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CBSE PMT – 2007 SCREENING

PHYSICS 7. In the following circuit, the output Y for all


1. The primary and secondary coil of a transformer possible inputs A and B is expressed by the truth
have 50 and 1500 turns respectively. If the table
magnetic flux φ linked with the primary coil is
A
given by φ = φ0 + 4t, where φ is in webers, t is A
time in seconds and φ0 is a constant, the output Y
B
voltage across the secondary coil is B
(a) 120 volts (b) 220 volts (a) A B Y (b) A B Y
(c) 30 volts (d) 90 volts 011 001
2. A beam of electron passes undeflected through 011 010
mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields. 101 100
If the electric field is switched off, and the same 110 110
magnetic field is maintained, the electrons move (c) A B Y (d) A B Y
(a) in a circular orbit 000 000
(b) along a parabolic path 011 010
(c) along a straight line 101 100
(d) in an elliptical orbit. 111 111
3. The position x of a particle with respect to time t 8. In a radioactive decay process, the negatively
along x-axis is given by x = 9t2 – t3 where x is in charged emitted β -particles are
metres and t in second. What will be the position
(a) the electrons produced as a result of the
of this particle when it achieves maximum speed
decay of neutrons inside the nucleus
along the +ve x direction?
(b) the electrons produced as a result of
(a) 54 m (b) 81 m (c) 24 m (d) 32 m. collisions between atoms
4. A particle starting from the origin (0, 0) moves in (c) the electrons orbiting around the nucleus
a straight line in the (x, y) plane. Its coordinates (d) the electrons present inside the nucleus.
at a later time are ( 3,3) . The path of the particle 9. The phase difference between the instantaneous
velocity and acceleration of a particle executing
makes with the x-axis an angle of
simple harmonic motion is
(a) 45o (b) 60o (c) 0o (d) 30o
(a) π (b) 0.707 π
5. A car moves from X to Y with a uniform speed vu
(c) zero (d) 0.5 π
and returns to Y with a uniform speed vd. The
10. In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the
average speed for this round trip is
masses of ions, the ions are initially accelerated
vd vu by an electric potential V and then made to
(a) v u vd (b)
vd + vu describe semicircular path of radius R using a
magnetic field B. If V and B are kept constant,
v u + vd 2vd v u
 charge on the ion 
(c) (d) .
2 vd + vu the ratio   will be
 mass of the ion 
6. Two radioactive substances A and B have decay proportional to
constants 5λ and λ respectively. At t = 0 they (a) 1/R2 (b) R2 (c) R (d) 1/R
have the same number of nuclei. The ratio of 11. A wheel has angular acceleration of 3.0 rad/sec2
number of nuclei of A to those of B will be (1/e)2 and an initial angular speed of 2.00 rad/sec. In a
after a time interval time of 2 sec it has rotated through an angle (in
(a) 4 λ (b) 2 λ (c) 1/2 λ (d) 1/4 λ radian) of
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 4 (d) 6

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2007-2 CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER

12. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within 17. A block B is pushed momentarily along a
i. If φ is the electric flux in units of voltmeter horizontal surface with an initial velocity V. If µ
associated with the curved surface B, the flux is the coefficient of sliding friction between B
linked with the plane surface A in units of and the surface, block B will come to rest after a
voltmeter will be time
B
B V
C A

(a) g µ /V (b) g/V

(a)
q
(b) φ (c) V/g (d) V/(g µ ).
2ε0 3 18. A particle moving along x-axis has acceleration

1 q  f, at time t, given by f = f 0 1 −  , where f0


q t
(c) −φ (d)  − φ
ε0 2  ε0   T

13. The frequency of a light wave in a material is and T are constants. The particle at t = 0 has
2 × 1014 Hz and wavelength is 5000 Å. The zero velocity. In the time interval between t = 0
refractive index of material will be and the instant when f = 0, the particle’s velocity
(a) 1.50 (b) 3.00 (c) 1.33 (d) 1.40 (vx) is
14. A nucleus A
Z X has mass represented by M(A, 1
(a) f T2 (b) f0T2
Z). If Mp and M n denote the mass of proton and 2 0
neutron respectively and B.E. the binding energy
in MeV, then 1
(c) fT (d) f0T.
(a) B.E. = [ZMp + (A – Z)Mp – M(A, Z)]c2 2 0
(b) B.E. = [ZMp + ZMn – M(A, Z)]c2 19. A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain
(c) B.E. = M(A, Z) – ZMp – (A – Z)Mn of 50, an input impedance of 100Ω and an output
(d) B.E. = [M(A, Z) – ZMp – (A – Z)Mn]c2 impedance of 200Ω. The power gain of the
15. The total power dissipated in watts in the circuit
amplifier is
shown here is
(a) 1000 (b) 1250 (c) 100 (d) 500.
20. Three resistances P, Q, R each of 2Ω and an
6Ω unknown resistance S form the four arms of a
Wheatstone bridge circuit. When a resistance
3Ω
of 6Ω is connected in parallel to S the bridge
4Ω gets balanced. What is the value of S?
18 V
(a) 3Ω (b) 6Ω
(a) 40 (b) 54 (c) 4 (d) 16 (c) 1Ω (d) 2Ω
16. If the nucleus 27 has nuclear radius of about 21. A steady current of 1.5 amp flows through a
13 Al
copper voltameter for 10 minutes. If the
3.6 fm, then 125 would have its radius
32 Te electrochemical equivalent of copper is
approximately as 30 × 10–5 g coulomb–1, the mass of copper
(a) 9.6 fm (b) 12.0 fm deposited on the electrode will be
(c) 4.8 fm (d) 6.0 fm. (a) 0.50 g (b) 0.67 g (c) 0.27 g (d) 0.40 g.

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CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER 2007-3

22. A small coin is resting on the bottom of a beaker 26. A particle of mass m moves in the XY plane with
filled with liquid. A ray of light from the coin a velocity v along the straight line AB. If the
travels upto the surface of the liquid and moves angular momentum of the particle with respect
along its surface. How fast is the light travelling tooriginO isLA when it is at A and LB when it is
in the liquid? at B, then

3 cm Y
B
A

4 cm

X
O
coin
(a) LA = LB
(a) 2.4 × 108 m/s (b) 3.0 × 108 m/s (b) the relationship between LA and LB depends
8
(c) 1.2 × 10 m/s (d) 1.8 × 108 m/s upon the slope of the line AB
23. A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110 V (c) LA < LB
lamp from a 220 V mains. If the main current is 0.5 (d) LA > LB.
amp, the efficiency of the transformer is 27. The particle executing simple harmonic motion
approximately has a kinetic energy K 0 cos 2 ωt . The maximum
(a) 50% (b) 90% (c) 10% (d) 30%.
values of the potential energy and the total
24. Dimensions of resistance in an electrical circuit,
energy are respectively
in terms of dimension of mass M, of length L, of
(a) K0/2 and K0 (b) K0 and 2K0
time T and of current I, would be
(c) K0 and K0 (d) 0 and 2K0.
(a) ML2T–2 (b) ML2T–1I–1
2 –3 –2 28. Charges +q and –q are placed at points A and B
(c) ML T I (d) ML2T–3I–1
respectively which are a distance 2L apart, C is
25. A uniform rod AB of length l, and mass m is free
the midpoint between A and B. The work done
to rotate about point A. The rod is released from
in moving a charge +Q along the semicircle CRD
rest in the horizontal position. Given that the
is
ml 2 R
moment of inertia of the rod about A is ,
3
the initial angular acceleration of the rod will be
A C B D
l qQ qQ
(a) (b)
A B 2πε0 L 6πε0 L

qQ qQ
(c) − (d)
6πε0 L 4πε0 L
29. Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 1014 Hz
mgl 3
(a) (b) gl is produced by a laser. The power emitted is
2 2 2 × 10–3 ω. The number of photons emitted, on
the average, by the sources per second is
3g 2g
(c) (d) . (a) 5 × l 016 (b) 5 × 1017
2l 3l (c) 5 × 10 14 (d) 5 × 1015

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2007-4 CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER

30. Three point charges +q, –q and +q are placed at 35. The total energy of electron in the ground state
points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and of hydrogen atom is – 13.6 eV. The kinetic energy
(x = a, y = 0, z = 0) respectively. The magnitude of an electron in the first excited state is
and direction of the electric dipole moment (a) 6.8 eV (b) 13.6 eV
vector of this charge assembly are (c) 1.7 eV (d) 3.4 eV.
36. A 5 watt source emits monochromatic light of
(a) 2qa along the line joining points wavelength 5000 Å. When placed 0.5 m away, it
(x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0) liberates photoelectrons from a photosensitive
(b) qa along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, metallic surface. When the source is moved to a
distance of 1.0 m, the number of photoelectrons
z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)
liberated will be reduced by a factor of
(c) 2qa along +ve x direction (a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 2 (d) 4
37. A particle executes simple harmonic oscillation
(d) 2qa along +ve y direction with an amplitude a. The period of oscillation is
31. Two satellites of earth, S1 and S2 are moving in T. The minimum time taken by the particle to
the same orbit. The mass of S1 is four times the travel half of the amplitude from the equilibrium
position is
mass of S 2 . Which one of the following
(a) T/8 (b) T/12 (c) T/2 (d) T/4
statements is true?
38. For a cubic crystal structure which one of the
(a) The potential energies of earth satellites in following relations indicating the cell
the two cases are equal. characteristics is correct?
(b) S1 and S2 are moving with the same speed. (a) a ≠ b ≠ c and α = β = γ = 90°
(c) The kinetic energies of the two satellites are (b) a = b = c and α ≠ β ≠ γ = 90°
equal. (c) a = b = c and α = β = γ = 90°
(d) The time period of S1 is four times that of S2. (c) a ≠ b ≠ c and α ≠ β and γ ≠ 90°
uur uur 39. Two condensers, one of capacity C and other of
32. A and B are two vectors and θ is the angle capacity C/2 are connected to a V-volt battery,
uur uur uur uur as shown.
between them, if | A × B |= 3(A .B ) , the value
of θ is
(a) 45° (b) 30° (c) 90° (d) 60° V C C/2
33. A mass of 2.0 kg is put on a flat pan attached to
a vertical spring fixed on the ground as shown
in the figure. The mass of the spring and the pan The work done in charging fully both the
is negligible. When pressed slightly and released condensers is
the mass executes a simple harmonic motion. The 3
1
spring constant is 200 N/m. What should be the (a) CV 2 (b) CV 2
4 4
minimum amplitude of the motion so that the
mass gets detached from the pan (take g = 10 1
(c) CV 2 (d) 2CV2.
m/s2)? 2
m 40. A black body is at 727° C. It emits energy at a
(a) 10.0 cm rate which is proportional to
(b) any value less than 12.0 cm (a) (1000)4 (b) (1000)2
(c) 727) 4 (d) (727)2
(c) 4.0 cm
(d) 8.0 cm 41. The resistance of an ammeter is 13 Ω and its
34. A charged paritcle (charge q) is moving in a circle scale is graduated for a current upto 100 amps.
After an additional shunt has been connected
of radius R with uniform speed v. The associated
to this ammeter it becomes possible to measure
magnetic moment µ is given by
currents upto 750 amperes by this meter. The
(a) qvR2 (b) qvR2/2 value of shunt-resistance is
(c) qvR (d) qvR/2 (a) 2 Ω (b) 0.2 Ω (c) 2 k Ω (d) 20 Ω

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CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER 2007-5

