Before the Test:
2. Keep only the Admit Card, pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT KEEP with you books, rulers,
slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators), pagers, cellular phones, stop watches
or any other device or loose paper. These should be left at a place as indicated by the invigilator.
3. Use only an HB pencil to fill in the Answer Sheet.
4. Enter in your Answer Sheet: (a) in Box 10 the Test Form Number, which appears at the bottom of this page,
(b) in Box 11 the Test Booklet Serial number, which appears at the top of this page.
5. Ensure that your personal data have been entered correctly on Side 1 of the Answer Sheet.
6. Check whether you have entered your 7-digit Enrollment ID in Box 2 of the Answer sheet correctly.
At the Start of the Test:
1. As soon as the signal to start is given, open the Booklet.
2. This Test booklet contains 28 pages, including the blank ones. Immediately after opening the Test Booklet,
verify that all the pages are printed properly and are in order. Also that the Test form Number indicated on
the cover page and at the bottom of the inner pages is the same. If there is a problem with your Test Booklet,
immediately inform the invigilator/supervisor. You will be provided with a replacement.
How to answer:
1. This test has three sections which examine various abilities. These 3 sections have 105 questions in all
with each section having 35 questions. You will be given two and half hours to complete the test. In
distributing the time over the three sections, please bear in mind that you need to demonstrate your competence
in all the three sections.
2. Directions for answering the questions are given before some of the questions wherever necessary. Read
these directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropriate circles on the Answer
Sheet. There is only one correct answer to each question.
3. Each section carries 100 marks. Each section is divided into three sub-sections A, B and C. All Questions
in sub-sections I-A, II-A and III-A carry two marks each. All Questions in sub sections I-B, II-B and III-B
carry three marks each and all questions in sub-sections I-C, II-C and III-C carry four marks each. Wrong
answers will attract a penalty of one-fourth of the marks allotted to the questions.
4. Do your rough work only on the Test Booklet and NOT on the Answer Sheet.
5. Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Candidates found violating the instructions will be disqualified.
After the Test:
1. At the end of the test, remain seated. The invigilator will collect the Answer Sheet from your seat. Do not
leave the hall until the invigilator announces. “You may leave now.” The invigilator will make the announcement
only after collecting the Answer Sheets from all the candidates in the room.
2. You may retain this Test Booklet with you.
Candidates giving assistance or seeking/receiving help from any source in answering questions or copying
in any manner in the test will have their Answer Sheets cancelled.
Test Form Number: 4 4 4 MCT-0004/08
Test Booklet Serial Number: 7 7 0 3 5 8
Sub-section I-A : Number of Questions = 15
Note: Questions 1 to 15 carry two marks each.
DIRECTIONS for Question 1: In the given question, the word at the top of the table is used in five different
ways, numbered 1 to 5. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.
“I will lead them to believe that ignoring this transgression is in the best interest of the
2 Although she was nervous, she managed to lead the group activity confidently.
3 He was ready to give up when a promising lead provided him the opportunity of a lifetime.
4 After his malingering was found out, he was asked to lead down his subordinates.
5 Rajeev Kakkar plays the lead guitar in the band ‘Martians.’
DIRECTIONS for Questions 2 to 5: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.
An art critic was testily perambulating “The Gates,” in Central Park, with his wife and a friend from Texas on
the first Sunday afternoon of its installation when he suddenly got a load of their thousands of fellow-walkers
and registered the common mood—a sort of vast, blanketing, almost drowsy contentment. He couldn’t think
of any other occasion on which he had witnessed so many New Yorkers moving slowly when they didn’t
have to. Each person looked strangely, nakedly personal: not a New Yorker at all, or anything else in particular.
The crowd’s many-voiced sound had an indoor intimacy, like the bright murmur in a theatre, during intermission,
when the play is good and everybody knows that everybody knows it. The over-all social effect, which was
somewhat like that of an electrical blackout or a major blizzard, minus the inconvenience, was weird and
terrific. The voluble disaffection of the art critic, collapsed, to the relief of my companions. I had to admit the
reason for it, which was that “The Gates” is a populist affront to the authority of art critics, and to accept being
just another shuffling, jostling, helplessly chummy citizen.
Of course, “The Gates” is art, because what else would it be? Art used to mean paintings and statues. Now it
means practically anything human-made that is unclassifiable otherwise. This loss of a commonsense definition
is a big art-critical problem, but not in Central Park, not this week. What the artists Christo and Jeanne-Claude
have been doing for three and a half decades is self-evident. They propose a grandiose, entirely pointless
alteration of a public place, then advance their plan in the face of a predictable public and bureaucratic
resistance, which gradually comes to seem mean-spirited and foolish for want of a reasonable argument
against them. They build a constituency of supporters, including collectors who help finance the project by
buying Christo’s drawings and collages of it. What then occurs is like an annual festival—Macy’s Thanksgiving
Day Parade, a high-school prom—without the parts about its being annual or a festival. It feels vaguely
religious. The zealous installers and minders, identifiable on site by their uniforms and chatty pride, are like
acolytes. As with any ritual—though “The Gates” can’t be a ritual, because it is performed just once—how
people behave during the installation is what it is for and about. Then it’s gone, before it has a chance to
become boring or, for that matter, interesting.
Those who deplore “The Gates” as ugly aren’t wrong, just poor sports. The work’s charm-free, synthetic
orange hue—saffron? no way—is something you would wear only in the woods during deer season, in order
to avoid being shot. The nylon fabric is sullen to the touch. The proportions of the arches are graceless, and
dogs alone esteem the clunky bases. As for the sometimes heard praise of the work for framing and, in the
process, revealing unsuspected lovelinesses of the Park—C’mon, people! You don’t need artificial aids to
notice things. “The Gates” does trigger beauty when, as on the aforementioned Sunday afternoon, a low sun
backlights the fluttering fabric, which combusts like stained glass in a molten state. This effect lasts all of
about two seconds—the time span suggested in the observation of the art historian Kenneth Clark that we can
enjoy a purely aesthetic sensation for only as long as we can keenly savor the smell of a fresh-cut orange.
“The Gates” succeeds precisely by being, on the whole, a big nothing. Comprehended at a glance, it lets us
get right down to being crazy about ourselves, in a bubble of participatory narcissism that it will be pitiable to
have missed.
2. It can be inferred that the art critic mentioned in the passage is
(1) Christo Claude (2) The author (3) Can’t tell
(4) “The Gates” creator (5) The author’s friend
3. What does the author mean by saying “This loss of a commonsense definition is a big art-critical
problem, but not in Central Park, not this week.”?
(1) The installation of “The Gates” was clearly not art in any manner
(2) The installation of “The Gates” was unambiguously art
(3) The artists of “The Gates” do not believe in any definitions of art
(4) Defining art in any manner is self-defeating
(5) The artists of “The Gates” are not really interested in art.
4. It can be inferred that the author mentions those who find the “Gates” ugly as “poor sports” because?
(1) They do not understand art in the post modernist sense
(2) They focus on the details and not the overall experience
(3) They dismiss the effort that has gone into the creation of the installation
(4) They are closed-minded and adhere to the populist definition of art
(5) They are unhappy about the fact that “The Gates” has become an annual event.
5. What is the achievement of “The Gates” as mentioned by the author?
(1) It is a nothing but still gets people’s attention
(2) Without fitting into the strict definition of art, it has managed to get the attention of art connoisseurs
(3) It forces people to turn towards themselves and enjoy it by itself being nothing
(4) It makes people look at others around them and relate to each other
(5) It has totally changed the way people perceive art.
DIRECTIONS for Questions 6 to 11 : Fill up the blanks, numbered [6], [7] ...... up to [11], in the following
passage with the most appropriate word from the options given for each blank.
“Who Owns Anne Frank?” asked novelist Cynthia Ozick, in an article that holds up the diary as a __[6]__ text
and condemns any tamperers. The passions the book __[7]__ suggest that everyone owns Anne Frank, that
she has __[8]__ above the Holocaust, Judaism, girlhood and even goodness and become a __[9]__ figure of
the modern world — the moral individual mind __[10]__ by the machinery of destruction, insisting on the
right to live and question and __[11]__ for the future of human beings.
