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An inflammatory response characterised by chills, tachycardia, syncope and flushing of the face and trunk following rapid
bolus administration of vancomycin is termed as:
A. Red neck syndrome
B. Anaphylactic reaction
C. Rabit syndrome
D. Idiosyncrasy Copyright@
Answer Key
2. Cyclobenzaprine is a:
A. Anticancer drug
B. Skeletal muscle relaxant
C. Antithyroid drug
D. Antiepileptic drug
Answer Key
3. Therapeutic serum drug level of theophylline is:
A. 0.8 to 2 ng/mL Copyright@
B. 0.8 to 1.2 meq/dL
C. 5 to 20 g/mL
D. 50 to 100 g/mL
Answer Key
4. Aspirin should not be given to children or adolescents with viral diseases specially in varicella and influenza because of its
association with :
A. Reyes syndromeCopyright@
B. Retts Syndrme
C. Anphylactic reaction
D. Hepatotoxicity
Answer Key
5. Which one of the following listed drugs has the highest potential for postural hypotension:
A. Haloperidol
B. Loxapine
C. Trifluoperazine
D. Chlorpromazine
Answer Key
6. What is the usual antidepressant dose of fluoxetine:
A. 50-300 mg
B. 75 to 200 mg Copyright@
C. 20-80 mg
D. 150-600 mg
Answer Key
7. The basic pharmacologic action of nitrates is to:
A. Decrease venous tone
B. Reducing blood return
C. Dilation of normal and stenotic epicardial coronary arteries
D. All of the above
Answer Key
8. Which one of the following listed drugs is not a calcium channel blocking drug:
A. Diltiazem
B. Nifidipine
C. Propranolol Copyright@
D. Verapramil
Answer Key
9. The major difference between cardiovascular effects dopamine and those of dobutamine are related to:
A. Dopamines ability to elicit systemic vasoconstriction owing to more potent activation of -receptors
B. Dobutamines ineffective for stimulation of -receptors
C. Dopamines ability to stimulate -receptors
D. None of the above Copyright@
Answer Key
10. Lidocaine is given either intravenously or intramuscularly because:
A. The drug undergoes 90% first-pass hepatic metabolism
B. The drug causes severe gastric irritation
C. The drug is inactivated by gastric acid
D. The drug causes severe nausea and vomiting
Answer Key
11. Flecainide is a
A. Class III antiarrythmic drug
B. Antiplatelet aggregator
C. Class IC Antiarrythmic drug
D. Antihypertensive drug
Answer Key
12. Hemodynamically stable patients with supraventricular tachycardia, who are not responding to vagal manoeuvres can be
treated with:
A. Amiadorone 800-1200 mg/day
B. Adenosine 3-13 mg
C. Lidocaine
D. Betablockers
Answer Key
13. Edrophonium chloride (Tensilon) is an:
A. Anticholinergic drug
B. Antihistaminic drug
C. Short-acting cholinesterase inhibitor
D. Antiparkinsonism drug
Answer Key
14. Adenosine has a elimination half life of
A. 1-2 days
B. 1-6 seconds
C. 4-6 hours
D. 8-12 hours
Answer Key
15. The drug of choice in torsades de pointes is:
A. Lignocaine
B. Procainamide
C. Bretlium
D. Magnesium Sulphate
Answer Key
16. The goal of the heparin therapy in a patient with pulmonary embolism is to prolong the activated partial thromboplastin
time (aPTT) to;
A. 2 to 3 times the control
B. 1 -2 times the control
C. To keep same as control
D. To keep 1 times below the control
Answer Key
17. Over dosage of heparin is treated with:
A. Warfarin
B. Protamine sulphate 50 mg given IV over 10 minutes
C. Ethamsylate
D. Vitamin K1
Answer Key
18. Aspirin, NSAIDs, and acetaminophen can act by:
A. inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins.
B. increasing the production of prostaglandins.
C. activating the cyclooxygenase enzymes.
D. releasing histaine from the mast cells and basophils.
Answer Key
19. Contraindications to aspirin include:
A. peptic ulcer disease and GI bleeding
B. history of hypersensitivity reactions
C. impaired renal function.
D. All of the above
Answer Key
20. Which of the following NSAIDs is a propionic acid derivative:
A. ibuprofen
B. diclofenac
C. mephanamic acid
D. indomethacin
Answer Key

Answer Key
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5.D 6. C 7. D 8. C 9.A 10. A
11. C 12.B 13. C 14. B 15.D 16. B 17. B 18. A 19. D 20. A