42. An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the 48. If the cold junction of a thermo-couple is kept at
temperature os sink is reduced by 62°C, its 0°C and the hot junction is kept at T°C then the
efficiency is doubled. Temperature of the source relation between neutral temperature (Tn) and
is temperature of inversion (Ti) is
(a) 37°C (b) 62°C (c) 99°C (d) 124°C (a) Tn = 2Ti (b) Tn = Ti – T
43. The electric and magnetic field of an (c) Tn = Ti + T (d) Tn = Ti/2
electromagnetic wave are 49. Assuming the sun to have a spherical outer
(a) in opposite phase and perpendicular to each surface of radius r, radiating like a black body at
other temperature t°C, the power received by a unit
(b) in opposite phase and parallel to each other surface, (normal to the incident rays) at a
(c) in phase and perpendicular to each other distance R from the centre of the sun is
(d) in phase and parallel to each other.
44. What is the value of inductance L for which the r 2 σ(t + 273) 4 16π2 r2 σt 4
(a) (b)
current is maximum in a series LCR circuit with 4πR 2 R2
C = 10 µF and ω = 1000s– 1
(a) 1 mH r 2 σ(t + 273) 4 4πr 2 σt 4
(b) cannot be calculated unless R is known (c) (d)
R2 R2
(c) 10 mH
(d) 100 mH where σ is the Stefan’s constant.
45. Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room 50. In the energy band diagram of a material shown
temperature. If the temperature is increased below, the open circles and filled circles denote
beyond Curie temperature, then it will show holes and electrons respectively. The material is
(a) anti ferromagnetism
(b) no magnetic property
(c) diamagnetism Ec
(d) paramagnetism
46. A vertical spring with force constant k is fixed
Eg
on a table. A ball of mass m at a height h above
the free upper end of the spring falls vertically
on the spring so that the spring is compressed
by a distance d. The net work done in the process
is Ev
1
(a) mg(h + d) − kd 2
2
1 (a) an insulator
(b) mg(h − d) − kd 2 (b) a metal
2
(c) an n-type semiconductor
1 (d) a p-type semiconductor
(c) mg(h − d) + kd 2
2
1
(d) mg(h + d) + kd 2
2 CHEMISTRY
47. Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field
a charged particle is moving in a circle of radius 51. Which one of the following on reduction with
R with constant speed v. The time period of the lithium aluminium hydride yields a secondary
motion amine?
(a) depends on both R and v (a) Methyl isocyanide
(b) is independent of both R and v (b) Acetamide
(c) depends on R and not on v (c) Methyl cyanide
(d) depends on v and not on R (d) Nitroethane.

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2007-6 CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER

52. RNA and DNA are chiral molecules, their chirality 57. Consider the following reactions:
is due to (i) H +(aq) + OH–(aq) = H2O(l),
∆H = – X1 kJ mol–1
(a) chiral bases
(b) chiral phosphate ester units 1
(ii) H2(g) + O = H2O(l),
(c) D-sugar component 2 2(g)
(d) L-sugar component. ∆H = – X2 kJ mol–1
53. The Langmuir adsorption isotherm is deduced (iii) CO2(g) + H2(g) = CO(g) + H2O,
∆H = – X3 kJ mol–1
using the assumption
(a) the adsorption sites are equivalent in their 5
(iv) C2 H 2(g) + O 2(g) = 2CO2(g) + H2O(l)’
ability to adsorb the particles 2
(b) the heat of adsorption varies with coverage ∆H = – X3 kJ mol–1
Enthalpy of formation of H2O (l) is
(c) the adsorbed molecules interact with each
(a) + X 3 kJ mol– 1 (b) – X 4 kJ mol– 1
other (c) + X 1 kJ mol – 1 (d) – X 2 kJ mol– 1
(d) the adsorption takes place in multilayers. 58. The correct order of increasing thermal stability
44. A weak acid, HA, has a Ka of 1.00 × 10–5. If 0.100 of K2CO3, MgCO3, CaCO3 and BeCO3 is
mole of this acid disolved in one litre of water, (a) BeCO3< MgCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3
the percentage of acid dissociated at equilbrium (b) MgCO3 < BeCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3
(c) K2CO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < BeCO3
is closest to
(d) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < K2CO3 < CaCO3
(a) 1.00% (b) 99.9% 59. In which of the following pairs, the two species
(c) 0.100% (d) 99.0% are iso-structure?
55. The reaction of hydrogen and iodine (a) SO32– and NO3– (b) BF3 an NF3
monochloride is given as: (c) BrO3– and XeO3 (d) SF4 and XeF4
60. Which of the following oxidation states are the
H 2(g) + 2ICl(g) 
→ 2HCl(g) + I 2(g) most characteristic for lead and tin respectively?
(a) + 2, + 4 (b) + 4, + 4
The reaction is of first order with respect to H2(g) (c) + 2, + 2 (d) + 4, + 2
and ICI(g), following mechanisms were proposed. 61. Which of the following statements, about the
Mechanism A: advantage of roasting of sulphide ore before
reduction is not true?
H 2(g) + 2ICl(g) 
→ 2HCl(g) + I 2(g)
(a) The ∆G of of the sulphide is greater than
Mechanism B: those for CS2 and H 2S.

H 2(g) + ICl(g) 
→ HI(g) ;slow (b) The ∆G of is negative for roasting of
sulphide ore to oxide.
HI(g) + ICl(g) 
→ HCl(g) + I 2(g) ;fast (c) Roasting of the sulphide to the oxide is
thermodynamically feasible.
Which of the above mechanism(s) can be (d) Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducing
consistent with the given information about the agents for metal sulphides.
reaction? 62. In a first-order reaction A → B, if k is rate
constant and inital concentration of the reactant
(a) A and B both (b) neither A nor B
A is 0.5 M, then the half-life is
(c) A only (d) B only
56. The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by log 2 log 2
(a) (b)
k k 0.5
∆G ∆G ∆S ∆H
(a) (b) (c) (d) ln 2 0.693
∆S ∆H ∆G ∆G (c) (d)
k 0.5k

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CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER 2007-7

63. Consider the following compounds. 67. Given that bond energies of H – H and Cl – Cl are
(i) C6H5COCl 430 kJ mol– 1 and 240 kJ mol–1 respectively and
∆Hf for HCl is – 90 kJ mol– 1, bond enthalpy of
(ii) O 2N COCl HCl is
(a) 380 kJ mol–1 (b) 425 kJ mol–1
(c) 245 kJ mol –1 (d) 290 kJ mol–1
(iii) H 3C COCl
68. Which of the following represents the correct
order of the acidity in the given compounds?
(iv) OHC COCl (a) FCH2COOH > CH3COOH > BrCH2COOH >
ClCH2COOH
(b) BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > FCH2COOH
The correct decreasing order of their reactivity
> CH3COOH
towards hydrolysis is
(a) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) (c) FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > BrCH2COOH
(b) (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii) > CH3COOH
(c) (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii) (d) CH3 COOH > BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH >
(d) (ii) > (iv) > (iii) > (i) FCH2COOH
64. Predict the product C obtained in the following 69. If threre is no rotation of plane polarised light by
reaction of butyne-1. a compound in a specific solvent, though to be
chiral, it may mean that
HI
CH 3CH 2 − C ≡ CH + HCl 
→ B → C (a) the compound is certainly meso
(b) there is no compound in the solvent
I (c) the compound may be a racemic mixture
|
(a) CH3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − C − H (d) the compound is certainly a chiral.
| 70. CH3 – CHCl – CH2 – CH3 has a chiral centre.
Cl which one of the following represents its R-
configuration?
I
| C2 H5 C2 H5
(b) CH3 − CH 2 − CH − CH 2 Cl | |
(a) H − C − CH3 (b) Cl − C − CH3
I | |
| Cl H
(c) CH3CH 2 − C − CH3
| CH3 C2 H5
Cl | |
(c) H − C − Cl (d) H3C − C − Cl
(d) CH3 − CH − CH 2 CH 2 I | |
| C2 H5 H
Cl
71. Which of the following is water-soluble?
65. Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% (a) Vitamin E (b) Vitamin K
H2SO4 by mass and has a density of 1.80 g mL– 1. (c) Vitamin A (d) Vitamin B
Volume of acid required to make one litre of 72. Identify the correct order of the size of the
0.1MH2SO4 solution is following:
(a) 16.65 mL (b) 22.20 mL (a) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < Cl– < S2–
(c) 5.55 mL (d) 11.10 mL (b) Ar < Ca2+ < K+ < Cl– < S 2–
66. Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into (c) Ca2+ < Ar < K+ < Cl– < S2–
hydrocarbons using zinc amalgam and conc. HCl (d) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < S2– < Cl–
is called 73. 0.5 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX)
(a) Cope reduction is 20% ionised. If Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol–
(b) Dow reduction 1,the lowering in freezing point of the solution is
(c) Wolf-Kishner reduction (a) 0.56 K (b) 1.12 K
(d) Clemmensen redcution. (c) – 0.56 K (d) – 1.12 K

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2007-8 CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER
74. Sulphide ores of metals are usually concentrated 83. The following equilibrium constants are given:
by froth flotation process. Which one of the
following sulphide ores offer an exception and ˆˆ† 2NH3 ; K1
N 2 + 3H 2 ‡ˆˆ
its concentrated by chemical leaching?
(a) Galena (b) Copper pyrite ˆˆ† 2NO; K 2
N 2 + O2 ‡ˆˆ
(c) Sphalerite (d) Argentite
1
75. If 60% of a first order reaction was completed in ˆˆ† H 2 O; K 2
H 2 + O 2 ‡ˆˆ
60 minutes, 50% of the same reaction would be 2
completed in aproximately The equilibrium constant for the oxidation of NH3
(a) 45 minutes (b) 60 minutes by oxygen to give NO is
(c) 40 minutes (d) 50 minutes
(log 4 = 0.60, log 5 = 0.69) K 2 K32 K22 K3
(a) (b)
76. Which of the following will give a pair of K1 K1
enantiomorphs?
(a) [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6] K1K 2 K 2 K33
(b) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl (b) (d)
K3 K1
(c) [Pt(NH3)4] [PtCl6]
(d) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]NO2. (en =NH2CH2CH2NH2) 84. Which one of the following ions is the most
77. If NaCl is doped with 10– 4 mol % of SrCl2, the stable in aqueous solution?
concentration of cation vacancies will be (a) V3+ (b) Ti3+
(c) Mn 3+ (d) Cr3+
(NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1)
(a) 6.02 × 1016 mol–1 (b) 6.02 × 1017 mol–1 (At.No. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25)
(c) 6.02 × 1014 mol–1 (d) 6.02 × 1015 mol–1 85. The correct order of C –O bond length among
78. The d electron configurations of Cr2+, Mn2+, CO, CO32− , CO2 is
Fe 2+ and Ni 2+ are 3d 4 , 3d 5 , 3d 6 and 3d 8
respectively. Which one of the following aqua (a) CO < CO32– < CO2
complexes will exhibit the minimum paramagnetic (b) CO32– < CO2 < CO
behaviour? (c) CO < CO2 < CO32–
(a) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (b) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ (d) CO2 < CO32– < CO
(c) [Cr(H2O)6] 2+ (d) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ 86. Which one of the following orders correctly
(At. No. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Ni = 28) represents the increasing acid strengths of the
79. In which of the following the hydration energy given acids?
is higher than the lattice energy? (a) HOClO < HOCl < HOClO3 < HOClO2
(a) MgSO4 (b) RaSO4 (b) HOClO2 < HOClO3 < HOClO < HOCl
(c) SrSO4 (d) BaSO4 (c) HOClO3 < HOClO2 < HOClO < HOCl
80. Which of the compounds with molecular formula (d) HOCl < HOClO < HOClO2 < HOClO3
C5H10 yields acetone on ozonolysis? 87. Which one of the following on treatment with
(a) 3-methyl-1-butene 50% aqueous sodium hydroxide yields the
(b) cyclopentane corresponding alcohol and acid?
(c) 2-methyl-1-butene (a) C6H5CHO (b) CH3CH2CH2CHO
(d) 2-methyl-2-butene. O
81. With which of the following electronic ||
configuration an atom has the lowest ionisation (c) CH3 − C − CH 3 (d) C6H5CH2CHO
enthalpy? 88. For (i) I , (ii) Cl , (iii) Br–, the increasing order of
– –
(a) 1s2 2s2 sp3 (b) 1s2 2s2 2p5 3s1 nucleophilicity would be
(c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 (d) 1s2 2s2 2p5 (a) Cl– < Br– < I– (b) I– < Cl– < Br–
82. Which one of the following ionic species has (c) Br– < Cl– < I– (d) I– < Br– < Cl–
the greatest proton affinity to form stable 89. Calculate the pOH of a solution at 25°C that
compound? contains 1× 10– 10 M of hydronium ions, i.e. H3O+.
(a) NH −2 (b) F– (c) I– (d) HS– (a) 4.000 (b) 9.0000(c) 1.000 (d) 7.000

