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GEAS COMPILATION

1. Date of approval of RA 9292


a. April 14, 2004 c. April 17, 2004
b. April 14, 2007 d. None of these

2. There are ______ Articles and _____ sections in the RA 9292.
a. 8,42 c. 7, 43
b. 8, 43 d. 7,42

3. Any person who shall violate any provision of RA 9292 or any
rules, regulations, the Code of Ethics and the Code of
Technical Standards of Practice is stated in section _________.
a. 35 c. 37
b. 36 d. 38

4. This act is was consolidation of House Bill No. 5224 and Senate
Bill No. 2683.
a. RA 9292 c. RA 6541
b. RA 5734 d. None of these

5. The chairperson of the PRC shall include in the Commissions
program the implementation of RA 9292, the funding of w/c
shall be included in the Annual General Appropriation Act.
a. Sec 39 c. Sec 41
b. Sec 40 d. Sec 42

6. According to section 43, RA 9292 shall take effect __________
following its full publication in the __________ or any newspaper
of general circulation.
a. 15 days, Law Gazette c. 15 days, internet
b. 15 days, Official Gazette d. 30 days, internet

7. Who among the following persons was not a signatory of the
9292?
a. FRANKLIN DRILON c. OSCAR G. YABES
b. JOSE DE VENECIA JR d. JESUS P. NAZARENO

8. Section 40 of RA 9292.
a. Appropriations c. Effectivity
b. Repealing clause d. Separability clause

9. Which of the following is not true for the qualifications of Board
Members of Electronics Engineering?
a. Be a citizen and a resident of the Philippines for 5
consecutive yrs prior to his appointment
b. Member of good standing of the APO
c. Must not have been convicted of an offense
involving moral turpitude
d. Be of good moral character and integrity

10. All records of the Board, including applications for the
examination, administrative cases involving PECE, ECE and
ECTs shall be kept by
a. BECE c. PRC
b. IECEP d. APO

11. The members of the Board shall hold office for a term of
__________ from date of appointment or until their successors
shall have been appointed and qualified and may be re-
appointed once for another term.
a. two years c. 3 years
b. at least 3 years d. 5 years






12. Section 7 states that the Board is vested with the authority to:
Adopt an official __________ of the Board.
a. logo c. Avatar
b. icon d. Seal

13. The compensation and allowances of the Board is
comparable to that being received by the Chairman and
members of existing regulatory boards under the Commission
as provided for in the __________.
a. Civil Service c. RA 1992
b. DBM d. Gen Appropriations Act

14. Each member of the Board shall take the/a __________ prior to
the assumption of office.
a. panel interview from the Appointment committee
b. board exam
c. proper oath
d. none of these

15. How much or what fine is required for any person who shall
violate any provision or any rules, regulations, the Code of
Ethics and the Code of Technical Standards of Practice
promulgated under RA 9292?
a. Not less than Php100,000.00 nor more than Php 1M
or by imprisonment of not less than 6 months nor
more than 6 year
b. Php100,000.00 to Php 1M or 6 yrs imprisonment or
both, in the discretion of the court
c. Not less than Php100,000.00 nor more than Php 1M
or by imprisonment of not less than 6 months nor
more than 6 years, or both, in the discretion of the
court
d. none of these

16. The Board and the __________ shall correct and rate the
licensure examination papers
a. Commission c. IECEP
b. APO d. none of these

17. According to section 2-Statement of Policy, the state shall
therefore develop and nurture competent, virtuous,
productive, and __________ PECE, ECE, and ECTs
a. God-fearing c. versatile
b. religious d. well-rounded

18. Within __________ years after the effectivity of RA 9292, the
Board shall issue Certificate of Registration and Professional
Identification Cards without examination to all applicants for
registration as Electronics Technicians who comply to all the
requirements stated in section 20.
a. 3 (three) c. 7 (seven)
b. 5 (five) d. none of these
19. With reference to prob 22, all submittals/documents shall be
accompanied by a certification from __________ registered
PECEs vouching for the integrity, technical capability and
good moral character of the applicant.
a. at least 3 c. 5
b. 3 d. none of these







GEAS (DLSU ECE LAWS AND ETHICS/physics)

20. The position x of an experimental rocket moving along a long
rail is measured to be x(t) = (4m/s)t + (7m/s
2
)t
2
+ (5m/s
3
)t
3

(0.35m/s
4
)t
4
over the first 10s of its motion, where t is in seconds
and x is in meters. Find the velocity of the rocket for the first 10
seconds.
a. 43 m/s c. 244m/s
b. 224 m/s d. 2240 m/s

SOLUTION:
v = dx/dt = (4m/s) + (14m/s
2
)t + (15m/s
3
)t
2
(1.4m/s
4
)t
3
Substituting t = 10 s, gives v = 244 m/s

21. Early in the nineteenth century, James Watt invented the
steam engine. In order to convince people, who relied heavily on
horses for mechanical work, he demonstrated how useful his
steam engine was by utilizing a horse that lifted water from a well
over a certain period of time and called the corresponding
power expended one horsepower. Assume that water has a
mass density of 1.0 x 10
3
kg/m
3
, that the well was 20m deep, and
that the horse worked for 8 hours. How many liters of water did
the horse raise from the well? Use the following constants: 1 hp =
746 Watts, g = 9.8 m/s
2
.
a. 1.1 x 10
2
L c. 1.1 x 10
3
L
b. 110 L d. 1.1 x 10
5
L

SOLUTION:
The work done of the tension in lifting a mass of water is given
by:
W = m g Ay
Where: W = work, m = mass = pV, Ay = distance,
V = volume, p= mass density,
P = work /time,
t
y VgA

Substituting all values, we get for V
V =
( )( )
( )( )( )
3 2
2 3 3
10 1 . 1
20 / 8 . 9 / 10 1
/ 3600 8 746
m x
m s m m kg x
h s hx W
=

Since 1 m
3
= 10
3
L, then V = 1.1 x 10
5
L.

22. As provided in ACT 3846, the construction of a radio station
shall begin only when
a. A personnel of NTC has conveyed through
telephone that the application has already been
approved.
b. the firm applying for the construction permit has
submitted to the NTC its application for the same.
c. the technical documents has already been signed
and sealed by the PECE.
d. The NTC has already issued a Permit to construct.

