual

opinion about the government’s responsibility. This makes option

4 correct.

39. 4 Statements 1, 2 & 3 are clearly Judgements as they are

individual opinions. Statement 4 is again stating something,

which is an established fact and open to verification. This

makes option 4 correct.

40. 5 Statements 1, 2 & 3 are facts which can be verified. Statement

4 is an inference - a conclusion about the unknown - ‘other

dangers’ based on the known - ‘poaching’.

41. 1 Statements 1 & 3 are clearly stating facts which are verifiable.

Statements 2 & 4 are Judgements, opinions being stated about

certain matters. The use of ‘only’ makes 4 a judgement.

42. 4 In A the preposition since is incorrectly used. The correct

word is for. In 2, the subject- verb agreement is incorrect,

as the subject is plural (style, sound, technology and lyrics)

whereas the verb used is singular has, which should have

been have.

43. 3 Current events are to be sent is incorrect. If you read all the

sentences you will realize that it is an advantage that is

already taking place, thus it should be can be sent world

wide. In 4 ‘1’ has been incorrectly used, ‘1’ denotes a single

unspecified person or thing.

44. 1 In 1 and 4, there is an incorrect use of idioms. In the first

sentence, it should be more a religious rite than a sport. In

the last sentence, it should be with little more to fuel them

than, and not ‘feed them’.

45. 3 C introduces us to both Jim and the garden, which informs us

what the paragraph is about. It is followed by a few words

about the garden making us realize that there is a lot of work

to be done in the garden. D then informs us of the type of

work that has to be done – weed killing and the problems,

which will arise from it. B ends on a sunny note telling us

about the better side of the garden. The mandatory pair in this

sentence is AD.

46. 2 The paragraph is correct as it is. The first sentence informs

us that the author is dealing with his illness and follows with

B, which tells us why he was in hospital, and also informs us

of the loss of his friends. C then informs us of the authors

immense affection for his friends and ends with D which

further states that besides friends, they were also business

partners. The mandatory pair here is AB.

47. 1 Option (1) is correct as ‘innovation’ means change, any

change would necessarily involve risk & reward.

48. 2 In keeping with the drift of the passage, risk would involve

more capital, thus option 2 is correct.

49. 5 The factors governing the success are being discussed,

option (5) is the correct answer.

50. 1 ‘drawing’ implies making a business plan, option (1) is thus

correct.

For questions 51 to 53:

Manufacturer Selling Price (in

Rs.) per PC

Cost Price (in

Rs.) per PC

Sales tax

(in Rs.) per PC

PC's sold Profit

(in Rs.) Per PC

Revenue from PC

sales (in Rs.)

Compaq-HP 60000 30000 6000 100000 24000 6 × 10

9

HCL 50000 20000 7500 75000 22500 375 × 10

7

Acer 40000 25000 8000 35000 7000 14 × 10

8

Zenith 30000 20000 3000 200000 7000 6 × 10

9

Sony 100000 40000 25000 15000 65000 15 × 10

8

51. 2 ∴ Profit per PC is same for Acer and Zenith, i.e. Rs. 7000.

6 PRE MOCK CAT - 1

52. 1 Revenue from PC sales is highest for both Compaq-HP and

Zenith, i.e. Rs. 6 × 10

9

.

53. 5

Manufacturers Aggregate sales Tax (in Rs.)

Compaq-HP 6 × 10

8

HCL 5.625 × 10

8

Acer 2.8 × 10

8

Zenith 6 × 10

8

Sony 3.75 × 10

8

∴ Zenith and Compaq-HP contribute the highest amount of

Aggregate sales tax.

For questions 54 to 57: From statement III:

Reading Mathematics Astronomy Chemistry

Occupation

Name

Name Champi

Occupation Chemistry Mathematician

Reading Biology

From statement V:

Reading Mathematics Astronomy Chemistry

Occupation Psychologist

Name

Name Champi

Occupation Chemistry Mathematician

Reading Biology

From statement I: Aishwarya is sitting on a chair at one of the corners

and she is not a psychologist and she is reading a book on mathematics.

Hence the options are:

Reading Mathematics

Occupation Psychologist

Name Aishwarya

Name Aishwarya Champi

Occupation Chemistry Mathematician

Reading Mathematics Biology

From Statement IV: Since, Champi cannot be a biologist, the only chair

left for Dola is in the corner, directly opposite to Aishwarya,

Reading Mathematics Astronomy Chemistry

Occupation Biologist Psychologist

Name Aishwarya

Name Dola Champi

Occupation Chemistry Mathematician

Reading Geology Biology

From statements VI/VII: Farah will be sitting on chair at one of the

corners. Geeta will also be sitting on chair at one of the corners since,

she is sitting next to the geologist. (We do not know the occupation of

the females sitting on chairs numbered 2 and 5.

