The document contains 20 multiple choice questions about neuroanatomy and neuroscience. It tests knowledge about the limbic system, basal ganglia, neurotransmitters, brain structures like the hippocampus and amygdala, and neurological conditions like delirium and dementia. The key provided indicates the correct answers to each multiple choice question.
The document contains 20 multiple choice questions about neuroanatomy and neuroscience. It tests knowledge about the limbic system, basal ganglia, neurotransmitters, brain structures like the hippocampus and amygdala, and neurological conditions like delirium and dementia. The key provided indicates the correct answers to each multiple choice question.
The document contains 20 multiple choice questions about neuroanatomy and neuroscience. It tests knowledge about the limbic system, basal ganglia, neurotransmitters, brain structures like the hippocampus and amygdala, and neurological conditions like delirium and dementia. The key provided indicates the correct answers to each multiple choice question.
Limbic system includes all the following structures except:
A. Amygdala B. Hippocampal gyri C. anterior cingulate gyrus D. Basal ganglia Answer Key 2) Spaces between Schwann cells of neurons are called; A. Nodes of Ranvier B. Synapse C. Nissl Bodies D. ventricles Answer Key 3). Ribosomes of the nervous cells are called: A. Schwann Cells B. Nissl Bodies C. Nuclei D.Ganglia Answer Key 4). The term which refers to muscular hypertonicity with increased resistance to stress: A. Akinesia B. Ataxia C. Myoclonus D. Spasticity Answer Key 5). The three primary vesicles identified in the neural tube during the early stages of the development of the human brain are all except: A. Prosencephalon B. Diencephalon C. Mesencephalon D. Rhombencephalon Answer Key 6). The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the: A. Anterior parietal lobe B. Medial temporal lobe C. Prefrontal area D. Occipital lobe Answer Key 7). The structures which are components of the basal ganglia are all except: A. Caudate nucleus B. Amygdala C. Putamen D. Globus pallidus Answer Key 8). The hippocampus and the amygdala, which are components of the limbic system, are located: A. anterior parital lobe B. medial temporal lobe C. medial frontal lobe D. posterior parital lobe Answer Key 9). The opening which connects the third ventricle with the fourth ventricle in the pons and the medulla is called: ANSWER KEY A. The cerebral aqueduct B. The foramina of Monro C. The interventricular foramina D. Foramen of sylvius Answer Key 10). The largest portion of the diencephalon consists of: A. The Hypothalamus B. Epithalamus C. The thalamus D. Pons Answer Key 11). Brodmann's area 46 refers to: A. Primary motor cortex B. Primary auditory cortex C. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex D. Primary visual cortex Answer Key 12). The neuronal fibre bundles connecting opposite hemispheres are called: A. Association fibers B. Commissural fibers C. Afferent fibres D. Efferent fibres Answer Key 13. The brain area involved in receptive language functions that are localized to the left hemisphere is called: A. Wernicke's area B. Brocas area C. Cuadate Nucleus D. Hippocampus Answer Key 14. The cerebellum is located in the: A. Middle cranial fossa B. Posterior cranial fossa C. Anterior cranial fossa D. Cella tursica Answer Key 15. The brain regions which constitute the hippocampal formation are all except: A. Dentate gyrus B. Hippocampus C. Subicular complex D. Putamen Answer Key 16. The monoamines neurotransmitters are all the following except: A. Serotonin B. Norepinephrine C. Dopamine D. GABA Answer Key 17. Brain neurotransmitter serotonin is produced from: A. Raphe nuclei B. Substantia niagra C. locus ceruleus D. Amygdala Answer Key 18. Dopamine pathways in the brain include all except: A. Nigrostriatal pathway B. Mesocorticolimbic pathway C. Mesopontine complex D. Tuberohypophyseal pathway Answer Key 19. The catecholamines are synthesized from the amino acid: A. Alanine B. Tyrosine C. Taurine D. Glycine Answer Key 20. Which of the following neurotransmitters is NOT an amine: A. dopamine B. norepinephrine C. serotonin D. glutamate Answer Key
Answer Key 1. D 2.A 3.B 4.D 5.B 6.A 7. B 8. B 9.A 10.C 11. C 12. B 13. A 14. B 15.D 16. D 17.A 18.C 19. B 20 .D
1. Which of the following manifestations is associated with a raised level of cortosone and ACTH? A. Schizophrenia B. Affective disturbances C. Confusion D. Dementia Answer Key 2. The part of brain involved in the process by whichSeptember 1, 2013 A. Corpus callosum B. Basal ganglia C. Hippocampus D. Cerebral cortex
3. Recognized functions of reticular activating system includes A. Sleep and arousal B. Fine motor skills C. Memory and higher order thinking D. Vision and recognition
4. The limbic system regulates A. Sex and mating activity B. Fighting and fleeing C. Feeding D. Aggression E. All of the above
5. Which of the following conditions have the best evidence for brain dysfunction? A. Delirium B. Simple phobia C. Generalized anxiety disorder D. Brief psychotic disorder
6. The monoamines neurotransmitters are all the following except: A. Serotonin B. Norepinephrine C. Dopamine D. GABA Answer Key 7. Brain neurotransmitter serotonin is produced from: A. Raphe nuclei B. Substantia niagra C. locus ceruleus D. Amygdala Answer Key 8. Dopamine pathways in the brain include all except: A. Nigrostriatal pathway B. Mesocorticolimbic pathway C. Mesopontine complex D. Tuberohypophyseal pathway Answer Key 9. The catecholamines are synthesized from the amino acid: A. Alanine B. Tyrosine C. Taurine D. Glycine Answer Key 10. Which of the following neurotransmitters is NOT an amine: A. dopamine B. norepinephrine C. serotonin D. glutamate Answer Key 11.