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CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER 2007-9

90. Consider the following sets of quantum numbers: 97. In the reaction:
n l m s
CH3
(i) 3 0 0 + 1/2 |
(ii) 2 2 1 + 1/2 Heated
CH3 − CH − CH 2 − O − CH 2 − CH3 + HI  →
(iii) 4 3 –2 – 1/2
(iv) 1 0 –1 – 1/2 Which of the following compounds will be
(v) 3 2 3 + 1/2 formed?
Which of the following sets of quantum number
(a) CH3 − CH − CH 3 + CH3CH 2 OH
is not possible? |
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)(b) (ii), (iv) and (v) CH 3
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
91. The equilibrium constant of the reaction: (b) CH − CH − CH OH + CH CH
3 2 3 3
|
Cu (s) + 2Ag + (aq) 
→ Cu 2 + (aq) + 2Ag (s) ; CH 3
E° = 0.46 V at 298 K is
(a) 2.0 × 1010 (b) 4.0 × 1010 CH3
(c) 4.0 × 10 15 (d) 2.4 × 1010 |
(c) CH3 − CH − CH2 OH + CH3 − CH 2 − I
92. Which one of the following polymers is prepared
by condensation polymerisation?
(a) Teflon (b) Natural rubber CH3
|
(c) Styrene (d) Nylon-66 (d) CH3 − CH − CH 2 − I + CH3CH 2 OH
93. The order of decreasing reactivity towards an
electrophilic reagent, for the following would be 98. The product formed in Aldol condensation is
(i) benzene (ii) toluene (a) a beta-hydroxy aldehyde or a beta-hydroxy
(iii) chlorobenzene (iv) phenol ketone
(a) (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii) (b) an alpha-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone
(b) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i) (c) an alpha, beta unsaturated ester
(c) (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii) (d) a beta-hydroxy acid
(d) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) 99. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be
94. Which of the folloiwng anions is present in the needed to react with one mole of sulphite ion in
chain structure of silicates? acidic solution is
(a) (Si2O52–)n (b) (SiO32–)n (a) 4/5 (b) 2/5 (c) 1 (d) 3/5
(c) SiO4 4– (d) Si2O76– 100. Identify the incorrect statement among the
95. An element, X has the following isotopic following:
composition: (a) Lanthanoid contraction is the accumulation
200X : 90% 199X : 8.0 % 202X : 2.0 %
of successive shrinkages.
The weighted average atomic mass of the
(b) As a result of lanthanoid contraction, the
naturally occuring element X is closest to
properties of 4d series of the transition
(a) 201 amu (b) 202 amu
elements have no similarities with the 5d
(c) 199 amu (d) 200 amu
96. The fraction of total volume occupied by the series of elements.
atoms present in a simple cube is (c) Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite weak.
(d) There is a decrease in the radii of the atoms
π π or ions as one proceeds from La to Lu.
(a) (b)
3 2 4 2

π π
(c) (d)
4 6

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2007-10 CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER

BIOLOGY 108. Which one of the following statement is


correct?
(a) there is no evidence of the existence of gills
101. ICBN stands for during embryogensis of mammals
(a) International Code of Botanical (b) all plant and animal cells are totipotent
Nomenclature (c) ontogeny repeats phylogeny
(b) International congress of Biological Names (d) stem cells are specialize cells.
(c) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature 109. In which one of the following the BOD
(d) Indian Congress of Biological Names. (Biochemical Oxygen Demand ) of sewage (s),
102. Which pair of the following belongs to distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE)
Basidiomycetes and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been arranged
(a) puffballs and Claviceps in ascending order ?
(b) peziza and stink borns (a) SE < PE < S < DE (b) PE < S < SE < DE
(c) S < DE < PE < SE (d) SE < S < PE < DE.
(c) Morchella and mushrooms
110. The concept of chemical evolution is based on
(d) birds nest fungi and puffballs.
(a) interaction of water, air and clay under
103. Biological organisation starts with intense heat
(a) cellular level (b) organismic level (b) effect of solar radiation on chemicals
(c) atomic level (c) possible orgin of life by combination of
(d) submicroscopic molecular level chemicals under suitable environmental
104. Identify the odd combination of the habitat and conditions
the particular animal concerned. (d) crystallization of chemicals.
(a) sunderbans - Bengal Tiger 111. Which one of the following is surrounded by a
(b) periyar - Elephant callose wall?
(c) Rann of kutch - wild Ass (a) male gamete (b) egg
(d) Dachigam National park - Snow Leopard. (c) pollen grain
(d) microspore mother cell
105. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in
112. Probiotics are
a person to which of the following would you
(a) cancer inducing microbes
look for confirmatory evidence? (b) new kind of food allergens
(a) serum globulins (c) live microbial food supplement
(b) fibrinogen in the plasma (d) safe antibiotics
(c) haemocytes (d) serum albumins 113. One of endangered species of Indian medicinal
106. A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid plants is that of
is by (a) ocimum (b) garlic
(a) crossing of one F2 progeny with female (c) nepenthes (d) podophyllum
parent 114. What is true about Nereis, scorpion, cockroach
(b) studying the sexual behaviour of F 1 and silver fish ?
progenies (a) they all posses dorsal heart
(b) none of them is aquatic
(c) crossing of one F1 progeny with male parent
(c) they all belong to the same phylum
(d) crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent. (d) they all have jointed paired appendages
107. The okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth 115. The living organisms can be unexceptionally
(a) polymerize in the 3’ - to - 5’ direction and distinguished from the non-living things on the
forms replication fork basis of their ability for
(b) prove semi-conservative natuire of DNA (a) interaction with the environment and
replication progressive evolution
(c) polymerize in teh 5’ - to - 3’ direction and (b) reproduction
explain 3’ - to - 5’ DNA replication (c) growth and movement
(d) result in transcription. (d) responsiveness to touch.

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CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER 2007-11

116. A person who is one along hunger strike and is (c) self-fertilization is prevented
surviving only on water, will have. (d) there is no change in success rate of
(a) less amino acids in his urine fertilization
(b) more glucose in his blood 125. Ergot of rye is caused by a species of
(c) less urea in his urine (a) uncimula (b) ustilago
(d) more sodium in his urine . (c) claviceps (d) phytophthora.
117. The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds 126. The finches of Galapagos islands provide an
the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic evidence in favour of
cells. How is this DNA accommodated?
(a) evolution due to mutation
(a) super-coiling in nucleosomes
(b) retrogressive evolution
(b) DNase digestion
(c) biogeographical evolution
(c) through elemination of repititive DNA
(d) deletion of non-essential genes. (d) special creation .
118. A sequential expression of a set of human genes 127. Which one of the following is a slime mould?
(a) messenger RNA (b) DNA sequence (a) physarum (b) Thiobacillus
(c) ribosome (d) transfer RNA. (c) Anabaena (d) Rhizopus.
119. In a coal fired power plant electrostatic 128. The population of an insect species shows an
precipitators are installed to control emission of explosive increase in numbers during rainy
(a) NO× (b) SPM (c) CO (d) SO2 season followed by its disappearance at the end
120. Select the wrong statement fom the following. of the season. What does this show?
(a) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have (a) the food plants mature and die at the end
an internal compartment, the thylakoid of the rainy season
space bounded by teh thylakoid membrane (b) its population growth curve is of J-type
(b) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria (c) the population of its predators increases
contain DNA enormously
(c) The chloroplasts are generally much large (d) S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect.
than mitochondria 129. Which of the following is a flowering plant with
(d) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria nodules containing filamentous nitrogen-fixing
contain an inner and an outer membrane. micro-organism
121. Geometric representation of age structure is a
(a) crotalaria juncea (b) cycas revoluta
characteristic of
(c) cicer arietinum
(a) population (b) landscape
(d) casuarina equisetifolia
(c) ecosystem (d) biotic community.
122. During transcription, RNA polymerase 130. Which one of the following is being utilized as a
holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and source of biodiesel in the Indian countryside?
assumes a saddle-like structure, what is it’s (a) betroot (b) sugarcane
DNA-binding sequence? (c) pongamia (d) euphorbia
(a) AATT (b) CACC 131. For a critical study of secondary growth in
(c) TATA (d) TTAA plants. which one of the folowing pairs is
123. A plant requires magnesium for suitable?
(a) protein synthesis (a) teak and pine (b) deodar and fern
(b) chlorophyll synthesis (c) wheat and maiden hair fern
(c) cell wall development (d) sugarcane and sunflower.
(d) holding cells together. 132. Which one of the following is a fat-soluble
124. In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam, the vitamin and its related deficiency disease?
antherozoids and eggs mature a different times. (a) Retinol - Xerophtahalmia
As a result (b) Cobalamine - Beri-beri
(a) there is high degree of sterility (c) Calciferol - Pellagra
(b) one can conclude that the plant is (d) A scorbic acid - Scurvy.
apomictic

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2007-12 CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER

133. Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has parts


osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure 7 atm (b) testa of seeds to enable emergence of
and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has growing embryonic axis during seed
osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm germination
and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result (c) central region of style through which the
will. pollen tube grows towards the ovary
(a) no movement of water (d) endodermis of roots facilitating rapid
(b) equilibrium between the two transport of water from cortex to pericycle.
(c) movement of water from cell A to B. 140. What is common between parrot, platypus and
(d) movement of water from cell B to A. kangaroo?
134. In which one of the following preparations are (a) toothless jaws
your likely to come across cell junctions most (b) functional post-end tail
frequently ? (c) ovoparity (d) homoiothermy
(a) thrombocytes (b) tendon 141. Bowman’s glands are located in the
(c) hyaline cartilage (d) ciliated epithelium. (a) anterior pituitary
135. If you are asked to classify the various algae (b) female reproductive system of cockroach
into distnct groups, which of the following (c) olfactory epithelium of our nose
characters you should choose? (d) proximal end of uriniferous tubles.
(a) nature of stored food materials in the cell 142. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
(b) structural organization of thallus matched ?
(c) chemical comppsition of the cell wall (a) yeast - ethanol
(d) types of pigments present in the cell. (b) streptomycetes - antibiotic
136. About 98 percent of the mass of every living (c) coliforms - vinegar
organism is composed of just six element (d) methanogens - gobar gas.
including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen 143. Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an
and endocrine gland after ovulation ?
(a) sulphur and magnesium (a) stroma (b) germinal epithelium
(b) magnesium and sodium (c) vetelline membrane
(c) calcium and phosphorus (d) Graafian follicle.
(d) phosphorus and sulphur. 144. Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type of
137. Which one of the following statements is (a) autonomic movement of variation
correct? (b) paratonic movement of growth
(a) Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix (c) autonomic movement of growth
atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of (d) autonomic movement of locomotion.
plants. 145. Which one of the following is a matching pair of
(b) Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and a body feature and the animal possessing it ?
Nostoc are important mobilizers of (a) ventral central - Leech
phosphates and for plant nutrition in soil nervous system
(c) At present it is not possible to grow maize (b) Pharyngeal gill slits - Chamaeleon
without chemical fertilizers absent in embryo
(d) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead (c) ventral heart - Scorpion
to eutrophication of nearby water bodies. (d) post-end tail - Octopus.
138. In the hexaploid wheat, the haploid (n) and basic 146. All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the
(x) numbers of chromosomes are mitochondrial matrix except one which is located
(a) n = 21 and x = 21 (b) n = 21 and x = 14 in inner mitochondrial membranes in eukaryotes
(c) n = 21 and x = 7 (d) n = 7 and x = 21. and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is
39. Passage cells are thin walled cells found in (a) isocitrate dehydrogenase
(a) phloem elements that serve as entry points (b) malate dehydrogenase
for substance for transport ot other plant (c) succinate dehydrogenase
(d) lactate dehydrogenase.