From statement II, Bipasha is in the middle-seat. Of the two

occupations, left (Geologist and Astronomer), Champi must be an

astronomer to satisfy statement II.

Reading Mathematics Astronomy

Occupation Biologist Geologist Psychologist

Name Aishwarya Bipasha

Name Dola Champi

Occupation Chemistry Astronomer Mathematician

Reading Geology Biology

Now from statements VI/VII: We have the final table.

Reading Mathematics Astronomy Chemistry

Occupation Biologist Geologist Psychologist

Name Aishwarya Bipasha Geeta

Name Dola Champi Farah

Occupation Chemistry Astronomer Mathematician

Reading Geology Biology Psychology

54. 1

55. 3

56. 4

57. 3

For questions 58 and 59:

Revenue Structure of Mutual Fund Company

Value of

Funds

Purchase

Price

Number of

shares

Current Market

Price

Market

Capitalization

Market

Appreciation

Auto 150000000 200 750000.00 400 300000000 150000000

Chemical 250000000 150 1666666.66 450 750000000 500000000

Pharmaceutical 200000000 250 800000.00 500 400000000 200000000

IT 250000000 700 357142.85 1050 375000000 125000000

Bank 100000000 150 666666.66 600 400000000 300000000

Others 50000000 50 1000000.00 100 100000000 50000000

7 PRE MOCK CAT - 1

58. 1 Market Capitalisation is highest for the ‘Chemical’ sector.

59. 5 Market Appreciation lowest for ‘Others’ sector.

For Questions 60 to 6 4:

Cut-off for QA = 11, VA = 12 and DI = 9.

Overall cut-off = 35

Marks deducted for first 6 incorrectly attempted questions = 6 ×

1

4

= 1.5 marks

Marks deducted for next 6 incorrectly attempted questions = 6 ×

1

3

= 2 marks

For further incorrectly attempted questions the negative marks =

1

2

Cut-off in each section is an integer. So to just clear the cut-offs, the

possible number or questions that can be attempted incorrectly are

0, 4, 8, 12, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 23, 25, 26, 27........... and so on.

60. 3 We have to find the minimum number of unattempted questions

in the exam such that student just manages to clear the

sectional cut-offs. Let us assume that a student attempted

maximum possible number of questions such that he gets just

11,12 and 9 marks in QA, VA and DI respectively.

In a section if a student attempts 13 questions incorrectly

then marks deducted from his score

=

× + × + · + + ·

1 1 1 3 1

6 6 2 4 marks

4 3 2 2 2

So in order to clear the cut-off in QA if a student attempts 13

questions incorrectly then he has to attempt 11 + 4 = 15

questions correctly.

On any further incorrectly attempted questions,

1

2

mark is

deducted. So in order to just clear the cut-off student has to

get 1 question right and 2 questions wrong in every set of 3

questions.

From the above, already (15 + 13) = 28 questions has been

answered. So 22 questions are remaining out of which 21

(multiple of 3) can be answered. 1 question is left

unanswered.

Similarly in order to clear the cut-off in VA, if a student attempts

13 questions incorrectly then he has to attempt (12 + 4) = 16

questions correctly.

So already (16 + 13) = 29 questions has been answered. Out

of remaining 11 questions 9 (multiple of 3) can be attempted.

2 questions are left unanswered.

Similarly in order to clear the cut-off in DI if a student attempts

13 questions incorrectly then he has to attempt (9 + 4) = 13

questions correctly.

So already (13 + 13) = 26 questions has been answered. Out

of remaining 4 questions, 3 can be attempted. 1 question is

left unanswered.

So minimum number of questions left unanswered

= 1 + 2 + 1 = 4

61. 4 To find the minimum number of incorrectly attempted questions

we have to consider number of incorrectly attempted questions

in a particular section as maximum. In that section,

1

2

marks

will be deducted after 12 incorrectly attempted questions.

Moreover the maximum number of questions is in QA, so we

have to take QA as that particular section, so that the overall

number of incorrectly attempted questions is minimum.

From the solution of the previous question, 28 questions with

13 incorrectly attempted questions just clears the cut-off.

Further 21 questions can be answered out of which 7

questions can be attempted correctly and rest incorrectly,

which will not make any difference to the overall score of 11.

So the student can attempt 49 questions from QA such that 22

are correct and 27 wrong, he will end up having 11 marks just

enough to clear the cut-off.