23. As provided in RA7925, a VAS provider needs to secure a
franchise if
a. it is offered by a telecommunications entity whose
proceeds of utility operations are not cross-
subsidized.
b. it does not discriminate other service providers
against rates.
c. it is offered by a telecommunications entity that
uses a separate book of accounts for VAS.
d. it puts up its own network.








24. According to the code of ethics, if you are employed in a
company and you wish to engage in a business which may
compete with your company, the most ethical thing to do is
to
a. inform your employer about it
b. have somebody run the business instead of you
c. try to find new clients
d. keep your prices lower than your companys

FEU(ENGG ECONOMY)

25. An investor has an option to purchase a tract of land that
will be worth P20,000 in seven years. If the value of the land
increases at 9% each year, how much should the investor
be willing to pay now for this property?
a. P9,341 c. P11,521
b. P10,941 d. P12,015

SOLUTION





26. Suppose that you make 12 equal annual deposits of P2,000
each into a bank account paying 8% interest per year. The
first deposit will be made one year from today. How much
money can be withdrawn from this bank account
immediately after the 12
th
deposit?
a. P35,492 c. 37,954
b. P36,21 d. P38,755

SOLUTION




27. What is the effective rate of interest if P1000 is invested at a
nominal rate of 15% compounded quarterly?
a. 15.86% c. 17.86%
b. 16.86% d. 18.86%

SOLUTION



28. A man purchased a house for P425,000. In the first month
that he owned the house, he spent P75,000 on repairs and
remodeling. Immediately after the house was remodeled,
he was offered P545,000 to sell the house. After some
consideration, he decided to keep the house and have it
rented for P4,500 per month starting two months after the
purchase. He collected rent for 15 months and then sold
the house for P600,000. if the interest rate was 1.5% per
month, how much extra money did he make or lose by not
selling the house immediately after it was remodeled?
a. P3,000 c. P5,000
b.P4,000 d. P6,000

SOLUTION





P10,940.68 = F,9%,7) P20,000(P/ = P
n) i%, F(P/F, =
1
1
n
i
F P |
.
|

\
|
+
=
P37,954.25 8%,12) P2000(F/A, =
i
1 ) 1 (
=
|
|
.
|

\
| +
=
n
i
A F
% 86 . 15 1
4
15 . 0
1
4
= |
.
|

\
|
+ =
eff
i
P5,015 =
) 15 %, 5 . 1 , / ( 000 , 600 ) 15 %, 5 . 1 , / ( 500 , 4 000 , 545 F P P A P P P Ans =
29. On the day his grandson was born, a man deposited to a
trust company a sufficient amount of money so that the
boy could receive five annual payments of P20,000 each
for his college tuition fees, starting with his 18
th
birthday.
Interest at the rate of 12$ per annum was to be paid on all
amounts on deposit. There was also a provision that the
grandson could elect to withdraw no annual payments
and receive a single lump amount on his 25
th
birthday. The
grandson chose this option. How much did the grandfather
deposit?
a. P9,500 c. P11,500
b. P10,500 d. P12,500

SOLUTION



30. A man bought an equipment costing P30,000 payable in
12 quarterly payments, each installment payable at the
beginning of each period. The rate of interest is 24%
compounded quarterly. What is the amount of each
payment
a. P1,700 c. P3,700
b. P2,700 d. P4,700

SOLUTION



31. A telecommunication company purchased an equipment
for P53,000 and paid P1,500 for freight and delivery
charges to the job site. The equipment has a normal life of
10 years with a trade-in value of P5,000 against the
purchase of a new equipment at the end of the life.
Determine the annual depreciation cost by the sinking fund
method. Assume interest at 6.5% compounded annually.
a. P2,543 c. P4,215
b. P3,668 d. P5,956

SOLUTION





32. A plant bought a machine for P200,000 and used it for 10
years, the life span of the equipment. What is the book
value of the machine after 5 years of use? Assume a scrap
value of P20,000. Use double declining balance method.
a. P43,648 c. P65,536
b. P59,425 d. P70,923
SOLUTION



GEAS(ADU ENGG MANAGEMENT)

33. It is a method of managing all the activities that affect the
quality of goods or services in order to prevent faults
a. Quality Assurance b. Quality Circle
c. Quality Control d. Quality Standard

34. This type of business organization can be set up without any
formality. It exist when there are a number of people involved
who are part owners of the business.
a. Association b. Corporation
c. Partnership d. Sole Proprietorship
35. Items purchased from a vendor cost Php 20 each, and the
forecast for next years demand is 1,000 units. If it costs Php 5
every time an order is placed for more units and the storage cost
is Php 4 per unit per year, what quantity should be order each
time?
a. 20 b. 30
c. 40 d. 50

SOLUTION
Q = \(2DS/H) = \((2(1000)(5))/4) = 50 units

36. Two products, X and Y, both require processing time on
machines I and II. Machine I has 200 hours available, and
machine II has 400 hours available. Product X requires one hour
on machine I and four hours on machine II. Product Y requires
one hour on machine I and one hour on machine II. Each unit of
product X yields PhP 10 profit and each units of Y yields PhP 5
profit. What is the Linear Programming Model for this problem.

a. Max Profit = PhP 5X + PhP 5Y
Subject to: X + Y 200
X + Y 400
X , Y 0
b. Max Profit = PhP 10X +PhP 5Y
Subject to: X + Y 200
4X + Y 400
X , Y 0

37. This process can be used to measure achievement in Total
Quality Management (TQM) system. Also it provides the essential
control and measure feedback loop necessary for quality
improvement
a. Benchmarking c. Quality chain
b. Continuous Improvement d. Quality circle

38. It is the process of attracting potential employees to the
company so that the selection process can be carried out.
a. Advertising b. Benchmarking
c. Selection d. Recruitement

39. It is the name given to any activity undertaken by the
organization with the express purpose of gaining information
about potential customer
a. Market Analysis b. Market Intelligence
c. Market Research d. Market System

40. It is used when product are made singly or in small batches. It
happens when a small number of products are processed at
each storage before going on to the next stage.
a. Batch Production b. Flow Production
c. Job Production d. Production Design