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CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER 2007-13

147. The first acceptor of electrons from an excited 156. One gene-one enzyme relationship was
chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II is established for the first time in
(a) iron-sulphur protein (a) Salmonella typhimurium
(b) ferredoxin (b) Escherichia coli
(c) quinone (d) cytochrome (c) Diplocococcus pneumoniae
148. Differentiation of organs and tissues in a (d) Neurospora crassa.
developing organism, is associated with 157. Two genes R and Y are located very close on
(a) differential expession of genes the chromosomal linkage map of maize plant.
(b) lethal mutations (c) deletion of genes When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized,
(d) developmental mutations. the F2 segreagation will show
149. Which one of the following statements about (a) segregation in the expected 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio
mycoplasma is wrong ? (b) segregation in 3 : 1 ratio
(c) higher number of the parental types
(a) They are pleomorphic
(d) higher number of the recombinant types.
(b) They are sensitive to penicillin
158. In cloning of cattle, a fertillized egg is taken out
(c) They cause diseases in plants
of the mother’s womb and
(d) They are also called PPLO.
(a) in the eight cell stage, cells are separated
150. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched? and cultured untill small embryos are
(a) Apis indica - honey formed which are implanted into the womb
(b) kenia lacca - lac of other cow
(c) Bombyx mori - silk (b) in the eight cell stage the individual cells
(d) Pila globosa - pearl are separated under electrical field for
151. A person is having problems with calcium and further development in culture media.
phosphorus metabolism in his body. Which one (c) from this upto eight identical twins can be
of following glands may not be functioning produced
properly ? (d) the egg is divided into 4 pairs of cells which
(a) parotid (b) pancreas are implanted into the womb of other cows
(c) thyroid (d) parathyroid 159. Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed
152. A genetically engineered micro-organism use into human body for sonography ?
successfully in bioremediation of oil spills is a (a) 15 - 30 MHZ (b) 1 - 15 MHZ
species of (b) 45 - 70 MHZ (d) 30 - 45 MHZ.
(a) Trichoderma (b) Xanthomonas 160. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong
(c) Bacillus (d) Pseudomonas. to the same species if they.
153. In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation (a) have more than 90 per cent similar genes
during CO2 fixation occurs in the cells of (b) look similar and possess identical
(a) bundle sheath (b) phloem secondary metabolites
(c) epidermis (d) mesophyll (c) have same number of chromosomes
154. Flagellated male gametes are present in all the (d) can reproduce freely with each other and
three of which one of the following sets ? form seeds.
(a) Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla 161. Inheritances of skin colour in humans is an
(b) fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis example of
(c) Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas (a) point mutation
(b) polygenic inheritance
(d) Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra
(c) codominance
155. In the mean and the median pertaining to a certain
(d) chromosomal aberration.
character of a population are of the same value,
162. When two species of different genealogy come
which of the follwing is most likely to occur
to resemble each other as a result of adaptation,
(a) a bi-modal distribution the phenomenon is termed
(b) a T-shaped curve (a) microevolution (b) co-evolution
(c) a skewed curve (c) convergent evolution
(d) a normal distribution. (d) divergent evolution

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2007-14 CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER

163. Increased asthmatics attacks in certain seasons 170. Telomere repetitive DNA sequences control the
are related to function of eukaryotic chromosomes because they
(a) eating fruits preserved in tin containers (a) are RNA transcription initiator
(b) inhalation of seasonal pollen (b) help chromosome pairing
(c) low temperature (c) prevent chromosome loss
(d) hot and humid environment. (d) act as replicons.
164. Among the human ancestors the brain size was 171. Spore diseminiation in some liverworts is aided by
more that 1000 CC in (a) indusium (b) calyptra
(a) Homo erectus (b) Ramapithecus (c) peristome teeth (d) elaters.
(c) Homo habilis 172. Which one of the following elements is not an
(d) Homo neanderthalensis essential micronutrient for plant growth?
165. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered (a) Zn (b) Cu (c) Ca (d) Mn
173. The overall goal of glycolysis, krebs cycle and
moth proves that
the electron transport system is the formation of
(a) the melanic form of the moth has no
(a) ATP in one large oxidation reaction
selective advantage over lighter form in
(b) sugars (c) nucleic acids
industrial area
(d) ATP in small stepwise units.
(b) the lighter-form moth has no selective 174. Adaptive radiation refers to
advantage either in polluted industrial area (a) evolution of different species from a
or non-polluted area common ancestor
(c) melanism is a pollution-generated feature (b) migration of members of a species to
(d) the true black melanic forms arise by a different geographical areas
recurring random mutation. (c) power of adaptation in an individual to a
166. A high density of elephant population in an area variety of environments
can result in (d) adaptations due to geographical isolation.
(a) intra specific competition 175. Which one of the follwoing pairs, is not
(b) inter specific competition correctly matched?
(c) predation on one another (a) Gibberellic acid - Leaf fall
(d) mutualism. (b) Cytokinin - Cell wall elongation
167. A drop of each of the following, is placed (c) IAA - Cell wall elongation
separately on four slides. Which of them will (d) Abscissic acid - Stomatal closure.
not coagulate? 176. Select the correct statement from the following?
(a) blood serum (a) Fitness is the end result of the ability to
(b) sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic adapt and gets selected by nature
system (b) All mammals except whales and camels
(c) Whole blood from pulmonary vein have seven cervical vertebrae
(d) blood plasma. (c) Mutations are random and directional
168. Which one of the following ecosystem types (d) Darwinian variations are small and
has the highest annuial net primary directionless.
productivity? 177. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the
(a) tropical deciduous forest division of
(b) temperate evergreen forest (a) generative cell (b) vegetative cell
(c) microspore mother cell
(c) temperate deciduous forest
(d) microspore.
(d) tropical rain forest.
178. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to
169. In human body, which one of the following is
green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is
anatomically correct?
crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of
(a) Collar bones - 3 pairs yellow and green seeded plants would you
(b) Salivary glands - 1 pairs expect in F1 generation ?
(c) Cranial nerves - 10 pairs (a) 9 : 1 (b) 1 : 3
(d) Floating ribs - 2 pairs (c) 3 : 1 (d) 50 :50

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CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER 2007-15

179. Which one of the follwing mammalian cells is (b) first negative, then positive and continue
not capable of metabolising glucose to carbon- to be positive.
dioxide aerobically? (c) first positive, then negative and again back
(a) unstraited muscle cells to positive
(b) liver cells (c) red blood cells (d) first negative, then positive and again back
(d) white blood to negative .
180. A human male produces sperms with the 188. Which one of the follwoing pairs of organisms
genotypes AB, Ab, aB, and ab pertaining to two are exotic species introduced in India ?
diallelic characters in equal proportions. What (a) lantana camara, water hyacinth
is the corresponding genotype of this person? (b) water hyacinth, prosopis cinereria
(a) AaBB (b) AABb (c) nile perch, licus religiosa
(c) AABB (d) AaBb. (d) ficus religiosa , lantana camara.
181. What is common to whale, seal and shark? 189. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents
(a) thick subcutaneous fat (a) a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains
(b) convergent evolution are stored after pollination
(c) homoiothermy (b) an opening in the megagametophyte
(d) seasonal migration. through which the pollen tube approaches
182. One of the important consequences of the egg
geographical isolation is (c) the microsporangium in which pollen
(a) preventing speciation grains develop
(b) speciation through reproductive isolation (d) a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms
(c) random creation of new species are formed.
(d) no change in the isolated fauna. 190. Molecular basis of organ differentiation dpends
183. Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva
on the modulation in transcription by
and tears, destroys
(a) ribosome (b) transcription factor
(a) certain types of bacteria
(c) anticodon (d) RNA polymerase.
(b) all viruses
191. Which of the follwoing is an example of negative
(c) most virus-infected cells
feedback loop in humans?
(d) certain fungi
184. In the human female, menstruation can be (a) secretion of tears after falling of sand
deferred by the administration of particles into the eye.
(a) combination of FSH and LH (b) salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious
(b) combination of estrogen and progesterone food
(c) FSH only (d) LH only (c) secretion of sweat glands and constriction
185. Which one of the following is not a constituent of skin blood vessels when it is too hot
of cell membrane? (d) constriction of skin blood vessels and
(a) glycolipids (b) proline contraction of skeletal mucles when it is
(c) phospholipids (d) cholesterol. too cold
186. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because 192. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are
of (a) discontinuous (b) antiparallel
(a) higher levels of cortisone (c) semiconservative(d) parallel.
(b) lower levels of blood testosterone 193. Which of the following pairs are correctly
(c) lower levels of adrenaline/ noradrenaline matched ?
in its blood Animals - Morphological features
(d) higher levels of thyroxine.
(i) Crocodile - 4-chambered heart
187. During the transmission of nerve impulse
(ii) Sea urchin - Parapodia
through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner
side of the plasma membrane has which type of (iii) Obelia - Thecodont
electric change? (iv) Lemur - Thecodont
(a) first positive, then negative and continue (a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) only (i) and (iv)
to be positive (c) only (i) and (ii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)

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2007-16 CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER

194. Which one of the following pairs of structures 197. The wavelength of light absorbed by Pr form of
distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of phytochrome is
cells? (a) 680 nm (b) 720 nm
(a) vacuoles and fibres (c) 620 nm (d) 640 nm
(b) flagellum and modulloary sheath 198. Which one of the following is not a bioindicator
(c) nucleus and mitochondria of water pollution?
(d) perikaryon and dendrites. (a) blood-worms (b) stone flies
195. In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by (c) sewage fungus (d) sludge-worms.
(a) crossing of two inbred parental lines 199. Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared
(b) harvesting seeds from the most productive resident of seventh floor of a multistoryed
plants building starts climbing down the stairs rapidly.
(c) inducing mutations Which hormone initiated this action ?
(d) bombarding the seeds with DNA. (a) adrenaline (b) glucagon
196. Which one of the following is a viral disease of (b) gastrin (d) thyroxine
poultry ? 200. “Foolish seedling’’ disease of rice led to the
(a) coryza (b) new castle disease discovery of
(c) pasteurellosis (d) salmonellosis. (a) ABA (b) 2, 4-D
(c) IAA (d) GA

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CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER 2007-17

HINTS & SOLUTIONS


Vs Ns 6. (c) λ A = 5λ and λ B = λ
1. (a) Since =
Vp N p At t = 0, (N 0 ) A = (N 0 ) B
Where 2
Ns = No. of turns across primary coil = 50 NA  1 
Given, = 
Np = No. of turns across secondary coil NB  e 
= 1500
According to radioactive decay,
dφ d
and Vp = = (φ0 + 4t) = 4 N
dt dt = e −λt
N0
1500
⇒ Vs = × 4 = 120 V
NA
50 ∴ = e −λ A t ..... (1)
2. (a) If the electric field is switched off, and the (N 0 ) A
same magnetic field is maintained, the
NB
= e −λ B t
electrons move in a circular orbit and
..... (2)
electron will travel a magnetic field ⊥ to its (N 0 ) B
velocity. From (1) and (2)
dx d
3. (a) Speed v = = (9t 2 − t 3 ) = 18t – 3t2 NA
dt dt = e−(5λ−λ )t
NB
For maximum speed
2 4λt
dv 1 1
= 0 ⇒ 18 − 6t = 0 ⇒ t = 3 ⇒   = e −4λt =  
dt e e
⇒ x max = 81 − 27 = 54 ⇒ 4λ t = 2
y
4. (b) 1
∴t = .