To just clear the cut-off in VA and DI student has to get at least

12 and 9 questions correct. That makes 49 + 12 + 9 = 70

question.

Remaining number of questions is 87 – 70 = 17.

Which can be done from any of the sections doing 4 more

questions right and 13 questions wrong, apart from 12 and 9

questions for VA and DI respectively.

So the minimum possible number of incorrectly attempted

questions by the student = 27 + 13 = 40

62. 2 The student has to score 35. If he attempts all 120 questions,

no combinations of right and wrong attempts will lead to a

score of exactly 35. So minimum number of unattempted

question has to be 1. This can happen in the following manner:

a. QA - 49 attempts, 22 right and 27 wrong

b. VA - 40 attempts, 21 right and 19 wrong

c. DI - 30 attempts, 15 right and 15 wrong

This can also be possible in other combinations. But in each

case at least 1 question is to be left unattempted.

63. 4 In every section student attempts at least 1 question incorrectly

and he just manages to clear all the cut-offs. So minimum

number of incorrectly attempted questions in each section

can be 4, as first 6 questions carry

1

4

negative marks each.

First 4 incorrectly attempted questions will fetch (–1) marks.

So in each section apart from number of questions required to

clear the cut-off, 1 more question has to be attempted correctly.

For QA = 11 + 1 + 4 = 16 questions has to be attempted

For VA = 12 + 1 + 4 = 17 questions has to be attempted

For DI = 9 + 1 + 4 = 14 questions has to be attempted

Along with these, 3 more questions has to be attempted

correctly to clear the overall cut-off.

So in total a minimum of 16 + 17 + 14 + 3 = 50 questions has to

be attempted.

64. 5 Total number of wrongly attempted questions can be

• 0

• 4 (4 in any section and none in other two)

• 8 (4 each in any two sections and none in other)

• 12 (4 each in all three sections)

• 13 (all 13 in one section)

• 15 (all 15 in one section)

• 17 (4 in one section and 13 in other section)

• 19 (4 in one section and 15 in other section)

• 21 (4 in one section and 17 in other section)

• 23 (4 in one section and 19 in other section)

.

.

.

.

• 32 (4 in one section, 13 in other and 15 in the third section)

But sum cannot be equal to 22, so the correct option is (5).

8 PRE MOCK CAT - 1

For questions 65 to 67:

65. 1 In only one year, i.e. 2000, the number of marks alloted to

Geometry is less than the number of marks alloted to Analogies

as well as Arithmetic.

66. 3 The aggregate number of marks alloted to the topics over the

given period are as follows

S. No. Marks

1 60

2 38

3 104

4 50

5 140

6 140

7 47

8 50

9 55

10 106

11 28

12 48

13 50

14 49

∴ The second lowest aggregate number of marks is alloted to

the topic Analogies.

67. 4 Aggregate number of marks alloted to all the topics in the given

years are as follows

Year Number of marks

1998 195

1999 175

2000 155

2001 145

2002 150

2003 150

Therefore, there are 3 such years namely 2000, 2002 and

2003.

For questions 68 to 71:

68. 3 Longitude of the country F with respect to Greenwich

( ) 50 20 30 E ⇒ − · °

Time increment from GMT to the country F = 30 × 4

= 120 min = 2 hr.

Therefore, corresponding time in the country F with respect

to Greenwich is 11:00 PM on Monday.

69. 3 G is ahead of C by 120 minutes, which means that its position

from C will be

120

E 30 E

4

| `

· ° · °

. ,

So, the longitude with respect to Greenwich ( ) 30 20 10 E · − · °

70. 3 As there is no difference between the longitudes of countries

A & F so the time difference will be zero. He will reach F at

1 : 00 PM on Sunday.

71. 5 The time taken to fly from countries B to country D will depend

upon the speed of the aeroplane.

Hence, option (5), i.e. cannot be determined is the correct

choice.

For questions 72 to 75:

72. 3 Since F and G are related to themselves only and F and G are

mutually exclusive.

Hence, option (3) is the correct choice.

For questions 73 and 74: It is given that A is always selected in the

committee.

Possible committees are as follows:

1. A, B, D, E and F

2. A, B, D, E and G

3. A, C, D, E and F

4. A, C, D, E and G

5. A, C, D, F and H

6. A, C, D, G and H

73. 4 In every committee, D will always be selected.

74. 5 There will be 6 ways in which the committee can be selected.

75. 2 Since E and F have to be together in the same committee, the

number of ways in which the committee can be selected is 3

i.e. (A, B, D, E and F), (A, C, D, E and F), (B, C, D, E and F).

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