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Sample MCQ Bar Questions

Sample MCQ bar exam questions


Multiple Choice Exam
This Sample Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) for bar examinationswill beupdated from time to time.
Answers are provided after each bar sub|ect.
POLITICAL LAW-- 15%
1.) What vote is required for Congress to submit to the electorate the question of calling a constitutional
convention?
A. A vote of two-thirds of all its Members.
B. A vote of two-thirds of a quorum.
C. A ma|ority vote of all its Members.
D. A ma|ority vote of a quorum.
2.) The Supreme Court will entertain a constitutional question only if it is determinative of the case itself
because
A. it would pre|udice the administration of |ustice.
B. the separation of powers demands respect due the other departments.
C. the Court would not have acquired |urisdiction over the case.
D. there is no actual case or controversy that |ustifes such a review.
3.) Which is unconstitutional for being an invalid exercise of police power?
A. A law prohibiting the use of motor vehicles on certain days of the week.
B. A law imposing rent control.
C. A law prescribing minimum standards for the practice of the engineering profession.
D. A law prohibiting the sale of cigarettes to young men and women ages 18 to 25.
4.) An artifcial being created by operation of law, having the right of succession and the powers,
attributes and properties expressly authorized by law or incident to its existence.
A. estate
B. de |ure partnership
C. implied trust
D. corporation
Answers: 1.) C 2.) B 3.) D 4.) D
LABOR LAW -- 10%
Labor Standards
1.) This is issued by DOLE authorizing a person or entity to operate a private employment agency.
a. License
b. Document
c. Authority
d. Charter party
2.) The following may engage in the recruitment and placement of workers, locally and overseas,
except:
a. Public employment oHces
b. Private employment agencies
c. Shipping or manning agents
d. Local employment agencies
3.) Direct hiring of Filipino workers for overseas employment is not allowed. The following are not
covered by this rule, except:
a. Members of the diplomatic corps
b. International organizations
c. Multinational Corporations
d. Name hirees
4.) The accused X and Y represented themselves to complainants A and B to have the capacity to send
workers abroad, although they did not have any authority or license. It is by this representation that they
induced complainants to pay a placement fee. X and Y may also be liable for
a. Illegal recruitment by economic sabotage
b. Illegal recruitment in large scale
c. Syndicated Illegal recruitment
d. Estafa
5.) The Labor Code applies to:
a. Employees in a government corporation incorporated under the Corporation Code
b. International Agencies
c. Employees of government corporations created by special or original charter
d. Government employees
6.) Which of the following is the most essential element without which there is no employer-employee
relationship.
a. Hiring
b. Control
c. Firing
d. Payment of wages
7.) Who has |urisdication over all money claims of overseas flipino workers arising from employer-
employee relationship?
a. labor arbiters
b. POEA
c. regular courts
d. voluntary arbitrators
8.) A Filipino serviceman who is working in a US military installation in Pakistan is mandatorily required
by law to remit to his family or dependents in the Philippines ____ of his foreign exchange earnings.
a. 70 per cent
b. 50 per cent
c. 80 per cent
d. none
9.) Illegal recruitment involving economic sabotage prescribes in:
a. 10 years
b. 20 years
c. 5 years
d. imprescriptible
10.) Being the |udge of the trial court, you found the accused Jonie guilty of simple illegal recruitment.
The proper penalty you would impose would be
a. life imprisonment
b. prision correctional
c. prision mayor
d. destierro
11.) Statement A -A company that exercises its prerogative to dismiss is not allowed to turn around and
deny employee-employer relationship.
Statement B -Alleging abandonment indicates employer-employee relationship.
a.) Both statements are true
b.) Both statements are false
c.) Only statement A is true
d.) Only statement B is true
12.) Statement A - It is the employer`s duty to inform the probationary employee reasonable work
standards.
Statement B -The employer may terminate the services of probationary employee without valid cause
as long as such termination is done within the six month trial period.
a) Both statements are true
b) Both statements are false
c) Only statement A is true
d) Only statement B is true
Answers: 1.) a 2.) d 3.) c 4.) d 5.) b 6.) b 7.) a 8.) d 9.) b 10.) c 11.) a 12.) c
1. The government-owned and -controlled corporations "with original charter" refer to corporations
chartered by special law distinguished from corporations organized under our general incorporation
statute, the Corporation Code. Thus, under the present state of the law, GOCCs with original charter are
sub|ect to what law?
A. Labor Code
B. Corporation Code
C. Civil Service Law
D. Civil Service Rules
2. In the case of Euro-Linea Phils. Inc. vs. National Labor Relations Commission, it was held that in
interpreting the Constitution`s protection to labor and social |ustice provisions and the labor laws and
rules and regulations implementing the constitutional mandate, the Supreme Court adopts what
approach which favors the exercise of labor rights?
