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Test Booklet No.
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Do notoP'n tbl Booklot until you "' """' to do ro, ,. ' I
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Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover ofthis Test Booklet.
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INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES
I.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When 1.
you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the
Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and
Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
The test is of 2 f hours duration and consists of 150
questions. There is no negative marking. 2.
Use Blue I Black Ball Point I' en only for writing particulars
on this page I marking responses in the Answer Sheet.
3
The CODE for this Booklet is P. Make sure that the CODE
printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on
this booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and 4.
Answer Sheet No. are the same. ln. case of discrepancy, the
candidate should immediately report the matter to the
lnvigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the
Answer Sheet.
This Test Booklet has five Parts, I, II, III, IV and V, consisting
of 150 Objective Type Questions, each carrying I mark : 5.
Part-1 : Child Development and Pedagogy (Q. I to Q. 30)
Part-II : Mathematics and Science (Q. 31 to Q. 90)
Part-Ill: Social Studies/ Social Science (Q. 31 to Q. 90)
Part-IV : Language I- (English/Hindi) (Q. 91 to Q. 120)
Part-Y : Languageii-(English/Hindi) (Q. 121 to Q. 150)
Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHJ!:R from
Part-II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part III (Social
Studies/Social Science)
6.
Part-lY contains 30 questions for Language-! and Part-Y
contains 30 questions for Language-I!. In this Test Booklet, ?.
only questions pertaining to English and Hindi language have
been given. In case the language/s you have opted for as
Language-! and/or Language-11 is a _language other
than English or Hindi, please ask for a Test Booklet
that contains questions on that language. The
languages being answered must tally with the
languages opted for in your Application Form.
Candidates are required to attempt questions in
Part-Y (Language-H) in :o language other than the 8.
one chosen as .Language-I (in Part-IV) from the list of
languages.
9.
OMR ':ffi' 'l'> W 3R< <lliT %" I "''f .mqq;f
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qi't 2 + tfZ' %" 1{ii -q' 150 t I
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':ffi' 'l'> i'R -ij;' q;T qBf ClWit I
W. 1l -qtq. 'IT'T I, II, III, IV V t, 150

'WT-1 : <m'f " ('A. 1 'A. 30)
'WT- II : <r fuw-1 ('A. 31 If. 90)
'WT-Ill: fuw-1 ('A. 31 90)
'IT'T-IV : "11"!T I - (alJI;;f'r I W<i\) ('A. 91 !20)
'IT'T-V : "11"!T II - ( alJI;;f'r I W<i\) ('A. 121 'A. 150)
"* 31 9o '!IT m 'IT'T-11
'IT'T-III (tll"'lf"l<t> t I
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Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the
Test Booklet for the same.
10. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet
only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener is allowed
for changing answers.
I 0. 'tl":ft ':ffi' OMR ':ffi' 'l'> tf{ 'it q;t I 3f'R '3'ilT
1
Rf .. ;d I
Name of the Candtdate (tn Capttals):
;wr -----------------,-------
Roll Number: in figures _______ .:._ __________________________ _
: ;iq:;'f -q
: inwords _________________
:
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) : _______ -;------------------------
(,
Candidate's Signature''------------ Invigilator's Signature:--------'------

Facsimile signature stamp of
;ntre fllifiilliillllllllllllllll
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(2)
PART -I I 'qT1"f'- I
CIDLD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY /iffi"l' fclC61'E't
Directions : Answer the following questions by
selecting the most appropriate option.
1. Which one of the following is a
critique of theory of multiple
intelligences ?
. 2.
(1) Multiple intelligence are only the
'talents' present in intelligence as
a whole.
(2) Multiple intdligence provides
students to discover their
propensities.
(3) It overemphasises practical
intelligence.
(4) It cannot be supported by
empirical evidence at all.
Which one of the following pair is
least likely to be a correct match ?
(1) Children enter in - Chomsky
the world with
certain
knowledge about
language
(2) Language and - . Vygotsky
thought are
initially two
different activities
(3) Language IS -- Piaget
contingent on
thought
(4) Language IS a - B.F. Skinner
stimuli in
enviomment
3. Features assigned du10_ to social roles
and not due to biological endowment
are called
(1) Gender role attitudes
(2) Gender role strain
(3) Gender-role stereotype
(4) Gender role diagnosticity
f.1ffl .. mm- 3#rrr f.tAfc;rfigrt rrRf
..
1. f.1"'1ft'tf&d -q ttt
Hthi:C"'I't ?
(1)

(2) q;f 3l1RT q;f
croffi t I
(3) O<IIClt\IRifi -q't -3il<4'<<lifii11

(4) q;f fot("l':f'("j tit

2. f.t01f("lf&d -q cf;

(1) -

I
(2) 'l1f!!!T 3ff\ fcr'tlrnrri'l1 - C4 nli4l'l

tl
(3) 'l:(Jqf fcRnr 1R" 31Jmfu; -
tl
(4). 'i1f!!!T C41('11q<(Oilf -
t I
3. flli11f"1ifi cf; cm-ar "'''
cfi cm-ar 11f
ifil\("llffl f I
(1).
(2)
(3) W<$"1<>&1'11
(4) ol"IR'f>l
(3)
'4. Which of the following will be most 4.
p
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appropriate to maximise learning ?
(1) Teacher should identify her
cognitive style as well as of her
students' cognitive style.
(2) Individual difference in students
should be smoothened by pairing
similar students.
(3) Teacher should focus on only one
learning style to bring optimum
result.
(4) Students of similar cultural
background should be kept in the
same class to avoid difference in
opinion.
S. All of the following promote
assessment as learning except
(1) telling students to take internal
feedback.
(2) generating a safe environment for
students to take chances.
(3) tell students to reflect on the topic
taught.
(4) testing students as frequently as
possible.
6. When a cook tastes a, food during
cooking it may be akin to
(1) Assessment ofh:aming
(2) Assessment for learnil).g
(3) Assessment as learning
(4) Assessment and learning
7. Differentiated instruction is
(1) using a variety of groupings to
meet student needs.
(2) doing something different for
every student in the class.
(3) disorderly or undisciplined
student activity.
(4) using groups that never change.
(1) CfiT 3N-ft mviT
<1ft
mvrr <1ft m
.,
(2) .q M;:;mr CfiT m


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(4) m
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(2)
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(1)
(2)
(3)
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(1) <1ft j(q!(<lCfli11aTI q:;l
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(2)
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(4)
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8. In a culturally and linguistically
diverse classroom, before deciding
whether a student comes under
special category, a teacher
should
(1) Not involve parents as parents
have their own work
(2) 'Evaluate student on her/his
mother language to establish
disability
(3) Use specialised psychologists
(4) Segregate the 1;hi.Jd to neutralise
environmental factor.
9. Learning disabilities may occur due to
all of the following exreJ!! .
(1) Teachers way of teaching
(2) Prenatal use of alcohol
(3) Mental Retardation
(4) Meningitis during infancy
10. An inclusive school reflects on all the
following questions except :
(I) Do we believe that all students
can learn
(2) Do,we work in teams to plan and
deliver learning enabling
environment
(3) Do we properly segregate special
children from normal to provide
better care
(4) Do we adopt strategies catering
for the diverse needs of students
11. Gifted students are
( 1) Convergent thinkers
(2) Divergent thinkers .
(3) Extrovert
(4) Very hard working
(4)
8. 'i.flm
.q 'W f"1fh111 'Cflr.f fct; fumefi
fum_wf .q amrr t
fm;cn 'i.flT 'Cflr.IT
. ( 1) l1ffil'-firnT coT c111 q;r;:rr
3N-1T
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(2) 3lWffiT 'i.flR liffl
cnT 'CfiT 'if<lii.fl'1 q;r;:rr
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(3)
(4) cU(11q{On<l cnT awqrcft ORR
cnT 3Wf1T q;{'t.lr. I
9. f"1""1fc1f&l1 .q "''RIR<t11 $

(1)
(2) liffl 'liT iffiT
(3) .-je:<gf.;,sol
(4) Kmrit
10. <t1q1<:MI fClwM<:i $ "''fi1R<t11
f"''to1fc1f&l1 I
(1) q<IT lll1 fcw.mr t fcf;- "fl'l:fT
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(2) . q<IT lll1 1:Jftcffi cnT "$Rr
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(3)

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11. ___ f I
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
12. The shaded area represent students in
a normal distribution who fall
(1) Atcr=O
(2) Between 2cr-3cr
(3) After 3cr
(4) Between cr-2cr
13. Which one of the following pair would
be most appropriatl) choice to
complete the following s1entence ?
Children faster when they
are involved in the activities that seem

(1) Forget; useful in a classroom
(2). Recall; linked with their
classwork only
(3) Memorise; culturally neutral
(4) Learn; useful in real life
14. CBSE prescribed group activities for
students in place of activities for
individual students. The idea behind
doing so could be
(1) to overcome the negative
emotional response to individual
competition which may generalise
across learning.
(2) to make it easy for teachers to
observe groups instead of
individual students.
(3) to rationalise the: time available
with schools most of which do not
have time for individual
activities.
(4) to reduce the infrastructural cost
of the activity.
(5)
12. t91<1if4><'1 lfl;r .q Tor
q;l cnrnT t '\ill .q
armt
(1) cr=OlR
(2) 2cr-3cr
(3) 3cr <t" G!K
(4)
13. fur Tf(f q;l "' 'fi;r(r


Tor .q -mfl;r t -;;fi
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(1)
(2) m
llf<ll("lOI{UI
(3)
(4)
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f I

(1) cqfcffiIH 1lfu 'iCfll<lfl"iCfl
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(2)
aiCIMlCfl'i rnr CfiT<f CifiT
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(3) 11m CifiT
lllfiPICfl ORRT
oqfcffiIH

( 4) cit 't'1'ITfii CifiT 'Cfll1
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15. The conclusion 'Children can learn
violent behaviour depicted in movies'
may be derived on the basis of the
work done by whi.ch of the following
psychologist ?
(1) Edward L. Thorndike
(2) J.B. Watson
(3) Albert Bandura
(4) Jean Piaget
16. Students observe fashion shows and
try to imitate models. This kind of
imitation may be called
( 1) Primary simulation
(2) Secondary simulation
(3) Social learning
(4) Generalisation
17. If students repeatedly make errors
during a lesson, a teacher should
(1) make changes m instruction,
tasks, timetable or seating
arrangements.
(2) leave the lesson for the time being
and come: back to it after some
time.
(3) identifY the erring students and
talk to principal about them.
(4) . make erring stu.dents stand outside
the classroom.
18. Following are some techniques to
manage anxiety due to an
approaching except
(1) familiarising with the pattern of
question paper.
(2) thinking too much about the
result.
(3) seeking support.
( 4) empha$ising strengths.
19. Bloom's taxonomy is a hierarchical
organisation of ____ ,
(1) achievement goals
(2) curricular declarations
(3) reading skills
(4) cognitive objectives
(6)
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anmfuur
(1)
(2) ;;t . .rr.
(3)
(4)
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19. <tT <tT Q&l"jSfiMCb

(1)
(2) m-
(3)
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(7)
20. A, B and' C are three students 20.
p
ar, q, furi t 'ill t 1
'31"' q;l WRIT t aTtr
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t I

fl'ilct>F! M 'mt(f CfiVIT t I
studying English. 'A' finds it .
interesting -and thinks it will be
helpful for her in future. 'B' studies
English as she wants to secure first
rank in the class. 'C' studies it as she
is primarily concerned to secure
passing grades. The of A, B and
C respectively are
( 1) Mastery, Performance,
Performance A voidance
{2) Performance, Performance
A voidance, Mastery
{3) Performance Avoidance, Mastery,
Performance
(4) Mastery, Performance Avoidance,
Performance
21. Even though this was clearly in
violation of his safety needs, Captain
Vikram Batra died fighting in the
Kargil War while protecting his
country. He might have
(1) sought novel experience.
(2) achieved self-actualisation.
(3) ignored his belongingness needs.
(4) wanted to earn a good name to his
family.
22. Extinction of a response is more
ilifficult following
{1) partial reinforcement
(2) continuous reinforcement
(3) punishment
(4) verbal reproach
23. Mastery orientation can be
encouraged by
(1) focusing on students' individual
effort.
{2) comparing students' successes
with each other.
(3) assigning lot of practice material
as home assignments.
(4) taking unexpected tests.
'
31", f I
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
21. mifcn
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attR Cfll'!fih.''l
<foif 1f -qlt TTl:[ I ---
m/df 1
(1)
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22. cnr fc:;tlq f-1'"1R:if&!'1 1l
t? .
(1)
(2)
(3)
( 4) 'l1ffi;:rr
23. <fi am f-1y;oi'1 an'Olia"<<H1 q;y
wfcfi<rr -m "ff<fiffi t 1
(1) C4f<k11M 1R ewr

(2) cit lR'W 'WRT

(3) .q 3rRmf

(4)
p (8)
24. Which one ofthefollowing is correctly 24. f.:p:;:r lt t?