Answer Key 1. B 2. C 3. A 4. E 5. A 6. D 7.A 8.C 9. B 10 .D
Neuropsychiatry
1. Which of the following condition is believed to be caused by chronic infection of the brain by the spirochete Treponema pallidum? A. General paresis of the insane (GPI) B. Huntington's Chorea C. Parkinson's disease D. CreutzfeldtJakob disease (CJD) Answer Key 2. Disorientation and visual hallucinations are hallmark of A. Delirium B. Schizophrenia C. Mania D. Depersonalization syndrome Answer Key 3. Clouding of consciousness is characteristic of A. Schizophrenia B. Dementia C. Hysteria D. Delirium Answer Key 4. Delusions in delirium are A. Unshakable B. Frightening C. Self-reference D. Nihilistic Answer Key 5. Impaired consciousness, visual hallucinations, hyperactivity and fragmentary delusions are typically seen in A. Dementia B. Delirium C. Schizophrenia D. Delusional disorder Answer Key 6. Features of delirium are all, except A. Altered sensorium B. Clouding of consciousness C. Visual hallucinations D. Fast EEG rhythm Answer Key 7. Delirium tremens is associated with all, except A. Rapid pulse B. Clouding of consciousness C. Hypothermia D. Coarse tremors E. Albuminuria Answer Key 8. Patients suffering from which of the following conditions are also called "Sundowners"? A. Schizophrenia B. Dementia C. Alcoholic hallucinosis D. Delirium Answer Key 9. Visual hallucinations, illusions, fugue, disorientation are typical features of A. Delirium B. Dementia C. Schizophrenia D. Dissociative disorders Answer Key 10. A delirium associated with glossitis, stomatitis, and dermatitis is suggestive of A. Porphyria B. Myxoedema C. Pellagra D. Wernicke's syndrome Answer Key 11. The most common post-operative psychiatric condition is A. Delusional disorder B. Delirium C. Depression D. Mania E. personality disorders Answer Key 12. To prevent and treat delirium tremens, it must be recognized that A. Electrolyte imbalance should be corrected B. Patient must be well hydrated C. Onset occurs 72-96 hours after alcohol withdrawal D. All are true Answer Key 13. The preferred drug of treatment in delirium is A. Chlorpromazine B. Thioridazine C. Clozapine D. Resperidone E. Haloperidol Answer Key 14. The most common cause of dementia is A. Multiple sclerosis B. General paresis of insane C. Alzheimer's disease D. Multi infarct lesion Answer Key 15. Which of the following is the most accurate in regard to dementia? A. Impairment of memory B. Reversible C. Auditory hallucination D. Primary delusions Answer Key
ANSWER KEY 1. A 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. D 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. C 11. B 12. D 13. E 14. C 15. A
1. Presence of which of the following features separates delirium from most other psychiatric disorders? A. Depressed mood B. Impairment of memory C. Elevation of mood D. Impairment of consciousness Answer Key 2. Korsakoff's psychosis is due to intake of A. Cannabis B. Opium C. Amphetamine D. Alcohol Answer Key 3. Korsakoff's psychosis is due to the deficiency of A. Thiamine B. Vitamin B12 C. Riboflavin D. Biotin Answer Key 4. Korsakoff's psychosis is typically associated with all except A. Inability to learn new material B. Bradycardia C. Confabulation D. Disorientation of time Answer Key 5. In Korsakoff's psychosis, the lesion is located in A. Uncinate body B. Mamilary body C. Cingulate gyrus D. Frontal lobe Answer Key 6. The following vitamin is used to treat Korsakoff's psychosis A. Vit A B. Vit B1 C. Vit B12 D. Pyridoxine Answer Key 7. Wernicke's encephalopathy may be prevented by A. IV saline B. Large amount of IV glucose D. Thiamine supplement D. Diazepam Answer Key 8. In Wernicke's encephalopathy, the symptom which which responds most promptly to treatment is A. Gait B. Occular manifestations C. Dementia D. Peripheral neuropathy Answer Key 9. Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by A. Confabulation B. Patchy impairment of personal memories C. Anterograde amnesia D. Retrograde amnesia Answer Key 10. All the following are differential diagnosis of senile dementia, except A. Uraemia B. Anaemia C. Decompensated heart disease D. Pulmonary disease E. Schizophrenia Answer Key 11. Treatment of senile dementia includes all the following, except A. Education of the family B. Adequate lighting, especially at night C. Avoidance of social isolation D. Stimulating associates D. Electroconvulsive therapy Answer Key 12. Astasia-Abasia is seen in A. Alzeihmer's disease B. Parkinsonism C. Hysterical conversion disorder D. Schizophrenia Answer Key 13. Mesial temporal lobe epilepsy is aasociated with A. Atonic seizures B. Simple partial seizures C. Complex partial seizures D. Generalised tonic-clonic seizures Answer Key 14. Which of the following is most epileptogenic? A. Haemorrahagic stroke B. Thrombotic stroke C. Embolic stroke D. Lacunar infarct Answer Key 15. Alzeihmer's disease is associated with A. Chromosome 19 B. Chromosome 21 C, Chromosome 20 D, Chromosome 22 Answer Key