41. It involves a voluntary association of people, called members,
who operate an enterprise collectively. The aim of this
organization is not to make profit but to give support to their
members.
a. Association b. Cooperatives
c. Private Companies d. Public Companies

42. It is the rational way to ensure that our limited time is always
used effectively.
a. Management Commitment
b. Management Responsibility
c. Time Management
d. Time Conflict


500 , 10 =
) 17 %, 12 , / )( 5 %, 12 , / ( 000 , 20
P
F P A P P P =
96 . 685 , 3
) 1 12 %, 8 , / 1 ( 000 , 30
P A
A P A P
=
+ =
668 , 3
10 %, 5 . 6 , /
000 , 5 500 , 54
000 , 5
500 , 54 500 , 1 000 , 53
P
A F
P P
d
P C
P P P C
L
O
=

=
=
= + =
536 , 65 ) 1 ( 00 , 200
5
10
2
5
P P C = =















GEAS (UST ENGG MATERIALS)

43. These materials are hard and brittle, insulative to electricity and heat, and very resistant to high temperatures and harsh environments.
a. polymers b. metals c. ceramics d. semiconductors
44. These materials have a large number of non-localized electrons, as an effect are very good conductors of electricity and heat. They are
strong yet deformable, and extensively used in structural applications
a. ceramics b. composities c. semiconductors d. metals

45. Materials composed of more than one material type and are designed to display a combination of the best characteristics of each
component material.
a. polymers b. ceramics c. metals d. composites

46. A material whose atomic arrangement occurs as periodic, repeating structures over large distances.
a. crystalline b. polycrystalline c. solid d. amorphous

47. An elemental solid having a different crystal structure, usually due to the prevailing temperature and pressure.
a. amorphous b. polymorph c. crysallite d. allotrope

48. This metal is alloyed with steel to give it corrosion resistance properties, resulting in stainless steel.
a. vanadium b. molybdenum c. chromium d. magnesium

49. This element is used in modern, super strong permanent magnets because of their high coercivities.
a. beryllium b. Neodymium c. yttrium d. alnico

50. The deterioration of an engineered material due to interaction with diverse environments which lead to the degradation of its material
properties
a. corrosion b. disintegration c. oxidation d. dissolution


GEAS (UDM THERMODYNAMICS)

51. The property of a substance which remains constant if no heat
enters or leaves the system, while it does work or alters its volume,
but which increases or diminishes should a small amount of heat
enter or leave.
a.Internal energy b. system
c. entropy d. Enthalpy

52. The quantity of heat required to change the temperature of
unit mass through one degree.
a. Temperature b. Specific Heat
c. Thermal Equilibrium d. Calorie

53. If the temperature of a given quantity of gas is held constant,
the volume of the gas varies inversely with the absolute pressure
during a change of state
a.General Gas Laws b. Joules Law
c. Charles Law d. Boyles Law

54. An internally reversible process of a substance during which
the pressure remains constant.
a.isometric b.isothermal
c.adiabatic d.isobaric

55. The energy stored in a substance by virtue of the activity and
configuration of its molecules and of the vibration of the atoms
within the molecules.
a.Internal Energy b .Heat
c. Enthalpy d.Entropy

56. When two bodies, isolated from other environment, are in
thermal equilibrium with a third body, the two are in thermal
equilibrium with each other is a statement of..
a.1
st
Law of Thermodynamics
c.2
nd
Law of Thermodynamic
b. Zeroth Law d.
Maxwells Theory of Thermal Equilbrium

57. Not all energy received as heat by a heat-engine cycle can
be converted into mechanical work, some are also rejected is a
statement of.
a.1
st
Law of Thermodynamic s
b.Zeroth Law
c. 2
nd
Law of Thermodynamics
d.Law of Conservation of Energy








58. The combined mass of car and passengers travelling at 72
km/hr is 1500kg. Find the kinetic energy of this combined mass.
a.300kJ b.330kJ
c.305kJ d. 310kJ

SOLUTION

K=mv
2
= (1500kg)(72km/hr)
2
(1000m/km)
2

2k (2)(1kg-m/N-sec
2
)(3000 sec/hr)
2

= 300,000 J or 300 kJ

59. A mass of 5kg is 100m above a given datum where local
g=9.75 m/sec
2
. Find the gravitational force in newtons and the
potential energy of the mass w/ respect to the datum.
a.49.25 N,4925 J b.52.05 N,5205 J
c.48.75 N,4875 J d.47.85 N,4785 J

SOLUTION
P = mg z = (5kg)(9.75m/sec
2
)(100m = 4875 J
k (1kg-m/N-sec
2
)

Fg = mg = 5(9.75) = 48.75 N
k 1

60. A pressure gage register 50 psig in a region where the
barometer is 14.25 psia. Find the absolute pressure in Pa.
a.453 kPa b.434 kPa
c.435 kPa d.443 kPa

SOLUTION
P = Patm + Pg = 14.25 + 50 = 64.25 psia
P = (64.25psia)(6894.8Pa/psi) = 443 kPa

61. During an isentropic process of 1.36 kg/sec of air, the
temperature increases from 4.44 C to 115.6C. if Cp=1.0062kNm
for a non-flow process, what is H?
kgK
a.152.2 kg/s b.152.2 J/s
c.152.2 kJ/s d.152.2 Btu/s

SOLUTION
H = mCpT = 1.36kg/s(1.0062kNm/kgK)(388.75-277.59K) = 152.
kJ/s




62. This Law States that The quantity of the substance entering
the system is equal to the substance leaving the system
a.1
st
Law of Thermodynamics
b.Law of Conservation of Mass
c.Newtons 2
nd
Law of Motion
d.Law of Conservation of Energy

63. if the pressure of a given quantity of gas is held constant, the
volume of the gas varies directly with the absolute temperature
a. General Gas Law b. Boyles Law c.
Charles Law d. Joules Law

64. The Acceleration of a particular body is directly proportional
to the resultant force acting on it and inversely proportional to its
mass is a statement of
a. Joules Law b. 1
st
Law of
Thermodynamics
c. Newtons 2
nd
Law of Motion d. Boyles Law

65. Energy is neither created nor destroyed, but is converted
from one form to another
a. 1
st
Law of Thermodynamics
b. Newtons 2
nd
Law of Motion
c. 2
nd
Law of Thermodynamics
d. Law of Conservation of Mass


FEU( GEAS STRENGTH)

66. It occurs when a cutting action is applied as you would see
with scissors, tin snips, or punches.
a. Direct shear c. Torsional shear
b. Bending stress d. Torsional stress

67. It occurs when a member carries a load perpendicular to its
long axis while being supported in a stable manner.
a. Direct shear c. Torsional shear
b. Bending stress d. Torsional stress.