6. (1) cursed (2) profane (3) secular (4) sacred (5) humorous
7. (1) ignites (2) snuff’s out (3) glows (4) parches (5) suppresses
8. (1) evolved (2) risen (3) developed (4) receded (5) flown
9. (1) totemic (2) precursory (3) implacable (4) defunct (5) redundant
10. (1) atoned (2) buttressed (3) reprobate (4) beset (5) blessed
11. (1) hope (2) hunger (3) conjecture (4) surmise (5) insist
DIRECTIONS for Questions 12 to 15: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.
Jawaharlal Nehru had once described agriculture as “India’s greatest living industry”. Yet, 60 years after
Independence, the country is slowly coming to grips with the effects of having neglected agriculture all these
years. Addressing a recent seminar on agriculture, Prime Minister Manmohan Singh said the situation was
alarming. The Tenth Five-Year Plan (2002-07) had assumed that Indian agricultural production would grow
by 4 per cent every year. “But the reality is that in the first three years of the Plan, we have not been able to
ensure even 1.5 per cent rate of growth,” he said.
As Singh and his top team see it, if India has to grow by 7-8 per cent every year, agriculture has to grow faster.
After all, despite all the industrial development and India’s hi-tech image, the economy remains overwhelmingly
agrarian. Unlike the West, where agriculture provides just 3 per cent of the jobs, two out of three Indians earn
their livelihood directly or indirectly from agriculture.
The situation on the ground is alarming. Around 10 per cent of India’s farming households are landless.
Another 67 per cent own less than one hectare of land each. Eleven per cent have 1-2 hectares of land. Yields
have been stagnant. Irrigation facilities remain inadequate. Mechanisation is low. So is the use of farm inputs.
Fixing all this is not easy. But in the last one year, Manmohan Singh’s government has put comprehensive
reform of Indian agriculture on top of its agenda. Managing such a systemic change on such a huge scale is
daunting. Especially when agriculture is a state subject.
The changes are far too many and far too complex to be addressed in one go.
One big factor hobbling Indian farmers is the 7,000-strong mandi system — the large agricultural produce
markets that have aggregated and dispatched grains, fruits, vegetables and the rest from farms to towns for
ages now. A big effort is on to develop an alternative mechanism that will connect farmers more efficiently to
markets. Competition, it is hoped, will discipline the old mandi system and also give farmers their due share.
But mere efficiency won’t help. Today, most Indian farmers don’t think enough about what the market wants
before they choose their crop. The government is, therefore, trying to also bring in a new market orientation.
Its new National Horticulture Mission — and its focus on high-value agriculture — is part of this drive.
Opening up foreign direct investment in retail could also allow big retailers to deal directly with the farms.
All these big shifts require huge investments in building hard and soft infrastructure - something that the
government alone is in no position to bear. The Prime Minister has already talked about replacing publicly
funded R&D in agriculture and rural infrastructure with a new private participation model. But the private
sector will not step in till the larger environment itself is conducive for it to function smoothly. That is why a
more favourable environment is being created — largely through an overhaul of several antiquated laws.
Today, there is renewed optimism among private sector firms. In the next two to three years, most people
reckon a lot of these changes will begin to fall into place. And it could once again kick-start a new cycle of
investment and growth in “India’s greatest living industry”.
12. Why is agriculture being a state subject mentioned in the passage?
(1) To showcase one of the many problems agriculture faces since state subjects are usually an
unimportant part of the economy.
(2) To show how the lack of a national agenda has forced the Prime Minister to find issues within
various states.
(3) To indicate the practical problems related to the Prime Minister’s statement.
(4) To ensure that the reader understands the depth of the problem.
(5) To show the seriousness and the importance of this issue.
13. It can be inferred that the National Horticulture Mission intends to
(1) orient farmers towards the market
(2) encourage farmers to produce high-value crops
(3) remove the mandi in the buying and selling of high-value crops
(4) encourage farmers to use the mandi in an efficient and productive manner
(5) Both (1) and (2)
14. The issue of government’s interest in involving the private sector and the hesitation of the latter until the
environment is positive is best represented as a case of
(1) a cyclical situation
(2) a periodic cycle
(3) a linear trend with an upward growth
(4) a haphazard trend line
(5) a vicious cycle
15. What is the author trying to convey by using the word ‘systemic’ to describe Indian agriculture?
(1) Dominated by the governmental system
(2) Integrated network of processes
(3) Slow moving and gradual
(4) Being related closely to manufacturing
(5) Being related closely to distribution
Sub-section I-B : Number of Questions = 10
Note: Questions 16 to 25 carry three marks each.
DIRECTIONS for Questions 16 to 18: Arrange the sentences A, B, C and D to form a logical sequence
between sentence 1 and 6.
16. 1. When you compare costs embroidery backing is a minute investment sent to buying sewing
machinery, but choosing the right backing for each project can mean the difference between a
product customers will want to buy and one they won’t.
A. Backing is a non-woven material placed behind the garment to be embroidered that stabilizes the
fabric and keeps it from moving or stretching during the embroidery process.
B. Although there are some fabrics that don’t necessarily require backing before embroidery, like
heavy canvas or some woven shirt materials, most do.
C. The garment is protected from pressure and friction of the thread and bobbin as it is sewn.
D. A good backing prolongs the life of the embroidery and enhances its appearance.
6. It adds stability to the fabric and gives stitches more dimensions as thread has more to hold on to as
it is sewn.
(1) BCAD (2) BDAC (3) DBCA (4) ADCB (5) DCBA
17. 1. Man and nature were the culprits as Venice sank hopelessly – or so it seemed - into the 177 canals
on which the city is built.
A. The sinking has been arrested and Venice should start rising again, like an oceanic phoenix from the
B. While nature’s work took ages, man’s work was much quicker and more brutal.
C . The saving of Venice is the problem of the Italian Government, of course, but Venice is also a
concern for Europe.
D. But now man is using his ingenuity to save what he had destroyed.
6. And it happened that in the second half of 1975 Italy was in the chair of the European Council of
Ministers, but the EC as such has no program for the salvation of Venice.
(1) CADB (2) BDAC (3) DBAC (4) BADC (5) ADBC
18. 1. Last summer, I went to pass the hot weather season in the town of Meridian.
A. His practice, never very extensive, had after a few years been given up entirely.
B. After some difficulty I succeeded in renting a vacant lot that had been occupied by an eccentric
doctor of the name of Mannering, who had gone away years before, no one knew where, not even
his agent.
C. He had built the house himself and had lived in it with an old servant for about ten years.
D. The relative at whose home I had intended to stay was ill, so I sought other quarters.
6. Not only so, he had also withdrawn himself almost altogether from social life and become a recluse.
(1) DBCA (2) ABCD (3) DCBA (4) CDBA (5) CBAD
DIRECTIONS for Questions 19 to 23: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.
More than any other American writer, Robert Stone is a product of the 1960s - or maybe it’s just that he was
everywhere. Although he began the decade in New Orleans, his counterculture roots go back to Beat-era
Times Square, where his wife, Janice, worked at the Seven Arts coffee shop, a meeting place for Jack Kerouac,
Allen Ginsberg and Herbert Huncke. Later, Stone moved to Northern California as a Wallace Stegner fellow
at Stanford University and became part of Ken Kesey’s circle at his La Honda compound in the hills near Palo
Alto; he also spent time in Mexico, Hollywood and London, becoming (to borrow a phrase from his 1975
novel Dog Soldiers) a “journalist of sorts” in Vietnam during the waning days of the war.
For Stone, however, the 1960s were not a Technicolor dreamscape but an abyss of moral ambiguity, indistinct
and dangerous, a defining legacy of which has been the tendency to fool ourselves. As he suggests in his
memoir, Prime Green: Remembering the Sixties: “Those of us who cared most deeply about the changes,
those who gave their lives to them, were, I think, the most deceived. ... Curved, finned, corporate Tomorrowland,
as presented at the 1964 World’s Fair, was over before it began, and we were borne along with it into a future
that no one would have recognized, a world that no one could have wanted. Sex, drugs and death were
demystified. The LSD we took as a tonic of psychic liberation turned out to have been developed by CIA
researchers as a weapon of the Cold War. We had gone to a party in La Honda in 1963 that followed us out the
door and into the street and filled the world with funny colors. But the prank was on us.”