( 1) Physical
Development
(2) Cognitive
Development
(3) Social
Development
- Environment
- Maturation
- Environment
(4) Emotional - Maturation
Development
25. All the following facts indicate that a
child is emotionally and socially fit in
a class except
(I) develop good relationships with
peers
(2) concentrate on and persist with
challenging tasks
(3) manage both anger and joy
effectively
(4) concentrate persistently on
competition with peers
26. . Which of the following statements
support role of environment in the
development of a child ?
(I) Some students quickly process
information while others in the
same class do not.
(2) There has been a steady increase
in students' average performance
on IQ tests in last few decades.
(3) Correlation between IQs of
identical twins raised in different
. homes is as high as.0.75.
( 4) Physically fit <:hildren are often
found to be morally good.
25.
(1) '?IF(lRCfi fcrCfiR:r - CII\11CI<OI
(2) fcrCfiR:r - qf{qqq\11
(3) fil'"ilf"lCfi fcrCfim" - CII\11CI'(OI

cfi 31f<'1fhfi1 ('f&f
t fcf; cnarr .q:
al1ntl"'lfu1Cfi ft"'t<ilfJ1<'1 t
(1) cf; wr q;r
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(3) sW.r trrt q;f wncft

(4) cf; wr Mfo<ilfl1111
'i\11 "CfiBT
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(1) fuwiT q;r
q;m cf; 31-'<i fuwiT
"Qm <fir llffi I
(2) fQm;fi C::l?l!fa-;41
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WITffir <f.s rt t I
(3) QCfifll41'1
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(4) l?lli.lRCfi
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27.
28.
29.
30.
Socialisation includes cultural
transmission and
( 1) discourages rebellion.
(2) development of individual
personality.
(3) fits children into labels.
(4) provides emotional support.
A teacher shows two identical glasses
filled with an equal amount of juice in
them. She empties them in two
different glasses one of which is taller
and the other one is wider. She asks
her class to identify which glass would
have more juice in it. Students reply
that the taller glass has more juice.
Her students have diflictllty in dealing
with
(1) Accommodation
(2) Egocentrism
(3)
(4)
Decentring
Reversibility
Karnail Singh does not pay income
tax despite legal procedures and
expenses. He thinks that he cannot
support a corrupt which
spends millions .of rupees in building
unnecessary dams. He is probably in
which state of Kohlberg's stages of
. moral development
(1) Conventional
(2) Post Conventional
(3) Pre Conventional
(4) Para Conventional
Intelligence theory incorporates the
mental processes involved in
intelligence (i.e. meta-components)
and the varied forms that intelligence
can take (i.e. creative intelligence)
(1) Spearman's 'g' factor
(2) Sternberg's triarchic theory of
intelligence
(3) Savant theory of intelligence
(4) Thurstone's pnmary mental
abilities
(9)
27.
28.
29.
30.
'H'iiJICfi<UI .q t - 'Hi't<fiF"Cfi
*nvrafu' I
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(2) 4 f<ti1 Cf) 04f<ti1 fucf;m
(3) CliT .q 'H'"ll<ilf"f(j 'Cfi'\-!T
(4)
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fu"Cfim ctl ll t?
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(2)
(3)
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'ill ll 'Hf.:llf<'1i'1 'iHfflCfi
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of.a> 'Cfll vrrfl;r Clirr t, <w t
(1) 'CfiT '';;:fi' 'CfiRCfi'
(2) 'CfiT '1fo&4'111 'CfiT f:tr
(3)
p (10)
. Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 q;7 J1R' 31 ?f90 <IT nT 'l/TTT- II {TTfUfrr <!f
EITHER from Part - II (Mathematics and femR} <IT 'l/TTT _ III (ffllllfJ:tq; 1 Hflfi!J:iq;
Science) OR from Pa11 - III (Social Studies I femR) ?f qw1 f
1
Social Science).
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.

MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE I 41 fU h'1 Cf fcnt H
The number of integers less than -3
31.
but greater than -8 is
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 6
(3) 4 (4) 6
The distance between two places is 12
32. Gl cf> ctft 12 t I
km. A map is 1 : 25000. The
"11'1f.i:l51 1 : 25000 t I "11'1fil51 W
distance between the two places on the
t
map, in em, is
(1) 24 (2) 36
(1) 24 (2) 36
(3) 48
_(4) .
60
(3) 48 (4) 60
. -3 (-7)
-3 (-7) t
The reciprocal ofg- x
13
is
33.
S X 13
104
(2)
-104
104 -104 (1)
21 21
(1) (2)
21 -21
21 21
(3)
104
(4)
104
21
(4)
-21
(3)
104 104
The number of vertices in a
34. fif>m cf> 3 0 f1fi;:nt 12 'Cfi'H'Cf>
polyhedron which has 30 edges and 12
faces is
f I <f>.m ctft t
(1) 12 (2) 15
(1) 12 (2) 15
(3) 20 (4) 24
(3) 20.
(4) 24
When half of a number is . increased
35.
15
by 15, the result is 39. The sum of m qfhnq 39 t 1 cf> aiCfiT
digits of the original number is
(1) 6 (2) 7 (1) 6 (2) 7
(3) 9 (4) 12 (3) 9 (4) 12
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
36. In MQT, PQ =PT. The points Rand
S are on QT such that PR = PS. If
LPTS = 62 and L.RPS = 34, then
measure of LQPR is
(1) 11 (2) 13
(3) 15 (4) 17
37. If for MBC and M>EF, the
correspondence CAB EDF gives
a congruence, then which of the
followng is not true
(1) AC=DE (2) AB=EF
(3) LA=LD (4) LB=LF
38. 40% of (1 00 - 20% of 300) is equid to
(1) 16 (2) 20
(3) 64 (4) 140
39. HCF of two numbers is 28 and their
LCM is 336. If number is 112,
then the other number is
(1) 56 (2) 70
(3) 84 (4)
'98
40.
2 .
If 3 x = 0.6 and 0.02 y = 1, then the
value ofx +y-
1
is
(2) 1.1
(11) p
36, MQT ll, PQ = PT t I R afu' S
QT PR = PS t
LPTS = 62 nw LRPS = 34 nT
LQPR Cfll mq t
(1) 11 (2) 13
(3) 15 (4) 17
37. MBC afu' M>EF CAB
EDF fiC!l'IM nT f.p:::r ll
;rtf t?
(1) AC =DE
(3) LA= LD
(2) AB =EF
(4) LB= LF
38. (100 - 300 20%) 40% <m<R"t
(1) 16 (2) 20
(3) 64 (4) 140
39. G1-mman fi'li4C!thfi (HCF) 28
nw fi'li4C!til (LCM) 336
t I 112 -mmt
(1) 56 (2) 70
(3). 84 (4) 98
40.
2
3 X = 0.6 afu' 0.02 y = 1 t. c;.f
x+ y-
1

(1) 0.92 (2) 1.1 (1) 0.92
(3) 49.1 (4) 50.9 (3) 49.1 (4) 50.9
p
41.
x-2
If Y = x +
1
, y :t: 1, then x equals
(1)
(3)

1-y
Y.::.l
y+1
(2)
(4)
Y21
y-1
L::_y
1-y
42. A square andl a circle have equal
perimeters. Tine ratio of the area of
the square to the area ofthe circle is
(1) 1 : 1
(3) 1t : 2
(2) 1 : 4
( 4) 1t : 4
43. ABCD is a square with AB =
(x + 16) em and BC = (3x) em. The
perimeter (in em) of the square is
44.
45.
(1) 16 (2) 24
(3) 32 (4) 96
The mean of 10 numbers is 0. If 72
and -12 are included in these
numbers, the new mean will be
(1) 0
(3) 6
(2) 5
(4) 60
The circumference of the base of a
right circular cylinder is 44 em and
its height is 15 cni: 'f.he volume
(in cm
3
) ofthe cylinder is 1t =


(1) 770 (2) 1155
(12)
(1)
(3)

1-y
Y.::.l
y+1
(2)
(4)
Y21
y-1
L::_y
1-y
42. crrT afu- cf> fmR" t I

(I) 1 : 1
(3) 1t : 2
(2) I : 4
( 4) 1t : 4
43. ABCD crrT t fum1t AB
(x + 16) "@ft nm BC = (3x) "@ft t I crrt
<*ft ll) t
(1) 16 (2) 24
(3) 32 (4) 96
44. msc:rrm CfiT 11TUl' o t 1 msc:rrm
'll 72 afu- -12 afu- flfa'lf.:'1i'1
11TUl' mrrr
(1) 0 (2) 5
(3) 6 (4) 60
45. ct&lqTI"\;q cf> amm- 'Qftfq
44 Is "@fit 1
CfiT amR <*ft31l) t ( 1t
(I) 770 (2) 1155
(3) 1540 (4) 2310 (3) 1540 (4) 2310
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
46. A class VII teachet wants to discuss
the foUowing problem in the class :
"A square is divided into four
congruent rectangles. The perimeter
of each rectangle is 40 units. What is
the perimeter of given square ?"
Key Mathematical concepts required
to solve this problem is
(i) Area of square and rectangle,
perimeter of square and rectangle
and definition of square and
rectangle
(2) Meaning of the terms square,
rectangle, congruent, perimeter, etc.
(3) Area of rectangle, perimeter of
square
( 4) Formation of algebraic equation to
solve the problem.
47. Algebra is introduced in the middle
classes. According to Piagets' theory
of cognitive development, it is
appropriate to introduce algebra at
this stage as
(1) the child is at sensorimotor stage
and can understand with the help
oflots of manipulatives.
(2) the child is: at pre-operational
stage and can understand abstract
concepts.
(3) the child is at concrete-operational
stage and he can understand and
conceptualize concrete
experiences by creating logical
structure.
( 4) the child is at formal operational
stage and is fully mature to grasp
the abstract concepts.
(13)
46. q;arr VII cf; q;arr # f-1'"1ft'1f&i1
t:
'"l!"i em <fiT "ii'R" ftCil'I'H'l awrr 1l
t aw:ffi
t: 4o 1 fur T'l'q

m-r cf; 'fi;r(r 31i<W4<1'i
if01ffi<4 fi<ti("Q"'11 t
(1) qTf 3fu" 3WIO C!iT qTf 3fu"
3WIO C!iT qTf 3fu" 3WIO qft

(2) 'CPt, 3WIO, '8ClhH4,
C!iT
(3) 3WIO C!iT qTf C!iT
p
( 4) WWIT q:;f '<fi'R fuQ' ofl"1
1
1fD lffi"'
Wil<:f>< o I
47. q;arran .q. <il\illf01i1
t I cf; fclq;m cf;


< 1) rr 1R t 3fu" orso
-mt t:14Ri11(1CI>l cw
"8'Cf>i''T t I
(2) ft 1R t 3fu"
I Q "8'Cf>i''T t I
(3) qurr 'If[ ft 1R t 3fu" 'Cff.\'
C!iT f.:r4tur '<ti'R '[RT
ljft q:;f "8'Cf>i''T t I
( 4) qurr 6ll q'ql R (f) stili (f) "q'<(Uj' 1R t
3fu" q:;f '<ti'R *.
I
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK I '{'qj'cnr<f
p
48. Mr. Sharma was assessing the
students' work on exponents. One of
the response sheet was as follows :
(a) 2
3
X 2
5
= 28
(b) 3
2
X 4l = (12)
4
(c)
33 +35 =3-2
(d)
720 + 714 = 76
(e)

On the basis of this response sheet
Mr. Sharma can make the following
observations :
(1) Child has understood the laws of
exponents and can apply them
well.
(2) Child has understood the laws of
exponents but has made clerical
errors.
(3) Child has understood the laws of
exponents but has not practised
the questions involving division of
two numbers.
(4) Child has understood the law of
exponents for the cases where the
base is same and has missed the
concept for the case where the
base is different.
(14)
48. .'Sft ;t w