ANSWER KEY 1. D 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. B 9. B 10.E 11. E 12. C 13. C 14. D 15. B
Substance Abuse Quiz- 1 1. Morphine is extracted from www. currentnursing.com A. Cajanus cajan B. Cannabis sativa C. Papaver somniferum D. Rauwolfia serpentina Answer Key 2. Which of the following hallucinogens is NOT a synthetically created drug? A. Psylocybin www. currentnursing.com B. LSD C. PCP D. MDMA Answer Key 3. Which of the following statements about marijuana ia TRUE? A. Marijuana is not physically addictive B. It is safe to drive under the influence of pot. C. Marijuana is healthier than tobacco. D. Short-term memory is enhanced by smocking marijuana. Answer Key 4. "Magic mushrooms" are the source of: A. Marijuana B. Psylocybin C. Mescaline D. Ecstasy Answer Key 5. The mechanism of action of alcohol on the brain is atributed to A. release of GABA B. release of dopamine C. suppression of acetylecholine D. release of epinephrine Answer Key 6. Which of the following is a stimulant? A. Alcohol B. diazepam C. PCP D. barbiturates Answer Key 7. Which of the following is a synthetically produced substance? A. Nicotine B. Amphetamine C. Caffeine D. Cocaine Answer Key 8. ICD-10 diagnostic criteria for acute intoxication include: A. clear evidence of recent use of a psychoactive substance B. symptoms or signs of intoxication compatible with the known actions of the particular substance C. symptoms or signs present cannot be accounted for by a medical disorder unrelated to substance use D. All of the above. Answer Key 9. Whic of the following is NOT a criteria for diagnosis of dependence syndrome in ICD-10 classification. A. Strong desire or sense of compulsion to take the substance B. Physiological withdrawal state C. Evidence of tolerance D. Episodic use of the substance or dipsomania Answer Key 10. Which of the following drug is deterrent agent in the treatment of alcohol dependence syndrome? A. Acamprosate B. Naltrexone C. Disulfiram D. Buproprion Answer Key 11. Lacrimation, rhinorrhea, pin-point pupils, sweating,diarrhoea, and muscle cramps are charecteristic of: www. currentnursing.com A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome B. Cannabis withdrawal syndrome C. Opium withdrawal syndrone D. Cocaine withdrawal syndrome
12. In opium ovedose, naloxone is administered as A. 10 mg IM B. 2 mg IV C. 100 mg orally D. 5 mg s/c
13. Detoxification of opium is done with A. Methadone B. Chlordiazeproxide C. Diazepam www. currentnursing.com D. Disulfiram
14. "Flash back phenomenon" is common with A. Opium B. Cannabis C. Nicotine D. Alcohol
15. Which of the following is a synthetic derivative of opium? A. Morphine B. Codeine C. Papaverine D. Heroin
ANSWER KEY 1. C 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. D 9. D 10. B 11. C 12. B 13. A 14.B 15. D
1. Heroin is a form of: www. currentnursing.com A. Tobacco B. Poppy C. Datura D. Cannabis Answer Key 2. LSD is taken from A.Fungus B. Lichen C. Alga D. Bacterium Answer Key 3. An opiate narcotic is A. Bhang B. Charas C. Heroin www. currentnursing.com D. Nicotine Answer Key 4. Which of the following drug functions as a CNS depressant? A. Amphetamine B. Caffeine C. Opium D. Cocaine Answer Key 5. Which of the following is a hallucinogen? A. LSD B. Heroin C. Cocaine D. Morphine Answer Key 6. Slow respiration, slow pulse, and consrtiction of pupil occures due to drug addiction of A. Morphine and opium B. Cocaine and heroin C. Alcohol and thalidomide D. Nicotine and caffeine Answer Key 7. Stimulant cocaine is obtained from A. Rauwolfia B. Erythroxylon C. Papaver D. Eucalyptus Answer Key 8. Hashish and Ganja are obtained from A. Erythroxylon B. Papaver www. currentnursing.com C. Cannabis D. Theobroma Answer Key 9. Synthetic drugs structurally related to adrenaline are A. Amphetamines B. Barbiturates C. Hallucinogens D. Analgesics Answer Key 10. Brown sugar is A. Diacetyl morphine hydrochloride B. Theophylline C. Lorazepam D. Metherdine Answer Key 11. Diacetyl morphine is A. Morphine B. Heroin C. Cocaine D. Hashish Answer Key 12. Which of the following is a matching pair? A. LSD-narcotic www. currentnursing.com B. Heroin-psychotropic C. Amphetamine-stimulant D. Benzodiazepenes-analgesics Answer Key 13. Which one is correct statement about psychotropic drug? A. Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions B. Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary euphoria C. Opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations D. Hashish causes after-thought perceptions and hallucinations Answer Key 14. Which of the following drug has the highest potential for physical dependence? A. Opiods B. Cannabis C. Cocaine D. LSD www. currentnursing.com E. MDMA Answer Key 15. The CAGE questionnaire consists of A. 10 questions B. 14 questions C. 4 questions D. 20 questions Answer Key