Prime Green is Stone’s first work of nonfiction, an opportunity, as it were, to get a glimpse behind the curtain
of his novels. Opening in the late 1950s, the book continues, in fits and starts, through his 1971 reporting stint
in Vietnam. If this makes for a broad definition of the decade, it’s only appropriate, for history rarely fits the
neat categorizations of human time. Rather, events have precedents, consequences; they grow out of one set
of circumstances and into another, a loose chain of experience understood in retrospect, if at all. For Stone,
that’s one of the points here - the notion that memory is not orderly but kaleidoscopic, and meaning is what
we bestow. “It’s so long now that I have only fragments of recollection,” he writes, “river mists, magnolia,
gardens enclosed in old stone.”
Indeed, he reminds us, there is no way to encompass reality even in a memoir, only the chance to circumscribe
a shadow territory between fact and myth. “I decided,” Stone explains, “ ... that between ‘realism’ and formalistic
experiment there was no substantial difference. Originality was always welcome; experiments worked or they
didn’t. Language was language and life was life, one tracking, undermining, enlightening the other.” That’s a
telling statement, offering insight into his sense of what exactly literature can do. The truth is elusive, and the
best we can hope for is to frame a story that makes sense to us. All else is folly, false impression, the illusion
of a self-deceiving mind. Or, as Kesey puts it, in one of the book’s most trenchant comments: “If you’ve got
it all together ... what’s that all around it?”
Kesey’s prankster persona drifts through much of Prime Green like an animating spirit - although, to his
credit, Stone sees it for what it is. His account of the Merry Prankster era and its aftermath (in which Kesey
faked his suicide and fled to Mexico to avoid prosecution on drug charges) is compelling not because Stone
has anything new to tell us but because he recognizes the peculiar mix of hope and desperation that made the
time what it was.
Unfortunately, the rest of the book lacks this focus; it’s meandering, even dull. Part of the problem is that,
despite Stone’s presence at scenes ranging from the legendary Acid Tests to military briefing rooms, from
Paul Newman’s production office to the Beatles’ Savile Row headquarters, he was never much of a joiner but
someone who held himself apart. This, of course, is the key to his fiction, which revolves around loners and
outcasts, cut loose in a cosmos they can’t define. In that sense, it’s hardly surprising that the best bits here are
the interior observations, such as the description of sunrise over Mexico’s Manzanillo Bay from which the
memoir draws its name: “In the moments after dawn, before the sun had reached the peaks of the sierra, the
slopes and valleys of the rain forest would explode in green light, erupting inside a silence that seemed barely
to contain it. ... We called that light Prime Green; it was primal, primary, primo.”
More often, though, Stone seems not quite clear on his intentions, writing in a kind of shorthand that makes
Prime Green read more like a glorified daybook than a fully realized work. Most problematic is his insistence
on apologizing, at length, for WUSA, the 1970 film made from his 1967 debut novel A Hall of Mirrors. It’s as
if in turning the lens on himself he can’t see beneath the surface of his experiences to get at the elusive inner
Here we have the issue in a nutshell. Over the past 40 years, Stone has staked his career on precisely the
nuances Prime Green is lacking, framing the human condition in bleakly existential terms. The best of his
fiction - Dog Soldiers, A Flag for Sunrise, the magisterial Damascus Gate - is informed by a fierce and
unrelenting moral vision, the sense that we live not in a godless universe but one in which God has abandoned
us, leaving an emptiness for which there is neither comfort nor redress. This, Stone’s novels mean to tell us, is
the source of all our trouble, be it sectarian squabbling or dissolute soul-searching, none of which can ever be
resolved. These are the roots of our deep divisions, our endless dissatisfactions, our inability to recognize
each other or ourselves.
It’s a sensibility worthy of Conrad or Dostoevsky (both of whom Stone has cited as influences), one that
speaks to the very essence of modernity, to our growing alienation from the world. Yet with Prime Green,
Stone backs away from such complexities, offering commonplaces as opposed to questions, anecdotes that
never add up to anything larger than themselves. That may well be how memory works, but there’s a difference
between memory and memoir, which requires not just recollection but reflection, a perspective and a point of
To be fair, this could have something to do with genre; Stone is a novelist, after all. His 1997 short fiction
collection, Bear and His Daughter, failed because he was not as adept in a compressed form as in the novel’s
expansive whirl. More troubling, though, is that Stone’s most recent novel, Bay of Souls, suffered from
similar difficulties, glib in places, superficial, indistinct. At the time, this seemed an anomaly, but Prime Green
makes me think again. “Life,” Stone writes, “sometimes can be subsumed in magic, although the supply is not
inexhaustible.” The same, I’d suggest, can be true of literature.
19. What according to the passage is not a characteristic of the 1960s ?
(1) The 1960s has not exactly been characterized by clarity of morals and values.
(2) The 1960s has been characterized by people who wanted to embrace change.
(3) The time and circumstances of the 1960s were such that people were fooled into sacrificing themselves
for something which they would have never wanted.
(4) It cannot be said that the 1960s was not a time of ambiguity and danger.
(5) Drugs were considered mysterious and esoteric.
20. Which of the following novels is mentioned in the passage?
(1) Lion and his daughter
(2) True Soldiers
(3) A Hall of Mirrors
(4) A Sea of Souls
(5) None of the above
21. The author would most agree with which of the following statements?
(1) Stone suffers from an identity crisis which is apparent in ‘Prime Green’.
(2) Stone has met with success in his fictional works because of his journalistic tendencies.
(3) Stone has the ability to look at things in the light of their background / circumstances.
(4) Lack of anecdotes and perspectives does not take away the compelling nature of the work ‘Prime
(5) Stone’s atheistic tendencies colour even his best work of fiction.
22. Which of the following is not a characteristic of ‘Prime Green’?
(1) Stone remains slightly detached from many scenes despite being present in them.
(2) Many times Stone’s intentions are vague and ambiguous.
(3) Stone fully succeeds in describing the elusive inner life.
(4) Stone’s writing seems to lack the depth of a fully realized work.
(5) Stone’s apology for WUSA is quite long winded and seems problematic.
23. According to the author, Stone is a
(1) True non-fiction writer
(2) An eternal optimist
(3) A politician
(4) A novelist
(5) A true philosopher
DIRECTIONS for Questions 24 and 25: Five alternative summaries are given below each text. Choose the
option that best captures the essence of the text.
24. Modernity comes from modo, meaning “just now.” Modernity is about novelty, the constant reworking
of nature into concepts, making, or as we say, “creating,” a “thingless perceptual after-world.” One of
these concepts is human equality, from which can come individualism— the goal of the American
Constitution. The Constitution has “a large-minded liberality of governance” that sets limits so as to
contain humans, but sets them widely so as to give them space. The “contrived newness” or “systematic
production of novelty” characteristic of modernity elevates method over substance, and reason over
nature. It works well for us in politics, in procedural democracy, which is “our political salvation,” but
it leaves us vulnerable to “eager beaver” intellectuals and academics who want to reform us.
(1) Modernity puts an emphasis on consistently redefining concepts. In the context of the American
Constitution it makes sense in that this is appropriate in politics, but in other spheres it allows for
unnecessary redefinitions.
(2) Modernity means reworking old concepts into new. This makes sense in the American Constitution
but academics thereby get a reason to redefine the Constitution, which is uncalled for.
(3) Modernity is the means to an end but when the means become more important the ends become
vague. This is the case with American politics where academics have spoiled the concept of
“procedural democracy”.
(4) Academics are the upholders of modernity. This is due to the American Constitution’s emphasis on
it and this leads to problems.
(5) The American constitution is based on the concepts of modernity. These concepts have been criticized
by the intellectuals.
25. It will be acknowledged, even by those that practise it not, that clear, and round dealing, is the honour
of man’s nature; and that mixture of falsehoods, is like alloy in coin of gold and silver, which may make
the metal work the better, but it embases it. For these winding, and crooked courses, are the goings of
the serpent; which goes basely upon the belly, and not upon the feet. There is no vice, that doth so
cover a man with shame, as to be found false and perfidious. And therefore the reason why the word of
the lie should be such a disgrace, and such an odious charge is that if it be well weighed, to say that a
man lies, is as much to say, as that he is brave towards God, and a coward towards men. For a lie faces
God, and shrinks from man.