(b) 3
2
X 4
2
= (12)
4
(c)
33 + 35 = 3-2
(d)
720 + 714 = 76
(e) 93+
amm- w .'Sft
Pl'"1f<wlf&C'1 fGafuiT
< 1) GfT.'qf f.:!<!1:r wm T(<IT t afu-
11ffi Cfir
tl
(2) GfT.'qf f.:!<!1:r wm T(<IT t
I
(3) GfT.'qf f.:!<!1:r wm T(<IT t
ql 'l1T1T cmi
I
(4) 3W-lff
f.l<rqT wm T(<IT t
3W-lff 3lWT t - it
'("iCfi{'IHI q;)- t I
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
p
'
49. According to Van Hiele level of
49. cR ifi;J cf; \RUf.:tJliOI fcRm" cf; *'
\I<Uf'.:tJlq cf; -qfq f -
i:iio11Q:qlnifi
atR- (rigour) I
C6W VII cf;fuam?.l<IT q;T q;T
cf; aw.TR"lff
em 1 <R-ifi;f \i<Oii>ftJlq
50.
Geometric thought the five levels of
geometric understanding are-
visualization, analysis, informal
deduction, formal deduction and
rigour. Students of class Vll are asked
to classify the quadrilaterals
according to their properties. These
students are at __ level of Van
Hiele Geometrical thought.
( 1) Visualization
(2) Analysis
(3) Informal Deduction
(4) Formal Deduction
A task assigned to the class Vlll
student is as follows :
An open box is to be made out of a
metallic sheet of 50 em x 65 em.
Length and breadth of the box is
30 .em and 15 em respectively. What is
the possible height of the box ? Also
find the volume of this box.
This task refer to
(1) lower level cognitive demand as it
requires the lmowledge of
formulae of volume of cuboid.
(2) lower level of cognitive demand
as there is no connection between
concepts involved and procedure
(3)
required.
higher level of cognitive demand
as the problem can be solved by
50.
fcRm"cf; I
(1)
(2) fGl'i'MqOJ
(3) 3l -1l q T.IIRct> f.:rrT1::R
(4) 3fiqT.IIRct>
C6W VIII q;T f"'"'1fMf&o
orcmr 50 W:ft x 65 W:ft en'\
MfM<t> 'O?ft?: t I en'\ atR-
30 W:ft atR'15 Wfl t

I
en'\ 31ln:i<tm t 1
(1) f.fi:;r lllrr, <m"
3li41'14>('1Cf>J (Cf1Gil4'5) $' 3lT4('R $'
mrr crnrr
(2)
(3)
f.fi:;r lllrr,
flf4ff<:11'1 ;8ct>(>'ti'1131T 31/Cl'i'<IC!>
mwrr $' 1Wr
lllrr,
3l1W 3fu'

'Cf)f 'i!T "("l'Cf)i'1T
(4)
making diagrams and connections
between many possible situations.
higher level of cognitive demand (4) lllrr, <m"
as it requires the use of conceptual $' em mrr
understanding that 'underline the crnrr q;J<t Cl>T'!jp 'Cf>'R em
procedure to wmplete the task. Rfui;
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /llnm
p
51. Mr. Nadeem gave the following task 51.
to his class, after completing the topic
on lines and angles :
Speak for 2 minutes on the following
figures using your knowledge about
lines and angles ::
E F
..
J H G
This task is
(1) Reflective in nature, can be used
to pass time.
(2) Exploratory in nature, can be used
for summative assessments.
(3) Reflective as well can be used for
formative assessment.
(4) Communicating and can
encourage Mathematical Talk iri
wm Cfmt Sir Pn<1fMf&i1

J H

(1)

(2) &1"'14<Cfi, <illr!"101Cfi
I
(3) '&\41!"101Cfi

(4) Cffi'IT c);
ff q;'f
the classroom durit].g free time. !Oilff!lfi;(1 CR t I
SPACE FOR ROUGH
52. A child of class Vll defined the
rectangle as follows :
"Rectangle is a quadrilateral whose
opposite sides are parallel and equal."
The definition reflects that the child
(1) cannot recognize the shape.
(2) do not know the c:orrect properties
of the shape.
{3) knows the properties of the shape,
but repeated some properties in
definition.
(4) knows some; properties, but
missed some important to
complete the definition.
53. A very common error observed
in addition of linear expression is
5y+3=8y.
This type of error is termed as
( 1) Clerical error
(2) Conceptual error
(3) Procedural error
(4) Careless error
(17)
52. <narr VII CfiT 311m:f <fiT

"311m:f t fimcfi fcicR1M
'ti"i 1"1 iiH t I"

(1) 1
(2) q,1 -mr em m
"'RRT I
{3) q,1 em ;;n;rnr t
-qftqrqr -q em
(4)
I
fCII?l<111'11Q "'RRT -qftqrqr
em -q t:{(\'\'i5(
1
al
I
53. c);' <WT .q otS" mqp;f
t: 5y+3 = Sy
(1)

(2) fi Cfi01'111''qttl
(3) l'!cht:(Oiq{Cf)
(4) <i'IIY<CM
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK I rq;-<fil'
p
p
54. Read the following question from the
class VI text-book :
"Prabal deposited t 5,000 in a_ bank at
the rate of 5% interest per annum.
After 2 years he withdrew the money
to purchase the study table for
t 3,500. He deposited! the money left
with him again at the rate of 5%
interest per annum for another two
years. How much llimount will he
receive after two years ?"
What values can be inculcated in
students through this question ?
(1) Honesty
(2) Habit of saving money and
spending it wisely
(3) Sincerity
(4) Simplicity and helping others
55. Following is a problem from text-book
of class VI:
"Express the following statement
through linear expression :
Neha has 7 more toffees than Megha.
If Megha has x toffees, how many
toffees does Neha have ?"
Which competence of Bloom's
cognitive domain is referred -in the
above question ?
(1) Knowledge
(2) Comprehension
(3) Analysis
(4) Synthesis
(18)
. 54. VI ctf f-1""1R-Ifu111

-:t 5% Jffir Cf!i ctt GZmr
ll f 5,000 \ifl1l' I Cf'i Gi1G
f 3,500 cm;ft cfi
I anR 'Q'm' qTif 'flfu cnT 3Rf
Cf!i cfi 5% Jffir Cf!i GZmf w \ifl1l'
qm I Cf!i Gi1G 'flfu 'lli'Gi

cfi 1l
fclcnf.a11
{1) {1411C:Hf
(2) . q,l- Of'<i a:ftt fl"l$1<::1<

(3) f.!tar
( 4) a:ftt q,l- q;r-rr
55. f-1""1f("'f&l1 t
TTtt:
fo1""1R-If&l1

cf;'Q'm' ctt WAf ll7
f I cfi 'Q'm' X ifqft f'ffi <fi 'Q'm'


!fllflctf t?
(1) m-='J
(2)
(3)
(4)
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK I 'tQ;'m
(19)
p
56.
If p =
3
2000 +
3
-2000 and q =
3
2000 _
56.
p = 32000 + 3-2000 q = 32000 -
3-
2000
, then the value of p
2
- q
2
is 3-2000 nil' p2 - q2 C6T lfR t
(1) (2) 2
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
(3) 3 (4) 4
57. The square of 9 is divided by the cube
57. 9 cf; Cf1T <liT 125 cf; 'fiTT 'Q"f
toot of 125. The remainder is
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
(3) 3 (4) 4
58. The value is
58. <6TlfR't
(1) 16 (2) 8
(1) 16 (2) 8
(3)
sV2 (4) 16--./2
(3) sV2 (4) 16--./2
59. One-half of 1.2 x 10
30
is
59. 1.2 x 10
30
<6Tanmt
(1)
6.0 X 1030 {2) 6.0 X 10
2
9
(1) 6.0 X 1030
(2) 6.0 X 10
29
(3) o.6 x 5
3
o
(4)
1.2 X 10
1
5
(3) o.6 x 5
30
(4) 1.2 X 10
15
60.
223911 4
223911 4 .
If 3'
30
10'
15
and 5 are written in
60.
3' 30' 10' 15 5 <liT amTt1 1{
ascending order, then the fraction in
TI=mn ;;mr. \itT f'IA" m. <f6 t
the middle most will be
(1)
23
(2)
4
23 4
-
(1) (2)
-
,
30 5
30 5
2 11
(3)
2 11
(3)
3
(4)
15
3
(4)
15
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
p
(20)
'
Hn$EH QRCikli'1
61. The steps required for the conversion
61.
of kitchen garbage into manure are
t.
given below in a jumbled form.
t:
(A) Put the garbage in the pit.
(A) I
(B) Cover the bottom of the pit with
(B) TTf cit nffi .q cit '4f
sand.

(C) Cover the pit loosely with grass
(C) TTf <fiT 'Elm -m- cl;- i!Tht
or a gunny bag.

(D) Add worms.
(D) 1
The correct sequence of these steps is:
'f"f -mY Sf;lf t :
(1) (B), (A), (C), (D)
(1) (B), (A), (C), (D)
(2) (B), (C), (A), (D)
(2) (B), (C), (A), (D)
(3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(4) (B), (D), (A), (C)
(4) (B), (D), (A), (C)
62. Two organisms are best friends and 62. afu-w:r-w:r m
live together. One provides shelter,
t 1 arrcm:f, nm
water and nutrients while the other
<fmrrt,
prepares and provides food. Such an
'fmrr t I cf;-l' JlCfiTf cf;-
association of organisms is termed as

(1) Autotrophy
(1)
'fqq'jiSfUI
(2) Parasitism
(2)
q{"'l<il1'11 .
(3) Heterotrophy
(3) f<M"'4JISfUI
(4) Symbiosis
(4) 'H (\ "11 ct "1
63. In the alimentary canal. the swallowed
1
63.
a:nm- ;::m;r ('qTT.R -;wit) .q TfiU
food moves downwards because of

(1) the contraction of muscles in the
(1) trm 1"ffi em m- em -QWit
wall of food pipe.
I
(2) the fl?w of fluid material taken
(2) . -wr fWrr TTm lffi'f m

with the food.
(3) I
(3) gravitational pull.
(4) -;;fm cor -;frtT "lR
(4) force provided by the muscular
q;fT I
tongue.
64. Frogs and earthworms breathe
64:
through their skin because of which
t qm'Uf t fct;- 'f"f cit
the skin of both the organisms is
(1) dry and rough (1)
(2) dry and slimy
(2)
(3) moist and rough
(3)
(4) moist and slimy
(4)
65. While going for a picnic a student
noted the reading on the odometer on
the bus after every 10 minutes till the
end of the journey. Later on he
recorded the in a table shown
below:
Time(AM) Odometer
reading (km)
8.00 78752
8.10 78758
8.20 78768
8.30 . 78780
8.40 78791
8.50 78800
9.00 78806
The average speed of the bus in the
entire journey in metres per second
was
(1) 15
(3) 30
(2) 18
(4) 54
66. You are provided with a concave
.mirror, a concave lens, a convex
mirror and a comvex lens. To obtain
an enlarged image of an object you
can use either
(1) concave lens or .convex lens
(2) concave mirror or convex mirror
(3) concave mirror or concave lens
(4) concave mirror or convex lens
67. Select from the following a set of
Kharif Crops :
(1) Cotton, paddy, pea, linseed
(2) Paddy, maize, cotton, soyabean
(3) Gram, mustard, groundnut, wheat
(4) Maize, paddy, li_nseed, soyabean
(21)
65. N<t>f-i<t> 1R' \iffit M tmr <mrr
c1; '<.fiT 41o"'i<t>
"
10 f1:r-:rG I affi .q
41q_"'i<61 cnT GWft mruft .q
ft;mrr:

8.00
8.10
8.20
8.30
8.40
8.50
9.00
(I) 15
(3) -30
"":shfk< '<.fiT .
41q_"'i<t> (km)
78752
78758
78768
78780
78791
78800
78806
(2) 18
{4) 54
66.

t I '<.fiT

(!)
(2) .3lC!Iffi'
(3) 3lCIIffi' 3lCIIffi' "ffi1
( 4) 3lCIIffi' 3f2ic!T "ffi1
67. f-1'"1fMf<sh'1 .q '<.fiT 't'1'i"il4
fl:
(I) Cfit!rn, 'lffi, 3lffiiT
(2) 'lffi, Cfit!rn,
(3) T:RT, m-m.
' 0
(4) 'lffi, 'lil"'liSIH
p
p
68. Study the following statements about
the effects of weeds on tbe crop
plants:
(A) They help crop plants to grow
healthily.
(B) They interfere in harvesting.
(C) They affect plant growth.
(D) They compete 1.vith crop plants for
water, nutrients, space and light.
The correct statements are :
(1) (C) and (D) only
(2) (D) only
(3) (B), (C) and (D)
(4) (A), (B) and (D)
69. When we add aluminium foil to
freshly prepared sodium hydroxide
solution a gas is produced. Which of
the following correctly states the
property of this gas ?
(1) Colourless and odourless gas
which extinguishes a burning
match stick.
(2) Colourless and odourless gas
which promotes burning of a
candle.
(3) Brown coloured pungent smelling
gas.
(4) Colourless and odourless gas
which produces a 'pop' sound
. when a burning match stick is
brought near it.
70. Aqueous solution of which of the
following oxides will change the
colour of blue litmus to red ?
(1) Copper oxide
(2) Iron oxide
(3) Magnesium oxide
(4) Sulphur dioxide
71. Which of the following is a pair of
exhaustible natural resources ?
(1) Coal and soil
(2) Petroleum and water
(3) Minerals and wildlife
(4) Natural gas and sun-light
(22)
68. -q;m;fi w Qi1<m cfi Jrlrrcf cfi