ANSWER KEY 1. B 2. A 3. C 4. c 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. D 11. B 12. C 13. D 14. A 15. C
1. The drug of choice in the management of alcohol withrawal is A. Barbiturates B. Benzodiazepines C. Disulfiram D. Acamprosate Answer Key 2. Which of the following is the most dependence-producing derivative of opium? A. Meperidine B. Diphenoxylate C. Methadone D. Heroin Answer Key 3. Common street name of cocaine is A. Smack B. Brown sugar C. Crack D. Angel dust Answer Key 4. Which of the following is known to cause disulfiram-ethanol like reaction? A. Propranolol www. currentnursing.com B. Haloperidol C. Ciprofloxacin D. Metronidazole Answer Key 5. Which of the following is NOT a cannabis preparation? A. Smack B. Charas C. Ganja D. Hashish Answer Key 6. Elevated mean corpuscular volume (MCV) value is an indicator of A. Thiamine deficiency www. currentnursing.com B. Nicotine dependence C. Alcohol dependence D. Opium dependence www. currentnursing.com Answer Key 7. Which of the following term is NOT used in ICD-10 classification on substance use disorders? A. Acute intoxication B. Harmful use C. Dependence syndrome D. Addiction syndrome E. Withdrawal state Answer Key 8. Which of the following investigation is related to diagnosis of alcohol dependence? A. MCV B. Serum CPK-MB C. Serum Prolactin Levels D. VDRL Answer Key 9. Which of the following instrument is used for alcohol dependence screening? A. SANS www. currentnursing.com B. HDRS C. T-BOCS D. MAST E. SCAN Answer Key 10. GGT (gamma-glutyl transaminase) is eleveated in A. Cannabis dependence B. Nicotine dependence C. Heroin dependence D. Alcohol dependence Answer Key 11. Compulsory-drinking is also called A. Dipsomania B. Pyromania C. Trichotillomania D. Dyslexia Answer Key 12. Wernicke's encephalopathy is atributed to A. Severe riboflavin deficiency B. Excessive blood alcohol content C. Sever thamine deficiency D. Excessive GGT levels Answer Key 13. Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for use of disulfiram? A. Recent CAD B. CCF C. History of psychosis D. Seizure disorder E. Nicotine dependence Answer Key 14. Which of the following is an anti-craving agent used in the management of alcohol dependence syndrome? A. Disulfiram www. currentnursing.com B. Lorazepam C, Citrated Cacium Carbimide D. Acamprosate www. currentnursing.com E. Metronidazole Answer Key 15. "Chasing the dragon" refers to the smocking of A. Nicotine B. Heroin C. LSD D. MDMA Answer Key
ANSWER KEY www. currentnursing.com 1. B 2. D 3. C 4.D 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. A 9.D 10. D 11. A 12. C 13. E 14. D 15.B
1. "Dypsomania" is related to A. Compulsion to drink alcohol B. Impulsive stealing C. Compulsion to drink water D. Compulsive smocking Answer Key 2. Following biochemical changes are seen in chronic alcohol dependence, EXCEPT; A. Osteoporosis B. Hypertriglyceridemia C. Abnormally high pyruvate D. Hyperglycemia Answer Key 3. Vitamin deficiencies are usually associated with A. Obesity www. currentnursing.com B. Acrophobia C. Claustrophobia D. Alcohol dependence Answer Key 4. Disulfiram therapy is indicated in A. Acute alcohol intoxication B. Acute opium intoxication C. Alcohol dependence D. Cannabis dependence Answer Key 5. The drug of choice in alcohol-induced psychosis is A. Disulfiram B. Haloperidol C. Diazepam D. Imipramine Answer Key 6. In chronic drug addicts there is hyperplasia of A. Golgi apparatus B. Mitochondria C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum D. Lysosome Answer Key 7. Loss of euphoric effect of morphine with regular use is due to A. Decreased number of receptors B. Tolerance of receptors C. Antagonists D. Down regulation Answer Key 8. Physical withdrawal symptoms are most often seen with A. Cannabis b. LSD C. Morphine D. Alcohol Answer Key 9. Which of the following symptoms may be seen in opium withdrawal? A. Tremors www. currentnursing.com B. Lacrimation C. Dry nose and mouth D. Constipation Answer Key 10. Methadone maintenance is a mode of treatment in A. Alcohol dependence B. Heroin dependence C. Barbiturate dependence D. Cannabis