(1) Lies ruin a person’s character in that they might be effective but it demeans the liar. This shame is
best expressed in terms of fear of God.
(2) Lies ruin a person’s character in that they are effective but it demeans the liar. Lying is a contradiction
in that it means a person is more afraid of others, of his stature but less afraid of God, a superior
being who knows everything.
(3) Lies ruin a person’s character in that he has to continuously think of ways to not get caught. But, in
the end God knows the truth and so his effort is redundant.
(4) Lies affect a person deeply – both the liar and the one lied to. Eventually, God will persecute both
of them.
(5) Lies affect a person’s character. The liar is constantly haunted by the fear of God and men.
Sub-section I-C : Number of Questions = 10
Note: Questions 26 to 35 carry four marks each.
DIRECTIONS for Questions 26 to 28: Five alternative summaries are given below each text. Choose the
option that best captures the essence of the text.
26. Further, the state is by nature clearly prior to the family and to the individual, since the whole is of
necessity prior to the part; for example, if the whole body be destroyed, there will be no foot or hand,
except in an equivocal sense, as we might speak of a stone hand; for when destroyed the hand will be
no better than that. But things are defined by their working and power; and we ought not to say that they
are the same when they no longer have their proper quality, but only that they have the same name. The
proof that the state is a creation of nature and prior to the individual is that the individual, when isolated,
is not self-sufficing; and therefore he is like a part in relation to the whole.
(1) Nature is the most superior of all things since human beings are its creations. All other institutions
need nature to function and achieve their optimum efficiency.
(2) Man is a part in relation to the state, which can be considered as a whole. If the state is remove then
man will be unable to function and this makes the state prior and superior.
(3) Utility of nature is dictated by who controls it. Human beings appear to control it, but in reality it is
the other way round.
(4) Human beings appear superior in their ability to mould nature according to their nature, but this is
possible only when they work in collaboration. This makes it possible for states to be created.
(5) One should always look at things in a holistic manner instead of looking at insignificant parts.
27. Herein lies an important lesson that I have learned in many years of paranormal investigations: What
people remember rarely corresponds to what actually happened. Case in point: A man named Guy
Savelli said that he had seen soldiers kill goats by staring at them, and that he himself had also done so.
But as the story unfolds I discovered that Savelli is recalling, years later, what he remembers about a
particular “experiment” with 30 numbered goats. Savelli randomly chose goat number 16 and gave it
his best death stare. But he couldn’t concentrate that day, so he quit the experiment, only to be told later
that goat number 17 had died. End of story. No autopsy or explanation of the cause of death. No
information about how much time had elapsed; the conditions, like temperature, of the room into which
the 30 goats had been placed; how long they had been there, and so forth.
(1) Paranormal investigations are subjective and closely guarded.
(2) In paranormal investigations, people are seen to create versions that do not withstand questioning.
(3) People blank out paranormal events, thereby making paranormal investigations doubtful.
(4) In paranormal investigations, the issue of what is professed and what had happened are different
(5) People take paranormal investigations lightly.
28. Counterfeiting is big business, but China needs to protect an even bigger one: Future investment in its
economy, both foreign and domestic. Always thinking ahead, Beijing’s leaders want state-of-the-art
investments from foreign companies to keep the country’s economy powering forward. And though
China seems to be getting its fair share of Western businesses willing to open research and development
centers and build factories producing high-tech goods, rampant piracy rightly gives many potential
investors pause. At the same time, a growing number of Chinese concerns are investing heavily in
R&D in an effort to become global brands. The last thing they need is massive rip-offs from domestic
counterfeiters. Foreign and Chinese investors alike should get together and step up the pressure on
Beijing to forcefully crack down or risk damaging the nation’s competitiveness.
(1) Although making fakes is a big business in Chinese economy it is likely to damage the country’s
future. The government needs to stop it so as to encourage more foreign investments.
(2) Although making fakes is a big business in Chinese economy it is likely to damage the country’s
future. At the same time, the presence of powerful companies which produce fake goods is putting
pressure on the government to discreetly encourage it.
(3) Chinese government is in a tough situation of trying to balance to the country’s foreign exchange
earnings with its brand image.
(4) Chinese government is likely to risk anti-populism if it seeks to make its economy counterfeits-
(5) The Chinese government is really interested in increasing investment in its economy.
DIRECTIONS for Questions 29 to 32: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.
Every art and every inquiry, and similarly every action and pursuit, is thought to aim at some good; and for
this reason the good has rightly been declared to be that at which all things aim. But a certain difference is
found among ends; some are activities, others are products apart from the activities that produce them. Where
there are ends apart from the actions, it is the nature of the products to be better than the activities. Now, as
there are many actions, arts, and sciences, their ends also are many; the end of the medical art is health, that of
shipbuilding a vessel, that of strategy victory, that of economics wealth. But where such arts fall under a
single capacity- as bridle-making and the other arts concerned with the equipment of horses fall under the art
of riding, and this and every military action under strategy, in the same way other arts fall under yet others- in
all of these the ends of the master arts are to be preferred to all the subordinate ends; for it is for the sake of the
former that the latter are pursued. It makes no difference whether the activities themselves are the ends of the
actions, or something else apart from the activities, as in the case of the sciences just mentioned.
If, then, there is some end of the things we do, which we desire for its own sake (everything else being desired
for the sake of this), and if we do not choose everything for the sake of something else (for at that rate the
process would go on to infinity, so that our desire would be empty and vain), clearly this must be the good and
the chief good. Will not the knowledge of it, then, have a great influence on life? Shall we not, like archers
who have a mark to aim at, be more likely to hit upon what is right? If so, we must try, in outline at least, to
determine what it is, and of which of the sciences or capacities it is the object. It would seem to belong to the
most authoritative art and that which is most truly the master art. And politics appears to be of this nature; for
it is this that ordains which of the sciences should be studied in a state, and which each class of citizens should
learn and up to what point they should learn them; and we see even the most highly esteemed of capacities to
fall under this, e.g. strategy, economics, rhetoric; now, since politics uses the rest of the sciences, and since,
again, it legislates as to what we are to do and what we are to abstain from, the end of this science must include
those of the others, so that this end must be the good for man. For even if the end is the same for a single man
and for a state, that of the state seems at all events something greater and more complete whether to attain or
to preserve; though it is worth while to attain the end merely for one man, it is finer and more godlike to attain
it for a nation or for city-states. These, then, are the ends at which our inquiry aims, since it is political science,
in one sense of that term.
Our discussion will be adequate if it has as much clearness as the subject-matter admits of, for precision is not
to be sought for alike in all discussions, any more than in all the products of the crafts. Now fine and just
actions, which political science investigates, admit of much variety and fluctuation of opinion, so that they
may be thought to exist only by convention, and not by nature. And goods also give rise to a similar fluctuation
because they bring harm to many people; for before now men have been undone by reason of their wealth,
and others by reason of their courage. We must be content, then, in speaking of such subjects and with such
premisses to indicate the truth roughly and in outline, and in speaking about things which are only for the
most part true and with premisses of the same kind to reach conclusions that are no better. In the same spirit,
therefore, should each type of statement be received; for it is the mark of an educated man to look for
precision in each class of things just so far as the nature of the subject admits; it is evidently equally foolish to
accept probable reasoning from a mathematician and to demand from a rhetorician scientific proofs.
Now each man judges well the things he knows, and of these he is a good judge. And so the man who has
been educated in a subject is a good judge of that subject, and the man who has received an all-round
education is a good judge in general. Hence a young man is not a proper hearer of lectures on political
science; for he is inexperienced in the actions that occur in life, but its discussions start from these and are
about these; and, further, since he tends to follow his passions, his study will be vain and unprofitable,
because the end aimed at is not knowledge but action. And it makes no difference whether he is young in
years or youthful in character; the defect does not depend on time, but on his living, and pursuing each
successive object, as passion directs. For to such persons, as to the incontinent, knowledge brings no profit;
but to those who desire and act in accordance with a rational principle knowledge about such matters will be
of great benefit.