(A) .q -q;m;ft cti <f,a "at
<fiffl f I
(B) I
(C) .q cti a<iil <fiffl f I
(D) .q -q;m;ft 'ffiYI",
1
q;?.R t :
(1)
(2)
(3) (B), (D)
(4) (A), (D)
69. cfi i'fl\m "OR
cti "Q;;:ft
t, "ffi "t\Tffl t I fur Tltr
1l q;?.R CfiT
"'!'Iii 'Cf1JR t ?
(1)
q,hft"ffi q;f tft t I
(2) "'T
*" -q wr:rnr Cfmll
tl
(3 > c.m;fT trr cit
(4)
qft mffi ffi 1R '11"P:r'
I
70. TTtr at1CH1i$:S1 .q

"'
(1)
(2)
(3) .
(4)
11. A'"'lfc:'1f&i1 1l
JOIICfiMC6 CfiT <f1M t?
(1)
(2) ;;wr
(3) Cl""''"l'tCI
(4) 111'1'fl1<6 Cf;j"
72. Which of the following statements is
true about endemic species ?
(1) They not affected by the
destruction of their habitat.
(2) They are found only in zoos and
botanical gardens.
(3) They are found exclusivety in
specific habitat.
{4) Endemic spec1es can never
become endangered.
73. Which of the followiDig pairs is related
to the inheritance of <:haracters ?
( 1) Chromosomes and genes
(2) Chromosomes and mitochondria
(3) Cell membrane and cell wall
(4) . Cell membrane and chloroplast
74. Out of the different combinations of
terms given below, the correct
combination of terms with reference
to an animal cell is
(1) Nucleus, plastid, cell membrane,
cell wall
(2) Nucleus, chromosome, ribosome,
cell wall
(3) Cell membrane,
ribosome, mitochondria
(4). Cell membrane, ribosome,
chloroplast, mitochondria
75. Consider the following sets of
reproductive terms
(A) Sperm, oviduct, egg, uterus
(B) Ovulation, egg, oviduct, uterus
(C) Sperm, testis, spermduct, p_enis
(D) Menstruation, egg,. oviduct, uterus
The sets of correct combination are :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(A), (B) and (C)
(B), (C) and (D)
(C), (D) and (A)
I
(A), (B) and (D)
(23) p
72. ttfl:tfl"lt cl; .q
t?
c 1) 3ll"Cirn *" m q:;r '!R coTt
1A'l1JCr I .
(2) filf$411'H)
"ll-cn<fr "'Tffi t I
(3) 3ll"Cirn 1l tt -cn<fr
tl
(4) m tiCf>Giq""1

73.
ctft
(1) ltll"ilfll4 (TIT
(2) lfll4lfil4 WIT
(3) C!ilfuCf>T m
( 4) C!ilfuCf>T WIT CR"ihl011 R {Wff

74. TT\f 'QGT ""'"fcri''IA" :.n'"""'i *
ct>)F$ict>l cl; 'QGT CfiT cnt.:f-m
:.n'31"1 t?
(1)
C!ilfuCf>T m
(2) lfll4lfil4 (TIT, {i$oilfll4,
C!ilfuCf>T m
(3) C!ilfuCf>T lfll"ilfll4, <I$<Stlfil4_

(4) C!ilfuCf>T {i$oilfll4, cMl{l011R
,
75. TT\f "'31""1""1" mit'Ut'l" 'QGT""'" fl'! ...

(A) anra-,
(B) 31Uslrt'l'i, anTiS", <ilUsCliftrfl,
(C) 'f"'UT, !ij5fi10]"1f<'1Cf>l, fm;f
(D) lfi'!1Cl, anTiS", 310JSCliftrfl,
't1<4IJ1"1 cl; t:
(1) (A), (B) WIT (C)
(2) (B), (C) WIT (D)
(3) (C), (D) WIT (A)
(4) (A), (B) WIT (D)
p
76. . Which of the following elements must
be available in water for the
metamorphosis of tadpoles ?
(1) Chlorine (2) Bromine
(3) Sulphur (4) Iodine
77. Which one of the following is not the
objective of teaching of Science at
upper primary stage ?
(1) Developing questJ.onmg and
enquiring skills
(2) Acquiring technological skills
(3) Acquiring process skills
(4) Acquiring scientific literacy
78. National Curriculum Framework
(NCF) strongly recommends that
Science education at upper primary
stage should
(1) prepare students for competitive
examinations.
(2) help students to be emotionally
balanced.
(3) help students to acquire
computational skills.
(4) follow constructivistic approach
for teaching and learning of the
subject.
79. 'Cognitive validity' of Science
curriculum at uppper primary stage
requires that it should
(1) be age appropriate and within the
reach of students' understanding
level.
(2) convey correct
content.
(3) nurture the natural curiosity and
creativity of the learners.
(4) enable the students to appreciate
how the concepts of Science
evolve with time.
80. Which one of the following does not
reflect the personality attribute of a
person having scientific temper ?
(1) Seeking evidence
(2) Biased opinion
(3) Rational thinking
(4) Openmindedness
(24)
76. *' 411<41"'\'1'!01 *' .q.
.q. qft 3Q('10!4i'fl
"11<111<441 t?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
77. R""''fc."'f&i't .q. llll!lf'141
t?
(1) 3fu' q;r

(2) ('1Cf');flcti) .a#im
(3) mpl1Uf .a#im
(4)
78. QIQ,_<4i4<4l qft (2005)
om:r '4>1' t fct;

79.
80.
(1) 'Cf'>f 11fo<ilr1ct1 <1>

(2) * 'If

. (3) WTuRr .a#im

(4) . <1;' <"tHICIIGl
61WP1q;f I
w fcim;r_Qid<4i4<4t Cfft
'fifll"" l(i:l41 chw qft liltr t fcl;
(1) -ctl)- 31Tii -ctl)- *
3fu' m ..,ft

(2) * 00

(3) -ctl)-
w.mr-m 3fu' 'Cf'>f

{4)
fcf; mw-n 'Cf')'{ fcf; <1;-
mr-=r -ctl)- lJCf'><:'<I11Q fc:lm fiW fc:tCf'>f-81'1
m-mt 1
f.:t""''fc."'futnll &:tuf.:t41
'&lfcfi1' *' <liT
cnfT?
( 1 ) w:nur 1iTrRr
(2)
(3) i'lt' Wrc; fffi;r
(4)
81. NCERT Science textbooks for upper
primary classes include large number
of daily life related questions which
have been left unanswered. This has
been done so that
(1) teachers have: a good pool of
questions for assessment purpose.
(2) students can send these questions
to scientists to get the answer.
(3) teachers can use these questions
for home assignment.
(4) students can seek answer to these
questions by different
resources.
82. While teaching the correct method of
reading a clinical thermometer to
class VIII students, Neha mentions the
following necessary precautions to be
taken:
( 1) Thermometer should be washed
with hot water. before and after
use.
(2) Do not hold the thermometer by
the bulb while taking the reading.
(3) Ensure that before use, the
mercury level in the thermometer
is below 35 C.
(4) Read the thermometer keeping the
level of mercury along the line of
sight.
Which one of the above precautions
has been mentioned wrongly by the
teacher?
83. The section on 'activities and projects'
included in the exercises of NCERT
Science textbooks for class Vlll
primarily aims at
(1) enhancing indepth understanding of
the basic concepts.
(2) keeping the students engaged
during vacations.
(3) assessing the students on practical
skills.
( 4) providing opportunitY to students
for extended learning.
(25) p
81. swaf"'C6 <fit '<6'1:1ITaiT <fit
lf'.m.t.arn-.il.
<f; w-f vnfl;r fc61r -rnr


{1) ft;w Wff

{2) CliT Wff
I
(3) <f; ft;w 'CflT

<4> fclM;;r -mm Cb1 q;ffl R
mti1 CR I
82. 'C6'I:IIT VIII CfiT ctffif..:t<6<'1 'C6T
-mt <ffTC6T amfT cmwft
;;)ftClll<4<6 q;r
'C6ft t:
(1) <l"ll4lc< q;f m afu'
TTJt 'l:lfft I
{2) l!l"'J4l<::< q;f qft
I
{3) 'CflT m <liB
<R "R mr

{4) l!l4hi"ic<
mr -q ffi<R -qo;:r cR" 1


83. 'C6'I:IIT VIII <f; fffir lf'.m.f_arn-.il. 'qTQ<f_
"
<f; *
qR"'l\11'11'
(1) 'tiC6("<1'11aU qft q;f

(2) -q q;f cirm -n9'1T
{3) l'll<tlriCfl -q 'CflT
I
{4) ft;w q;f

p
84. Major. objective of organisation of .
Science Exhibitions is to
( 1) grade students on practical skills.
(2) provide opportunity to students to
compete with others.
(3) provide opportunity to students to
showcase their creative ideas.
(4) provide opportunity to students to
enhance their academic
performance.
85. Four candidates appearing in an
interview for the post of science
teacher were asked to give a
demonstration lesson to class VIII
students on the topic 'Pressure
exerted by liquids and gases'.
. Following different approaches were
followed by different candidates :
(1) Detailed explanation of related
concepts with the help of diagram
on the blackboard.
(2) Use of charts for _explanation of
different concepts. ,
(3) Organisation of hands-on student
activities followed up with
discussions.
(4) Greater focus on . classroom
questions during the lecture.
Which one of the above approaches
will be most effective for teaching of
the topic?
86. Tlie technique of 'classroom
questioning' in teaching of Science
can be more effectively used for
(1) ensuring levels of learning
(2) developing problem solving skills
(3) maintaining discipline in the Class
(4) promoting creativity and
innovativeness
(Z6)
84. *'
(1) q;y lli41Pict> c1> anmr

(2) c1; c1;
I
(3) 'q"1'11i'ilCf> q;r

CRRT I
(4)
I
85. fcmFr fm;cn c1; c1; fmr
crn;J q;y 3fu' mr
wm W VIII c1;
q;f 1ffir c1; fmr

<ii'j)QIM"''
(1) I(<IIN{_c -qr 3llW <m
..m
q;r.rr I
(2) fuN;;r fict>("<f'113U q;) c1;
-mt q;r m q;r.rr 1
(3) t\'R14{Cf> c1; orre; 'if'tiT
q;r q;r.rr I
(4) iXll&lH cl; -qr
ewr q;r.rr 1
3QIi"'l ll

86.. fcmr.:r-fVmvl ll ctt
(1Cf>;::fict> <fiT *' fmr JN1Cft

(1) q;r m
(2) ww:rr q;r fqCf>m
(3) ll l'f<""'H
(4)
87. Given below are the steps to test the
presence of proteins in a food item.
These steps are not in correct
sequence.
(A) Take a small quantity of food
item in a test tube, add 10 drops
of water to it and shake it.
(B) Make the paste or powder of the
food to be tested.
(C) Add 10 drops of caustic soda
solution to the test tube and
shake well.
(D) Add 2 drops of copper sulphate
to it.
The correct sequence of these steps is
(1) (A), (B), (D), (C)
(2) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(3) (B), (A), (C), (D)
( 4) (D), (B), (A}, (C)
88. Which of the following terms
. constitute the female part of a flower ?
(1) Stigma, ovary and stamen
(2) Stigma, ovary and style
(3) Stamen, ovaty and style
(4) Stamen, petals and sepals
89. Bow many muscles work together to
move a bone?
(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Six
(4) Number is not fixed.
90. Choose the set that represents only the
biotic component of a habitat.
(1). Sand, turtle, crab, rocks
(2) Insects, frog, fish, aquatic plants
(3) Tiger, deer, grass, soil
(4) Insects, water, plants, fish
(27) p
87. ' .q mtR qft 'Q"ftllfOT


(A) 1WT 4HSI'1t'fl #
10 'iiM afu"
4HS1'1Ml I
(B) 'Q"ftllfOT fcf;lr cmvf
'QT3Sf 1
(C) 4HS1'1Ml # 10 Cfllf-RCfl
qft afu"

(D)
I
l'1' "'EffU'1T t :
(1) (A), (B), (D), (C)
(2) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(3) (B), (A), (C), (D)
(4) (D), (B), (A), (C)
88. mr TJlf 'QG t-l!'m
t?
(1) qfuq;m,
(2) qfuq;m,
(3)
(4)
89.