dependence Answer Key 11. Which of the following agents is commonly known as meth, speed, crank, CR, wire, and jib? A. Lysergic acid diethylamide B. Pemoline C. Methylphenidate D. Methamphetamine Answer Key 12. Which of the following drugs is widely known as Ritalin /Concerta for treatment of AHD? A. Methylphenidate B. Amphetamine C. Methamphetamine D. Mazindol Answer Key 13. Amphetamine type stimulants (ATS) are known to cause all, EXCEPT A. Productivity enhancement B. Weight gain C. Euphoria D. Hypervigilance Answer Key 14. Which of the following substances is associated highest risk of cardiac abnormalities? A. Cocaine B. Nicotine C. Cannabis D. Methdone Answer Key 15. "Angel dust" is a street name for A. Cannabis B. Heroin C. Phencyclidine D. Nicotine Answer Key ANSWER KEY www. currentnursing.com 1. A 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. B 11. D 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. C
1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic symptom in opium withdrawal? A. Piloerection B. Insomnia C. Constipation D. Increased nasal secretions Answer Key 2. Which of the following agents is NOT a hallucinogen? A. Cocaine B. Mescaline C. Amphetamine D. LSD Answer Key 3. The active content of Hashish is A. Tetrahydrocannabinol B. Lysergic acid diethylamide C. Morphine D. Mescaline Answer Key 4. Which of the following agents is associated with flashback phenomenon? A. Barbiturates B. Morphine C. Cannabis D. Lysergic acid diethylamide Answer Key 5. Which of the following substances cause the least physical withdrawal symptoms? A. Morphine B. Cannabis C. Pethidine D. Alcohol Answer Key 6. Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with abuse of amphetamine? A. Flushing B. Paranoid delusions C. Auditory hallucinations D. Tremors Answer Key 7. Which of the following condition is associated with chronic alcohol dependence? A. Wernicke's encepahalopathy B. Laennnec's cirrhosis C. Delirium tremens D. Pancreatits E. All of the above Answer Key 8. Corpus callosum degeneration found in chronic alcohol dependence is also termed as A. Wenicke's encepahalopathy B. Korsakoff's psychosis www. currentnursing.com C. Marchiafava-Bignami disease D. Mallori-Weis tears Answer Key 9. Disulfiram blocks the breakdown of which product of alcohol? A. Acetatic acid B. Alcohol dehydrogenase C. Acetaldehyde D. Dopamine Answer Key 10. A common drug causing Disulfiram-ethanol reaction (DER) is A. Chloroquine B. Metronidazole C. Ciprofloxacin D. Metaprolol Answer Key 11. Therapeutic community is most useful in persons with A. Chronic schizophrenia C. Phobic anxiety disorders C. Drug dependence D. Personality disorders Answer Key 12. Recent intake of heroin can be determined by A. Tremors B. Edema C. Excessive perspiration D. Pupilary constriction Answer Key 13. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) is also known as A. Ecstasy B. Smack C. Hashish D. Angel dust Answer Key 14. Intermittent or spree drinking is categorized as A. Epsilon alcoholism B. Alpha alcoholism C. Beta alcoholism D. Gamma alcoholism E. Delta alcoholism Answer Key 15. Loss of euphoric effect of morphine with regular use is due to A. Decrease in number of receptors B. Tolerance of receptors C. Antagonists D. Down regulation Answer Key ANSWER KEY www. currentnursing.com 1. C 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. A 7. E 8. C 9.C 10.B 11. C 12. D 13. A 14. A 15. B
Obsessive Compulsive Disorders-I This page was last updated on March 21, 2011 1. Charecteristics of OCD include all the folowing, EXCEPT: A. Obsessive thoughts B. Compulsive acts C. Cosiderable degree of anxiety D. Ordered flight of ideas
Answer Key 2. Obsessional personality disorder is also called: A. Anankastic personality disorder B. Schizoid personality disorder C. Histrionic personality disorder D. Paranoid personality disorder Answer Key 3. Which of the following is most effective in OCD management? A. Psychodynamic psychotherapy B. Interpersonal psychotherapy C. Cognitive behaviour therapy D. Supportive psychotherapy Answer Key 4. The drugs which have been shown to alleviate the symptoms of OCD include all, EXCEPT: A. clomipramine B. fluvoxamine C. paroxetine D. sertraline E. thioridazine Answer Key 5. Recurrent, intrusive, senseless ideas, thoughts, and images that are ego-dystonic and involuntary are termed as A. Obsessions B. Compulsions C. Hypochondreasis D. Obstrusiveness Answer Key 6. YaleBrown ObsessiveCompulsive Scale (Y-BOCS; Goodman et al. 1989) is a A. 10-item, 40-point semistructured instrument B. 8-item, 20-point semistructured instrument C. 20-item, 40-point structured