1. Anaphylactic shock or IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reactions are:
A. Type I reactions Copyright@
B. Type II reactions.
C. Type III reactions.
D. Type IV reactions.
Answer Key
2. Among the listed drugs, which has the shortest biological half-life;
A. Adenosine
B. Dobutamine
C. Benzylpenicillin
D. Amoxycillin
Answer Key
3. Which of the following listed drug has the longest biological half-life;
A. Diazepam
B. Lorazepam
C. Midazolam
D. Clonazepam Copyright@
Answer Key
4. When a drug is given at a constant rate, the generally accepted time to reach steady state (plateau) is:
A. 1 plasma half-life
B. 2 plasma half-life
C. 3 plasma half-life
D. 5 plasma half-life
Answer Key
5. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) activity is important to the integrity of the:
A. red blood cells
B. white blood cells
C. platelets
D. mast cells
Answer Key
6. Drugs that carry a possible risk of hemolysis in some G6PD deficient individuals include:
A. aspirin
B. menadione
C. quinidine
D. all of the above
Answer Key
7. Asthmatic attacks can be precipitated by:
A. sympathomimetics.
B. digitalis glycosides
C. beta-adrenoceptor blockers.
D. aminoglycoside antibiotics.
Answer Key
8. Lithium toxicity may result when:
A. a thiazide diuretic is co-administered.
B. there is sodium depletion.
C. there is dehydration
D. in all of the above situations.
Answer Key
9. A type A adverse reaction is also called:
A. Augmented reactions
B. Bizarre reactions
C. Chronic reactions
D. Delayed effects
Answer Key
10. Type II allergic/hypersensitivity reactions are also called:
A. immediate or anaphylactic type.
B. antibody-dependent cytotoxic type.
C. immune complex-mediated type.
D. lymphocyte-mediated type.
Answer Key
11. Zero-order kinetics refers to:
A. The rates at which absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of a drug occur are directly proportional to its
concentration in the body.
B. Processes by which a constant amount of drug is transported/ metabolized in unit time irrespective of its concentration in the
C. The time in which the biological effect of a drug declines by one half. Copyright@
D. Presystemic elimination of the drug.
Answer Key
12. Salivation, lacrimation, abdominal cramps, urinary and fecal incontinence, vomiting, sweating, miosis and muscle
fasciculation are characteristics of:
A. Antimuscarinic syndromes
B. Cholinergic (muscarinic) syndromes
C. Sympathomimetic syndromes
D. None of the above .
Answer Key
13. Which is a gram negative bacteria:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Answer Key
14. Which is an anerobic bacteria:
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Neisseria meningitidis
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Answer Key
15. Ziehl-Neelsen staining is used to diagnose:
A. methicillinresistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection.
B. acid-fast tubercle bacilli infection.
C. Neisseria meningitidis infection.
D. Clostridium perfringens infection.
Answer Key

ANSWER KEY Copyright@
1. A 2. A 3. A 4.D 5. A
6. D 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. B
11. B 12. B 13. D 14. C 15. B

1. Aspirin, NSAIDs and acetaminophen act by
A. Inhibiting impulses to brain.
B. Inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins.
C. Competitively blocking the neuronal terminal
D. Releasing endorphin
Answer Key
2. Salicylate intoxication (salicylism) is characterized by the following symptoms, except
A. Nausea, vomiting, fever
B. Tinnitus, decreased hearing, visual changes
C. Fluid and electrolyte deficiencies
D. Hypoventilation Copyright@
Answer Key
3. Which of the following statements about Aspirin is TRUE?
A. Aspirin has no ototoxic characteristics
B. Aspirin is least likely to cause gastric irritation.
C. Aspirin should generally be avoided for 1 to 2 weeks before and after surgery
D. enteric-coated Aspirin (Ecospirin) should be chewed or crushed before swallowing.
Answer Key
4. Which of the following statements is WRONG about NSAIDs?
A. NSAIDs decrease effects of ACE inhibitors.
B. NSAIDs decrease antihypertensive effects
C. NSAIDs increase the risk of bleeding by prolonging the prothrombin time.
D. NSAIDs decrease the serum lithium levels
Answer Key
5. Which of the following drugs on overdose is known to cause liver failure;
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Piroxicam
D. Ketorelac Copyright@
Answer Key
6. Drugs that increase effects of indomethacin are all, EXCEPT:
A. Corticosteroids
B. Salicylates
C. Heparin
D. Antacids
Answer Key
7. Intravenous (IV) indomethacin is approved for treatment of:
A. Cardiogenic pain
B. Pain associated with gastritis
C. Patent ductus arteriosus in premature infants
D. Trigeminal neuralgia
Answer Key
8. The enzyme involved in the therapeutic action of NSAIDs is
A. Cyclo-oxygenase
B. Monoamine oxidase
C. Cytochrome
D. Lipocortin-1
Answer Key
9. A commonly used NSAID, Ibuprofen belongs to the subclass of
A. Salicylates
B. Pyrazolone derivatives
C, Indole derivatives
D. Prpionic acid derivatives
E. Oxicam derivatives
Answer Key
10. Which of the following agents is associated with high incidence of agrnulocytosis?
A. Phenylbutazone Copyright@
B. Phenylbutazone
C. Indomethacin
D. Mephanamic acid
Answer Key