29. Which of the following assumptions cannot be inferred from the passage?
(1) Every action and thought is directed and aimed at something good
(2) Everything has a purpose or an end
(3) Many times, some of the creative pursuits are subordinate to a master art
(4) Every person is a good judge of a subject which is known to him
(5) Every person assumes that his contribution towards one art will lead to the common good of the
30. Why does the author suggest that desiring something for the sake of that thing itself must be the chief
(1) Because every means has a desirable end
(2) Because our life has an ultimate goal
(3) Because politics is an authoritative art
(4) Because every activity should be directed towards another activity
(5) Because our purpose in life is to achieve precision in whatever we choose to do
31. According to the passage, the author gives a warning to those who:
(1) aim to pursue happiness for the sake of happiness
(2) aim to act by means of their virtue
(3) aim to work in the field of politics
(4) aim to pass judgements on subjects that are unknown to them
(5) aim to exercise action rather than gain knowledge
32. According to the passage, if politics is the most authoritative art then it cannot be inferred that:
(1) no other science dominates our actions more than politics
(2) politics determines the semblance, structure and content of other sciences
(3) art is equally dependent on other sciences and not just politics
(4) politics is the master art
(5) politics not only uses these sciences, it also legislates their limit
DIRECTIONS for Questions 33 to 35: In each question, four sentences are given. Identify the incorrect
sentence or sentences.
33. A. All black writers of the Renaissance period cannot be described as crusaders.
B. Some were not immediately concerned with the injustices heaped on Negroes.
C. Some contrived their poems, novels and song merely for the sake of art, while others took up their
pens to escape the sordid aspect of their existence.
D. If an element of race exists in the work of these writers, it is because their material flows out of their
individual and group experiences reflecting the emergence of a distant cultural community.
(1) D and A (2) C and D (3) B and D (4) A and C (5) A and B
34. A. Flying alone is an open plane is the purest experience of flight possible.
B. That pure experience is felt at its most intense in acrobatic flying where you are upside down, or
pointed at the sky or at the earth, and moving in ways that you can only in the unsubstantial
medium of the air.
C. Acrobatic flying is a useless skill in its particulars – nobody needs to do a loop or a roll, not even a
fighter pilot – but this skills extends your control of a plane.
D. When you reach the top of a loop, upside down and engine at full throttle, and tilt your head up to
pick up the horizon line behind you, you are as far outside instinctive human behaviour as you can
(1) A, C and D (2) D, B and C (3) B, A and C (4) D, A and B (5) C and B
35. A. But this summer might just be about the flag, when the book is written about it.
B. The coming Monday, the Supreme Court is expected to hand down the long-expected decision on
the Pledge of Allegiance.
C. In alliance the House of Representatives just passed yesterday, buried by other events of the day,
an amendment to the Constitution to ban flag burning.
D. They have passed it before on two occasions, most recently in the year 2000, and both times it has
been tried and killed in the Senate.
(1) D and C (2) C and B (3) B and D (4) D and A (5) A and C
Sub-section II-A : Number of Questions = 15
Note: Questions 36 to 50 carry two marks each.
DIRECTIONS for Questions 36 and 37: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
I forgot the ten digit mobile number of my friend Rakesh. However, I still have some information about the
number, moving from left to right.
i. Every fifth digit is the third multiple of two.
ii. It contains the largest single digit multiple of three twice.
iii. Second multiple of two appears next to each other twice in the last five digits.
iv. The first digit is three more than the last digit.
v. Fourth digit from the last is three.
vi. Sum of the second and the fourth digit is equal to the first digit.
vii. Sum of the fourth, fifth and the sixth digit is seven.
viii. Sum of the last four digits is same as that of the last five digits.
36. The second digit in the mobile number as we move from left to right is
(1) 1 (2) 8 (3) 2 (4) 7 (5) Cannot be determined
37. Places occupied by the pair of second multiples of 2 in the mobile number are
(1) 5, 6 (2) 7, 8 (3) 6, 7 (4) 1, 4 (5) 8, 9
38. There were two groups A and B in a tournament. Both the groups had equal number of teams. In the
tournament each team played exactly one match with every other team of the same group. If some
teams were shifted from group A to group B, then the number of matches in the tournament increases
by 9. If the number of teams in group B after the shift is 9, then find the total number of teams that
participated in the tournament.
(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 24 (4) 30 (5) Data Insufficient
DIRECTIONS for Questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The chart given below shows the annual consumption of different food items of the residents of an apartment
in Mumbai. The data is shown for two consecutive years 2001 and 2002. The pyramid of 2001 shows the
annual consumption (in kgs) for the different food items and the corresponding pyramid for 2002 shows the
percentage change ('+' sign indicates percentage increase) for the items in the same order as that of 2001 from
top to bottom. The table associated with 2002 pyramid shows the age-wise and item-wise distribution of all
the residents of the apartment consuming a particular food item in 2002. The only food items consumed by
these residents are those given in the chart and each resident (as shown in the table) necessarily consumes the
given food items.
1 6
2 2 2
3 3
3 3
5 G ra in s
Veget ables
F ru it s
M eat
M i lk
2 0 0 1 2 0 02
3 0 0 0
+ 5 %
0 %
E l d ers
> 3 0 y r
Wo m en
1 9 -3 0 y r
M en
1 9 -3 0 y r
C h il d re n
4 -8 y r
39. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE, based on the given data?
A. The quantity of vegetables consumed as a percentage of quantity all the food items in 2002 is more
than twice as compared to 2001.
B. The increase in the quantity of milk consumed in 2002 as compared to 2001 is less than the increase
in the quantity of grains consumed in 2002 as compared to 2001.
C. Men (19-30 years) consumed the maximum quantity of grains in 2001.
(1) A, B and C (2) Only C (3) Both A and C
(4) Only B (5) Both B and C
40. The given data is sufficient to find the answers of which of the following questions?
A. What is the quantity of fruits consumed by children (4 to 8 years) in 2002?
B. Find the ratio of the quantity of meat consumed by men (19-30 years) in 2001 and 2002.
C. What is the average consumption of grains per resident of the apartment in 2002?
(1) A, B and C (2) Both A and B (3) Only B and C
(4) Both A and C (5) Only C
41. Assume that the residents of different age-groups who consume a food item, do it in the same quantity.
In 2001, there were 21 residents in the apartment who consumed milk. Find the approximate milk
consumption per child (4-8 years) in 2001.
(1) 391 kg (2) 190 kg (3)150 kg (4) 395 kg (5) Cannot be determined.
42. If the given age-wise and item-wise consumer chart for 2002 is also valid for 2001, then find the ratio
of the average vegetable consumption per resident in 2001 to the average fruit consumption per resident
in 2002?
(1) 4 : 9 (2) 5 : 9 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 2 : 3 (5) Cannot be determined
DIRECTIONS for Questions 43 to 45: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
In a chartered bus, tickets are available for passengers in two fare slabs: Rs. 5 for distance below 5 km and
Rs. 8 for distance of 5 km or above. The conductor of the bus issues one of the two tickets to each passenger
according to the distance one has to travel. Any passenger tenders him the amount in the denomination of
Re. 1, Rs. 2, Rs. 5, Rs.10 or Rs. 20 only. The conductor has to return the remaining amount to each passenger
in these denominations only. The conductor had 5 notes of Re. 1, 20 notes of Rs. 2 and 3 notes of Rs. 5 to start
43. The bus has a seating capacity of 80 passengers. If the bus was full when it started and no passenger
boarded the bus after that, then which of the following is a possible amount with the conductor when
the bus finished the journey?
(1) Rs. 520 (2) Rs. 530 (3) Rs. 540 (4) Rs. 545 (5) Rs. 535
44. If each passenger in the bus is having a Rs. 10 note only, then at most how many passengers the
conductor can serve without facing any problem in rendering the change to the passengers?
(1) 23 (2) 24 (3) 25 (4) 26 (5) 27
45. If 60% of the passengers travel a distance that is less than 5 kms, then find the minimum possible
number of passengers the bus should have so that the conductor is left with only Rs. 10 notes?
(1) 20 (2) 30 (3) 35 (4) 45 (5) 50
DIRECTIONS for Questions 46 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Trooti and Frooti are two brands of mango drink that is available at the local grocer’s shop – ‘Gopaljee
Stores’. The owner Mr. Gopal had started stocking these brands in his shop. He started stocking Trooti in the
month of March whereas Frooti in the month of May. He did not have any stock of Trooti or Frooti before the
month of March. The bar chart given below provides information about the number of standard packs (of 300
ml) of each brand being bought by Mr. Gopal at the beginning of the corresponding month. He manages to
sell only a fraction of the total stock available at the beginning of the month (stock left over from previous
month + the new stocks bought in that month) for that brand. Both the brands are sold in standard packs only
(consider the nearest integer in any calculation that involves number of packs)
0 100 200 300 400 500 600
The fraction of stocks of each brand sold in the six-month period from March to August is below.