instrument D. 20-item, 80-point structured instrument Answer Key 7. Which of the following is the most acceptable etiologic hypothesis in OCD? A. Dopamine hypothesis B. Serotonin hypothesis C. Acetylcholine hypothesis D. Glutamate hypothesis Answer Key 8. Which of the following is NOT included in the OCD spectrum disorders? A. Trichotillomania B. Tourette's disorder C. Body dysmorphic disorder D. Kleptomania E. Schizotypal disorders Answer Key 9. Which of the following is a charecteristic of OCD? A. Denial of obsessive thoughts B. An awareness of the senselessness of obsessions C. Presence of auditary hallucinations D. Presence of delusion of infidelity Answer Key 10. The most common obsession is A. fear of contamination B. pathological doubt C. need for symmetry D. aggressive obsessions Answer Key 11. Obsessive-compulsive symptoms are intimately linked with A. Bipolar disorders B. Autistic disorders C. Tourette's disorder D. ADHD Answer Key 12. Psychodynamic explanation of obsessive compulsive disorders include A. fixation during oral stage of psychosexual develpment B. fixation during anal stage of psychosexual development. C. fixations or conflicts during phalic phase of development D. improper develpment of latency phase of psychosexual development Answer Key 13. Which of the following defence mechanism is more common with OCD? A. Sublimation B. Projection C. Denial D. Undoing Answer Key 14. Which of the following area of brain is known to be associated with OCD? A. Reticular system B. Nigrostraital pathway C. Basal ganglia D. Corpus callosum Answer Key 15. Which of the following is a tricyclic antidepressant? A. fluvoxamine B. fluoxetine C. Escitalopram D. Clomipramine E. Sertraline Answer Key
ANSWER KEY 1. D 2. A 3. C 4. E 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. E 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. B 13. D 14. C 15.D
1. Defense mechanism in obsessive compulsive disorders is A. Reaction formation B. Displacement C. Projection D. Sublimation Answer Key 2. Features of obsessive compulsive disorders include all, except A. Punctuality B. Perfection C. Parsimonious D. Demonstrative
Answer Key 3. Obsessive compulsive personality is characterized by A. Severe and rigid conscience B. Lack of normal capacity for relaxation C. Underlying hostility D. Fastidiousness E. All of the above Answer Key 4. A defense mechanism typical of obsessive compulsive disorders is A. Denial B. Undoing C. Projection D. Displacement Answer Key 5. All of the following are features of obsessive compulsive disorders, except A. Anxiety relieved by doing the act B. Sense of guilt C. Magical thought D. Patient is aware of helplessness Answer Key 6. All of the following are poor prognostic factors in obsessive compulsive disorders, except A. Childhood onset B. Obsessional premorbid personality C. Dominant symptoms of depression and phobia D. Long history of illness Answer Key 7. Drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive disorders is A. Haloperidol B. Imipramine C. Clomipramine D. Nortriptyline Answer Key 8. Which of the following drug is most appropriate for treatment of obsessive compulsive disorders? A. Fluoxetine B. Doxepine C. Reboxetine D. Clozapine Answer Key 9. Which of the following technique is found to be effective in obsessive ruminations? A. Psychoanalysis B. Interpersonal therapy C. Logo therapy D. Thought stopping Answer Key 10. Obsessive-compulsive behavior is believed to grow out of A. Conflict with parents B. Rigid compulsive mothering C. Forced compliance D. Repression in childhood age E. All of the above Answer Key ANSWER KEY 1. A 2. D 3. E 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. E
Schizophrenia Quiz- I This page was last updated on September 15, 2011 1. Eugen Bleuler renamed dementia precox as A. Autism B. Schizophrenia C. Bipolar affective disorder D. Melancholia Answer Key 2. Bizarre and childish thinking, speech, and very disordered motor actions are characteristics of: A. Catatonic schizophrenia B. Paranoid schizophrenia C. Undifferentiated schizophrenia D. Disorganized/hebephrenic schizophrenia Answer Key 3. First rank symptoms of schizophrenia (FRSS), which is widely accepted in making a clinical diagnosis of schizophrenia was described by: A. Kurt Schneider B. Eugen Bleuler C. Eric Erickson D. Emil Kraepelin Answer Key 4. First rank symptoms of schizophrenia (FRSS) include all the following, EXCEPT: A. Third person/running commentary auditory hallucinations B. Thought alienation phenomena C. Passivity phenomenon D. Mood disturbances E. Delusional perception Answer Key 5. Eugen Bleuler's characteristic symptoms (fundamental symptoms) of schizophrenia include all the following, EXCEPT: A. Ambivalence B. Autism C. Affective disturbances D. Apraxia Answer Key 6. The first effective antipsychotic drug was: A. Chlorpromazine B. Thioridazine C. Haloperidol D. Trifluperazine Answer Key 7. Prefrontal lobotomy was proposed as a treatment for serious mental illnesses by___________ in 1935. A. Ugo Cerletti B. Walter Cannon C. Egas Moniz D. Adolph Meyer Answer Key 8. The preferred antipsychotic in poor medication compliance or high risk of relapse is: A. A serotonin-dopamine antagonist B. Clozapine C. Injectable form of a long-acting antagonist (haloperidol/fluphenazine) D. Aripiprazole Answer Key 9. Clozapine is associated with a higher risk of _____________ than other antipsychotics. A. extrapyramidal symptoms B. seizures C. neuroleptic malignant syndrome D. anticholinergic side effects Answer Key 10. Which of the following drugs is most safe in pregnant patients with acute schizophrenia? A. Haloperidol B. Chlorpromazine C. Trifluperazine D. Thioridazine Answer Key 11. Which is not an important expressed emotion (EE) affecting the course of schizophrenia? A. Over involvement B. Hostility C. Criticism D. Non-sequential communication
12. Which is a characteristic finding in schizophrenia? A. Larger than normal lateral ventricles B. An underactive dopamine system in the brain C. An underactive serotonin system D. Presence of seizure attacks
13. Primary symptoms of schizophrenia according to Bleuler are all, EXCEPT A. Disorders of affect B. Loosening of associations C. Ambivalance D. Automatic obedience
14. The most frequent period of onset of schizophrenia is A. Adolescence B. Childhood C. Middle age D. Old age
15. The probability that children of a schizophrenic patient develop the disease is A. Twice the general population B. Five times the general population C. Ten times the general population D. Fifteen times the general population E. Twenty five times the general population
ANSWER KEY 1. B 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. D 6. A 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. A 11. A 12. A 13. D 14. A 15. E
1. Schizoid personality is characterized by A. Shy, quiet, passive, daydreaming, introverted B. Dramatic, emotional, and erratic behavior C. Eccentric behaviors and incongruous affect D. Suspicious ideas and lack of trust Answer Key 2. Which of the following affect least common in schizophrenia? A. Ecstatic B. Flat C. Blunted D. Incongruous
3. Schizophrenia is most closely associated with A. Psthesis B. Asthenic C. Athletic D. Dysplastic
4. Which of the following is NOT true about schizophrenia? A. Literally means "splitting of mind" B. Peak incidence is 15 to 30 years of age C. People with low intelligence are more predisposed D. Predominantly a disease of females
5. Bizarre somatic hallucinations are typical features of A. Generalized anxiety disorder B. Multiple personality C. Hebephrenic schizophrenia D. Simple schizophrenia
6. Disturbances of affect is a predominant feature in A. Paranoid schizophrenia B. Catatonic schizophrenia C. Hebephrenic schizophrenia D. Residual schizophrenia
7. Hebephrenic schizophrenia is characterized by A. Marked disorganization and incongruous silly affect B. Marked psychomotor disturbance with mutism C. Marked persecutory and grandiose delusions D. Social withdrawal and eccentric behaviours
8. A characteristic, which is least associated with paranoid schizophrenia is A. Late onset B. Delusion of grandiosity C. Deterioration of personality D. secondary depression
9. Which subtype of schizophrenia is characterized by disorders of volition? A. Catatonic B. Paranoid C. Simple D. Hebephrenic
10. Which of the following is NOT a feature of catatonic schizophrenia? A. Negativism B. Waxy flexibility C. Echolalia D. Flight of thoughts
11. Depot antipsychotics (e.g. Intramuscular fluphenazine deconate) is indicated in A. When oral drug compliance is poor. B. Hebephrenic schizophrenia C. Catatonic schizophrenia D. Refractory schizophrenia
12. Which of the following symptoms will respond early in schizophrenia when treated with antipsychotics? A. Auditory hallucinations B. Psychomotor retardation C. Thought content D. Interpersonal relationship
13. Which of the following characteristics is a good prognosis factor in schizophrenia? A. Unmarried B. Childhood onset C. Presence of negative symptoms D. Presence of delusions and hallucinations
14. Good prognosis features in schizophrenia include A. Acute onset B. Onset after 30 years C. Supporting family D. Treatment adherence E. All of the above