ANSWER KEY Copyright@
1. C 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. A
6. D 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. A

1). The drug used in acetaminophen overdose is:
A. Physostigmine
B. Flumazenil
C. Acetyl salicylic acid
D. Acetylcysteine
Answer Key
2). The drug used as an antodote of anticholinergic poisoning is:
A. Atropine
B. Pyridoxine
C. Physostigmine
D. Deferoxamine
Answer Key
3). Protamine sulfate is administerd in overdose of:
A. Warfarin
B. Heparin
C. Anticholinergica
D. Insulin
Answer Key
4). Severe lead poisoning is treated with:
A. Succimer
B. Naloxone
C. Pyridoxine
D. Atropine
Answer Key
5). Vitamin K1 is administerd as an antidote for poisoning with:
A. Heparin
B. Warfarin
C. Diphenoxalate
D. Aminocaproic acid
Answer Key
6). Adult dose of naloxone in opioid posoning is:
A. IM 1 g q8h PRN
B. IV 50150 mcg/kg
C. PO 140 mg/kg
D. IV 0.42 mg PRN
Answer Key
7. Overdose of Benzodiazepines is treated wtih:
A. Flumazenil
B. N-Acetylcysteine
C. Physostigmine
D. Protamine
Answer Key
8). Deferoxamine is administered in overdose of:
A. Iron
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Digoxin
D. Beta blockers
Answer Key
9). Digibind is used as an antidote for poisoning due to:
A. Cholinergics
B. Atropine
C. Benzodiazepines
D. Digoxin
Answer Key
10). Isoniazid (INH) toxicity is treated with:
A. Pyridoxine
B. Atropine
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Aminocaproic acid
Answer Key
11). Lithum toxicity happens at serum lithium level of:
A. 0.8 mEq/L
B. >2 mEq/L
C. 0.6 mEq/L
D. >0.1 mEq/L
Answer Key
12). A therapeutic agent which is some times called the universal antidote:
A. Protamine sulphate
B. Glucose
C. Activated charcoal
D. Physostigmine
Answer Key
13). Idiosyncrasy refers to:
A. a fever associated with administration of a medication.
B. the ability of a substance to cause abnormal fetal development when taken by pregnant women.
C. the ability of a substance to cause cancer.
D. an unexpected reaction to a drug that occurs the first time it is given.
Answer Key
14). Drug-induced movement disorders may be treated with:
A. benzatropine
B. calcium gluconate
C. atropine
D. acetylcysteine
Answer Key
15). Penicillamine is administered as an antidote for poisoning with:
A. opioids
B. antimuscarinic drugs
C. carbon monoxide
D. copper, gold, lead and mercury
Answer Key

