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Lesson 110: Paper 1

Name : _____________________________________
Class : _____________________________________
Date : _____________________________________

A. Multiple Choice Questions.

1. Both Chloride and calcium ions have the same
(Proton number: Cl,17; Ca,20 )

A nucleon number
B number of neutrons
C number of electrons
D mass



2. How many elements are there in one molecule of ammonia?

A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4



3. The proton number of element Y is 4. Which of the following statements are TRUE about
atom Y.

I It has 4 electrons
II It has 4 protons
III Its electronic configuration is 2.2
IV It is a Group IV element

A I, II, and III only
B I, II and IV only
C I, III and IV only
D I, II, III and IV only




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4. Atom X has 16 protons and 21 neutrons in its nucleus. Which of the following symbol
represents atom X?

A
16


37
X


B
37


16
X



C
36

17
X

D
21

16
X



5. Which of the following statement best explains that matter exists as tiny particles moving
at random?

A A thin layer of oil is formed when an oil drop is placed on the
surface if water.
B When a perfume bottle is opened, the scent spreads to every
part of the room.
C Water cannot be easily compressed.
D Large volume of steam is produced from a drop of boiling water.



6. In a neutral atom, the number of protons is equal to the

I number of neutrons.
II number of electrons.
III proton number.
IV nucleon number.

A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and IV only




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7. Which of the following industries need a chemist?

I Petroleum refinery
II Plastic industry
III Food technology
IV Detergent manufacture

A I and II only
B II and III only
C I, II and III only
D I, II, III and IV



8.

Figure 1

Figure 1 shows the heating curve for naphthalene. At which stage does naphthalene exist
both in a form of solid and liquid?

A P to Q
B Q to R
C Above S
D R to S




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9. Which of the following compounds has the correct relative formula mass?

[Relative Atomic Mass: H,1; C,12; N,14; O,16; Co,59; Cl,35.5; P,31; Ca,40]










A I and II only
B II and III only
C II and IV only
D I and IV only




Compound Relative Formula Mass
I CoCl
2
●6H
2
O 238
II C
18
H
27
NO
3
350

III Ca
3
(PO
4
)
2
301

IV C
16
H
10
N
2
O
2
262


10. Which of the following chemical formulae is correctly written?












Compound Chemical Formula
A Sodium oxide NaO
B Copper(II) nitrate

CuNO
3
C Magnesium oxide

Mg
2
O

D Lead(II) chloride

PbCl
2

11. A molecular formula is a formula that shows the

A actual number of each atom of the elements in a molecule
B actual mass of a substance.
C formula of a molecule of a substance that exists in solid state.
D simplest ratio for the number of atoms of each type of element
in a molecule.





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12.


Figure 2

Figure 2 shows part of an apparatus used to determine the empirical formula of X oxide.
Which of the following oxides can be X?

I Magnesium oxide
II Lead(II) oxide
III Copper(II) oxide
IV Calcium oxide

A I and II only
B II and III only
C III and IV only
D I, II and III only




13. Which of the following chemical equations is balanced?

A CaCO
3
→ CaO + 2CO
2

B Zn + HCl → ZnCl
2
+ H
2

C 2Mg + O
2
→ MgO
D CaCO
3
+ 2HNO
3
→ Ca(NO
3
)
2
+ H
2
O + CO
2





14. The relative molecular mass for substance MN
2
is 64. If the relative atomic mass of M is
32, what is the relative atomic mass of N?

A 64
B 32
C 16
D 8





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15.

Figure 3

Figure 3 shows the set-up to conduct an experiment to study the effect of heat on
copper(II) carbonate. What is the expected observation?

A A blue residue is formed.
B Limewater turns milky.
C A green gas is released.
D The copper(II) carbonate burns.



16. Which of the following has the same number of atoms with that found in 20 g of calcium?
[Relative Atomic Mass: He, 4; Cl, 35.5; Ca, 40; Mg, 24; Li, 7]

A 12 g magnesium
B 0.5 mol chlorine gas
C 0.25 mol of helium
D 1 mol lithium



17. Chemistry is defined as the study of

A weather changes.
B collisions between two objects.
C physical phenomena.
D matter and the changes it undergoes.