15. Schizophrenia which has poor response to treatment and poor prognosis is A. Paranoid B. Catatonic C. Undifferentiated D. Hebephrenic E. Post-schizophrenia depression
ANSWER KEY 1. A 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. C 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. D 11. A 12. A 13. D 14. E 15. D
Sexual Disorders - I This page was last updated on March 18, 2011 1. According to Freud, the term used for "that force by which the sexual instinct is represented in the mind" is: A. Narcissism B. Condensation C. Libido D. Dispositions Answer Key 2. Which of the following drug is least likely to cause sexual dyfunction? A. Imipramine B. Thioridazine C. Captopril D. Mirtazapine Answer Key 3. "Studies in the Psychology of Sex (1896)" was written by A. Havelock Ellis B. Sigmund Freud C. Ernst Graefenberg D. Masters and Johnson Answer Key 4. The phase of peaking of sexual pleasure, with release of sexual tension and rhythmic contraction of the perineal muscles and pelvic reproductive organs, observed in male sexual cycle, is termed as A. Desire B. Excitement C. Orgasm D. Resolution Answer Key 5. A sexual pain disorder reported in females is A. Anorgasmia B. Vaginismus C. Peyronie's disease D. Impotence Answer Key 6. Persistant or recurrent tendency to observe unsuspecting persons, naked disrobing or engaged in sexual activity is termed as A. Exhibitionism B. Sadism C. Voyeurism D. Frotteurism Answer Key 7. Priapism is a sexual dysfunction seen in treatment with A. Chlorpromazine B. Trazadone C. Clozapine D. Lithium Answer Key 8. Excessive sexual desire in women is termed as A. Satyriasis B. Frigidity C. Vaginismus D. Nymphomania Answer Key 9. As per Masters and Jhonson, Sensate Focus Technique is indicated in A. Vaginismus B. Premature ejaculation C. Impotence D. Paraphilia Answer Key 10. Pelvic floor exercises to strengthen the pubococcygeus muscle is termed as A. Kegel's exercises B. Postural exercises C. Isometric exercises D. Sensate focus exercises Answer Key 11. Squeeze technique (Seman's technique) is indicated in A. Premature ejaculation B. Vaginismus C. Erectile dysfunction D. Dyspareunia Answer Key 12. Sildenafil citrate is administered in A. Impotence B. Erectile dysfunction C. Paraphilias D. Premature ejaculation Answer Key 13. Which of the following is used as as intracavernosal injection in the differential diagnosis of organic and non-organic impotence? A. Epinephrine B. Xylocaine C. Dopamine D. Papaverine Answer Key 14. Sexual gratification by rubbing against or touching a nonconsenting person is termed as A. Frotteurism B. Fetishism C. Exhibitionism D. Voyeurism Answer Key 15. Which of the following is used for reducing male hypersexuality? A. Papaverine B. Cyproterone C. Sildenafil D. Alprostadil Answer Key ANSWER KEY 1. C 2. D 3. A 4.C 5.B 6. C 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. A 11. A 12. B 13. D 14. A 15. D
1. A systemic disease which is most frequently associated with secondary impotence is A. Endocrine dysfunction B. Multiple sclerosis C. Hypertension D. Diabetes mellitus Answer Key 2. According to DSM-IV-TR classification, Vaginismus is classified under A. Sexual Desire Disorders B. Sexual Arousal Disorders C. Orgasmic Disorders D. Sexual Pain Disorders Answer Key 3. The squeeze technique was devised for the treatment of A. Frigidity B. Primary impotence C. Secondary impotence D. Premature ejaculation Answer Key 4. Getting sexual gratification by inflicting injuries to opposite partner is A. Masichism B. Sadism C. Voyerism D. Transvestism Answer Key 5. Johnson and Masters are known for therapy of A. Schizophrenia B. Disscociative disorders C. Sexual problems D. Anxiety disorders Answer Key 6. Essential ingredient of Masters and Johnson's treatment of impotence is A. Reassurance B. Adequate history taking C. Avoidance of demand for performance D. Therapeutic allience Answer Key 7. Men with primary impotence A. have no homosexual conflict B. associated sex with dirtness and sinfullness C. tend to be aggressive in sexual activities D. have major systemic diseases Answer Key 8. When considering components of human sexuality, which of the following is related to sexual function? A. Gender identity B. Orientation, intention C. Desire, arousal, orgasm D. Emotional satisfaction Answer Key 9. The phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors (PDE-5i) are effective in A. Male erectile disorder B. Gender identity disorders C. Paraphilias D. Sexual pain disorders Answer Key 10. Sildenafi is a A. SSRI B. Antipsychotic C. PDE-5 inhibitor D. Benzodiazepene Answer Key ANSWER KEY 1. D 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. C