( 3,3) A
7. (c) A
Y'
θ B
Y
x
(0, 0) B
Let θ be the angle which the particle makes Y' = A +B
with x axis.
Y = A + B =A +B
3
From figure, tan θ = = 3 Therefore truth table :
3
A B Y
⇒ θ = tan −1 ( 3) = 60° 0 0 0
5. (d) Since average speed 0 1 1
total distance travelled 1 0 1
= 1 1 1
total time taken
Let s be the distance from x to y 8. (a) In beta minus decay (β –), a neutron is
Average speed transformed into a proton, and an electron
s+s 2s 2v u vd is emitted from the nucleus along with
= = = antineutrino.
t1 + t 2 s
+
s v d + vu
v u vd n = p + e− + ν

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2007-18 CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER

9. (d) Let y = A sin ωt Therefore,


dy q
vinst = = Aω cos ωt = Aω sin(ωt + π / 2) = 2φ '+ φB = 2φ '+ φ
dt ε0

Acceleration = − Aω 2 sin ωt 1 q 
⇒ φ' =  − φ
= Aω2sin(π + ωt) 2  ε0 
π 13. (b) By using v = nλ
∴φ = = 0.5π
2 Here, n = 2 × 1014 Hz
10. (a) In mass spectrometer, when ions are
accelerated through potential V λ = 5000Å = 5000 × 10 −10 m

1 v = 2 × 1014 × 5000 × 10 −10 = 108 m s


mv2 = qV ..........(i) refractive index of the material,
2
As the magnetic field curves the path of 3 × 108
the ions in a semicircular orbit µ = c/v = =3
108
mv 2 BqR 14. (a) The difference in mass of a nucleus and its
Bqv = ⇒v= .......... (ii) constituents, ∆m, is called the mass defect
R m
and is given by
Substituting (ii) in (i)
∆M = [ZMp + (A − Z)M n ] − M
2
1  BqR 
m = qV and binding energy = ∆Mc
2
2  m 
= [{ZM p + (A − Z)M n } − M]c 2
q 2V
or = 15. (b) Power dissipiated = P
m B2 R 2
V 2 (18)2
Since V and B are constants, = = = 54 W
R 6
q 1
∴ ∝ 16. (d) It has been known that a nucleus of mass
m R2 number A has radius
R = R0A1/3
1 2 Where R0 = 1.2 × 10–15m
11. (a) Since, θ = ω 0 t + αt
2 and A = mass number
Where α is angular aceleration, ω0 is the
13 Al, let nuclear radius be R 1
In case of 27
initial angular speed.
t = 2s and for 125
32Te, nuclear radius be R 2

1 For 27
13 Al, R1 = R 0 (27)1/ 3 = 3R 0
θ = 2× 2+ × 3(2) 2 = 4 + 6 = 10 rad
2
32Te, R 2 = R 0 (125)
For 125 = 5R 0
1/ 3

q
12. (d) Since φ total = φA + φB + φC = ε R 2 5R 0 5
=
5
= R1 = × 3.6 = 6fm.
0 R1 3R 0 3 3
Where q is the total charge. 17. (d) Friction is the retarding force for the block
As shown in the figure, flux associated with F = ma = µR = µmg
the curved surface B is φ = φB Therefore, from the first equation of motion
Let us assume flux linked with the plane v = u – at
surfaces A and C be v
φA = φC = φ' 0 = v – µg × t ⇒ =t
µg

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CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER 2007-19

18. (c) Here, 20. (a) A balanced wheatstone bridge simply


requires
 t
f = f 0 1 −  or, dv = f 1 − t 
 T 0  P R
dt  T =
Q S
 t
or, dv = f0 1 −  dt
 T 2 2
=
2 S
  t 
∴ v = ∫ dv = ∫  f 0  1 −  dt Therefore, S should be 2Ω.
  T  A resistance of 6Ω is connected in parallel.
In parallel combination,
 t2 
or, v = f 0  t − +C 1 1 1
 2T  = +
  R R1 R 2
where C is the constant of integration.
At t = 0, v = 0. 1 1 1
= +
2 6 S
 0 
∴ 0 = f0  0 − +C ⇒ S = 3Ω
 2T 
21. (c) By using m = ZIt
⇒C=0 Where, Z is the electrochemical equivalent
 of copper.
t2 
∴ v = f0  t − 
 2T  ⇒ m = 30 × 10 −5 × 1.5 × 10 × 60
 
= 0.27 gm.
If f = 0, then
22. (d) 3 cm r = 90°
 t
0 = f0  1 − 
 T
i
⇒t=T
4 cm i
Hence, particle's velocity in the time interval
t = 0 and t = T is given by
t =T T coin
  t 
vx = ∫ dv = ∫ f0 1 − T  dt Hypotenuse comes out to be 5 cm.
t =0 t =0
1 sin i
T Since, =
 t 2  µ sin 90°
= f 0  t − 
 
 2T   0 µ=
1
=
5
sin i 3
 T2   T
= f0  T −  = f0  T −  c 3 × 108
 
2T   2 Speed, v = = = 1.8 × 108 m / s
 µ 5/3
1 23. (b) Efficiency of the transformer
= f 0 T.
2 Poutput 100
19. (b) Voltagegain=β × Impedance gain η= × 100 = × 100 = 90.9%
Pinput 220 × 0.5
200
50 = β × = 2β ⇒ β = 25 24. (c) Dimensions of Resistance,
100
[V] [ML2 T −3 I −1 ]
200 R= = = [ML2T–3I–2]
and power gain = β2 × = 1250. [I] [I]
100

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2007-20 CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER

1
25. (c) ∴ K0 = mω2 a 2
2
l
1
Hence, total energy, E = mω 2 a 2 = K 0
2
l/2 mg
∴ U max = K 0 & E = K 0 .
28. (c)
R
Weight of the rod will produce torque,
l
+q –q
τ = mg × A C D
2 B
2L L
Also, τ = Iα Potential at C = VC = 0
Potential at D = VD
ml 2
Where, I is the moment of inertia =  −q  Kq 2 Kq
3 = K   + =−
L 3L 3 L
and α is the angular acceleration
Potential difference
ml 2 l 3g −2 Kq 1  2 q
∴ α = mg × ⇒ α = =
3 2 2l VD – VC = − . 
3 L 4π ∈0  3 L 
26. (a) Angular momentum = Linear momentum × ⇒ Work done = Q(VD – V C)
distance of line of action of linear
2 1 qQ − qQ
momentum about the origin. =− × =
3 4πε 0 L 6πε0 L
Y
29. (d) Since p = nhν
B
A p 2 × 10−3
⇒n= =
hν 6.6 × 10−34 × 6 × 1014

= 5 × 1015
d 30. (a) Three point charges +q, –2q and +q are
0 X
placed at points B (x = 0, y = a, z = 0),
O (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and A(x = a, y = 0, z = 0)
LA = P A × d, LB = PB × d
The system consists of two dipole moment
As linear momenta are equal, vectors due to (+q and –q) and again due
therefore, LA = LB. to (+q and –q) charges having equal
27. (c) We have, U + K = E uuur
magnitudes qa units – one along OA and
where, U = potential energy, K = Kinetic uuur
energy, E = Total energy. other along OB . Hence, net dipole moment,
Also, we know that, in S.H.M., when uuur
potential energy is maximum, K.E. is zero pnet = (qa)2 + (qa)2 = 2qa along OP
and vice-versa. at an angle 45° with positive X-axis.
∴ U max + 0 = E ⇒ U max = E y
+q(0, a, 0) P
B B
Further,
1 (–2q) A 45°
K.E. = mω2 a 2 cos2 ωt x
O
2 (0, 0, 0) O +q(a, 0, 0) A

But by question, K.E. = K 0 cos 2 ωt z

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CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER 2007-21

31. (b) Since orbital velocity of satellite is


 2π 
a 2 = a sin   t
GM  T
v= , it does not depend upon the
r
π  2π 
⇒ =   t ⇒ t = T 12
mass of the satellite. 6  T
Therefore, both satellites will move with
This is the minimum time taken by the particle
same speed.
to travel half of the amplitude from the
r r r r
32. (d) A × B = 3(A.B) equilibrium position.
38. (c) For a cubic crystal,
⇒ ABsin θ = 3AB cos θ a = b = c and α = β = γ = 90°
39. (b) Work done = Change in energy
⇒ tan θ = 3 ⇒ θ = 60°
33. (a) Mass gets detached at the upper extreme 1 C  2 1  3C  2 3CV 2
= C + V =  V =
position when pan returns to its mean 2 2 2 2  4
position. 40. (a) According to Stefan's law,
At that point, R = mg – mω2a = 0 E ∝ T4
i.e. g = ω2a ∝ (t + 273)4 K [727°C = (727 + 273)K]
∝ (727 + 273)4 K
⇒ a = g / ω 2 = mg / K ∝ (1000)4 K
41. (a) We know
2 × 10  K
⇒a =  As = ω = m 
2
200 I G
= 1+
IS S
⇒ a = 1 10 m = 10cm
34. (d) Magnetic moment, m = IA 750 13
= 1+
100 S
qv qvR
= ( πR 2 ) = S ⇒ 2Ω
2πR 2
42. (c) Since efficiency of engine is
 q 2πR 
Q I = T and T = v 
T2
η = 1−
  T1
35. (d) Energy in the first excited state According to problem,
−13.6 −13.6 1 T
= = = −3.4ev = 1− 2
n 2
2 2
6 T1 .......... (1)
But K.E. = –(Total energy) = +3.4 ev. When the temperature of the sink is reduced
36. (d) Number of emitted electrons NE by 62°C, its efficiency is doubled
∝ Intensity
 1 T − 62
2  = 1− 2 .......... (2)
1  6 T1
∝ 2
(Distance) Solving (1) and (2)
Therefore, as distance is doubled, N E T2 = 372 K
decreases by (1/4) times. T1 = 99°C = Temperature of source.
37. (b) Displacement from the mean position 43. (c) Variation in magnetic field causes electric
field and vice versa.
 2π  r r
y = a sin   t In electromagnetic waves, E ⊥ B. Both
 T r r
E and B are in the same phase.
According to problem y = a/2

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2007-22 CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER
In electromagnetic waves Ti + Tc
E = E 0 sin(ωt − kx) 48. (d) Since Tn = =Neutral temperature
2
B = B0 sin(ωt − kx) T + 0 Ti
The electromagnetic waves travel in the Tn = i =
2 2
r r
direction of (E × B). [Tc = 0°C = temperature of cold junction]
44. (d) Condition for which the current is maximum 49. (c) Power radiated by the sun at t°C
in a series LCR circuit is, = σ(t + 273) 4 4πr 2
1 Power received by a unit surface
ω=
LC σ(t + 273)4 4πr 2 r 2 σ(t + 273) 4
= =
1 4πR 2 R2
1000 =
50. (d) For a P-type semiconductor, the acceptor
L(10 × 10−6 )
energy level, as shown in the diagram, is
⇒ = L = 100 mH slightly above the top Ev of the volume
45. (d) Beyond curie temperature, ferromagnetic band. With very small supply of energy an
substances behaves like a paramagnetic electron from the valence band can jump to
substance. the level EA and ionise acceptor negatively.
46. (a) Gravitational potential energy of ball gets
converted into elastic potential energy of
the spring.
Chemistry
51. (a) Reduction of alkyl isocyanides in presence
1 2 of LiAlH 4 yields secondary amines
mg(h + d) = kd
2 containing methyl as one of the alkyl group.
1 2 r LiAlH 4
Net work done = mg(h + d) − kd = 0 R − N = C + 4[H]  → R − NH − CH3
2 2°amine
e.g.,
r LiAlH 4
CH3 − N = C + 4[H]  → CH3 − NH − CH3
h
dimethyl amine

d
whereas, alkyl cyanides give 1° amine on
reduction.
52. (c) Each nucleic acid consists of a pentose
sugar a heterocyclic base, and phosphoric
z v acid. The sugar present in DNA is 2-deoxy
x
-D (–) ribose and the sugar present in RNA
is D (–)- ribose. The chirality of DNA and
RNA molecules are due to the presence of
v sugar components.
47. (b)
x O
HOCH2 OH
λ
When a test charge q0 enters a magnetic H H
r
field B directed along z-axis, with a velocity H H
r
v making angles d with the z-axis. The time
OH OH
period of the motion is independent of R
D(–)–ribose
and v.