68. It is the internal resistance offered by a unit area of the
material from which a member from which a member is made to
an externally applied load.
a. stress b. strain
c. moment d. Torque

69. A certain support stand design to carry downward loads.
Compute the stress in the square shaft at the upper part of the
stand for a load of 27,000 lb. The line of action of the applied of
the applied load is centered on the axis on the shaft, and the
load is applied through a thick plate that distributes the force to
the entire cross section of the stand.
a. 10,000psI b. 11,000psi
c. 12,000psi d. 13,000psi




70. The proportional limit is the value of stress on the stress-strain
diagram curve at which the curve first deviates from a straight
line.
a. Proportional limit
b. Elastic limit
c. Yield point
d. Tensile point

71. It is the value of stress on the stress-strain curve at which the
material has deformed plastically; that is, it will no longer return to
its original size and shape after removing the load.
a. Proportional limit
b. Elastic limit
c. Yield point
d. Tensile point

72. It is the value of stress on the stress-strain curve at which there
is a significant increase in strain with little or no increase in stress.
a. Proportional limit
b. Elastic limit
c. Yield point
d. Tensile point

73. It is the highest value of apparent stress on the stress-strain
curve.
a. Proportional limit
b. Elastic limit
c. Yield point
d. Tensile point

74. It is a measure of the stiffness of a material determined by the
slope of the straight-line portion of the stress-strain curve
a. Modulus of elasticity
b. Modulus of rigidity
c. Strain
d. Stress

75. A ductile material is one that can be stretched, formed, or
drawn to a significant degree before fracture. A metal that
exhibits a percent elongation greater than ____ % is considered to
be ductile.
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

76. A brittle material is one that fails suddenly under load with little
or no plastic deformation. A metal that exhibits a percent
elongation ____ 5.0% is considered to be brittle.
a. equal
b. Greater than
c. Less than
d. It depends on the room temperature

77. The ratio of shearing stress to shearing strain is called:
a. Modulus of elasticity
b. Modulus of rigidity
c. Modulus of elongation
d. Modulus of stressibility

78. It is the ability of a material to absorbed applied energy
without failure
a. Ductility b. Brittleness
c. Hardness d. Toughness

79. It is the indication of the resistance of a material to indentation
by a penetrator.
a. Ductility b. Brittleness
c. Hardness d. Toughness

80. It is a measure of pulling and pushing force
a. Axial force
b. Shear force
c. Torque
d. Bending moments

81. It is the measure of the total resistance to sliding.
a. Axial force
b. Shear force
c. Torque
d. Bending moments

82. It is the measure of the resistance to twisting.
a. Axial force
b. Shear force
c. Torque
d. Bending moments

83. A common bar suspended from certain support has axial load
of 10kN. If the bar has a cross section of 20mm
2
, find the stress
experience by the bar.
a. 350MPa b. 420MPa
c. 485MPa d. 500MPa
MPa
m x
N
500
10 20
000 , 10
2 6
= =

o











psi
in
lb
in
lb
A
F
000 , 12 000 , 12
25 . 2
000 , 27
2 2
= = = = o
84. Assume that a 25-mm diameter rivet joins the plates that are
each 125 mm wide. The allowable stresses are 130 MPa for
bearing in the plate material and 65 MPa for shearing of the rivet.
Determine the minimum thickness of each plate.
a. 10MPa b. 20MPa
c. 30MPa d. 40Mpa













85. A cylinder pressure vessel is fabricated from plates which have
a thickness of 20mm. The diameter of the pressure vessel is 450
mm and its length is 3.5m. Determine the maximum internal
pressure which can be applied if the stress in the steel is limited to
150MPa.
a. 15.33MPa b. 16.67MPa
c. 17.53MPa d. 18.83MPa
MPa
mm
mm
MPa
t
D
t
67 . 16
) 25 ( 2
) 450 (
150
2
=
=
=

o


86. The wall thickness of a 3ft-diameter spherical tank is 4/17 in.
Calculate the allowable internal pressure if the stress is limited to
9000 psi.
a. 155.47psi b. 169.25psi
c. 176.47psi d. 188.73psi








87. A steel bar 40mm in diameter and 3m long is surrounded by a
shell of cast iron 6mm thick. Compute the load that will compress
the combined bar a total of 0.95 mm in the length of 2m. For steel
E=300GPa, and for cast iron, E=150GPa.
a. 151kN b. 161kN
c. 171kN d. 181kN









88. A steel rod 3.5m long is secured between two walls. If the load
on the rod is zero at 30C, compute the stress when the
temperature drops to -30C. The cross sectional area of the rod is
1200mm
2
, =11.7um/(mC), and E=200Gpa
a. 110MPa b. 120MPa
c. 130MPa d. 140Mpa

AE
PL
T L
AE
PL
T L
= A
=
A =
o
o
o o


89. A steel shaft 3ft long that has a diameter of 5in is subjected to
a torque of 14kip-ft. Determine the maximum shearing stress.
G=12x10
6
psi.
a. 0.47 b. 0.53 c. 0.68 d. 0.71

=

= = 47 . 0
180
10 12
) 12 3 )( 12 ( 14
6
32
) 5 (
4
t
u
t
x
x
x k
JG
TL


90. What is the minimum diameter of a solid steel shaft that will
not twist through more than 4 in a 6m length when subjected to
a torque of 13kN-m? What max shearing stress is developed?
G=85 Gpa
a. 107.6mm b. 113.3mm
c. 121.9mm d. 126.4mm
mm d
x
k
x
JG
TL
d
57 . 107
10 85
) 6 ( 13
180
4
9
32
) (
4
=
=