'Cflftt?
(1) ey
(2) 'q'R'
(3)
(4)
90, flij-..il<i 3t1CI'm
eli" aw:rcn f.:t'C<\40 I Cfifffi
tl
(1) om;,
(2) Cfl\c:, lW'ffi,
(3) Gfltf, -rnur, tmr,
(4) ctts lW'ffi
p
Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90
EITHER from Part - ll (Mathematics and
Scimce) OR from Part - III (Social Studies I
Social Science).
(28)
WtdeT<If q;T JIR 31 #' 90 "'nt 'JITTT- II I
(1Tfimr cr <lT 'JITTT- III (ffiX(f'{:;jq; aral7R'
1 t/11//Mi:h fcmFI} #' m f I
PART-ill/mrf-ill
SOCIAL STUDIES I SOCIAL SCIENCE (fll"''ifJ1Gfl fll"''lf\iiCf)
31. According to Arthashastra, during
Mauryan period North-West was
important for
(1) Cotton
(2) Gold and precious stones
(3) Silver and copper
(4) Blanket
32. Amphorae was a
(1) coin of Italy
(2)' red glazed pottery
(3) tall double handled jar
(4) perforated pot
33. Pepper was as valued in Roman
Empire that as it was called
(1) Black magic
(2) Black charm .
(3) Black stone
(4) Black gold
34. Persian wheel, spinning wheel and
firearms were invented during
(1) Pre-historic period
(2) Ancient period
(3) Medieval period
( 4) Modem period
35. A Sanskrit Prashasti has been found
in praise of which of the following
Delhi Sultans ?
(1) Iltutmish
(2) Balban
(3) Alauddin Khalji
(4) Firoz Tughlaq
36. Hiranya-garbha ritual was performed
(1) when a king won a territory.
(2) to declare the king as Kshatriya
even if he was not one by birth.
(3) before hunting a deer.
(4) for the birth of male child.
31. 4\4Cf>IH ll
__ err 1
(1) q;qrn
(2)
(3) 'ffiGfT
(4)
32. errl
( 1) q;r fuqq;r
(2) il'iCf)C::J{ <rff;r .
(3) m i'Rtfi wrr "'T{
( 4) f0S::ifffi <rff;r
33. m ft .q 'Cf>Tffi qft 1Urr e:rt
I
( 1) C!i1ffi
(2) C!i1ffi
(3) C!i1ffi
c 4) C!i1ffi m.=rr
34. 311'4<ilflil1 q;r
ll'S3IT err I
(1) Cfm>f
(2) '!OIT'f.iT;:r Cfm>f
(3)
(4)
35. .q fcnft' cfi qft
-q Jmfu=f 'qTliT TJ'lfr t?
(1)
(2}
(3) <l1HJdl\l'1
(4)
36.
c 1) l1:Cf>' fcfim em ;;furrrr m 1
(2)
1
(3) 1
( 4) 1j;f -;;r;:q cl; I
37. During the Chola period associations
of traders were known as
(1) Gramam
(2) Shrenis
(3) Nagaram
(4) Sabha
38. Nath literature i!i associated with
(1) Bengali
(2) Assamese
(3) Odiya
(4) Maithili
39. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan started a
40.
powerful non-violent movement in
North-West Frontier Province, known
as
(1) Ram-Rahim Movement
(2) Khilafat Movement
(3) Khudai-KhidmatgarMovement
(4) Pakhtun Movement
After the Congress Resolution
(1929) to fight for Purna-Swaraj,
'Independence Day' was. observed on
(1) 15 August 1930
(2) 26 January 1930
(3) 1 January 1930
(4) 2 October 1930
(29)
37.
'Cfi'TM .q. &41 q 1fhn cJ; cnt
\ifl'ffi m 1
(1) 1:l11m
(2)
(3)
(4) w:rr
38.
(1)
-.jrm;ft
(2)
(3)
(4)
39.
Jffi:r ll qtf4:1:tquffi
(1).
(2)
(3) f@<il'il"'l'll<
(4)
40. mftn (1929) cJ;
m Cfft !H1'11CI"11 cf; o:rTG cnl
''('CitbiHI fcrc;m I
(i) 15 .3Vff 1930
(2) 1930
(3) 1
(4) 1930
p
p
(30)
41. Big Bear is an example of 41. t
(1) Milky way
(1) 6l1Cfll'il' i II Cl>T
(2) Constellation
(2)

(3) Star
(3) ORfcpf
(4) Galaxy
(4)

42. Only one side of 1the moon is visible 42. mTTmmt
from the earth because
(1) other side of the moon is towards
(!) CfiT 'I1JlT fe:;:r
the earth only during the day time.
I
(2) other side of the moon is towards
(2) CfiT 'I1JlT 3l1WWlT tnT
the earth only on the New Moon
I
(Amavashya).
(3)
(3) time taken by the moon to move
# 3l1H are qr <pR #
around the earth and to complete
I
one spin is same.
(4) <PT 3l1H are 11r
(4) it takes the moon one light year to
# >I'Cfl'M qq WRIT t I
complete one spin.
43. The earth moves on its axis
43.

(1) from West to East
(1)
(2) from North to South (2) cfuur qfr am-
(3) from East to West (3)
(4) from South to North
(4)
44. As we move from Eastern Hemisphere
44. Tffi;n;t Tffi;n;t
to Western Hemisphere the :size of
t. mm <tiT 31'TCtm"
longitudes
(1) I
(1) mcreases
t:R:m "'ffiT t I
(2) decreases
(2)
(3) remains same
(3) wrRWITt I
(4) first increases then decreases
(4) . "'ffiT t ftor t:R:m "'ffiT
tl
45. The Earth Day is
45. t
(1) The time during which the sun
(J)
shines on a specific place on the
earth.

(2) The measure of standard time at (2) cpr I
Greenwich.
(3)
rnr 3l1H are 11r .-.t fWrr
(3) Period of rotation of the earth
I
around its axis.
(4) Period of revolution of the earth
(4)
around the sun.
fWrr TT<rr I
46. On equinox, direct rays of the sun fall
on
( 1) Tropic of Cancer
(2) Equator
(3) Tropic of Capricorn
(4) Arctic Circle
47. There are many harbours and ports in
Atlantic Ocean because
(1) There is large: volume of sea trade
between the U.S.A. and Europe.
(2) Fishery industry is flourishing in
the Atlantic Ocean.
(3) The coastline of the Atlantic
Ocean is highly indented.
(4) The coastline . of the Atlantic
Ocean is very shallow.
48. Which is the world's longest mountain
range?
( 1) The Himalayas
(2) The Rocky
(3) The Andes
(4) The Alps
49. In India Tropical Rain Forests are
found in
(1) Madhya Pradesh
(2) Himachal Pradesh
(3) Andaman & Nicobar Islands
(4) Rajasthan
50. During the retreating monsoon
period, the moisture laden winds blow
from
(1) Valley to plains
(2) Land to sea
(3) Sea to land
(4) Plateau to plains
(31)
46. ctr mm t-
(1) q;<fd"lm W
(2)
(3) lfCR"t"lSTW
(4)
47. <i12:i"1iflcti qi_\l't11'H # 'lfci

(1) 3l1W:Cfir cf> oiTT:r \1RT
-qr;rr ll o!j]1:11HTOT I
(2) 3Ri"1ifccti

ll lffi<1 "3l!lTrf
fctctif-811 I
(3) 3i2:Mifc:ct> Cfft nc tm

(4) 3i2:C"1ifc:ct> qft

48. ctr -mm "i"1lGft <iit.=r-m
t?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
49. 'I{R(f 1l aw crri q.:r -q]"(f
(1)
(2)
(3) s.'l4w{l\l "4
(4) {1"1<('\qH ll
5o.
( 1) mit *:R qft :am-
(2) qft :am-
(3) am-
( 4) 1:IOlr *:R qft am-
p
p
51. Which of the. following is called
'lungs' ofthe earth ?
(1) Tropical evergreen forest of
Brazil.
(2) Tropical deciduous forest of
Central America.
(3) Temperate evergreen forest of
China.
(4) Temperate deciduous forest of
Chile.
52. Which is the largest river basin in the
world?
(1) Ganga river basin
(2) Nile river basin
(3) Mississippi river basin
(4) Amazon river basin
53. What is 'Maloca'?
(1) A tribe
(2) A house type
(3) A wild animal
(4) A resident ofMalacca
54. Using resources carefully and giving
them time to get renewed is called
(1) Resource conservation
(2) Sustainable development
(3) Resource management
(4) Development management
55. Shelter belt is a method of
(1) water conservation
(2) soil formation
(3) plantation
(4) soil conservation
(32)
51. f-"1"1ft'1i&l'1 .q cl;

(2) l1'tZf cf-
q.:r
52. fc1rcr q;J mm -affi:R m t?
(1)
(2)
(3) Pn:ilf-H4l
(4)
53. CFnt?
(1)
(2)
(3)
( 4) q;r f.:rcmft'
54. q;J '!'11'1chl'1i'{J<fl 'Cflr-rr.i'fm
'1cfl<fl'! Oj cl;
--
t I
(1)
(2) @!'1ql1Sj0n4 fi:rCf'lR:r
(3)
( 4) fi:rCflR:r
55. I
(1)
(2) f.:mtur
(3) OWTR1
(4)
56. Bhimbetka in Madhya Pradesh is a
(1) Palaeolithic site
(2) Neolithic site
(3) Megalithic site
(4) Mesolithic site
57. Which of the three Gods were
especially important in the Rigvedic
period?
(1) Rudra, Vishnu and Indra
(2) Agni, Indra and Soma
(3) Indra, Varun and Rudra
(4) Agni, Indra and Vishnu
58. Sanskrit is considered to be a part of
the family of languages known as
(1) Indo-Aryan
(2). Indo-Greek
(3) Indo-European
(4) Indo-Arabian
59. At which place it was a general
practice to lay the dead with head
towards North ?
(1) Inamgaon
(2) Burzahom
(3) Mehargarh
(4) Bhimbetka
60. The Buddha described the thirst of
desires and cravings as
(1) Pipasa
(2) Trishna
(3) Tanha
(4) Teevra Ichcha (Strong desire)
(33)
56. lllll' 1l \llqa:IG<f>i '%" __ _
I
(1) ':{{lql"'ifuJCfi
(2) '1CJqi"'ITUICfi
(3) "ltilqi"'ITUICf>
(4)
57. 'Cf>WI' .q 'Cf>t.1 'ffi;::f &ltl<f>'!

( 1) fu'ror ifilT
(2) ,mr.,, i'MT m.r
(3) CRiUT i'MT
( 4) ,mr.,, i'MT fu'ror
58. q;1 f;m CfiT #;m" liT-'IT

.(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
p
59. m w q;1 '9W: '3'iR" ctt am:
m?
(1) OCI
(2)
(3)
(4)
60. or-a am cr ctt q;t
ll Cf"'T 'OTi'1l"<lT TI"''T ?
(1)
(2) Qmrr
(3) (RT
(4)
p
61. Branding of product
62.
63.
(1) makes it more saleable.
(2) differentiates it from other
products in the market.
(3) makes it more attractive for
customer.
(4) gives customer rebate on MRP.
Which part of the Indian Constitution
is often referred to as the 'Conscience'
of the Constitution ?
(1) The part dealing with the
Directive Principles.
(2) The part dealing with the
Fundamental Rights.
(3) The prut dealing with the
reservation policy for SCs, STs
andOBCs.
(4) The Preamble ofthe.Cpnstitution.
How many members can be
nominated to the Lok Sabha ?
(1) None
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Twelve
(34)
61.
(1) I
(2)
I
(3)
tl
(4)

(3) "'lffi,
3lTWUT ;ftffi

(4) qft
63. R mn iifm;f '1'11::ftn

(2)
(3) 'qJr
(4) GfiW
64. A judge gives decision on a case
(1) on the basis of argument
(2) . on the basis offee paid
(3) on the basis of evidence
(4) on the basis of police inquiry
65. Which of the following cult bas
distinctive tribal influence ?
{1) Cult of V enkateshwara
(2) Cult of Jagannath
.
(3) Cult ofVishwanath
(4) Cult of Amamath
66. . Diseases like diarrhoea, dysentery,
cholera can be prevented through
(1) educationofhealth and hygiene
(2) better health care facilities
(3) providing safe drinking water
(4) providing cheap medicines
67. More often discussions on government
and .its functioning lead to extreme
views, therefore teacher should
(1) avoid any debate or discussion on
it.
(2) criticise the way government
functions.
(3) argue for judicial activism
(4) organise more objective
interactions as compared to
didactive views.
(35) .
p
64.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Ht\q',lCfliH .awm-'!R
65.
f.:tJ;Otfilf&l1 ll '$:f 'tR" ::;uR cmfl
JNTEf -qfu;ri'affi t ?
(1) c!Cfll'<Cl'l
(2)
(3)
(4)
66. t-;rr 'CflT '\i{f

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
67. mcm- 'Cfll<iT <it 31<ftff
<it "ffi'qi '\ii"Rft t. atn:

{1) W 'Qr fcnm T:Rii

(2) I
(3) flfsti"lol (Judicial activism)