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CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER 2007-23

Total = 25 + 1 = 26
O 26
HOCH2 = = 3(Q) + 2(R) = 5
OH 8
hybridization = dsp3
H H hybridization of Xe in XeO3
H H Total valence electrons
26
OH H = 8 + 3 × 6 = 26 = = 3(Q) + 2(R) = 5
8
2-deoxy–D(–)–ribose
Hybridization = dsp3
In both cases, the structure is trigonal
53. (a) Langmuir adsorption isotherm is based on
pyramidal.
the assumption that every adsorption site 60. (a) All the group IV elements show
is equivalent and the ability of a particle to tetravalency which can be explained on the
bind there is independent of whether or not basis of shifting of one e– of ns to the vacant
nearby sites are occupied. np orbital.These four orbitals give rise to
54. (a) Given Ka = 1.00×10–5, C= 0.100 mol four sp3 hybrid orbitals.
for a weak electrolyte, When ns2 electrons of the outermost shell
degree of dissociation do not participate in bonding it is called
inert pair and the effect is called inert pair
KA 1× 10 –5
= 10−2 = 1%
effect. The last three elements of group 4
(α) = =
C 0.100 i.e. Ge, Sn and Pb, have a tendency to form
55. (d) As the slowest step is the rate determining divalent as well as tetravalent ions. Since
step thus the mechanism B will be more the inert pair effect increases from Ge to Pb,
consistent with the given information also the stability of tetravalent ion decreases
because it involve one molecule of H2 and and that of divalent ion increases that is
one molecule of ICl it can expressed as why Pb++ is more stable than Pb4+ and Sn4+
r = k [H2][ICl] ions is more stable than Sn2+.
Which shows that the reaction is first order 61. (d) The sulphide ore is roasted to oxide before
w.r.t. both H2 & ICl. reduction because the ∆G of of most of the
∆G sulphides are greater than those of CS2 and
56. (b) Efficiency of a fuel cell ( η) =
∆H H2S, therefore neither C nor H can reduce
57. (d) This reaction shows the formation of H 2O, metal sulphide to metal. Further, the standard
and the X 2 represents the enthalpy of free energies of formation of oxide are much
formation of H2O because as the definition less than those of SO2. Hence oxidation of
suggests that the enthalpy of formation is metal sulphides to metal oxide is
the heat evolved or absorbed when one thermodynamically favourable.
mole of substance is formed from its 62. (c) For a first order reaction
constituent atoms. 2.303 a
58. (a) As the basicity of metal hydroxides k= log10
t a−x
increases down the group from Be to Ba,
the thermal stability of their carbonates also when t = t½
increases in the same order. Further group 2.303 a
1 compounds are more thermally stable than k= log10
t½ a−a/2
group 2 because their hydroxide are much
basic than group 2 hydroxides therefore, 2.303 ln 2
the order of thermal stability is or t½ = log10 2 =
k k
BeCO3 < MgCO3< CaCO3< K2CO3. 63. (c) The degree of hydrolysis increases as the
59. (c) Hybridisation of Br is BrO3– magnitude of positive charge on carbonyl
Total valence elctrons = 7 + 3 × 6 = 25 group increases. Electron withdrawing
Charge = –1 hence

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2007-24 CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER

∑ B.E. of reactant
group increases the positive charge and
electron releasing group decreases the ∆H HCl =
negative change. Among these NO2 & CHO − ∑ B.E. of products
are electron withdrawing group from which
NO2 has more –I effect than –CHO. On the 1 1 1
other hand CH3 is a electron releasing group −90 = × 430 + + × 240 − B.E. of HCl
2 2 2
therefore the order of reactivity towards ∴ B.E. of HCl = 215 + 120 + 90
hydrolysis is = 425 kJ mol–1
COCl COCl COCl COCl 68. (c) Electron withdrawing substituent increases
the acidity by increasing the ionic character
> > > of –O–H by inductive effect.
Electronegativity decreases in the order.
NO2 CHO CH3 F > Cl > Br
64. (c) This reaction occurs according to and hence –I effect also decreases in the
Markownikoff’s rule which states that when same order, therefore the correct option is
an unsymmetrical alkene undergo FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH >
hydrohalogenation, the negative part goes BrCH2COOH > CH3COOH
to that C-atom which contain lesser no. of 69. (a) Compounds which do not show optical
H-atom. activity inspite of the presence of chiral
CH3 − CH 2 − C ≡ CH + HCl carbonatomsarecalledmeso-compounds.
The absence of optical activity in these

→ CH3 − CH 2 − C = CH 2 compound is due to the presence of a plane
| of symmetry in their molecules. e.g. meso-
Cl tartaric acid is optically inactive.
I COOH
|
HI
→ CH3 − CH 2 − C − CH 2 H OH
|
Cl (Plane of symmetry)
65. (c) Molarity of H 2SO4 solution H OH
98 × 1000
= × 1.84 = 18.4 COOH
98 × 100
Suppose V ml of this H2SO4 is used to 2
prepare 1 lit. of 0.1M H2SO4 C2H5
∴ V ×18.02 = 1000 × 0.1 3
70. (b) Cl — C — CH3
1000 × 0.1
or V = = 5.55 ml. 1
18.02
Zn-Hg / conc. HCl
H 4
66. (d) C=O CH2 + H2 O R-configuration
Clemmensen reduction 71. (d) Vitamin B is water soluble whereas all other
e.g. are water insoluble.
CH3 Zn-Hg / CH3 72. (a) For isoelectronic species, size of anion
conc. HCl
C=O CH2 + H2 O increases as negative charge increases
CH3 CH3 whereas size of cation decreases with
increase in positive charge. Further ionic
1 1
67. (b) H 2 + Cl2 
→ HCl radii of anions is more than that of cations.
2 2 Thus the correct order is
Ca++ < K+ < Ar < Cl– < S– –
73. (b) As ∆Tf = i Kg m

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CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER 2007-25

For
10−4
+ − = × 6.023 × 1023 = 6.023 × 1017
HX ˆˆ†
‡ˆˆ H + X 100
t=0 1 0 0 78. (b) Lesser is the number of unpaired electrons
smaller will be the paramagnetic behaviour.
teq (1 − 0.20) 0.20 0.20 As Cr++, Mn++, Fe++ & Ni++ contains.
Total no. of moles = 1 – 0.20 + 0.20 + 0.20 =
1 + 0.20 = 1.2 Cr++ (3d4) =
∴ ∆Tf = 1.2 × 1.86 × 0.5 = 1.1160 ≈ 1.12 K = 4 unpaired e –.
74. (d) Leaching is the selective dissolution of the
desired mineral leaving behind the Mn++ (3d5) =
impurities in a suitable dissolving agent eg = 5 unpaired e –.
Argentitie or Silver glance, Ag2S is an ore
of silver. Silver is extracted from argentite Fe++ (3d6)=
by the mac-Arthur and Forest process
= 4 unpaired e –.
(leaching process).
Ag 2S + 4NaCN → 2Na[Ag ( CN )2 ] + Na 2S Ni++ (3d8) =
= 2 unpaired e –.
4Au + 8KCN + 2H 2 O + O 2 As Ni++ has minimum no. of unpaired e–
→ 4K[Au ( CN )2 ] + 4KOH thus this is least paramagnetic.
79. (a) The solubility of sulphates of alkaline earth
75. (a) For a first order reaction
metals decreases as we move down the
2.303 a group from Be to Ba due to the reason that
k= log
t a−x ionic size increases down the group. The
when t = 60 and x = 60% lattice energy remains constant because
sulphate ion is so large, so that small
2.303 100 2.303 100
k= log = log change in cationic sizes do not make any
60 100 − 60 60 40 difference. Thus the order:
Now, BeSO 4 > MgSO 4 > CaSO 4 > SrSO 4 > BaSO 4
2.303 100 2.303
t½ = log = × log 2 80. (d) H3C — C = CH — CH3
0.0153 100 − 50 0.0153
CH3
2.303
= × 0.3010 = 45.31 min .
0.0153 O3
H3C O H
76. (b) Non superimposable mirror images are C C
H3C CH3
called optical isomers and may be described O O
as “chiral’. They are also called enantiomers
and rotate plane polarised light in opposite O O
H 2O
directions. CH3 – C – CH3 + CH3 – C – H
–H2O2 acetone acetaldehyde
N N N
N 81. (b) The factors on which the ionisation energy
N Co Cl Cl Co N depend are :
N N
(i) Atomic size – I.E. decreases as the
Cl Cl
atomic size increases. So the attractive
77. (b) Since each Sr++ ion provides one cation force decreases.
vacancy, hence (ii) Number of electrons in the inner shell
Concentration of cation vacancies = mole (screening effect). As the number of
% of SrCl2 added shells increases screening effect also
= 10–4 mole % increases and hence the I.E. tends to
decrease.

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2007-26 CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER
82. (a) Proton affinity decreases in moving across – –
O O O
the period from left to right due to increase
in charge, within a group the proton (ii) C C C
– – – –
affinities decreases from to p to bottom. O O O O O O
Nitrogen family > Oxygen family > Halogens
+ ..

83. (d) Given, =C=O : 
→:O −C≡ O
(iii) : O :
ˆˆ† 2NH 3 ; K1
N 2 + 3H 2 ‡ˆˆ ....(i) .. .. ..

ˆˆ† 2NO; K 2
N 2 + O 2 ‡ˆˆ ....(ii) −
.. +

→ :O
..
≡ C−O:
1
H2 + ˆˆ† H 2 O; K 3
O 2 ‡ˆˆ ....(iii)
2 More is the single bond character. More
We have to calculate will be the bond length. Hence, the corret
4NH3 + 5O2  → 4NO + 6H 2 O; K = ? order is :
5 CO < CO2 < CO3– –
or 2NH3 + O2  → 2NO + 3H 2 O 86. (d) HOCl < HOClO < HOClO 2 < HOClO3
2 +1 +3 +5 +7
2
[NO] [H 2 O] 3 As the oxidation number of the central atom
For this equation, K = increases, strength of acid also increases.
[NH3 ]2 [O 2 ]5 / 2 87. (a) Aldehydes containing no α-hydrogen
atom on warming with 50% NaOH or KOH
[NH3 ]2 [NO]2 undergo disproportionation i.e. self
but K1 = , K2 = oxidation - reduction known as cannizzaro’s
[N 2 ] [H 2 ]3 [N 2 ] [O2 ]
reaction.
50% NaOH
[H2 O] 2 C6 H 5 CHO + NaOH →
& K3 =
½
[H 2 ] [O2 ] C6 H 5COONa + C6 H 5CH 2 OH
88. (a) Nucleophilicity increases down the periodic
[H 2 O]3 table.
or K3 =
[H 2 ]3 [O2 ]3/ 2 I − > Br − > Cl− > F−
Now operate, 89. (a) Given [H3O+] = 1 × 10–10 M
at 25º [H3O+] [OH–] = 10–14
K 2 . K33
10 −14
K1 ∴ [OH − ] = = 10 −4
10 −10
[NO]2 [H2 O]3 [N ] [H 2 ]3 OH
= 10−4 = 10− p
OH
= × . 2 Now, [OH − ] = 10−p
[N2 ] [O2 ] [H 2 ]3 [O2 ]3 / 2 [NH3 ]2
∴ p =4OH

90. (b) (ii) is not possible for any value of n because


[NO]2 [H 2 O]3
= =K l varies from 0 to (n – 1) thus for n = 2, l can
[NH3 ]2 [O 2 ]5 / 2 be only 0, 1, 2.
(iv) is not possible because for l = 0, m = 0.
(v) is not possible because for l = 2, m varies
K 2 . K 33
∴ K= from –2 to +2.
K1
0.0591
(c) As Ecell =
o
91. log K c
84. (d) For chromium ion + 3oxidation state is most n
stable.
0.0591
85. (c) All these structures exhibits resonance and ∴ 0.46 = log K c
can be represented by the following 2
resonating structures. 2 × 0.46
+ .. ∴ log K c = = 15.57
: C ≡ O : 
→ : C = O: 0.0591
(i)
or Kc = Antilog 15.57 = 3.7 × 1015 ≈ 4 × 1015