Month Fraction of Trooti sold Fraction of Frooti sold
March 0.5 —
April 0.6 —
May 0.7 0.7
June 0.8 0.9
July 0.9 0.7
August 0.8 0.5
46. In which month the aggregate number of packs of Trooti and Frooti sold in Gopaljee stores is the
(1) June (2) July (3) August (4) May (5) Cannot be determined
47. In which month did Gopaljee Stores have the highest stock of Frooti (in terms of number of packs)?
(1) June (2) July (3) August (4) May (5) Cannot be determined
48. Which month had the highest sales of Trooti brand from Gopaljee Stores (in terms of number of packs)?
(1) June (2) July (3) August (4) May (5) Cannot be determined
49. In which month the total stock of Frooti, before being sold, was higher than Trooti in Gopaljee Stores?
(1) May (2) June (3) July (4) August (5) April
50. Considering both the brands, in which month the difference between total quantity sold and bought is
the maximum?
(1) Trooti, March (2) Frooti, May (3) Frooti, July
(4) Frooti, August (5) None of these
Sub-section II-B : Number of Questions = 10
Note: Questions 51 to 60 carry three marks each.
DIRECTIONS for Questions 51 to 55: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The charts below shows various parameters related to four different cities namely Pune, Hyderabad, Chennai
and Bangalore in India for 2001 and 2002.
Per Capita Income (in rupees)
2001 2002
Violent Crimes
2001 2002

Waste Generated
2001 2002

Peak Power Demand
2001 2002
51. As a rule, increase in per capita income always results in an increase in peak-power demand. Percent
increase in per capita income is denoted by I
and percent increase in peak power demand is denoted
by I
for any city. For how many cities, (I
– I
) will be negative when calculated over the period
2001 and 2002?
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (5) 4
52. The amount of waste generated is directly proportional to human population in the city. On an average,
a person generates x% more wastage per annum in 2002 than in 2001. Different cities have different
values of x which are as follows:
City Value of x
Bangalore 4
Chennai 3
Hydrabad 5
Pune 4
Which city among the following has witnessed maximum percentage increase in their waste generated
in 2002 over 2001?
(1) Bangalore (2) Chennai (3) Pune (4) Hyderabad (5) Cannot be determined
53. Which city has witnessed the maximum percentage drop in crime in 2002?
(1) Bangalore (2) Hyderabad (3) Chennai (4) Pune (5) Cannot be determined
Additional data for questions 54 and 55: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In 2002, QoL (Quality of Life) in different cities is calculated through an algorithm which assigns different
weightage to different factors in the following way:
Factor Weightage
1. Per Capita Income 60%
2. Waste Generated 20%
3. Peak Power demand 30%
4. Violent Crime (–10%)
Based on the data and weightage given above, a score is calculated for each of the four cities. The more the
score, the better is the QoL.
54. Which city provides the best QoL in 2002?
(1) Bangalore (2) Chennai (3) Hyderabad (4) Pune (5) Chennai or Bangalore
55. Which city provides the worst QoL in 2002?
(1) Bangalore (2) Chennai (3) Hyderabad (4) Pune (5) Bangalore or Hyderabad
DIRECTIONS for Questions 56 to 58: Each question is followed by two statements A and B. Answer each
question using the following instructions.
Choose (1) if the question can be answered by statement A alone, but cannot be answered by using the other
statement alone.
Choose (2) if the question can be answered by statement B alone, but cannot be answered by using the other
statement alone.
Choose (3) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choose (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered
by using either statement alone.
Choose (5) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
56. Out of a pack of 52 playing cards, Manohar draws 4 cards. Is there a king of hearts in them?
A: All 4 cards were drawn without replacement and each of them were either kings or queens or jacks.
B: All the 4 cards were kings.
57. In a family P, Q, R, S and T are the only members out of which atleast three are females. If Q is the
father of R and P has two sons, then who will be the uncle of R?
A: P is the grandmother of R.
B: T is the aunt of R.
58. What is the length of the shadow of the stick when the angle of elevation of the sun is 60°?
A: The length of the stick is 2 m. The length of the shadow is 0.5 m, if the angle of elevation of the sun
is 30°.
B: The length of the stick is 2 m. The length of the shadow is 3 m, if the angle of elevation of the sun
is 30°.
DIRECTIONS for Questions 59 and 60: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Five aspiring ministers namely Mr. Kallu Yadav, Mr. Laxman Vilas, Mr. Tamambaram, Mr. S.M. Iyer and Mr.
Tamalnath went to Mrs. Sona Chandi to lobby for important ministerial berths in the cabinet. Mrs. Chandi asks
these people to submit their individual preferences. Each of them submitted their two preferred ministerial
berths as given in the table below.
Name of the aspirant Preference 1 Preference 2
Kallu Yadav Railways Petroleum
Laxman Vilas Railways Steel
Tamambaram .inance Commerce
S.M. Iyer Commerce Petroleum
Tamalnath .inance Steel
A ministry can be assigned to only one aspirant.
59. From the above preference table, which of the following statement is definitely true?
(1) Kallu Yadav - Petroleum
(2) Tamalnath - Steel
(3) S.M. Iyer - Commerce
(4) Laxman - Railways
(5) None of these
60. Mr. Kallu Yadav is willing to relinquish his demand for both the ministries if he is given the berth for
Deputy Prime Minister in the cabinet. If Kallu is then out of contention for other ministerial berths, then
maximum of how many aspirants simultaneously can get both the ministries of their choice, provided
everybody else gets at least one ministry of his choice?
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 0 (5) 4
Sub-section II-C : Number of Questions = 10
Note: Questions 61 to 70 carry four marks each.
DIRECTIONS for Questions 61 to 65: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A juice manufacturing company manufactures six different varieties of juices namely J
, J
, J
, J
, J
and J
Eight friends namely A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H bought either one or two varieties of the mentioned juices
each. The aggregate volume of juice bought by each of the friends is 80 L. If A buys two particular varieties,
then all other friends also buy only those two varieties of juice in the same quantity as A. Similarly, if A buys
one particular variety of juice, then all other friends also buy only that particular variety of juice in the same
quantity as A. This holds true for all the other friends. The following table provides information about the cost
(in Rupees) at which the friends may buy one liter of each variety of juice.

A 60 45 75 80 95 70
B 50 30 85 60 70 35
C 75 50 40 90 60 85
D 55 25 95 75 65 80
E 60 85 65 70 45 95
. 35 45 80 75 90 60
G 25 80 45 70 60 85
H 45 35 70 85 55 50

Additional Information for questions 61 to 63: The average cost of the juice with A is Rs. 60 per L.
61. Find the maximum possible average cost of juice with ‘H’.
(1) Rs. 54.29 (2) Rs. 66.29 (3) Rs. 56.43 (4) Rs. 62.57 (5) Rs. 45
62. With how many friends the average cost of juice is definitely not more than the average cost of juice
with A?
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (5) 4
63. For whom the difference between the maximum and the minimum possible average cost of juice with
him is the largest?
(1) E (2) G (3) F (4) C (5) B
Additional Information for questions 64 and 65: The average cost of juice with C is Rs. 82 per L.
64. What can be the maximum possible quantity of J
bought by C?
(1) 66.4 L (2) 66.8 L (3) 68.4 L (4) 67.2 L (5) 67.8 L
65. Which of the following cannot be a possible quantity of J
or J
bought by C?
(1) 17.2 L (2) 9.6 L (3) 5.33 L (4) 12.8 L (5) 21.33 L
DIRECTIONS for Questions 66 to 70: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The KAT Group met after the KAT examination was conducted. Unfortunately there were some errors in the
paper in spite of the Group’s dedicated effort. The purpose of the meeting was to look into those errors and
come out with a solution that would be in the best interest of all the candidates. In the KAT examination, there
were 25 Questions in each of the two sections viz. Quant and English. 4 marks were awarded for each correct
answer and 1 mark was deducted for each wrong answer. Question paper of the KAT examination was
available in 2 different sets — 111 & 222, each having the same questions, but arranged in different order.