(4) <tt WRT 1l
ClJ)f-1""3 'Cf>T
'Cfltl
p (36)
68. The views of social scientists vary the 68. f"'l .... firi!&C1 if f<fffi cr
most on which of the following agents
regarding their impact on the
behaviour and attitudes of children
and adolescents ?
(1) Family
(2) School
(3) Television
(4) Peer
69. Which of the following is the most
appropriate way to increase the time
spent on academic activities by the
students in a Social Science class ?
(1) Assigning homework three times
a week.
(2) Assigning individual projects on
new topics before discussing the
topic in class.
(3) Incorporating lots of new material
in a lecture to be delivered to
sustain interest.
(4) Proper lesson and
abiding by the time schedule for
. every activity.
fcf>:ttiR4'i!f.:6:ttM cr Jrc[ffi w

(1)
(2) fctem1<1
(3) 2Hifct"1'1
(4)
fcmR if q;r
w -ry-q q;l

(2) "'1'<1 fc!1sr<IT _l:lt, 1:!t "'q'T:Jf cnB
.1Tffi, q;f 3Will-3Will
(3) m "'T <41&11'1
-rer-rr 1
(4) q <);-
R<ffi Wl<r C!iT I
70. A student was interested in studying
problems faced by Indian soldiers
during the Kargil War. She interviews
several soldiers who took part in tlie
Kargil War. These soldiers can be
considered
(1) Secondary sources
(2) Primary sources
(3) Actual narrators
(4) Internal sources
71. A teacher wants to give a case study to
of class-VII. Which of the
following topics would be most
appropriate ?
72.
(1) Earthquake
(2) Major crops oflndia
(3) Minerals found in India
(4) Structure of the earth
Valuing observable
individual preferences
deduction is called
(1) Reasoning
(2) Free association
(3) Egocentrism
(4) Social brainstorming
facts over
.in deriving
73. To show land use in different
countries of the world, which of the
following would be a suitable teaching
aid ?
(1) Flow chart
(2) Comparative chart
(3) Timeline chart
(4) Venn diagram
(37)
70. irefT am Cfm 11 li'1 Cfif 'If
I
'Cf)T *ft t Cfif 'If
. m 1 'f'f <6T f"1""ff'-"'f&H
'If "tt lfRT t?
(1) Tftur -mn
(2) -mn
(3) cH<RJfCict> Of<IR C!TR
(4)
71. VII cfi m <6T Tt6"1'
(case study) cfi fffir J:TC6tuT
t I 'If 'tt mRf
'Cf>t.fm61TTT?
(1)
(2)
(3) 'iffi(f # ""l'R C!lR
(4)
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. nutT q;f 'If -mr Wfq;; f"1ct>li'1"11
t?
. ( 1 ) '('fC\;;rr .
(2) lfffi-Wm
(3)
(4) 'HI"''If"Jc:p
73. fcri''IA q;f cl; fffir
f"1""ff'-"'f&i'1 'If -tt 'Cf>t.f-m

(1) wrrw
(2) ijC1'11i"""Cfi 'CITt
(3) 'CITt
(4)
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74. A teacher writes instructional
objective for his/her lesson plan as
. 'Students will be able to give reasons
for the downfall of Mauryan Dynasty'.
This objective will come under
(1) Knowledge
(2) Understanding
(3) Application
(4) Synthesis
75. All of'the following are characteristics
of creative thinking except :
(1) Ability to always produce right
answers to problems posed
(2) Synthesise . from a variety of
sources
(3) Flexib,le and imaginative way to
approach a problem
(4) Purposeful, reflective judgement
76. During Social Science class, students
begin to discuss whether a mobile
tower should be allowed to install in
the proxiDlity of their school or not. A
student says that the radiations from
the tower would make students sick.
Another student says, I heard this on
the news that mobile towers do not
make people sick. As a teacher you
would
(1) Encourage students to organise a
dhama (protest) outside the office
of local administration.
(2) Motivate students to collect
evidences. that will help them
assess the situation objectively.
(3) Organise a structured debate on
this topic in the class.
(4) Organise an election to know the
support in favour and against.
(38)
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em <fi lR <fi <fiT i1ffi
t I lfr

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)
75. # cfi
"t"1'11(4!1ifi I
(1) ll<IT cf; 00

(2)
(3) q;r;t tQ
cr m- q;r
(4) cr ctft
wrnr
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atTN ctmt f fct; fif1 1('1<4 cf; f.fifi?:
i1ld41$M 'M1"FfT fc6" "1tf I '!'f)
m;rT d t fc6" f-iifiM4 ernwrr
msrran I "l!ifi'
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fc6" iil!41$M afum" "1tf Cfmt
f I
o> ifil<ll(YI<l
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,
(2) W!ifu -qr

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(3) -qr q;m # fir<Ht{{lifi
Cf;T ifi'(cUqf) I
( 4) q;m -q W!ifu ;;rr;R "'
<I><CIIqfl I
77. At the upper primary stage, according
to NCF-2005, the content of Social
Studies will draw its content from which
ofthe following subjects ?
. (1) History, Civics and Geography
(2) History, Geography, Political
Science and Economics
(3) Environmental Science, History,
Civics and Geography
(4) Disaster Management, History,
Political Science and Values
Education
78. For which of the following a time-line
would be best suited for ?
(1) to give summary of a dynasty.
(2) To explain achievements of a
ruler.
(3) To compare two dynasties.
(4) To teach ancient history.
79. Locating a place on the map is
assoCiated with
80.
(1) Knowledge
(2) Comprehension
(3) Application
(4) Skill .
Children have little exposure to laws,
therefore, while discussing laws, it is
important that teacher should
(1)
(2)
(3)
explain all the aspects of laws
very clearly.
giVe as many examples from
context.
discuss about juvenile laws only.
(4) create fear regarding -laws.
(39)
77. Qiq_<N<Il 2005 cf>
ml!lf'1<t w fll"'ifJtct> fcfflR Cfl1
fCltii<ICi'f<'! .q f<f;;:f ffi

(I)
(2)

(3) q(l\Cj{Oj

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'"{('<N'(Cf> m
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( 1) . cnr "lffiJf if 1
(2) M q,1 q,1 01lT&IT
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(3) I
( 4) 'lffiO ftmul' if I
79.
(1) w-:r'#
80.
(2)
(3)
(4)
-.rsn q;lf m t.

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(1) I
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81. A Social Science teacher must employ
which of the following methods for
being effective ?
(1) Increase engagement of students
by thought provoking and
interesting activities.
(2) Increase the knowledge of
students by taking tests on every
Monday.
(3) Award grades in a lax manner to
boost the confidence of slow
learners.
(4) Assign pr(ljects to be done at
home so as to involve parents in
the studies of theit ward.
82. In a discussion on Constitution, it is
important that it is discussed in
historical context so that students
become aware that :
(1) democracy has its roots in India.
(2) republics flourished m ancient
India.
(3) anti-colonial struggle had its
major influence.
(4) Indian Constitution is the oldest in
the world.
83. Outcome oriented student learning -
model in Social Science will focus
primarily on whiclil of the following?
(1) Group activities, excursions and
summative assessments
(2)
(3)
(4)
Complete coverage of course,
information centred teaching and
summative assessments
Learning
activities,
objectives,
formative
summative assessments
learning
and
Aims of education, new teaching
method, board exam
(40)
81. fflnf"'Cfi fcmR" ctT fufarcnr


(1) fctiiHlfl"'Cfi cr ilRT


(2) CfiT "m!TaTI
q;r cr;t:r C!iBT I
(3)
1
(4) lWIT-flrnr CfiT ctt m -q
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82. flfatll"'l 'Q'f "Cfi"fff t
qfh:lll4lfctT
"l1'1fct> msr n 'fit" f.ti :
(I) I
(2) 'l1ffif -q lJ'URi:r m 1
(3) "' m q;r lfl" w
I
(4) q;r "fiORl

83. fcmR" lT 4RUII"' amufu:r fmmfi
ari'WT"'" lT 'Q'f
JW!If>ICfi
(1) "fllW -w:rur
(2)
(3)
(4)

-q q;r
fimul q


' ,
(41} p
84. The content of Social Science should 84. fcmR <liT
aimat
(1) making students familiar with
happenings in the world around.
(2) raising students awareness
through critically exploring and
questioning of familiar social
reality.
(3) inculcating nationalism m
students.
(4) imparting knowledge. about
developed countries.
85. In a pluralistic society like ours, it is
important that textbooks should be
such that
(1) they reflect government views to
make children a good citizen.
(2) controversial issues are avoided.
(3) all regions and social groups be
able to relate to them.
(4) different textbooks are available
for different regions.
86. According to NCF 2005, the aim of
education in Social Science should be
enable student to
(1) Criticise political decisions
(2) Analyse socio-political reality
(3) Retention of information on socio-
political situation in the country
(4) Present knowledge about socio
political principles in a lucid and
concise way so that students
remember them easily:
(1) <tiT m-er -q m qrffi
<.RCil<rr I
(2) <tiT fll'"llf"lct> CfiT
3l1Mlil'11i""lCf> '3"1' -qr w-1
'30l'Cf>\ "11'1 Cf> ORT<IT I
(3) ll {I "?1 <m I qft 'qJCRT 'Cf>T fcrci;rn
I
(4) fqCf>f*!ct m 0Tit ll "lHCf>l'l.l

85. fttftt!Qril'{"l
l -g1;ft
(1)
<tiT
'Cf>tl
(2) fc:tc:ufc;ct 'i! w 1
(3) &rn fll'"llf"l<t> w CfiT &Rt

(4) 31WT-31WT &rn 31WT-31WT

86. 2005, ftl'ilfJtCf)
f<mR .q. mam?.1<1T q;y
f.:t"'if<"\f&ri .q. " fucr

(1) '(1"14Rlct> Rut<:IT
(2) 'HI'"llf"1Cfl-{1'>14foct> Cli'RlfCICflctl CfiT
fc:t<-itifol
(3) em- fli'"llf"lct>-m4foCfl W1fu

(4) <1"1-lfo<t> cr fll'"llf"l<t> f*!Olil'fi'i
-q m'1' <tiT fl {("'ct'"l fclfu m:qct' 'Cf>r-11'

I
p
87. The Civil Rights Movement was
started in the U.S.A. to
. (I) ' demand for fundamental fights for
African-Americans.
(2) demand for equal fights and end
to racial discrimination.
(3) demand for voting rights for
women.
(4) demand for social security for old.
88. How a Chief Minister is chosen ?
(1) By the President of the party
which has got majority in the
election.
(2) By the MiA's of the party which
has got majority in the election.
(3) By the President of India on the .
advice of the Prime Minister.
(4) By the President of India on the
recommendation of the Governor.
89. Which of the following s_!Iows gender
stereotyping ?
(I) Girls are more talented than boys.
(2) Girls can do only household
works.
(3) Girls can do all type of works
which a boy can do.
(4) Girls should get equal opportunity
as boys ..
90. In a democracy the media plays a very
important role in
(I) providing news and discussing
events taking place in the country
and the world.
(2) advertising goods so that. people
can buy goods of their choice.
(3) telecasting cricket events so that
people can watch sitting at home.
(4) providing many types of
entertainment materials.
(42)
87. lf.ll. .-q atl><itM

(1)
C!ft l=ITrf I
(2) w:rR q;f WW<f
coR C!ft l=ITrf I
(3) C!ft l=ITrr

(4) ftl"''lf"1Cfi C!ft l=ITrr

88. '!t.O!Oioi:ft CfiT Tf'1<' ?
(I) -q m1<f coR qrffi "t11iT

(2) -q m1<f coR qrffi "t11iT *"