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CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER 2007-27

92. (d) Copolymer of adipic acid (6C) and group that forms alkyl iodide therefore
hexamethylene diamine (6C). ∆
CH3 − CH − CH 2 − O − CH 2 − CH3 + HI →
n HOOC(CH 2 ) 4 COOH + nH 2 N (CH 2 ) 6 NH 2 → |
Adipic acid Hexamethyl ene diamine CH3
O O CH3
|| ||
−( C− (CH 2 ) 4 − C− NH − (CH 2 ) 6 − NH −) n |
Nylon 66 CH3 − CH − CH 2 OH + CH3CH 2 I
It has high tenacity and elasticity. It is 98. (a) Aldehydes and ketones having at least one
resistant to abrasion and not affected by α-hydrogen atom in presence of dilute alkali
sea water. It is used for reinforcement of give β-hydroxy aldehyde or β-hydroxy
rubber tyres, manufacture of parachute, ketone
safety belts, carpets and fabrics.
O
93. (c) Electrophiles have high affinity for ||
electrons. They attack at the site where CH3 − C + HCH 2 CHO
electron-density is highest. Electron |
H
withdrawing substances increases the Acetaldehyde
electron density. The electron withdrawing
tendency decreases in the order : OH
–OH > –CH3 > –H > –Cl |
dil.NaOH
Therefore, the correct order of reactivity 
→ CH3 − C − CH 2 − CHO
|
towards electrophile is H
C6H5OH > C6H5CH3 > C6H6 > C6H5Cl Aldol
94. (b) (SiO 32–) n Two oxygen atoms per SiO4

tetrahedron are shared giving polymeric → CH3 − CH = CH.CHO
anion chains. − H 2O Crotonaldehyde
Example : Spodumene LiAl (SiO 3 ) 2 , 99. (b) The balance chemical equation is :
Diposide CaMg(SiO3)2.
95. (d) Average isotopic mass of 2MnO −4 + 6H + + 5SO3−− 

X=
200 × 90 + 199 × 8 + 202 × 2 2Mn ++ + 5SO4−− + 3H 2 O
90 + 8 + 2 From the equation it is clear that
18000 + 1892 + 404 Moles of MnO4– require to oxidise 5 moles
= of SO3– – are 2
100 Moles of MnO4– require to oxidise 1 mole
19996 of SO3– – are 2/5.
= = 199.96 amu 100. (b) There is a steady decrease in the radii as
100
the atomic number of the lanthanide
96. (d) Number of atoms per unit cell = 1
elements increases. For every additional
Atoms touch each other along edges.
proton added in nucleus the corresponding
a electron goes to 4f subshell.
Hence r = The shape of f -orbitals is very much
2
( r = radius of atom and a = edge length) diffused and they have poor shielding effect.
The effective nuclear charge increases
4 3
πr which causes the contraction in the size of
π
Therefore % fraction = 3 3 = = 0.52 electron charge cloud. This contraction in
(2r) 6 size is quite regular and known as
97. (c) In the cleavage of mixed ethers with two Lanthanoid contraction.
different alkyl groups, the alcohol and alkyl Since the change in the ionic radii in the
iodide that form depend on the nature of lanthanide series is very small, thus their
alkyl group. When primary or secondary chemical properties are similar.
alkyl groups are present, it is the lower alkyl

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2007-28 CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER
To find the genotype of hybrid test cross
Biology 107. (c)
is done.
okazaki fragments in DNA are linked up by
101. (a) ICBN (International code of Botanical the enzyme DNA ligase ( DNA synthetase)
Nomenclature) - It is one of the code of after replacing the RNA primers with
nomen clature which is independent of deoxyribonucleot ides after replacing the
zoological and bacteriological RNA primers with deoxyribonucleotides
nomenclature. The code applies equally to solution of the okazaki fragments in DNA
names of taxonomic groups treated as chain growth :
plants whether or not these groups were Replication occurs always in 5’ – 3’
originally so treated. direction okazaki fragments, synthesized
102. (d) The class Basidiomycetes includes those
on 3’ – 5’ DNAtemplate, join to form lagging
members that produce their basidia and
strand which grows in 3’ – 5’ direction.
basidiospores on or in a basidiocarp.
108. (c) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny.
103. (d) Biological organisms starts with submicro
scopic moleculer level like viruses, bacteria 109. (b) Biochemical oxygen demand ( B O D ). If all
etc. the organic matter in one litre of water were
These organisms are unable to be seen by oxidized by microorganisms. More value of
naked eyes without the help of microscope BOD means the water sample is polluted
or even electron microscope. by organic matter. BOD of distillary effluent
104. (d) Dachigam national park is for conserration is 40000 mg/L and that of paper mill effluent
of Hangul which is one of India's most and sewage is 190 mg/L and 30 mg/L
scenically beautiful wildlife reserves. It is respectively
located only 22 kilometers from Srinagar, 110. (c) The concept of chemical evolution is
the capital city of the northern state of based on possible origin of life by
Jammu and Kashmir. It covers an area of combination of chemicals under suitable
141 square kilometers consisting of some environmental conditions. The distribution
of the most scenic natural beauty present of elements in the cosmos is the result of
on Earth. The variation in altitude is vast, many processes in the history of the
ranging from 5500 ft to 14000 ft above mean Universe. It provides us with a powerful
sea level. Due to this vast variation, the tool to study the Big Bang, the density of
park is very clearly demarcated into an baryonic matter, nucleosynthesis and the
upper and lower region. The best times to formation and evolution of stars and
explore these two areas are summer and galaxies.
winter respectively. 111. (d) MMC (megaspore mother cell is
105. (a) Serum globulins → It makes 2 to 3% of surrounded by a callose wall, ovules
plasma proteins. The a and b - globulin generally differentiate single MMC in the
sent with the hormones to transpert them micropylar region of MMC. It is a large cell
the r–globulin from antibodies. containing dense cytoplasm and a
106. (c) crossing of one F1 progeny with male
prominent nucleus.
parent. e.g
112. (c) Probiotics are defined as live
RR × rr microorganisms, including Lactobacillus
(red) (green) species, Bifidobacterium species and
Rr Rr Rr Rr F1-progeny yeasts, that may beneficially affect the host
Red Red Red Red upon ingestion by improving the balance
of the intestinal microflora. The dietary use
of live microorganisms has a long history.
F1-progeny Rr × RR
113. (d) Podophyllum (pode-oh-FILL-um) is one of
the endangered species of Indian medicinal
plants. Which used to remove benign (not
RR Rr Rr RR
cancer) growths, such as certain kinds of
warts. It works by destroying the tissue of
red red red red
(pure) (dominant) (dominant) (pure)
the growth.

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CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER 2007-29

114. (a) Neries (belonging to class polychacta of


phylum Annelida ) scorpion and cockroach
(belonging to phylum arthropoda) and
silver fish all have dorsal heart.
115. (b) There are several factors and processes
which differentiate living beings with non-
living beings like reproducction,
respiration, growth, etc. But among them
reproduction is the only difference which
differentiate without any exception living 121. (a) Geometric representation of age structure
being with non-living beings. a characteristic of population.
116. (c) Due to a long hunger strike and survival 122. (a) The DNA binding sequence for RNA
on water, a person will have less urea in his polymerase is called TATA box.
urine because urea comes to kidney as a 123. (b)
waste product from liver which is formed
after the breakdown of protein fat, X —CH3 in Chl a
carbohydrate during hunger. It is not —CHO in Chl b

synthesised but the synthesised ones are CH3


H3C I II
catabolised. N N
Porphyrin H– –H
Mg
117. (a) The nucleosome model explains the ring
(Head) N N
packaging of histone proteins and DNA in H 3C III IV CH3

the chromatin material which formsthe


chromosome. 0
0 0
118. (b) A sequential expression of a set of human Ester
0
linkage 0
genes is the DNA sequence. Because gene CH3
is the functional part of DNA sequence. CH3
H3C
119. (b) Recent years, the increases in toxic CH3

substances of NOx and/or SPM (Suspended CH3


Particulate Matter) from vehicles come to Phytol
(Tail) H3C
be serious problem. About the correlation
H3C
between the traffic volume in our model and CH3
H3C
the real volume, we obtained the correlation H3C
coefficient of 0.74. Simultaneously, we got β Carotene
the result that the concentration of NOx
was approximately 70 to 230 ppb. That of
SPM was approximately 40 to 100 µg/m3. A plants require magnesium for chlorophyll
120. (a) Both chloroplasts and mitochoridria have synthesis All four sings bind with metal
an internal compartment, the thylakoid atom magnesium (Mg++ ), Which remain
space bounded by double membrane present at the center ofchlorophyll
molecule.
124. (c) In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogams
the antherozoids and eggs mature at
different times which result in failurity of
self-fertilization,
125. (c) Ergot of Rye is a plant disease that is
caused by the fungus Claviceps purpurea.
The so-called ergot that replaces the grain

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2007-30 CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER

of the rye is a dark, purplish sclerotium, petrocrops. However, in the Indian


from which the sexual stage, of the life cycle countryside, pongamia(kanjar) is being
will form after over wintering. utilized as a source of biodiesel.
131. (a) Teak and pine is most suitable for the study
of critical secondary growth because in
secondary growth, secondary tissues are
formed from lateral meristem which is well
developed in these two cases and
secondary growth occurs in
gymnosperims and dicots.
132. (a) Fat soluble vitamins are - A, D, E and K
and lack of vitamin A causes xerophthalmia.
126. (c) The finches of galapagos is lands provides 133. (c) Movement of water will be from low DPD
an evidence in favour of biogeographical to high DPD i.e from A to B
evolution 134. (d) It is ciliated epithelium which bears
127. (a) Physarum polycephalum belongs to numerous delicated hair like outgrowths
phylum Amoebozoa, infraphylum the cilia, arising from basal granules. The
Mycetozoa, and class Myxogastrea. P. cilia remains in rhythmic motion and creates
polycephalum, often referred to as the current to transport the materials which
“many-headed slime,” is a slime mold that comes in contact with them.
inhabits shady, cool, moist areas, such as 135. (d) It will be types of pigment present in the
decaying leaves and logs. cell like Rhodophyceae presence of
phycoerythrin chlorophyceae b high green
128. (b) If a population ( e.g reindeer population )
algae presence of phycocyarin , green algne
is allowed to grow in a predator free etc.
environment, the population grows 136. (c) It is calcium and phosphorus.
beyond carrying capacity and there occurs 137. (d) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may
population crash due to sudden shortage lead to eutrophiction of nearby water
of food. such growth curves also occur in bodies.
insect populations during rainy season, 138. (c) The basic number (x) of wheat is 7 so,
and in Algal blooms. 6x = 2x = 42 and n = 21
129. (d) It is also know as Australian pine, which is 139. (d) The innermost leyer of the cortex is called
a deciduous tree with a soft, wispy, pine- endodermis. It comprises a single layer of
like appearance that can grow to 100 feet barrel shaped cells without any intercellular
or more in height. Also known as ironwood, spaces
beefwood, she oak and horsetail tree, it 140. (d) Only birds and mammals are
bears a superficial resemblance to the homoiothermous.
conifer genus Pinus because of its small, 141. (c) Bowman’s glands are located in the
round, cone-like fruits and its branchlets olfactory epithelium of our nose
of scale-like leaves that look like pine 142. (c) Coliforms are a broad class of bacteria
needles. found in our environment, including the
130. (c) Pongamia pinnata is one of the few feces of man and other warm-blooded
nitrogen fixing trees (NFTS) to produce animals. The presence of coliform bacteria
seeds containing 30-40% oil. It is often in drinking water may indicate a possible
planted as an ornamental and shade tree presence of harmful, disease-causing
but now-a-days it is considered as organisms.
alternative source for Bio- Diesel. This 143. (d) graafian follicle – the ovarian medulla
species is commonly called pongam, contains many rouded or oval bodies,
karanja, or a derivation of these names. called ovarian, or grafian follicles, at varions
Pongami, jatropa, Euphorbia are