1. D 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. B
6. D 7. A 8. A 9. D 10. A
11. B 12. C 13. D 14. A 15. D

1. The penicillins act by : Copyright@
A. inhibition of protien synthesis
B. interfering with bacterial cell wall synthesis.
C. inhibition of neuclic acid synthesis
D. phagocytic action.
Answer Key
2. The most important side-effect of the penicillins is
A. gastrointestinal disturbances.
B. ototoxicity.
C. hypersensitivity reactions
D. hepatotoxicity.
Answer Key
3. A penicillin preparation which is suitable for oral administration is
A. Benzathine Penicillin
B. Benzylpenicillin
C. Procaine benzylpenicillin
D. Phenoxymethylpenicillin
Answer Key
4. Penicillinase-resistant penicillins include
A. benzylpenicillin
B. phenoxymethylpenicillin
C. cloxacillin
D. ampicillin Copyright@
Answer Key
5. Co-amoxiclav is a: Copyright@
A. penicillin-beta-lactamase inhibitor combinations
B. penicillin active against gram negative bacteria.
C. carbapenem group of antibiotic.
D. narrow spectrum penicillin.
Answer Key
6. Which statement about penicillins is FALSE
A. Penicillins cross CSF if the meninges are inflamed.
B. Benzylpenicillin is highly active against Streptococcus pneumoniae .
C. Procaine penicillin, given i.m. only.
D. penicillins do not cause neutropenia in high does given for longer than 10 days.
Answer Key
7. Which statement abot penicillins is TRUE
A. Penicillins on high doses cause convulsions.
B. Benzylpenicillin is not effective for infections due to normal strains of Neisseria meningitidis
C. Phenoxymethylpenicillin is not resistant to gastric acid.
D. Penicillins are not effective against normal strains of gram positive bacteria.
Answer Key
8. Identification of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in patients indicates:
A. the organisms are sensitive to flucloxacillin and cloxacillin
B. the organisms are sensitive to beta-lactam antibiotics
C. the organisns are resistant to flucloxacillin, cloxacillin, and other beta-lactam antibiotics
D. usual infection-control measures are satisfactory to manage the infections.
Answer Key
9. Which statement about ampicillin is FALSE:
A. Ampicillin cause diarrhoea on oral administration.
B. Ampicillin may cause maculopapular rashes
C. Amoxycillin is better absorbed from gut than ampicillin.
D. Ampicillin is a cephalosporin group of antibiotic.
Answer Key
10. Ureidopenicillins are: Copyright@
A. adapted from the ampicillin molecule, and effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. carboxypenicillins .
C. monobactam antibiotics.
D. beta-lactamase resistant penicillins.
Answer Key

ANSWER KEY Copyright@
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. A.
6. D 7. A 8. C 9. D 10. A

1. A 10-year-old boy with generalized tonic seizures is seen by his dentist at a routine checkup. The dentist observes that the
patient has an overgrowth of gum tissue.The patient was most likely receiving which of the following agents?
A. ethosuximide
B. clonazepam
C. primidone
D. phenytoin Copyright@
E. zonisamide
Answer Key
2. The metabolism of which AED frequently displays zero-order kinetics following moderate to high therapeutic doses?
A. Carbamazepine
B. Phenytoin
C. Valproic acid
D. Ethosuximide
E. Zonisamide
Answer Key
3. A 14-year-old patient is diagnosed with absence epilepsy. Any of the following drugs could be considered a reasonable choice
to prescribe EXCEPT
A. Ethosuximide
B. Phenobarbital
C. Carbamazepine
D. Valproic acid
Answer Key
4. Which of the following agent was first introduced for treatment of epilepsy?
A. Phenobarbital
B. Phenytoin
C. Carbamazepine
D. Valproic acid
E. Tiagabin Copyright@
Answer Key
5. Sodium Channel Blocking antiepileptic agents include, all EXCEPT
A. Phenytoin
B. Ccarbamazepine
C. Topiramate
D. Valproic acid
E. Diazepam
Answer Key
6. Adverse effects of carbamazepine include, all EXCEPT
A. Skin rashes
B. Drowsiness
C. Diplopia
D. Hair loss
Answer Key
7. The most serious adverse effect associated with valproic acid is:
A. Fatal hepatic failure
B. Gingival hyperplasia
C. Drowsiness Copyright@
D. Mood disorder
E. Dementia
Answer Key
8. Which AED is related to an increased incidence of neural tube defects in the fetus of mothers who received the drug during the
first trimester of pregnancy?
A. Diazepam
B. Phenytoin
C. Valproic acid
D. Gabapentin
E. Topiramate
Answer Key
9. Sodium valproate is contraindicated in
A. Tonic-clonic seizures
B. Partial sezures
C. Bipolar affective disorders
D. Hepatic dysfunction
Answer Key
10. Which of the following toxic side effect is related to use of topiramate?
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
C. Nephrolithiasis
D. Hepatotoxicity Copyright@
Answer Key
11. All are side effects of phenytoin, except:
A. Ataxia
B. Hypoglycemia=
C. Hirsuitism
D. Gum hypertrophy

ANSWER KEY Copyright@
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. E
6. D 7. A 8. C 9. D 10. C
11. B