(3)
am
(4) -rrcRr C!ft 1lr
am
89. f-1Af<"tfuil'1 -q "Cflt.:r-m fMIf!_("'Cfl

{1)
{2) M:SfCfl<li tR "Cfi\

(3) M:SfCfl<li 6-f m q;r<:jl em q;r t
I
(4) M:sfct><il em *" WTR arc:rw
f-iwR-1
90. -q "if''\'i4'{ul
f.:rlmft ..
(I) 31ft mm- *" ;;nt -q B
afu- qrffi 1lr "'tfClt
Cf>R"Jf I
(2) <rni* q;r coR -q ffiTT
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(3) q;r q;r-:rr
I
( 4) fcTfl:R wm *" "'1'11("1'1 C!ft
q;r-:rr I
(43)
.
Candidates should answer questions
from the following Part only if they
have opted for ENGLISH as
LANGUAGE- I .
. dfH
&?ctM - I cpr
fq ah)\tfi TfiT m I
p
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(44)
PART-IV
LANGUAGE-I
ENGLISH
Directions : Read the given passage and
answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 91 to
99) by selecting the most appropriate option :
Renowned educationalist Sir Tim
Brighouse, observed that an outstanding school
has four factors that are visible. "Teachers talk
about teaching, teachers observe each other's
practice, teachers plan, organize and evaluate
their work together rather than separately, and
that teachers teach each other."
He continues : "One of the reasons I like
that is that you can immediately see ways in
which you could make it more likely that
teachers talk about teaching."
Sir Tim then encouraged schools to focus on
activities .that were low effort but high impact,
describing them as "butterflies". Some
. examples he gave included rotating staff
meetings around different classrooms with the
host, at the start, describing the room layout
and displays, or discussing other teaching
techniques and approaches. With modem
technology teachers could observe their own.
lessons and then. when viewing them back,
decide whether they want to shar:e them with a
mentor.
The role of mentoring was vital and
suggested that more schools could send
teachers out in small groups to learn from
colleagues in other schools.
He said : "If this were widespread
practice, if people were to attend to their
butterflies, the outcome in terms of teacher
morale and teacher satisfaction would be
positive. We all agree that professional
development is the vital ingredient".
91. In the mode suggested by Sir Tim,
teachers may self-evaluate and self-
reflect
(1) using technology
(2) without technology
(3) through a students' survey
(4) interviewing each other
92. 'Teachers talk about teaching' means
that they
(1) make some suggestions
(2) discuss their own practices
(3) criticize one another
(4) freely change opinions
93. 'Low effort but high impact' in this
contextimplies that schools
( 1) pay teachers a lower salary
(2) extract more work for the same
pay
(3) decrease the work load and salary
(4) create opportunities within the
system for development
94. In this extract, it is observed that
technology supports teachers to
(1) improve students
(2) conduct meetings for teachers
(3) follow-up/remediation activities
for students.
( 4) self-diagnose their practices
95. Here, 'visible' means
(1) seen (2) obvious
(3) (4) bright
96.
97.
98.
'Rotating staff. meetings in the class
rooms' permits teachers to
(1) be informal with each other
(2) miss some of them
(3) share their own practices with
others
(4) keep busy all the time
A synonym for the word,
'counselling', from.the passage is
( 1) describing
(3) discussing
(2) mentoring
( 4) teaching
The talk by Sir Tim is about the
( 1) teachers who dress like butterflies.
(2) visiting schools to socialise.
(3) knowledge teachers gain for job
growth.
(4) schools who control their
teachers.
99. "Butterflies" here refer to
( 1) the dress code
(2) a practice of staff interaction
(3) changing schools
(4) going to classes in rotation
Directions : Read the given poem and answer
the questions that follow (Q .. Nos. 100 to 105)
by selecting the most appropriate option :
As I Watch You Grow
Do you know how much you m ~ n to me?
As you grow into what you will be.
You came from within, from just beneath my
heart
It's there you'll always be though your own
life will now start.
(45)
. You're growing so fast it sends me a whirl,
With misty eyes I ask, Where's my little girl?
I know sometimes to you I seem harsh and so
unfair,
But ope day you will see, I taught you well
because I care.
The next few years will so quickly fly,
With laughter and joy, mixed with a few tears
to cry.
As you begin your growth to womanhood, this
fact you must know,
You'll always be my source of pride, no matter
where you go.
You must stand up tall and proud, within you
feel no fear, .
For all you dreams and goals, sit before you
very near.
With God's love in your heart and the world by
its tail,
You'll always be my winner, and victory will
prevail.
For you this poem was written, with help from
above,
To tell you in a rhythm of your Mother's
heartfelt love !
KayTheese
100. 'Do you know how much you mean to
me ?' is a question.
(1) rhetorical (2) restrictive
(3) convergent (4) divergent
101. An antonym for the word 'harsh' is
(1) severe (2) mild
(3) gr1m (4) clashing
102. In the expression 'It sends me a
whirl', 'it' refers to
(1) travelling far
(2) growing up
(3) new experiences
(4) the real world
p
p
103. . To s t a ~ d up tall' is
(I) growing up healthy .
(2) be taillike the boys
(3) being fearless
(4) getting ambitious
104. The phrase 'the world by its tail'
means to
(1) be a good follower
(2) overcome challenges
(3) face one's enemies
(4) to avoid challenges
105. The poem addresses a
(I) friend
(3) mother
(2) daughter
(4) girl
Directions : Answer the following questions
by selecting the most appropriate option :
106. A person sitting behind you in a
cinema starts talking on the mobile
phone and you want to tell him/her to
stop. Choose how you will make the
request.
{1) "Stop talking so loudly !"
(2) "Please don't use the mobile
phone inside the theatre."
(3) "<;::an't you not use the mobile
phone; please ?"
(4) "Could you possibly stop usmg
the mobile phone here ?"
(46)
. 107. Exemplar for homonym would be
(1) aisle/isle
(2) beer/bear
(3) stale/stall
(4) stock/stoke
108. Which is a lexical word?
(1) love (2) IS
(3) the (4) might
109. While learning about the passive voice
form, students learn about
(I) use of'by'
(2) position of verbs
(3) position of nouns
(4) use of verb form
110. Students can leave the school
premises at 12.30 pm.
Students ought to leave the school
premises at 12.30 pm.
The two given statements can be
differentiated by drawing students'
attention to the
( 1) differences in the arrangement of
words
(2) meaning conveyed by the
modals/verb modifiers
(3) the roles of the subject and object
in both sentences
(4) absence of change in the verb
,form
111. Which learning domain constitutes
higher order thinking ?
(1) remembering
(2) understanding
(3) application
(4) evaluation
112. The process of word formation
consists of
(1) compounding and\ affixes
(2) opposites and meaning
(3) verbs and nouns
(4) using synonyms or euphemisms
113. When reading, to 'decode' means to
(1) an action used in ICT
(2) solving a complex puzzle
(3) to analyse and understand
(4) understanding a foreign language
114. Speaker 1 :'We had an enjoyable
hOliday this winter.
Speaker 2 Where did you go ?
Speaker 1 Where ?
Speaker 2 Yes, which place did you
visit?
During the assessment of students'
speaking-listening skiDs; mark/s
would be deducted during this
exchange for
(1) Speaker!
. (3) Both
(2) Speaker II
(4} Neither
(47) p
115. While writing, 'ellipses' is a
(1) phrasal verbs
(2) semantic linker
(3) adjectival form
(4) prepositional phrase
116. If a longer piece of writing is brief,
complete, in the third person, without
digressions and emotional overtones
and logically arranged, it is a
( 1) classified advertisement
(2) memorandum
(3) report
(4) newspaper article
117. The politician had been making
promises long before election time. The
statement is in the tense.
(1) past continuous
(2) present perfect
(3) present perfect continuous
(4) past perfect continuous
118. 'Gender sensitization' in the school
curriculum implies
(1) children should be differentiated
as boys and girls
(2) sex education from primary
school onwards
(3) respectful approach towards
defining gender roles
(4) promote co-education m high
school.
119. Identify where the collective form is
an error: A
(1) host of angels
(2) congress of baboons
(3) clutch of ducks
(4) shoal offish
120. An exemplar of a question to 'funnel'
or restrict a respondent's answer is
(1) "What do you think ~ the
weather?"
(2) "How many books are there ?"
(3) "Tell me about your most recent
holiday."
( 4) "What are your goals ?"
p
(48)
Candidates should answer questions
from the following Part only if they
have opted for HJND I as
LANGUAGE- I.
<qJTT a=tH
4?01c?f - I Cf;f
m- 1
f.roT : 11\( -rrom cnT "3"Rm



m ? " w i'\"lif1il;; ;;:ff "ffi;:iT m
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fffiiD m- mtf> fcp ;;ft-q., <!ft
fum 'l>T mr t 1 fiR" <rr. '>IT llR 'ff.:rr
fc!; m % 1
1 1
(49)
'ql1'f- IV


92.
(1)
tl
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.(3)

(4)
I
t fcp cf; Wl
cnT m-ffi 'l>T fcrcf;m t I m<fT rt fi<IT .
93.
..
(1) I
I
;;;or trl1 "lR fc!; qft;,_qft;, m qft;,_qft;,
m WcNr cf>wr -s:m t? -q
-q qft;,_qft;, -m m<IT rt t?
""lf." fcp "11-"11 -q 3lT"lT %
I
fcp q(\ <FIT t ? .'IK"ii <FIT t ? afu-
qft;, -m fi<:IT cnr -wR

..
(2) cnT c);cwr 31W t.:rr I
(4) -q fi<:IT cpl.l!4ifi!(1

94.
(2) cnT cf; 31!K

(3) C!ft Wffif &lllffi:m, cnT
I .
(4) 1
ll futm cnr Cfft;{_m ftr;affi
t?
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tl
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t ?' 1l QgiiR' fit;qr lfiT <mn

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(50)
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qft t? .
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l1' ctt n.RTm cfi

(1) q;f w:ft WW <tft
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(3) q;r
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-qr ;;mrr 1
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lr
(1) q;f 3ltR

(2)
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lfRff t?
(1) fCI:iJO!ofi c6" fcmR 3l)r Clft;r "# m
h
(2)
(3)

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croR 31WT "# I a:rrq
iiflfur -3N-IT I
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I
(1)
(2).
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119. 'q11U-fmtur tl t
( 1) lTR<P -qr om
. (2) Mact!Cll<fl <;_!lzCfJJU(
(3) fcmq 3ll<il:t<tCfi<11 CITR