=
t
t
u


91. Determine the elongation in a helical steel spring composed
of 20 turns of 20-mm diameter wire on a mean radius of 90 mm
when the spring is supporting a load of 2.5kN. Use G=83 Gpa
a. 160mm b. 165mm
c. 170mm d. 175mm

mm
mm GPa
mm k
175
) 20 ( 83
) 20 ( ) 90 )( 5 . 2 ( 64
4
3
= = o

FEU(GEAS THERMODYNAMICS)

92. It is the transfer of energy from the more energetic particles of
substance to the adjacent less energetic ones as a result of
interactions between the particles.
a. Conduction c. Convection
b. Radiation d. Absorption

93. It indicates that the rate of heat conduction in a direction is
proportional to the temperature gradient in that direction.
a. Fouriers Law of Heat Conduction
b. Fouriers Law of Heat Convection
c. Fouriers Law of Heat Radiation
d. Fouriers Law of Heat Absorption
94. Which of the following is considered the best conductor of
heat?
a. Gold b. Copper c. Silver d. Diamond

95. It is the mode of energy transfer between a solid surface and
the adjacent liquid or gas that is in motion, and it involves the
combined effect conduction and fluid motion.
a. Conduction c. Convection
b. Radiation d. Absorption

96. It is the energy emitted by the matter in the form of
electromagnetic waves as a result of the changes in the
electronic configurations of the atom or molecules.
a. Conduction c. Convection
b.Radiation d. Absorption

97. It states that energy can neither be destroyed nor created; it
can only change forms.
a. First law of thermodynamics
b. Second law of thermodynamics
c. Third law of thermodynamics
d. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

98. In second law of thermodynamic, which of the following state
that no heat engine can have a thermal efficiency of 100% or as
far as power plant to operate, the working fluid must exchange
heat with the environment as well as the furnace.
a. Kelvin Plank Statement
b. Clausius-Plank Statement
c. Clausius Statement
d. Kelvin Statement

99. In second law of thermodynamic, which of the following state
that no device can transfer heat from cooler body to a warmer
one without leaving an effect on the surroundings.
a. Kelvin Plank Statement
b. Clausius-Plank Statement
c. Clausius Statement
d. Kelvin Statement


kN P V
mm
V
M
d
V
91 . 31
) 25 (
65
2
4
2
4
= =
=
=
t
t
t
mm t
M mm
kPa
t
d
P
t
dt
P
b
b
82 . 9
130 ) 25 (
91 . 31
=
=
=
=
o
o
MPa
mm mm mm mm
kNkN
A
P
89 . 39
] 8 25 8 125 [
91 . 31
=

=
=
o
o
o
psi 47 . 176
) 17 / 4 ( 4
) 12 4 (
9000
4
=

=
=
p
in
in p
t
pD
o
kN P
G mm mm G mm
P
AE
m P
m
AE
PL
57 . 160
150 ] ) 40 ( ) 52 [( 300 ) 40 (
) 3 (
10 95 . 0
) 2 (
10 8 . 0
2 2
4
2
4
3
3
=
+
=
=
=

t t
o
MPa
G TE
E
T
4 . 140
) 200 )( 30 30 )( 7 . 11 (
=
+ = A =
= A
o
o o
o
o
100. It is defined as the amount of light output in lumens per W of
electricity consumed.
a. Light intensity c. Light efficacy
b. Light efficiency d. Light luminosity

101. Carnot cycle is composed of how many reversible
processes?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

102. Which of the following processes are involved in carnot
cycle?
a. Two isothermal ; two isobaric
b. One isothermal; three adiabatic
c. Three isobaric; one adiabatic
d. Two adiabatic ; two isothermal

103. State that the thermal efficiencies of all reversible heat
engines operating between the same two reservoirs are the
same, and that no heat engine is more efficient than a reversible
one operating between the same two reservoirs.
a. Throttle principle
b. Otto principle
c. Carnot principle
d. Kelvin principle

104. A carnot heat engine receives 500KJ of heat per cycle from
a high-temperature source at 600 C and rejects heat a low
temperature sink at 40C. Determine the thermal efficiency of this
Carnot engine.
a. 93.33% b. 6.67% c. 35.85% d. 64.15%



105. A piston cylinder device contains a liquid-vapor mixture of
water at 400K. During a constant pressure process, 700 KJ of heat
is transferred to the water. As a result, part of the liquid in the
cylinder vaporizes. Determine the entropy change of the water
during this process.
a. 1.75kJ/K b. 280kJ-K
c. 7000kJ d. 0.57K/kJ



106. Which of the following equation of state has two constants?
a. Vander Waals Equation
b. Beattie-Bridgeman Equation
c. Benedict-Webb-Rubin Equation
d. Strobridge Equation

107. How many constant are there in Strobridge Equation of
State?
a.13 b. 14 c. 15 d. 16

108. Which of the following equation of state has eight constant?
a. Vander Waals Equation
b. Beattie-Bridgeman Equation
c. Benedict-Webb-Rubin Equation
d. Strobridge Equation

109. Consider a person standing in a breezy room at 22C.
Determine the total rate of heat transfer from this person if the
exposed surface area and the average outer surface
temperature of the person are 1.2 m
2
and 33C, respectively, and
the convection heat transfer coefficient is 6 W/m
2
.=0.95 and
=5.67x10
-8
W/m
4
-K
4
a.120.5J/s b. 135.7J/s c. 143.2J/s d. 151.9J/s













110. A piston cylinder device initially contains 0.8 m
3
of air at
110kPa and 80C. The air is now compressed to 0.2 m
3
in such a
way that the temperature inside the cylinder remains constant.
Determine the work done during this process.
a.-122kJ b. -123kJ c. -124kJ d. -125kJ




111. It is the energy possesses by the system as a result of its
elevation with respect to the gravitational acceleration of the
earth.
a. Potential b.Kinetic c. Momentum d.Impulse

112. It states that if two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a
third body, they are also in thermal equilibrium with each other
a. First law of thermodynamics
b. Second law of thermodynamics
c. Third law of thermodynamics
d. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

113. Determine the mass of the air in a room whose dimensions
are (5x6x7) cm at 105 kPa and 27C.







114. Heat is transferred to a heat engine from a furnace at a rate
of 92MW. If the rate of waste heat rejection to a nearby river is
45MW, determine the net power output and the thermal
efficiency for this heat engine.
a.48.91% b. 51.09% c. 32.84% d. 67.15%