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18. Which of the following statements is true about the changes in properties of elements
across Period 3 of the Periodic Table?

A The elements become more electropositive.
B The metallic property increases.
C The number of electrons decreases.
D The atomic radius decreases.



19. The proton number of phosphorus is 15. Where is phosphorus in the Periodic table?

A Group 5, Period 5
B Group 15, Period 3
C Group 13, Period 5
D Group 15, Period 1



20.

Figure 4

Figure 4 shows the electron arrangement for atoms P, Q and R. Which of the following
statements are true about the three atoms.

I They are not reactive
II They have low boiling points
III They do not lose electrons to other elements
IV They do not form molecules

A I, II and III only
B I, II and IV only
C I, III and IV only
D I, II, III and IV




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21. Element Y is placed below element X in the same group in the Periodic Table.
If the proton number of Y is 19, what is the electron arrangement for element X?

A 2.1
B 2.7
C 2.8.1
D 2.8.8.1



22. What attitudes should be practiced by scientists in carrying out experiment?

I Systematic in planning the experiment.
II Have analytical thinking.
III Responsible about the safety of others.
IV Honest and accurate in recording data.

A I and II only
B II, III and IV only
C I, II and III only
D I, II , III and IV



23. Sodium oxide has a high melting point because

A the attraction forces between its particles are very strong.
B it has large mass.
C it is soluble in water.
D it is in crystal state.



24. What happens at the particulate level when sodium metal reacts with chlorine gas?

A Chlorine atom donates one proton to sodium atom.
B Chlorine atom accepts one electron from sodium atom.
C Sodium atom and chlorine atom shares one electron.
D Sodium atom receives an electron from chlorine atom.




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25. How many electrons are shared by carbon and chlorine atoms in tetrachloromethane
molecule, CCl
4
?

A 4
B 5
C 8
D 10



26. Electrolytes produce _______ when dissolved in water.

A atoms
B ionic compounds
C gas bubbles
D ions



27. What is the disadvantage of using mercury cell?

A Not long lasting
B Heavy
C Current and voltage provided is not fixed
D Cannot be recharged



28.


Figure 5

In figure 5 what would be formed at the copper plate after some time?

A Hydrogen gas
B Copper(II) ions
C Magnesium metal
D Copper metal



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29. Which of the following methods is used in manufacturing chlorine?

A Boiling sodium chloride solution.
B Electrolysis of molten sodium chloride.
C Heating solid sodium chloride.
D Neutralisation of hydrochloric acid with sodium hydroxide.



30. Which of the following electrolytes is used in the industrial extraction of aluminium?

A Impure bauxite and cryolite.
B Aluminium oxide and aluminium.
C Aluminium oxide and cryolite.
D Aqueous solution of aluminium oxide.



31.


Figure 6

Which of the following substances will make the bulb glow brighter when added to the
water in the beaker?

A Ethanol
B Tetrachloromethane
C Glucose
D Hydrochloric acid




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32. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the electroplating process of an iron
ring with nickel?

A Direct current is used.
B Iron ring is the anode.
C Aqueous nickel(II) sulphate solution is used as electrolyte.
D To get an even plating, low current is used.



33. Which of the following is the first step in a scientific investigation?

A Suggesting a hypothesis.
B Making an inference.
C Identifying a problem.
D Identifying variables.



34. A strong acid ________

A cannot conduct electricity.
B reacts vigorously with water.
C dissociates completely in water.
D dissolves slightly in water.



35. Which of the following is NOT true about alkali?

A Reacts with acid to produce salt and water.
B Its pH value is more then 7.
C It turns red litmus paper blue.
D Reacts with metal oxide to produce oxygen gas.



36. Which of the following

solutions has the highest pH value?

A 0.01 mol dm
-3
of hydrochloric acid
B 0.01 mol dm
-3
of ethanoic acid
C 0.01 mol dm
-3
of potassium hydroxide
D 0.01 mol dm
-3
of ammonia solution




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37. Which of the following substances will produce a solution with pH value of 7 when
dissolved in water?