A. Labor`s Welfare
B. Liberal`s Approach
C. Liberal Worker`s Approach
D. Laborer`s Approach
3. There are important principles for the entitlement to Maternity Leave under the SSS law. One of this
is:
A. Full payment shall be advanced by the employer within 30 days from the fling of the maternity leave
application
B. Full payment shall be advanced by the employer within 15 days from the fling of the maternity leave
application
C. Maternity benefts shall be paid only for the frst 2 deliveries of miscarriages
D. Maternity benefts shall be paid only for the frst 5 deliveries of miscarriages
4. Under RA 9262 on Battered Woman Leave, it provides that an employee is entitled to a paid leave of
up to 10 days in addition to other paid leaves under the Labor Code, other laws and company policies,
provided the following requisites must be present, except for one invalid requisite:
A. Employee is a woman
B. She is a victim of physical, sexual or psychological violence
C. She applies for the issuance of the protection order
D. She can claim administrative and court order to claim such leave
5. Under RA 8187 on Paternity Leave Act of 1996, paternity leave refers to the benefts granted to the
following employees:
A. Both male and female employees in public sectors only
B. Both male and female employees in private sectors only
C. All married male employees in the public and privates sectors
D. All married male employees in the private sectors
6. Anti-Sexual Harassment Act is committed by any person having:
A. Authority or InJuence
B. Authority, inJuence, moral ascendancy over another in a work or education or training environment,
and who demands, requests or otherwise requires any lascivious favor which would result in a hostile or
ofensive environment
C. Authority, inJuence, moral ascendancy over another in a work or education or training environment,
and who demands money which would result in a hostile or ofensive environment
D. Authority, inJuence, moral ascendancy over another in a work or education or training environment,
and who demands, requests or otherwise requires any sexual favor which would result in a hostile or
ofensive environment
7. Anti-Child Abuse Act, or otherwise known as, "An Act Providing for Stronger Deterrence and Special
Protection against Child Abuse, Exploitation and Discrimination, providing Penalties for its Violation and
for Other Purposes," was strengthened by what Republic Act?
A. RA 7658
B. RA 7758
C. RA 7856
D. RA 7652
8. In Article 151 of the Labor Code, it implied that since the relationship between the employer and the
househelper is a fduciary one, the Court cannot order the employer to re-hire the househelper, even if
the latter was un|ustly dismissed. Is this valid?
A. No, the employer cannot re-hire the househelper
B. No, the employer can indemnify the househelper
C. Yes, the Court can order the employer to re-hire the househelper
D. Yes, the Court cannot order the employer to re-hire the househelper, by operation of the law
9. All rights and benefts granted to workers under the Labor Code shall, except as may otherwise be
provided in the Code, apply alike to all workers, whether:
A. Agricultural or commercial
B. Agricultural or industrial
C. Agricultural or non-agricultural
D. Non-industrial or non-commercial
10. Complaints for violation of labor standards and the terms and conditions of employment involving
money claims of homeworkers exceeding PhP5,000 per homeworker shall be heard and decided by
the:
A. Regional Director
B. Labor Arbiter in the NLRC
C. Secretary of Labor
D. Homeworkers Union
11. In the case of People v. Panis, which defned "Recruitment and Placement" in Article 13 (b), the
Court ruled that:
(a) That the number of persons is an essential ingredient of the act of recruitment and placement of
workers.
(b) That the number of persons is not an essential ingredient of the act of recruitment and placement of
workers.
(c) That the number of workers is essential to the employment.
(d) That the number of workers are not essential to the employment.
12. To pursue its responsibility to promote employment opportunities, the DOLE carries out programs
for local and overseas employment. However, efective allocation of manpower resources in local
employment is assigned to the:
(a) National Labor Relations Commission (NLRC)
(b) Philippine Overseas Employment Administration (POEA)
(c) Bureau of Local Employment (BLE)
(d) Department of Labor and Employment (DOLE)
13. It shall be the duty of every employer to furnish his employees in any locality with free medical and
dental attendance and facilities. If the company/industry has one hundred (100) employees and
exceeds to three hundred (300), what does the provision stipulates?
(a) The services of full-time physician, dentist and a full-time registered nurse as well as a dental clinic,
and an infrmary or emergency hospital with one bed capacity.
(b) The services of a full-time registered nurse, a part-time physician and dentist, and an emergency
clinic.
(c) The services of a full-time registered nurse.
(d) None of the above
14. Which of the following is NOT a policy of the State?
(a) To promote and maintain a state of full employment through improved manpower training, allocation
and utilization.
(b) To protect every citizen desiring to work locally or overseas by securing for him the best possible
terms and condition of employment.
(c) To facilitate a free choice of available employment by persons seeking work in conformity with the
national interest.
(d) To ignore the movement of workers in conformity with the national interest.
15. Article 40 requires only non-resident aliens to secure employment permit. Resident aliens are not
required. For immigrants and resident aliens what is required is an:
(a) Employer-Employee Contract
(b) Alien Permit
(c) Alien Employment Registration Certifcate
(d) Business Permit
16. Apprenticeship is the arrangement and the period when an upcoming worker undergoes hands-on
training, more or less formal, to learn the ropes of a skilled |ob. This program aims to:
(a) help meet the demand of the economy for trained manpower.