(4)
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(1) ll fcmq

(2) atq, t-f q;r "!l'm1

(3) 3lk -w:rra:rr q;r

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(53)
Candidates should answer .. questions
from the following Part only if they
have opted for ENGLISH as
. LANGUAGE- II.
wm- cqrrr ct ct dfl{
cf5ctM 1"11tSII - II Cf5T
ai!lztt TfiT m- 1 ,:f<F; r:
.
p
p
(54)
PART-V
LANGUAGE-II
ENGLISH
Directions : Read the given passage and
answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 121
to 129) by selecting the most appropriate
option:
Raja Ravi Verma was the Indian King
and painter whose paintings . brought a
momentous turn in Indian art. His works on
great Indian epics Ramayana and Mahabharata
brought the omnipresent deities to the
surroundings of earthy world. This showed
, excellent fusion of Indian traditional art with
European realism. These paintings influenced
future generation artists and also influenced the
literature and films. His representation of
mythological characters has become a part of
the Indian imagination of the Classics. His style
is criticized for being too gaudy and
sentimental.
Ravi Verma was born on April.29th, 1848 in
Kilimanoor Palace in Kerala. Ravi Verma was
brought up in an environment of "art and
culture. At the age of seven he started painting
the figures of animals, acts and scenes from
daily life on the wall with charcoal. As he grew
up, he was exposed to the famous paintings of
Italian painters. Here he was using indigenous
paints made from leaves, flowers. He enhanced
his creativity by listening to the music of
veterans, watching Kathakali, a folk dance
form, going through the manuscripts preserved
in ancient families and listening to the artistic
interpretation of the epics.
Raja Ravi Verma is most remembered for his
paintings of bea_utifully sari-clad worrien, who
were depicted as graceful and shapely.
121. The themes of Ravi Verma's famous
paintings were
(1) deities
(2) animals and habitats
(3) natural scenery
(4) female figures
122. He was especially able ro access
historical documents in the possession
of
(1) national museums that curate
them
(2) certain individuals
{3) families who inherited them
(4) his family members in Kilimanoor
123. As he matured in his craft, Ravi
Verma'sskills were influenced by
( 1) Italian artists
(2) Indian cinema
(3) Ancient manuscripts
(4) None of these
124. 'His style is criticized for being too
gaudy and sentimental' means that his
work was characterized by
(1) pale colours and sad atmosphere
(2) unrealistic images
(3) lacking intellectual and emotional
depth
(4) strong colours and emotionally
appealing
125. In the extract, 'artistic interpretation of
the epics' means he was interested in
(1) popular writing of his time.
(2) . untque rendering of old
mythologies.
(3) standard interpretation of the
Indian epics.
(4) unusual and rare myths found in
legends.
126. Find a word in the passage which is
the opposite of 'minimized'
( 1) influenced (2) criticized
(3) .exposed (4) enhanced
127. The article is alan
(1) fiction
(2) essay
(3) biography
(4) autobiography
128. The focus is on the subject's
association with
(1) sculpture
(2) painting
(3) music
(4) dance (Kathakali)
129. A synonym for 'omnipresent' is
(1) conspicuous
(2) . universal
(3) . partly invisible
(4) magnificent
(55)
Directions : Read the given passage and
answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 130
to 135) by selecting the most appropriate
option:
The scene presented by a community of bees is
the more astonishing, the more we become
acquainted with its details. Each hive is a
commonwealth, of which the queen is
nominally the head, receiving the greatest
honour and care from her industrious subjects.
With a greater wisdom than can be claimed by
men, these creatures allow no disputes about
the succession to the throne to induce them to
injure each other; but they require the parties
themselves individually to settle the . quarrel
between each other, without prolonged
interference with the duties of the hive. Indeed,
they may be said with truth to have adopted the
advice : "Let those who make the quarrels, be
the only ones to fight."
Only one queen is permitted to hold office in
the community at a time; but while herclaims
are undisputed, she is treated with singular
respect and affection. Indeed, her presence, and
the prospy_ct of a future generation, appear the
chief motives of the insects to exert
i . i ~ E .IT>.)
themselves.
130. The writer's observation that the bees
'settle the quarrel between each other,
without prolonged interference with the
duties of the hive' suggests that he/she
is
., .. ''(i) pointing a bee character
(2) observing the traits of worker bees
(3) appreciating the queen bee
(4) condemning the behaviour of ill-
tempered human beings
p
p
131. 'The prospect of a future generation,'
suggests that the writer is in
his/her outlook.
(1) ambivalent
(2) nationalistic
(3) sympathetic
(4) appreciative
132. 'The parties' in this context means
(1) participants
(2) political organisation
(3) individuals
(4) bees
133. The queen bee has a position which
gives her from her
subordinates.
(1) disregard but affection
(2) aggressive defensiveness
(3) exceptional reverence and
devotion
(4) caring support and indulgence
134. 'To exert themselves' means the bees
are
(1) having influence
(2) quite aggressive
(3) busy toiling
(4) very exhausted
135. 'Each hive is a commonwealth ' means
the hive is
(1) over-crowded
(2) has a queen
(3) self-governing
(4) without a leader
(56)
Directions: Select the most appropriate option
(Q. Nos. 136 to 150) :
136. Compounding is
(1) stringing together older words like
the formation of earthquake from
earth and quake.
(2) removing seeming affixes from
existing words, such as forming
edit from editor.
(3) joining parts of two or more older
words, such as forming smog,
which comes from smoke and fog.
(4) forming new words from existing
ones by adding affixes to them,
like shame + less + ness -+
shamelessness
137. Constructivism is a theory where
students
(1) study a variety of dissimilar
samples and draw a well founded
conclusion.
(2) form their own understanding and
knowledge of the world, through
experiencing things and reflecting
on those experiences.
(3) are facilitated by the teacher and
use a variety of media to research
and create their own theories.
(4) construct their own learning aids,
thereby gaining hands-on
experience.
138. E-learning refers to
(1) acquisition of the mother tongue
(2) learning English language as the
first language.
(3) use of electronic media and
information and communication
technologies
(4) a language course for foreign
languages
139. Examples of irregular verbs are
(1) break - broke
(2) train - trainer
(3) walk - walked
(4) happy - happier
140. A subject-centered approach is where
learning experiences are organized
around
( 1) students' interests
(2) teacher's subject competency
(3) course content
(4) educational technology
141. Standardized assessment means
___ assessment.
(1) formative (2)
(3) frequent (4)
summative
alternative
142. In the word 'flower', the phonetic
transcription is
(1) /fleur/ (2) /fl::eur/
(3) /flauer/ (4) /flour/
143. The Gathering skill while reading is
( 1) note-taking
(2) note-making
(3) puzzling out
(4) analysis
144. Multiple choice items consist of a
( 1) set of questions
(2) options to choose questions
(3) sequence of grammatical errors
( 4) stem and a set of options
145. Abilities for adaptive and positive
behaviour that enable students to delll
effectively with everyday demands
and challenges are
( 1) multiple inti::lligences
(2) learning domains
(3) life skills
(4) learning methods
(57)
146. A self-contained unit of a discourse in
writing dealing with a particular point
or idea is
(1) an essay
(2) a poem
(3) a paragraph
(4) a statement
147. The following is a conditional sentence
(1) I have to go to work.
(2) lfthe sea is stormy, the waves are
high.
(3) Shut the door.
(4) It's a sunny day, isn't it?
148. Communication technology that
enable sharing of educational
resources within an institution
(1) internet
(2) intranet
(3) telephone
(4) audio-video cassette
149. Encouraging the student to love the
world and to imagine a peaceful
future; and caring for the student and
encouraging the student to care for
others is education.
( 1) distance
(2) academic
(3) values
(4) vocational
150. A communication technique that
requires the listener to feed back what
they have heard in their own words, to
confirm the understanding of both
parties, is listening.
(1) active
(2) appreciative

(3) informative
(4) passtve
p
p
'
Candidates should answer questions
from the following Part only if they
have opted for HINDI as
LANGUi\GE- II.
ct ct atH
\UtH - II Cffi
TfiT m I .
m : ;ft'<f "111{ -rmm q;1 m

qft 'W'RT

'I1U WT'I'Cf mm t $t an ;;m:rr t 1
q;f f;ro' Tfifrr

3fu" WFIT .q OR1GRT m 1
foRT cmur <rr fq;r
ClllfdfCI<t> qft qm;qf-!Cf>" cmur *
,.
am m;IT $t t.rr.
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t
TR'10 Cfilli qft t I

am fu<t>rr ttt "'l"ff t 1 mH

q;Jt ffl, .q
OW <fiT '4'ilT fi::rffirr t I 3N-'ft '4J qft ll


t 1
1R 3l'I1TCiJ"
3fu" mt(f OR "ffif t 3fu"
q;f CfiRUIT &o ttl=rr t I
(59)
cqyrr_v


121. <t>4-il" m 'Q"''" 3RT?.f
. 'CfR'fft?
(1) I
(2) I
(3) I
(4) I
122.
. ..
(1) .q $t, 3fu"
rr.ft" I
(2) q;f 'qlCf w
I
(3) CfiRUIT w iT

(4) I
123. .qr ctT .q t1 m <fiT

( 1) '41 liT9' "Cf>ft -miT
tJ
(2) '41 iT "Cf>ft
-mftt I
(3) I
(4) 1
124. f1Fr
. t?
(1) 3l'I1TCiJ"
(2)
(3)
(4) 3l1Wt,
p
p
12s.
(1) -;fur
(2)
(3)
(4) .
126. f<l!ll"'UI vroxrt
(1) M
(2)
(3) w-1
(4)
121. <fl an<fiQCfi m mn:r ertt

(1)
(2) 1
(3) I
(4) I
128. # ftTo:rr %m q;mJT
Cl'ir-IT
(1) :
(2) I
(3) I
(4)


<!R' wR .*" Wl-Wl .wmt .qr t,
cm1l<114 .qr t m co1

lfti C4111l<114 t I wR cf>
.q't I off.& c);- 11m Cffi" f;R:ffi
.. em- wiT rt omU q;r f-1Cfli<1Cfl< fi q;f
(60).
tfT %-, om 1't oml Wf t I <\T Cfif"f
t fcn wr-f c:nT w-rr 9 fcn

em 1 C!'lR co1 omr 'l:2iR

wr-f co1 q;c;rr mm "'T -m 1 wl
OffiRf t fcn t, oiffi >!fuw11
I wiT O!TI"1l-q' "l1f-1 Wf
it 1 ;m;ncrr wr-f
cf> ofRr "1Hct>Hi,
w-1 .q't J:I'I11Cf I
129. artnti'tl<-114 #<t<IT
(1) 'IWlUT -q: t, C41111<114 -q:
t.l
(2) 'IWlUT mm-, C4111l<114
1
(3) 'IWlUT -q: mm- C4111l<114
llwr.rr 1
(4) 'IWlUT mm- t C4111l<:114 mm-

130. qft;;.m m<:r
'CfmiTt?
(1)

(2) "1HCf>Hl
(3)
(4)

131. ql\f<l'{ul t?
(1) Wf1T
(f)
(3)
(4)
132. I'
C{lCF.I't
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
133. oT amtom ___ t I C{1CF.I'
134.
amrrrr
(1)
(3)
(2)
(4)

(1)
'T'f+w
'(2)

(3) 'T'f+31P$
(4) 3lT+W
135. 'Cf>t.f-m .-

( 1) q;r I
(2) 1
(3) fcrnm" q;f qtf -;;m:if t I
(4)

136. -qo;:r arl''!Umf t
(1)
(2) q;f 1WIT
(3)
(4)
p
137; qft ll

(1)
c2) p:llf"'' Cf) .mr trr
(3)
(4)
138.
(1)
(2)
(3) * * OR

(4) -}ffi;-mo 1
139.
(1) I
(2) 'I1J1SIT -a-1 q R 4Cf<:1111 q;f t I
(3) I
( 4) , Cli't q;t:fi em t I
140.
"Cf>r.tT t?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
141. * cnl qft

( 1) * ll I
(2) -q<ffi' m11ri't ll "'Rl I
(3) I
(4) I
p
.(62)
142. 146.
c); fi;nrm II
(1) I
(1) 1:fOOur
(2)
I
(2) Cfft m Cfft &l11ffi" (3)
(3) c);1:f00ur
(4)
(4)
Cfft
147. ll anqcl;fi;nr ql\'i4\{u\ t
143. cf> # 'Cfit.:r-m
(1) mr 1
t?
(2)
(1) q;fu;,
(3) mr 1
"CflT WlT I
(4) fcR:mr I
(2)

dt3tFRHl<l t-m-r "CflT -w:Wr
148. w Cfit.:r m


(3) <l ft:Ri1T 'CflT
(1) R;;ft *" amTR' "Cf)f
Wll"!RT. I
-w:WT I
,,.
(4) 1Ml1 Cfft ftrffi<r cf>
(2) *" 'CflT Cfft &l11ffi" "Cf)f
W<n c); 3l;;f.:f'cf> ffi?:

<'111'1161{01 t 1.
(3) <:11<t>1fCffi<i'i 3ltt "Cf)f
-w:Wr Cfft Wifu
"Cf)f
144. Cfft ll 3fCiim" 1Ffi" :riCfi\'<1'11 I

<RW m cf> fi;rQ- atMTT-3Will cf>
(4) q;fu;, I

(1) I
149.
--
c); f"'"'1f<"'f&(1 410C4sM
"
(2) Cfft Cfft "11'1CfiR'l
'tWII+il fit><OIICfiMIQ ll 't1l\14<fi


(1)

(3)

(2)
(4) fOOur 'CflT 3lfuCfi' cr &FR11'11'{ul
(3) 'll'IOl 'CflT
GR'Rcf;Wro: I
(4) 7ftff
145. 'f.SfoJ iNl<W <tif''tiotu fct;ri t ?
150.
(1) 'QO"f-3WlffiT
(1) Gl<"''{ciCfi I
(2)
(2) I
(3) TfURT 3WlffiT (3) qrq.f 3l'l<l'rn I
(4) <ITffi 3WlffiT (4) TJlllfu' I
(63)
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
l l l i ~ c f r ~ ~
p
(64)
READ CAREFULLY THE FOLLOWING
f"1'"1f&tf&l'1
INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Out of the four alternatives for each question, only 1.
one circle for the correct answer is to be darkened
OMR
completely with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen on Side-2
ofu;r 1
of the OMRAnswer Sheet. The answer once marked
is not liable to be changed.
ore:ffi i I
2. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet
2. . '!jf1filili1
is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
liT CfiTt 3A f.rnR ::r wrr(t I 3iilfi4i'li
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere
else except in the specified space in the Answer Sheet.
I
3. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care,
3. m '1:i "'liT wWr 'fit,
as under no circumstances (except for discrepancy
fcnit '111 .q '1:i *"
in Test Booklet Code or Number and Answer Sheet
<rr .q f1Rm llfu:rr
Code or Number), another set will be provided.
4. The candidates will write the correct Test Booklet
I
Code and Number as given in the Test Booklet I
4.
Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
1
5. Candidates are not .allowed to carry any textual
-
material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, 5. m fucrr<r fcnit
- -

mobile phone, electronic device or any other material

except the Admit Ca:rd inside the examination hall/
.aA m
I
room.
6. Each candidate must show on demand his I her
;;;r;t <rr q;B t 1
Admission Card to the Invigilator.
6. ;;;r;t :oN-IT

7. No candidate, without special permission of the


Superintendent or In vigilator, should leave his I her 2

-
7.
seat.
8. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall
::f Wit I
without handing over their Answer Sheet to the
8. '1:i f.Rr
Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet
I
twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the
Attendance Sheet a second time will be deemed not fcnit ;f mr
to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt

with as an unfair means case: The candidates are
ml:Ff "'liT lWW!T 11RT 1 aw.r
also required to put their left hand THUMB
impression in the space provided in the Attendance OI'Tifw.r f.:mR tl fur
Sheet.

9. Use ofElectronic I Manual Calculator is prohibited.
I 4R<t><"''li i I 9.
10. The candidates are govem<?d by all Rules and
Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct
10.

in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will
f.1qfl:R; t 1 *.00 llfl'l<'ij "'liT
b.e dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the
1
Board.
il. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall
11. #. "'liT Cfi!t'l11lT .3WI1T
be detached under any circumstances. ::r'Cfit I
12. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand
12. . lf lfi
over the Answer Sheet to the Irivigilator in the
mt C6T 1 mfm'P.fl
Room I Hall. The candidates are allowed to take
away this Test Booklet with them. mer PI Wli1T <M ;;rr wri t 1
p