A Sodium oxide
B Ethanol
C Sulphur dioxide
D Carbon dioxide



38. Calculate the mass of sodium hydroxide needed to prepare 500 cm
3
of 0.5 mol dm
-3
of

sodium hydroxide solution?
(Relative Atomic Mass: H,1; O,16; Na,23)

A 14.3 g
B 10.0 g
C 15.8 g
D 40.0 g



39. The following chemical equation shows the neutralisation reaction between sulphuric
acid and sodium hydroxide:

H
2
SO
4
+ 2NaOH Na
2
SO
4
+ 2H
2
O

Calculate the volume of 0.4 mol dm
-3
of sodium hydroxide required to neutralise 50.0 cm
3

of 0.2 mol dm
-3
of sulphuric acid.

A 30.0cm
3

B 35.0 cm
3

C 40.0 cm
3

D 50.0 cm
3




40. Sulphuric acid is a diprotic acid because

A it can react as an acid and also as a dehydrating agent.
B it contains H
+
and OH
-
ions.
C it produces two moles of H
+
ions from one mole of acid in water.
D it contains H
2+
ions.




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41. Which of the following compound forms an acidic solution when dissolved in water?

A Carbon dioxide
B Magnesium oxide
C Tetrachloromethane
D Copper(II) oxide



42. Which of the following salts can be prepared by double decomposition reaction?

A Lead(II) sulphate
B Lead(II) nitrate
C Copper(II) sulphate
D Ammonium nitrate



43. A white precipitate is formed when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to solution X. Which
of the following is likely to be X?

A Silver nitrate
B Ammonium nitrate
C Barium nitrate
D Zinc nitrate



44. Excess magnesium is reacted with 0.1 mol of hydrochloric acid. What is the volume of
hydrogen gas liberated at room temperature?
(1 mole of gas occupies 24 dm
3
at room temperature)

A 2400 cm
3

B 1200 cm
3

C 600 cm
3

D 0.05 cm
3




45. Which of the following materials is used to build aeroplanes?

A Aluminium
B Stainless steel
C Zinc
D Duralumin



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46. Which of the following processes takes place during the Contact Process?

A Sulphur trioxide is liquefied under pressure.
B Sulphur dioxide is dissolved in water.
C Sulphur trioxide is dissolved in concentrated sulphuric acid.
D Sulphur dioxide is dissolved in concentrated sulphuric acid.



47. Which of the following statements are true about the Haber Process?

I The ratio of hydrogen to nitrogen is used 3: 1.
II The process is carried out at 1 atmospheric pressure.
III Vanadium(V) oxide is used as catalyst.
IV The optimum temperature is 500 °C.

A I and II only
B I, II and III only
C I and IV only
D II, III and IV only



48. In Haber Process, the ammonia produced is separated from both the hydrogen and
nitrogen gas by

A Synthesis
B Cooling
C Condensation
D Boiling



49. Glass is a different material from ceramics because glass

A can be recycled.
B is chemically inert.
C is used as heat insulators.
D is used as electric insulators.




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50. Alloys are harder than pure metals because the atoms in alloy are

A held closer together.
B arranged closer together.
C able to vibrate easily.
D not able to slide easily over its layers.



51. Which of the following substances undergo sublimation?

I Bromine
II Iodine
III Solid carbon dioxide
IV Solid Argon

A I and III only
B II and III only
C II, III and IV only
D I, III and IV only



52.
The melting and boiling points of X and Y are shown in Table 1.





Table 1

What are the states of X and Y at room temperature?

X Y
A Liquid liquid
B Solid Liquid
C Liquid solid
D solid solid



Melting Point/°C Boiling Point/°C
X -20 52
Y 45 300

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53. Which of the following occurs when solid CO
2
sublimes to gaseous CO
2
?

A There is loss in kinetic energy.
B The CO
2
molecules become lighter.
C The attractive forces between CO
2
molecules become weaker.
D CO
2
molecules react with oxygen in the atmosphere.