The errors were as follows:
1. SET 111 had two erroneous questions, one each in Quant and English sections.
2. SET 222 had one erroneous question, in English, which was the same question in which there was an
error in SET 111 English section.
The errors were in the incorrect framing of the questions and in spite of the errors, it was possible for a
candidate to get the right answer as per the KAT Group answer key.
After the meeting, the KAT Group came out with 3 different solutions.
Decision 1: Take into account all the questions for evaluation, whether correct or erroneous.
Decision 2: Ignore the erroneous questions for the particular SET. For example in SET 111 both the erroneous
questions to be ignored, while in SET 222, only the erroneous English question to be ignored.
Decision 3: Ignore the erroneous questions in both the SETs for evaluation. i.e. the erroneous Quant question
in SET 111 will also be ignored in SET 222.
Ignoring a question would mean that the particular question will not be considered for evaluation irrespective
of the candidate’s answer.
The following table shows the number of questions attempted, (correctly and incorrectly) for 4 candidates
Aaltu, Faltu, Confused and Ignorant along with the status of erroneous question in their respective SETs.
Their attempts in Quant and English section include the erroneous questions. Both Faltu and Ignorant attempted
the Quant question which was erroneously framed in SET 111. Whereas Faltu attempted that question correctly,
Ignorant attempted the same question incorrectly.
Sl.No Name
Attempt Correct Wrong Attempt Correct Wrong
No. of
detail of the
answer as per
KAT Group
1 in Quant Correct
1 in English Wrong
2 Faltu 222 21 18 3 20 11 9 1 1 in English Wrong
1 in Quant Wrong
1 in English Wrong
4 Ignorant 222 20 17 3 19 12 7 1 1 in English Correct
Erroneous question related information
1 Aaltu 111 19 16 3 18
19 14
Quant English
5 2 3
13 5 2
Confused 111 20 15 5
The KAT Group has decided that the best two (based on maximum total marks in Quant and English taken
together) out of the above mentioned four candidates will be selected for the next round depending on the
decision criteria. In case of two candidates scoring the same marks, the candidate with higher marks in
English will be selected.
66. If the KAT Group decided to follow Decision 1, then who are the two candidates likely to be selected?
(1) Aaltu and Confused
(2) Faltu and Confused
(3) Faltu and Ignorant
(4) Aaltu and Ignorant
(5) Confused and Ignorant
67 Which candidate(s) is/are likely to have the maximum gain in total marks if Decision 3 is followed
instead of Decision 1?
(1) Faltu only
(2) Confused only
(3) Aaltu and Ignorant only
(4) Confused and Faltu only
(5) All of them will lose marks
68. If Faltu aspires to be one of the candidates to get selected, then the KAT group should follow
(1) Decision 1 or 2
(2) Decision 2 or 3
(3) Decision 1 only
(4) Decision 2 only
(5) Faltu cannot be selected in any case.
69. If Decision 2 is followed, then who will have the lowest total score?
(1) Confused
(2) Faltu
(3) Ignorant
(4) Aaltu
(5) Both Aaltu and Faltu
70. A 5
candidate Jholtoo knows that he will have a maximum of 14 questions in the KAT examination,
responses to which may be either wrong or among one of the ignored questions in any situation. Also,
Jholtoo knows that he will have a minimum of 16 questions correct in English. What is the minimum
number of total questions that Jholtoo should attempt to ensure that he is one of the two candidates to
get selected?
(1) 41 (2) 42 (3) 43 (4) 44 (5) 45
Sub-section III-A : Number of questions = 15
Note: Questions 71 to 85 carry two marks each.
71. The cost price of a pair of shoes is increased by 18%. A trader who revised the selling price of the pair
of shoes to maintain the same profit percentage noted that he got Rs. 9 more than the earlier profit by
selling one pair of shoes. What was the earlier profit?
(1) Rs.36 (2) Rs.45 (3) Rs.50 (4) Rs.54 (5) Cannot be determined
72. Sharat, Chandra and Mayank completed a job in 10 days. They worked together for 3 days in which
they completed 37% of the total work. But due to unavoidable circumstances, Sharat quits the job at this
point and Chandra and Mayank continued to work together to complete the job. If the work done by
Chandra in 4 days is equal to the work done by Mayank in 5 days, then what is the time taken by the
fastest worker amongst the three mentioned persons to complete the whole work alone?
(1) 20 (2) 25 (3) 30 (4) 15 (5) None of these
73. If
+ +
+ +
9x 42x 49
y ,
9x 42x 64
(1) 0 y 1 ≤ < (2)
–1 y
< < (3) 0 y ≤ < ∞ (4)
< < ∞ (5) –1 < y < 15
74. Find the number of possible values of integer ‘x’ such that 41
when divided by ‘x’ leaves 1 as the
remainder. (‘n’ is any prime number greater than 5)
(1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 16 (4) 6 (5) None of these
75. In the given figure, ABCD and BDQP are two rectangles, in which AB = 12 units and AD = 5 units. Find
the area of the rectangle BDQP.
(1) 78 sq. units (2) 60 sq. units (3) 65 sq. units (4) 52 sq. units (5) 30 3 sq. units
76. Rajkishor can do a piece of work in 10 days working 8 hrs per day. If Brijkishor works with two-third
of the efficiency with which his friend Rajkishor works, then in how many days can Brijkishor do the
same piece of work, working 6 hrs per day?
(1) 15 days (2) 18 days (3) 20 days (4) 24 days (5) None of these
77. P and Q are two natural numbers, both greater than 1 such that P × Q = 5!. If Q can be represented as x
where, (x + y) is minimum and P is not a multiple of x, then what is the value of P?
(1) 60 (2) 40 (3) 30 (4) 10 (5) 15
78. A boat is moving in a stream. While going down stream, it crosses a wooden piece. After 1 hr, the boat
reaches the port, and starts travelling in the opposite direction. Now, after moving from the port for 1 hr,
the boat crosses that wooden piece again at a point which is 8 km ahead of the place where it was
encountered earlier. Find the speed of the stream.
(1) 4 km/hr (2) 3 km/hr (3) 2 km/hr (4) 1 km/hr (5) 8 km/hr
79. The first term of an arithmetic series of consecutive integers is ‘k
+ 1’. Sum of the first ‘2k + 1’ terms
of this series is
(1) k + (k + 1)
(2) (k – 1)
+ k
(3) (k + 1)
+ k
(4) k
+ k
(5) (k – 1)
+ k
DIRECTIONS for Questions 80 and 81: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A container is having three different varieties of fruits raspberry, guava and blackberry. The number of fruits
of each variety is more than one. The ratio of the number of raspberries to the number of guavas is equal to the
ratio of the number of guavas to the number of blackberries.
80. If the total number of fruits is 61, then find the number of guavas.
(1) 16 (2) 20 (3) 25 (4) 30 (5) Cannot be determined
81. If the number of guavas is 21, then which of the following can be the total number of all the fruits in the
(1) 63 (2) 89 (3) 101 (4) 117 (5) None of these
DIRECTIONS for Questions 82 and 83: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In a colony, there are 350 residents. The number of residents who smoke cigar, hookah and cigarette as a
percentage of the total number of residents is atleast 40%, atleast 30% and atleast 22% respectively.
82. If ‘p’ is the number of residents smoking all the three, i.e. cigar, hookah and cigarette, then
(1) ≤ ≤ 28 p 77 (2) ≤ ≤ 0 p 100 (3) ≤ ≤ 0 p 7 (4) ≤ ≤ 0 p 350 (5) ≤ ≤ 0 p 28
83. If 50% of the residents do not smoke, then at most how many residents smoke exactly one of cigar,
cigarette and hookah?
(1) 50 (2) 175 (3) 70 (4) 91 (5) 100
84. Nine parallel chords are drawn in a circle of diameter 10 cm. If the distance between any two of the
adjacent chords is 1 cm, then which of the following is always true?
(1) One of the chords is the diameter of the circle.
(2) At least two of the chords must be of equal length.
(3) The smallest chord is not less than 3 cm.