115. The food compartment of a refrigerator is maintained at 4C
by removing heat from it at a rate of 300 KJ/min. If the required
power input to the refrigerator is 3KW, determine the coefficient
of performance of the refrigerator.
a.1.67 b. 2.33 c. 3.67 d. 4. 12




116. A 50 kg iron block at 80C is dropped into an insulated tank
that contains 0.5 m
3
of liquid water at 25C. Determine the
temperature when thermal equilibrium reached. The specific
heat of iron is 0.45kJ/kg-C and for water is 4.18kJ/kg-C.
a.20. 7C b. 25.6C c. 30.1C d. 35.6C





117. A rigid tank contains a hot fluid that is cooled while being
stirred by a paddle wheel. Initially, the internal energy of the fluid
is 850kJ. During the cooling process, the fluid loses 550kJ of heat,
and the paddle wheel does 200kJ of work on the fluid. Determine
the final energy of the fluid. Neglect the energy stored in the
paddle wheel.
a.500kJ b. 550 kJ c. 600kJ d. 650 kJ





118. Three moles of an ideal gas are compressed slowly and
isothermally from a volume of 5 to 1.5 ft
3
, at a temperature of
320K. How much work is done?
a.-8.12kJ b. -9.61kJ c. -10.44kJ d. -
11.59kJ



%) 15 . 64 ( 6415 . 0
) 273 600 (
) 273 40 (
1 1 =
+
+
= =
K
K
T
T
H
L
q
K
kJ
K
kJ
T
Q
S 75 . 1
400
700
= = = A
s J W W W Q
W
K m
K m
W
x
T T Q
W
C m
C m
W
T T hA Q
total
surr s radiation
f s convection
/ 2 . 143 2 . 143 2 . 77 66
2 . 77 =
] ) 273 22 ( ) 274 33 )[( 2 . 1 )( 10 67 . 5 ( 95 . 0 =
) (
66 =
) 22 33 )( 2 . 1 ( 5 =
) (
4 4 4 2
4 4
8
4 4
2
2
= = + =
+ +

co
kJ
m kPa
kJ
m kPa W 122 )
1
1
)(
8 . 0
2 . 0
ln( ) 8 . 0 )( 110 (
3
3
=

=
g
K
m x x kPa
T R
PV
m
R
K kg m
kPa
K kg m
kPa
1 . 256
) 273 27 ( 287 . 0
) 7 6 5 ( 105
'
287 . 0 R'
constant gas '
/
3
/
air
3
3
=
+
= =
=
=

(51.09%) 5109 . 0
92
45
1 1
45
92
= = =
=
=
H
L
s
MJ
L
s
MJ
H
Q
Q
Q
Q
q
67 . 1 )
min / 60
1
(
3
min / 300
= =
kJ
kW
kW
kJ
COP
C T
C T
C kg
kJ m
C T kg
kg
m
C kg
kg
=
=

+

6 . 25
0 ) 25 )( 18 . 4 (
001 . 0
5 . 0
) 80 )( 45 . 0 ( 50
2
2
3
2 3
kJ U
kJ kJ U kJ
W U Q
500
550 ) 850 ( 200
2
2
=
+ =
+ A =
kJ J K
K mol
J
mol
V
V
nRT W 61 . 9 9 . 9612
5
5 . 1
ln ) 320 )( 317 . 8 ( 3 ln
1
2
= =

= =
119. A 4-in wall of fire brick, k=9 Btu/(ft
2
-hr-F/in), has one surface at
300F, the other at 90F. Find the heat conducted through the area
of 2ft
2
in 1 day.
a.22, 680Btu b. 19, 650Btu c. 15,510Btu d.
10,730Btu




120. If 80 g of iron shot at 100C is dropped into 200 g of water at
20C contained in an iron vessel of mass 50 g, find the resulting
temperature.
a.20.1C b. 21.8C c. 22. 3C d. 24.6C


121. When a 2lb of brass at 212F is dropped into 5lb of water at
35F, the resulting temperature is 41.2F. Find the specific heat of
brass in Btu/lb-F.
a.1.120 b. 0.091 c. 0.321 d. 1.233








122. How much heat is necessary to raise the temperature of 0.80
kg of ethyl alcohol from 15C of its boiling point 78.3C?
a.10kcal b. 20kcal c. 30kcal d. 40kcal






123. The weight-density of air at 32F and 29.92 in Hg pressure is
0.081 lb/ft
3
. What is its weight-density, in lb/ft
3
, at an altitude
where the pressure is 13.73 in Hg and the temperature is -40F?
a.0.044 b. 0.055 c. 0.066 d. 0.77









TUP(GEAS PHYSICS)

124. Suppose that energy Q is required to accelerate a car from
rest to v, neglecting friction. How much added energy would be
required to increase the speed from v to 2v?
a.Q b.2Q c. 3Q d.4Q

Using the energy equation W=KE2 KE1
Q = 0.5mv
2
0 - condition 1
W = 0.5m(2v)
2
0.5mv
2
- condition 2
W=2mv
2
0.5mv
2
= 3(0.5mv
2
) = 3Q

125. Suppose you want to store 1.00 J of electric potential energy
in a volume of 1.00 m
3
in vacuum. What is the magnitude of the
required electric field?
a. 0.475 MV/m b. 0.336MV/m
c. 0.225TV/m d. 0.113TV/m

u=1.00J/1.00m
3
= 1.00J/m
3


E=0.475 MV/m (a)

126. Material a is a water and material b is a glass with index of
refraction 1.52. If the incident ray makes an angle of 60
o
with the
normal, find the direction of the reflected ray.
a.49.3
o
b. 91.3
o
c. 60
o
d. 34.7
o


According to law of reflection,

, hence if

then

(c)
127. The wavelength of the red light from a helium-neon sensor is
633 nm in air but 474 nm in the aqueous humor inside our
eyeballs. Calculate the speed of light in this substance.
a. 2.25 x 10
8
m/s b. 3.25 x 10
8
m/s
c. 3.00 x 10
8
m/s d. 1.25 x 10
8
m/s
Calculating the index of refraction, we have:


For the velocity of light in this index we have:

(a)