54.

Figure 7

Figure 7 shows a cooling curve of liquid X. Which of the following statements are TRUE?

I At QR, X exists as solid and liquid.
II At PQ, X absorbs heat.
III At RS, X is a solid.
IV The melting point of X is 80°C.

A I and III only
B I, II and III only
C I, II and IV only
D I, III and IV only



55. The most suitable apparatus for measuring accurately 30.00 cm
3
of a solution is a

A burette
B measuring cylinder
C beaker
D pipette




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56. Which of the following statements are true about isotopes?

I Isotopes are atoms of the same element.
II Isotopes have different chemical properties.
III Isotopes have different physical properties.
IV Isotopes have different numbers of neutrons and electrons.

A I and II only
B I and III only
C I, II and IV only
D I, III and IV only.



57.






Table 2

Table 2 shows the proton number and nucleon number of elements W, X, Y and Z.
Which of the following pairs of elements are isotopes?

A W and X
B X and Z
C W and Y
D W and Z



Element Proton Number Nucleon Number
W 8 18
X 9 16
Y 7 18
Z 8 16

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58. Y is a compound consists of positive and negative ions. At room temperature, it exists as
a solid. Which of these are the properties of compound Y?

I Good electrical conductor in molten state
II Dissolves in organic solvent
III High melting and boiling point
IV Volatile

A I and III only
B II and III only
C II and IV only
D III and IV only



59. How many times is one atom of calcium heavier than one molecule
of oxygen?
[Relative Atomic Mass: Ca,40; O,16]

A 2/5
B 4/5
C 5/4
D 5/2



60. Calculate the maximum mass of iron that can be extracted from 200 kg of iron(III) oxide,
Fe
2
O
3
.
[Relative Atomic Mass: Fe,56; O,16]

A 100 kg
B 133 kg
C 140 kg
D 160 kg




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61. What is the number of sodium ions present in 20 g of sodium oxide?
[Relative atomic mass: Na;23, O;16; Avogadro constant: 6X10
23
mol
-1
]

A 20 x 6 x 10
23
x 2
3
B 20 x 6 x 10
23
x 2
3 x 62
C 20 x 6 x 10
23
x 2
62
D 20 x 6 x 10
23
x 2



62. How many moles of atoms are present in 3 g of ethanoic acid, CH
3
COOH?
[Relative Atomic Mass: C,12; H,1; O,16]

A 0.3
B 0.4
C 0.2
D 0.5



63. Which of the following samples of gases occupy the same
volume as 7.1 g of chlorine gas at STP?
[Relative Atomic Mass: H,1; Ar,40; O,16; C,12; Cl,35.5; Molar volume of gas: 22.4dm
3
at
STP]

I 0.1 g of hydrogen gas
II 3.2 g of oxygen gas
III 4.4 g of carbon dioxide
IV 4.0 g of argon gas

A I, II and III
B I, II and IV
C I, III and IV
D II, III and IV




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64. 7.14 g of an oxide of metal X contains 5 g of metal X. Calculate the empirical formula of
this metal oxide.
[Relative Atomic Mass: X,56; O,16]

A X
3
O
4

B X
2
O
3

C XO
D X
2
O
5



65. The empirical formula of a metal oxide is Y
2
O
5
. The oxide contains 44% of metal Y by
mass. What is the relative atomic mass of Y?
[Relative Atomic Mass: O,16]

A 13
B 31
C 63
D 157



66. Magnesium reacts with excess hydrochloric acid in a beaker. Calculate the volume of
hydrogen gas evolved under STP when 1.2 g of magnesium is used.
[Relative Atomic Mass: Mg, 24; Molar volume of gas: 22.4 dm
3
at STP]

A 1.12 cm
3

B 2.24 cm
3

C 112 cm
3

D 1120 cm
3




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67.












Figure 8

The letter P,Q,R,S and T are place in figure 8 represents element in the Periodic Table .
Which two can act as catalyst?