(4) All of (a), (b) and (c)
(5) None of these.
85. a, b, c, d and e are five natural numbers in an arithmetic progression. It was noted that a + b + c + d + e
= x
and x
– a – e = y
where, ‘x’ and ‘y’ are natural numbers. What is the minimum possible
value of c?
(1) 525 (2) 675 (3) 2025 (4) 3375 (5) 225
Sub-section III-B : Number of Questions = 10
Note: Questions 86 to 95 carry three marks each.
DIRECTIONS for Questions 86 and 87: Each question is followed by two statements A and B. Answer each
question using the following instructions.
Choose (1) if the question can be answered by statement A alone, but cannot be answered by using the other
statement alone.
Choose (2) if the question can be answered by statement B alone, but cannot be answered by using the other
statement alone.
Choose (3) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choose (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by
using either statement alone.
Choose (5) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
86. If the two trains started simultaneously, then what is the distance between the two stations X and Y?
A: Both the trains were travelling from Y to X. The train travelling at 60 kmph arrived at X 50 min
before the train travelling at 50 kmph.
B: The trains were travelling in the opposite direction such that one is travelling from Y to X and the
other from X to Y . The difference between speeds is 15 km/hr. They take 20 min and 30 min to
reach their respective stations after they cross each other.
87. Tarun eats chicken only on Tuesdays, Saturdays and Sundays. Did he eat chicken today?
A: He ate chicken yesterday.
B: He ate chicken two days before yesterday.
88. If
s s s 31
2 3 5 30
] ] ]
+ + ·
] ] ]
] ] ]
, where[s] is the greatest integer less than or equal to ‘s’ and 0 < s < 1000, then
find the number of possible values of ‘s’.
(1) 48 (2) 999 (3) 11 (4) 33 (5) Cannot be determined
89. There are two alloys of gold and copper. In the first alloy, there is twice as much gold as copper and in
the second alloy, the quantity of copper is four times more than the quantity of gold. In what ratio we
must mix the first and the second alloy such that the amount of copper is twice the amount of the gold
in this new alloy?
(1) 1 : 1 (2). 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 1.5 (4) 1 : 2.5 (5) 2 : 1
90. How many integral values of x satisfy the inequality | [x 3] | 5? + <
{Here, [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x}
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 9 (5) 10
91. Single copy of a book costs $16, but purchasers of 20 or more books pay only $13 per book.
How many values of n ( n 0 ≠ ) exist for which one could buy 20 copies at a cost which is lower than the
cost in which one could buy exactly ‘n’ copies of that book?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 2 (5) None of these
92. The product of three positive integers is 6 times their sum. One of these integers is the sum of the other
two integers. Find the sum of all distinct possible products of these three integers.
(1) 432 (2) 252 (3) 144 (4) 324 (5) 336
DIRECTIONS for Questions 93 and 94: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In a matrimonial database of 30 girls, it is observed that only 12 of them are working, 19 of them are less than
23 years old and 25 of them never married before. It is also observed that there are 8 girls who never married
before, but more than and equal to 23 years old and are not working anywhere. There are 2 girls, who are
working, but married before and more than and equal to 23 years old. There is no such girl in the database,
who has married before but not working.
93. What is the number of working girls listed in that database, who never married before?
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8 (5) 9
94. What is the number of non-working girls listed in that database, who are less than 23 years old but
never married before?
(1) 13 (2) 10 (3) 11 (4) 12 (5) Cannot be determined
95. Gloria has 160 cellular phones with her. The cellular phones with her are either GSM or CDMA. The
ratio of number of GSM to CDMA cellular phones is 3 : 5. The number of cellular phones with
blue-tooth to those without a blue tooth is 1 : 4. The ratio of number of GSM cellular phones with
blue-tooth to CDMA cellular phones with blue-tooth is 3 : 1. Find the ratio of number of GSM cellular
phones without blue-tooth to CDMA cellular phones without blue-tooth.
(1) 9 : 23 (2) 11 : 21 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 5 : 11 (5) 7 : 25
Sub-section III-C : Number of Questions = 10
Note: Questions 96 to 105 carry four marks each.
96. Two identical semicircles are drawn with unit radii and with AC and CG as diameter as shown in the
figure given below such that the points A, C and G are collinear. E and D are the centers of the semicircles
having diameter AC and CG respectively. F and N are points on the circular arcs such that F, E and N
are collinear as shown in the figure. If the length of the line segment CN is 1 unit, then find the length
of line segment FD..

4 3 3 units +
5 3 3 units +
4 2 3 units +
5 2 3 units +
(5) None of these
97. There are two buttons inside an elevator in a complex with 20 floor marked 1 to 20. The first button
when pressed takes the elevator 8 floors down and the second button when pressed takes the elevator
13 floors up. (up or down button can be pressed only when there are enough floors available to go
down or go up). A person has to go to the 8th floor from the 13th floor. What is the minimum possible
number of times the buttons are required to be pressed?
(1) 22 (2) 19 (3) 7 (4) 13 (5) 17
98. Akhil, Bunty, Chameli, Disha and Eku are working upon a project, which is divided into phases such
that only one person works on each phase. The work done per phase by them is inversely proportional
to their age in years. Akhil has worked on 4 phases of the project whereas Bunty has worked on
5 phases. Eku and Disha have worked on 8 phases each and the rest of the phases were worked upon
by Chameli, who received the honour of having worked upon 40% of the project. If the ages of these
5 persons are 36 yrs, 18 yrs, 9 yrs, 72 yrs and 24 yrs respectively, then on how many phases of the
project did Chameli work?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 (5) 7
99. Jerry’s field is circular in shape. He has a long rod which he places in his field such that both the ends
of this rod just touch the periphery of this field. Furthermore, he finds that the boundary on one side of
this rod is 400% longer than that on the other side. Jerry’s son Micky arrives in a while, takes a
200π m long iron coil and describes the smallest possible circle around that rod. He, then discarded the
remaining 50 m π of the coil. What is the area of the region outside Jerry’s field but inside Micky’s
| `

. ,
2 2
150 m
8 4
2 2
150 m
3 2
| `

. ,
2 2
150 m
4 24
| `

. ,
| `

. ,
2 2
150 m
4 12
(5) None of these
100. A sequence X
, X
, X
, ......, is in arithmetic progression and another sequence Y
, Y
, Y
, .... is also in
arithmetic progression. By multiplying the corresponding terms of the two sequences (example X
, ..... and so on) a new sequence is formed first three terms obtained are 1440, 1716 and 1848 in
that order. What will be the eighth term of this new sequence such formed?
(1) 144 (2) 348 (3) 248 (4) 558 (5) 464
101. If a, b and c are positive real numbers, then find the minimum possible value of + +
+ + +
a b c
b 3c c 3a a 3b
102. In the figure given below, a circle is drawn inside the square of side 100 units. The second square is
then drawn at one of the four corners (as shown in the figure) such that one vertice of the square just
touches the circle. A circle is then drawn inside the smaller square. This process is repeated till we get
three squares in all. What is the side of the smallest square drawn?

1 0 0
( )
2 1
− units (2)
( )
2 1
− units (3)
( )
25 2 2 − units
(4) +
(1 2) units
( 2 1) units
103. There are four persons A
, A
, A
and A
on a straight road who start moving simultaneously with
constant speeds along the road in the same direction. A
catches up with A
, A
, A
in time T
, T
, T
respectively; A
catches up with A
and A
in time T
and T
respectively and A
catches up with A
in time T
. Which of the following is equal to (T
– T
) (T
– T
) (T
– T
(1) (T
– T
) (T
– T
) (T
– T
(2) (T
– T
) (T
– T
) (T
– T
(3) (T
– T
) (T
– T
) (T
– T
(4) (T
– T
) (T
– T
) (T
– T
(5) (T
– T
) (T
– T
) (T
– T
104. The symbols ‘xx’, ‘yz’ denote a pair of two-digit numbers. Similarly ‘t00t’ denotes a four-digit number.
Find the number of solutions of the equation (xx)(yz) = t00t.
(1) 16 (2) 15 (3) 9 (4) 7 (5) 13
105. Find the ratio of the sum of first 20 terms to the sum of first 40 terms of the series S, where
· + + + + + ∞
4 4 4 4 4
S .... .
5 45 117 221 357
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