128. A spaceship moving away from Earth with speed of 0.900c
fires a robot space probe in the same direction as its motion, with
speed of 0.700c relative to the spaceship. What is the probes
velocity relative to the Earth?
a.0.900c b. 0.345c c. 0.700c d. 0.982c

(d)

129. In optics, this effect refers to the blurring of the image
produced on a concave mirror due to the convergence of rays
far from the mirror to other points on the principal axis. What do
you call this effect?
a.spherical aberration b. focal divergence
c. parallax error d. Snells effect

130. In fluid mechanics, this shows that the pressure of a fluid
decreases as the speed of the fluid increases. In addition, the
pressure of a fluid decreases as the elevation increases.
a.Clairuts equation b. Bernoullis equation
c. Maxwells equation d. Hyrdofluid equation

131. In electrodynamics, what term refers to the average speed
of the charge carriers?
a. drag velocity b. molecular-kinetic speed c. drift
speed d. charge velocity

132. In electromagnetics and wave theory, what refers to waves,
commonly generated by electronic devices, whose wavelengths
ranges from approximately 0.3m to 10
-4
m. Due to their short
wavelengths these are often used in radar systems and for
studying the atomic and molecular properties of matter.
a.Radio waves b. Microwaves
c. AM waves d. Radar waves


ADU(GEAS STRENGTH OF MATERIALS)

133. A hole is to be punched out of plate having a shearing
strength of 40 ksi. The compressive stress in the punch is limited to
50 ksi. Compute the maximum thickness of plate from which a
hole 2.5 inches in diameter can be punched.
a. 0.500 in b. 0.781 in c. 0.102 in d. 0.204 in

t = 2.5(50) / 4(40) = 0.781 inches

134. A hole is to be punched out of plate having a shearing
strength of 40 ksi. The compressive stress in the punch is limited to
50 ksi. If the plate is 0.25 inches thick, determine the diameter of
the smallest hole that can be punched
a. 0.800 in b. 0.871 in c. 0.435 in d. 0.600 in

D = 4(0.25)(40) / 50 = 0.800 inches

135. A large pipe, called a penstock in hydraulic work, is 1.5 m in
diameter. It is composed of wooden staves bound together by
steel hoops, each 300 sq. Millimetre in cross-sectional area, and is
used to conduct water from a reservoir to power a house. If the
maximum tensile stress permitted in the hoops is 130 MPa, what is
the maximum spacing between hoops under a head of water of
30 m?
a. 17.7mm b. 77.1 mm c. 177 mm d. 71.7 mm
(1000)(9.81)(30)(1.5)L = 2(300x10^-6)(130x10^6)
L = 177 mm

Btu 680 , 22 =
4
90 300
) 24 )( 2 )( 9 (
2
2 in
F
in
F
hr ft
hr ft
Btu
L
T
kAt Q


=
A
A
=
C T
T T T
=
+ =
6 . 24
) 20 )( 12 . 0 ( 50 ) 20 )( 1 ( 200 ) 100 )( 12 . 0 ( 80
2
2 2 2
F lb
Btu
C
F F
F lb
Btu
lb F F C lb
Q Q
Q Q
water brass
gain lost

=
=
=
091 . 0
) 35 2 . 41 )( 1 ( 5 ) 2 . 41 212 )( ( 2
kcal Q
C
C g
cal
kg Q
t mc Q
30
) 15 3 . 78 )( 6 . 0 ( 8 . 0
=


=
A =
3 2
2 1
2 1
2 1
044 . 0
233
73 . 13
273 081 . 0
92 . 29
f t
lb
K x K x
T
P
T
P
mT
PV
mT
PV
=
|
|
.
|

\
|
= |
.
|

\
|
|
|
.
|

\
|
=
|
|
.
|

\
|
|
.
|

\
|
= |
.
|

\
|


136. At what angular velocity will the stress in a rotating steel ring
equal to 150 MPa if its mean radius is 220 mm? The density of the
steel is 7.85 Mg/m^3.
a. 19.87 rad/s b. 159 rad/s
c. 138.2 rad/s d. 628 rad/s

= (1/0.22)(150x10^6 / 7850)^(1/2) = 628 rad/s

137. A pipe carry steam at 3.5 MPa has an outside diameter of
450 mm and a wall thickness of 10 mm. A gasket is inserted
between the flange at one end of the pipe and a flat plate use
to cap the end. How many 40-mm-diameter bolts must be used
to hold the cap on if the allowable stress in the bolts is 80 MPa, of
which 55 MPa is the initial stress?
a. 14 b. 15 c. 16 d. 17

N = (3.5x10^6)(0.45 2x0.01)^2 / [(0.04^2)(8855)x10^6] = 16.18
round up N = 17

138. A pipe carry steam at 3.5 MPa has an outside diameter of
450 mm and a wall thickness of 10 mm. A gasket is inserted
between the flange at one end of the pipe and a flat plate use
to cap the end. What circumferential stress is developed in the
pipe?
a. 75.3 MPa b. 37.65 MPa c. 78.75 MPa d. 39.38 MPa

= (3.5)(450 2x10) / [2(10)] = 75.3 MPa

139. It is the maximum safe stress that a material can carry
a. working stress b. Ultimate stress
c. rupture strength d. Yield strength

140. It is the point at which there is an appreciable elongation of
the material without any corresponding increase of load
a. Elastic limit b. Yield point
c. Ultimate stress d. Point of rupture

141. This component measures the pulling (or pushing) action
perpendicular to the section
a. Torque b. Bending moment
c. Axial forces d. Shearing force

142. A steel rod having a cross-sectional area of 300 sq. Meters
and a length of 150 m is suspended vertically from one end. It
supports a tensile load of 20 kN at the lower end. If the unit mass
of steel is 7850 kg/m^3 and E = 200x10^3 MN/m^2, find the total
elongation of the rod.
a. 54.3 mm b. 40 mm c. 43.3 mm d. 35 mm

= [(7850)(9.8)(150^2) / 2(200X10^9)] + [(20000)(150)(1000^2) /
300(200X10^9)]
= 54.3 mm

143. What is the theoretical maximum value of Poissons ratio of
any given material subjected to a uniform triaxial stress
a. 0 b. 1 c. 1/3 d.