A P and Q
B P and R
C Q and S
D S and T






P R T
Q S


68. The electron arrangement for atom X is 2.8.8.1. Based on this information, it can be
predicted that

I X reacts vigorously with water.
II X reacts with chlorine gas to form a white compound.
III X burns in air to form a compound with formula X
2
O.
IV X is more electropositive than sodium.

A I, II and III
B I, II and IV
C I, III, and IV
D I, II, III and IV




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69. Bromine is a Group 17 element. Which of the following statements about bromine is NOT
true?

A Bromine is less electronegative than chlorine.
B Bromine exists as liquid at room temperature.
C When bromine reacts with water, the solution turns blue then
bleaches it.
D Bromine reacts with iron to form FeBr
3
.




70. X, Y and Z are elements in Period 3 of the Periodic Table. The oxide of X is amphoteric,
oxide of Y is basic and oxide of Z is acidic. Arrange the elements X, Y and Z according to
the descending order of their proton numbers.

A Y, X, Z
B X, Z,Y
C Z, Y, X
D Z, X, Y




71. Which of the following properties of transition elements are true?

I They form complex ions.
II They are ductile.
III They show catalytic properties.
IV They have low densities.

A I and III only
B I, II and III only
C I, III and IV only
D I and II only




72. Inert gases do not form bonds with other elements. Which of the following best explains
this fact?

A They have low boiling and melting points.
B They can exist as monoatomic gases.
C They have a stable duplet or octet electron arrangement.
D They have very low reactivity with other elements due
to chemical instability.





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73. J is an element in Group 13 and M is an element in Group 16 of the
Periodic Table. When J and M react with each other, the most likely
chemical formula for the product formed is

A J
2
M
3

B J
3
M
2

C JM
D J
3
M
6




74. Both potassium ion and chloride ion have the same
[Proton number: K,19; Cl,17]

A number of protons
B number of electrons
C number of neutrons
D number of isotopes



75. X is a compound which does not conduct electricity either in the solid state or in the
molten state. The possible pairs of elements that have chemically reacted to form
compound X are

I Lead and bromine
II Nitrogen and hydrogen
III Chlorine and oxygen
IV Calcium and oxygen

A I and II only
B II and III only
C I, II and IV only
D II, III and IV only




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76. Which of the following experiments will produce oxygen and hydrogen gas at the
electrodes?













Electrolysis Experiments
Electrolyte Electrodes
A Copper sulphate solution Copper
B Molten sodium chloride Platinum
C Concentrated potassium chloride solution Carbon
D Calcium nitrate solution Platinum
77.

Figure 9

Figure 9 shows the set up of apparatus for the electrolysis of molten lead(II) chloride
using carbon electrodes. Which of the following statements are TRUE?

I Lead(II) ion accepts two electrons to form lead atom
II The gas produced at the cathode is yellowish green in colour.
III Lead(II) chloride can only conduct electricity in the molten state.
IV Chloride ion donates one electron to form chlorine atom.

A I, II and III
B I, II and IV
C I, III, and IV
D II, III and IV




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78. Which of the following products are formed during the electrolysis of dilute
aqueous copper(II) chloride solution using carbon electrodes?

Anode Cathode
A Oxygen gas is released Copper is deposited
B Oxygen gas is released Hydrogen gas is released
C Hydrogen gas is released Copper is deposited
D Chlorine gas is released Hydrogen gas is released



79. Which of the following sets of electrodes and electrolyte used in
electroplating a coin with nickel?

Anode Cathode Electrolyte
A Coin Nickel Copper(II) sulphate
B Coin Nickel Nickel(II) sulphate
C Nickel Coin Nickel(II) sulphate
D Nickel Coin Copper(II) sulphate




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80.


Figure 10

Figure 10 shows the apparatus for the purification of copper by electrolysis. Which of the
following statements are TRUE?

I The impure copper is cathode.
II The colour of the copper(II) sulphate solution remains the same.
III The pure copper electrode becomes thicker.
IV Copper(II) sulphate solution can be substituted with copper(II)
nitrate solution

A I, II and III
B I, II and IV
C I, III, and IV
D II, III and IV