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CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER 2007-31

stages of development. Each follicle Rheumatology Congress the isolation of


contains a large ovum surrounded by many PPLO from the genitourinary tracts of men
layers of follicle cells. afflicted with arthritis. In discussing the
144. (c) Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a significance of this observation, Brown
type of autonomic movement of water reported successful treatment of arthritic
which is due to epinasty. patients in 1949 with a new antibiotic called
145. (a) Leech has ventral central nervous system aureomycin ( Clark, 1997).
which consists of nerve ring, and a solid, 150. (d) From pinetada vulgaris, pearl is obtained.
double, mid ventral nerve cord with ganglia. 151. (d) Parathyroid disorders : It causes the
146. (c) Succinate:ubiquinone oxidoreductase, also lowering of blood calcium level. This
known in mitochondria as Complex II, increases the excitability of nerves and
provides a link between the citric acid cycle muscles causing cramps and convulsions.
and the membrane-bound electron- 152. (d) pseudomonas putida (super bus)
transport system. The membrane extrinsic, developed by gentic engineering by Anand
water-soluble domain, known as succinate mohan chakravorty, is used to control oil
dehydrogenase (SDH), contains the spills.
fumarate/succinate active site with a 153. (d) InC4 plants, C4 cycle occurs in mesophyll
covalently bound FAD group and three cells and C3 - cycle occurs in abundle
iron-sulfur clusters: [2Fe-2S]2+/1+ , [4Fe- sheath.
4S]2+/1+ , and [3Fe-4S]1+/0 . The enzyme 154. (c) Riccia, dryopteris and cycas The male
catalyzes the interconversion of fumarate gametes of bryophytes are biflagellete, and
and succinate, and is closely related to those of pteriodophytes are multiflagellate,
fumarate reductase except selaginella having biflagellate
147. (c) The first acceptor electrons from an excited gametes. The male gametes of gymnospems
chlorophyll is quinone are non motile except those of cycas having
148. (a) The fate of a cell describes what it will multiciliate gametes.
become in the course of normal 155. (d) a normal distributon.
development. The fate of a particular cell 156. (d) It was given by Geneticists George W.
can be discovered by labelling that cell and Beadle and E. L. Tatum which states that
observing what structures it becomes a each gene in an organism controls the
part of. The developmental potential, or production of a specific enzyme. It is these
potency, of a cell describes the range of enzymes that catalyze the reactions that
different cell types it can become. The lead to the phenotype of the organism.
zygote and its very early descendents are 157. (c) When the linked genes are situated quite
totipotent - these cells have the potential close, the chances of crossing over are
to develop into a complete organism. The highly reduced. Due to this, large number
determination of different cell types (cell os parental gametes are formed and only
fates) involves progressive restrictions in few recombinant gametes are formed. This
their developmental potentials. results in higher number of parental types
Differentiation follows determination, as in F 2 generation as compared to
the cell elaborates a cell-specific recombinants.
developmental program. Differentiation 158. (a) In cloning of cattle, a fertilized egg is taken
results in the presence of cell types that out of the mother’s womb and in the eight
have clear-cut identities, such as muscle cell - stage , cells are separated and cultured
cells, nerve cells, and skin cells. until small embryos are formed which are
149. (b) While working at the Rockefeller Institute, implanted into the womb of other cows.
Brown reported isolation of a PPLO from 159. (b) Ultrasound imaging has frequency range 1
human arthritic joint tissue in 1938. In 1949, - 15 MHz which has become part of our
Diennes reported to the 7th International lives in the last decade. We are now all

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2007-32 CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER

familiar with the blurry black and white clotting.


sonograms (ultrasound pictures) that 168. (d) They are found in the equatorial regions
show the unborn baby inside the mother's rainfall exceeds 140 cm.) The warm humid
uterus. Although it may take a little climatesupportsbroad leaved evergreen
imagination on our part to understand that plants. Productivity is very high ( 12000 k.
a round circle is the baby's head, that does cal/m 2 / year The vegetation show
not prevent a proud mother-to-be from stratification into two or more well defined
showing off her first baby picture. layers.
160. (d) When the members of a species are inter - 169. (d) Floating ribs are 2- pairs ( 11th and 12th
fertile and produce fertile offsprings. pair ) which are not attached to sternum
161. (b) Inheritance of skin colour in human is
controlled by three genes, A B and C which
is polygenic in heritance.
162. (c) The analogous organs show comergent
evolution due to similar adaptions which
do not support organic evolution.
163. (b) pollen–grains of many species are
responsible for some of the severe allergies
and bronchial affliction in some people
often lead to chronic respiratory disorders
- asthma, bronchitis.
164. (d) Homo habilis had a cranial capacity in the
range of 680 - 720 c.c & that of . homo
erectus erectus 775 - 990 c.c., Homo erectus
pekinesis 915-1200 c.c. Homo
nenderthalensis 1300-1600 c.c.
170. (c) A highly conserved repetitive DNA
165. (d) During the period when the number of coal-
sequence, (TTAGGG)n, has been isolated
burning factories in England was increasing
from a human recombinant repetitive DNA
(during the so-called Industrial Revolution)
library. Telomerase seals the ends of the
it was noticed that the number of melanic
chromosomes
individuals of the species of Peppered
171. (d) Elater: Which is an elongated, spirally
Moth (Biston betularia) was becoming
thickened, water-attracting cell in the
more common. Originally rare in the
capsule of a liverwort, derived from
population of normally light-colored moths,
sporogenous tissue and assisting in spore
the frequency of the melanic form
dispersal.
increased in polluted areas until it was over
172. (c) Essential micro elements are Fe, Mn, Zn, B,
90%. This change in color has come to be
Cu, Mo and essential macronutrionts are
known as "industrial melanism."
C,H, N, P, S, Ca, K, Mg
166. (a) It is competition between individuals of
173. (d) Glycolysis, krebs cycle and electron
different species. The interspecific
transport system, they all give ATP which
competition may be very severe because
is the main energy currency of our body.
all the members of a species have similar
Glycosis takes place in cytoplarm kreb’s
requirements of food, habitat mate, etc and
cycle also in cytoplasm and ETS takes place
they also have similar adaptations to get
in the mitochondria.
their needs.
174. (a) Adaptive radiation refers to evolution of
167. (a) Blood serum is liquid minus clotting
different species from a common ancestor.
elements of pale yellow colour. It does not
The mammals are adapted for different
have fibrinogen and other clotting
mode of life i.e. they show Adaptive
materials. It does not take part in blood
radiation. They can be aerial (bat), aquatic

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CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER 2007-33

(whale and dolphins), burrowing or do not support organic evolution whole


fossorial (rat), cursorial ( horse), scantorial seadandshark shows convergent evolution
(squarrel) or arboreal (monkey). The due to similar habitate.
adaptive radiation, the term by osborn, is 182. (b) Speciation takes place via reproductive
also known as Divergent evolution. isolation which is the most important
175. (a) Gibberllic acid stimulates cell growth of consequence of geographical isolation.
leaves and stem causing their expansion, 183. (a) Lysozyme is an antibacterial agent which
elongation respective and leaf fall is is secreted by the major salivary glands.
controlled by ABA. 184. (b) The progesterone and estradiol continue
176. (a) To survive in a particular environment, an the hypertrophy of endo metrial lining in
organism need to adapt in that the uterus and fallopian tubes and maintain
environment. If the organism becomes it throughout pregnancy. progesterone is
success in adapting them that organism is also necessary for the proper implantation
selected by nature . of the foetus in the uterine wall. It stimulates
177. (a) Generative cell which is a cell of the male the endometrial glands to secrete a nutrient
gametophyte or pollen grain in seed plants fluid for the foetus, hence the term secetory
that divides to give rise directly or indirectly phase. The progesterone inhibits the
to sperm release of FSH so that it may not develop
178. (d) Let GG ⇒ homozygons yellow seded additional follicles and eggs.
plant. 185. (b) Proline is an amino acid which is a
gg ⇒ homozygous green constituent part of a cell membrane.
Gg ⇒ heterozygous green 186. (b) The bullock is castrated and therefore
According to the question : secretion of testosterone is not adequate
187. (d) Once the events of depolarization have
Gg × gg occurred, a nerve impulse or spike is
initiated. Action potential is another name
G of nerve impulse. It lasts about 1 msec (
g g g
millisecond ). The stimulalted, negatively
charged point on the outside of the
membrane sends out an electrical current
to the positive point ( still polarized
Gg gg Gg
gg adjacent to it. This local current causes the
( yellow ) (green) (green) (yellow)
adjacent inner part of the membrane to
reverse its potential from – 70m v to + 30m
So, the ratio cell be 50 : 50 v. The reversal repeats itself over and over
179. (c) Since RBCS do not have mitochondria so until the nerve impulse is conducted
they can respir only anaerobically through the length of the neuron.
180. (d) 188. (a) Exotic Species - a species that has been
introduced from another geographic region
Aa Bb
to an area outside its natural range.
A a B b Examples are water hyacinth, Lantana
camera
189. (c) The fertile region of microsporophyll bears
AB a number of microsporangia or pollen sacs
Ab aB ab arranged in sori. The pollen chamber
So, the corresponding genstype cell be represents microsporangium in which
AaBb. pollen grains develop.
181. (b) The analogous organs show convergent 190. (d) The process of formation of protein
evolution due to samilar adaptation. They sequence from DNA strand is called

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2007-34 CBSE-PMT - 2007 SCREENING SOLVED PAPER

transcription which requires RNA 197. (a) The Pr form: It absorbs light between 660
polymerase chain. RNA polymerase chains to 680nm and absorbs at a peak of 666 nm.
are of 3-types in eukaryotes It is the form synthesized in dark-grown
(i) RNA polymesase-I seedlings. When Pr absorbs red light, it is
(ii) RNA polymesase II convertedto the Pfr form
(iii) RNA polymesase-III 198. (b) Stone flies are not bio indicators.
191. (d) When the set point of hypothalamus is Bioindicators provide a range of
disturbed by high temperature, it stimulates techniques to assess the impcts of air
vasodialation and sweating while in low pollution from reactive nitrogen (N)
temperature there is vasoconstriction and compounds on statutory nature
shivering conservation sites. They complement
192. (b) The two chains are antiparallel, one aligned physical monitoring of atmospheric
in 5’ → 3’ direction the other in 3’ → 5’ concentrations and deposition and risk
direction. assessment based on the critical loads
193. (d) Crocodile belongs to reptilia class which approach by providing site-based
has four chambered heart lemur teeth are information on atmospheric N
combedded in the rockets of two which is concentrations, N deposition and/or
known as there don’t . In obelia polyps ecological impacts.
reproduce meduseas asexually and 199. (a) It is commonly called as ‘emergency
medusae form the polyps sexually. Such hormone’ or 3F – hormone (For fear, fight &
atteraction of asixual and sexual phases in flight). Its secretion is regulated by SNS,
the life cycle of obelia is called me tagenesis. and not bypituitary as in case of adrenal
194. (d) The cytoplarm immediately surrounding cortex. It stimulates sweating, heart beat and
the nucleus is loaded with profein synthetic breathing rate. It causes the dilation of
machinery and is called perikaryon coronary artery (supplying blood to the
dendrites are usually shorter, tapering and heart muscles), bronchioles (for increasing
much branched processes which may be inspiratory volume) and pupil (for better
one to several. These two are only present vision)
in nerve cells. 200. (d) The effect of gibberellins had been known
195. (a) Hybrid vigour is also called Helorosis in japnan since early 1800 where certain
which is measured in terms of size growth rice plants were found to suffer from bakane
rate / field and number of other characters. or bakanae ( foolish seedling ) disease.
Hybridisation increases vigour and fertility. Such rice plants were thin, pale green,
It is exploited by crosing of two in bred spindle-shaped, longer by 50% than the
parental lines. It is best maintained in healthy plants, and were sterile.
vegetatively reproducing crops because of
genetic recombinations .
196. (b) Newcastle disease (ND) is a highly
contagious, generalised virus disease of
domestic poultry and wild birds
characterised by gastro-intestinal,
respiratory and nervous signs.

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