144. A steel bar 50 mm in diameter and 2 m long is surrounded by
a shell of cast iron 5 mm thick. Compute the load that will
compress the combined bar a total of 0.8 mm in the length of 2m.
For steel E = 200 GPa, and for cast iron E = 100 Gpa
a. 291 kN b. 240 kN c. 192 kN d. 420 kN

P = [(/4)(0.05^2)(200x10^9)(0.0008)/2] +
[(/4)(0.06^2 -0.05^2)(100x10^9)(0.0008)/2]
P = 192 kN
145. A solid steel shaft 5 m long is stressed to 80 MPa when twisted
through 4 degrees. Using G = 83 GPa, compute the shaft
diameter.
a. 104 mm b. 138 mm c. 148 mm d. 160 mm

r = (80)(5) / [(4)(/180)(83000)] = 69 mm
d = 2(69) = 138 mm

146. A solid steel shaft is not to twist through more than 3 degrees
in a 6 m length when subjected to a torque of 12 kN.m. What
maximum shearing stress is developed? Use G=83GPa.
a. 41.3 MPa b. 43.4 MPa c. 34.3 MPa d. 17.6 MPa

(/4)d^4 = (12000)(6) / [(3)(/180)(83x10^9)]
d = 114 mm

= 16(12000) / [(.114)^3]
= 41.3 Mpa

147. What is the minimum diameter of a solid steel shaft that will
not twist through more than 3 degrees in a 6 m length when
subjected to a torque of 12 kN.m? Use G=83GPa.
a. 114 mm b. 116 mm c. 118 mm d. 120 mm

(/4)d^4 = (12000)(6) / [(3)(/180)(83x10^9)]
d = 114 mm

148. A steel rod 2.5 m long is secured between two walls. If the
load on the rod is zero at 20 degree Celsius, compute the stress
when the temperature drops to -20 degrees Celsius. The cross-
sectional are if the rod is 1200 sq. mm, coefficient of linear
expansion = 11.7 um/(m-deg.C), and E = 200 GPa. Assume that
the walls are rigid.
a. 69.3 MPa b. 96.3 MPa c. 93.6 MPa d. 69.3 MPa

= (200x10^9)(11.7x10^-6)(20 - -20) = 93.6x10^6 Pa
= 93.6 MPa

149. Determine the maximum shearing stress in a helical steel
spring composed of 20 turns of 20 mm-diamter wire on a mean
radius of 80 mm when tha spring is supporting a load of 2 kN. Use
G = 83 GPa.
a. 110.6 MPa b. 112.3 MPa
c. 120.6 MPa d. 134.6 MPa

m = 80/10 = 8

= [16(2000)(0.08) / (0.02)^3]x{[4(8)-1]/[4(8)-4] + (0.615/8)}
= 120.6 Mpa

150. Determine the elongation in a helical steel spring composed
of 20 turns of 20 mm-diamter wire on a mean radius of 80 mm
when tha spring is supporting a load of 2 kN. Use G = 83 GPa.
a. 87.9 mm b. 78.9 mm c. 98.7 mm d. 89.7 mm

= 64(2000)(0.08^3)(20) / [(83x10^9)(0.02^4)]
= 98.7 mm

151. These are components of the total resistance to sliding the
portion to one side of the exploratory section past the other.
a. Torque b. Bending moment
c. Axial forces d. Shear forces

152. Who first postulated that stress is proportional to strain in
1678?
a. Thomas Young b. Robert Hooke
c. Andrew Pytel d. Charles Augustus

MIT(GEAS CHEMISTRY)

153. How many zeroes in the measurement 0.00020040 are
significant?
a. three b. four c. six d. seven

154. Which of the following describes a chemical change?
a. Water boiling to form steam
b. Sugar dissolving in a cup of coffee
c. Hamburger grease solidifying on a plate
d. Tarnishing silver

155. A homogenous mixture can be separated by all of the
following methods except
a. Filtration
b. Chromatography
c. Crystallization
d. Distillation

156. Which of the following is not a pure substance?
a. Hydrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Water
d. Milk

157. A laboratory experiment was performed to determine the
percent by mass of water in a hydrate. The accepted value is
36.0% water whose observed value has an error of 5.00%. Find the
percent by mass of water.
a. 31.0% water
b. 36.0% water
c. 37.8% water
d. 41.0% water

36% * 1.05 =37.8%

158. Which of the following phase changes represent
sublimation?
a. Solid gas
b. Gas solid
c. Solid liquid
d. Gas liquid

159. The amount of energy needed to change a given mass of
ice to water at constant temperature is called the heat of
a. Fusion
b. Formation
c. Condensation
d. Crystallization

160. Which of the following is a binary compound?
a. Hydrochloric acid
b. Oxygen
c. Citric acid
d. Sodium chlorate

161. An example of a ternary compound is
a. Potassium chlorate
b. Ammonia
c. Silver chloride
d. Sodium bromide

162. What is the charge of a hydrogen atom?
a.

b.

c.

d.

163. The impossibility of knowing both the precise location and
velocity of subatomic particle at the same time is known as the
a. Diffraction principle b. Probability principle
c. Limiting principle d. Uncertainty principle

164. An atom which has the greatest ability to attract electron
a. Oxygen
b. Nitrogen
c. Sulfur
d. Bromine

165. If the volume of the mole of gas molecules remains constant,
lowering the temperature will make the pressure
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Increase then decrease
d. Decrease then increase

166. Whenever you have equal volumes of gases at the same
temperature and pressure, the volume must
a. Contain equal number of particles
b. Contain 2.4 milliliters of STP
c. Contain one mole of any gas at STP
d. Contain the Avogadros number

167. What pressure must be applied to 225mL of gas at 1atm to
reduce its volume to 100mL?
a. 0.44atm
b. 2.25atm
c. 22500atm
d. 1710atm

P1V1=P2V2

168. How many moles of

are present in 44.8L of

at STP?
a. 1.2moles
b. 1.4moles
c. 2.0moles
d. 2.8moles

169. At STP, 1 mole will occupy 22.4L

170. The properties of solution include all of the following except
that
a. It is homogeneous mixture if it has been well stirred
b. Dissolved particles will settle out upon stirring
c. It is clear and transparent with particles too small to be seen
d. Dissolved particles will pass through a piece of filter paper