(b) establish a national apprenticeship program through the participation of employers, workers and
government and non-government agencies.
(c) establish apprenticeship standards for the protection of apprentices.
(d) All of the Above
17. When the death of a seaman resulted from a deliberate or willful act on his own life, and it is directly
attributable to the seaman himself, such death is:
(a) not compensable
(b) compensable
(c) maybe compensable
(d) valid
18. Who are NOT covered by the 24-Hour Duty Doctrine?
(a) Soldiers
(b) Doctors
(c) Policemen
(d) Peace OHcers
19. Rafael was dismissed from overseas employment without |ust, valid or authorized cause, can he
claim full reimbursement of his placement fee? And can he obtainother benefts, if any?
(a) None, because of premature termination of contract.
(b) Yes, he can claim full reimbursement of his placement fee without other benefts.
(c) Yes, he can claim full reimbursement of his placement fee with interest at 12% per annum, plus his
salary for the unexpired portion of his employment
(d) None of the above
20.) Maria is a domestic helper of a Filipino business tycoon based in California, USA where she
complains about money claims. The Labor Code, under the Migrant Workers` Law, do the statute and
regulations limit the coverage to non-Filipino or alien employers only?
(a) No, because nationality is immaterial
(b) Yes, because aliens are the ones covered under the law
(c) All of the above
(d) None of the Above
CIVIL LAW-- 15%
1. The ma|ority age begins at the age of
A. 21
B. 20
C. 18
D. 16
2. Who may solemnize marriage anywhere in the Philippines?
A. A Consul-general
B. A Court of Appeals |ustice
C. A ship captain
D. A military commander
3.To be enforceable, when must a contract comply with the Statute of Frauds? When by its terms it is to
be performed beyond
A. a year from its making.
B. 5 years from its making.
C. a year from its ratifcation.
D. 5 years from its ratifcation.
4.) An uninterrupted possession for a statutory period of time without the need of |ust title and good faith
are requisites for
A. laches.
B. prescription of actions.
C. ordinary acquisitive prescription.
D. extraordinary acquisitive prescription.
5.) Sonny, a Filipino citizen, obtained in a divorce in Canada from his wife, Lulu, also a Filipino citizen. Is
the divorce valid and binding?
A. It is not since Philippine law binds Filipinos abroad and it does not permit divorce.
B. It is since Philippine law does not operate in Canada.
C. It is not since Philippine law is recognized in Canada.
D. It is since international law demands local recognition of foreign acts.
6.) In a case, a very old woman executed a will. A friend, a cousin, and a notary public came to witness
the will. Due to old age she thumbmarked the will instead of signing it. The friend signed the pages on
the right margin, thinking it looked better. The cousin did not see this because his eyes were on a
painting that hanged on a nearby wall. Finally, the notary public notarized the will. The will is invalid
because
A. the cousin looked away |ust as the friend was signing the will.
B. the testator failed to subscribe the will.
C. the friend signed at the right margin.
D. of lack of suHcient witnesses.
Answers: 1.) C 2.) B 3.) A 4.) D 5.) A 6.) D
TAXATION -- 10%
1.) Fringe Beneft Tax is payable by the
A. Employee
B. Donor
C. Employer
D. Benefciary
2.) The following can claim for a tax credit, except
A. Citizen
B. Benefciary of an estate or trust
C. Member of a General Professional Partnership
D. Foreign corporation
3.) Optional Standard Deduction is applicable to all individuals except
A. Resident Aliens
B. Non-resident aliens
C. Resident Citizens
D. Non-resident Citizen
4.) A fringe beneft may be sub|ectto fringe beneft tax if received by
A. any employee
B. rank and fle employees
C. managerial employees
D. Stockholders
5.) A laundry allowance of P300 per month is an example of
A. fringe beneft
B. allowance
C. tax beneft
D. de minimis beneft
6.)Which ofthe following forms part of the stages of taxation?
A. payment and fling
B. fling and collection
C. withholding and levying
D. assessment and payment
7.) Any good, service or other beneft furnished or granted in cash or in kind by an employer to an
individual employee refers to
A. de minimis beneft
B. company beneft
C. fringe beneft
D. annuity
8.) Fringe beneft tax is imposed on the fringe beneft's
A. fair market value
B. actual monetary value
C. grossed-up monetary value
D. assessed value
9.) The following fringe benefts are not taxable except
A. fringe benefts which are authorized and exempted from tax under special laws
B. life or health insurance and other non-life insurance premiums or similar amounts in excess of what
the law allows
C. benefts given to the rank and fle employees, whether granted under a collective bargaining
agreement or not
D. de minimis benefts
10.) Deductions from gross income are not allowed to taxpayers earning compensation income arising
from personal services rendered under an employer-employee relationship, except
A. bad debts
B. ordinary and necessary trade, business or professional expenses
C. charitable and other contributions
D. premium payments on health and/or hospitalization insurance of an individual taxpayer
11.) X is a Braziliancitizen working as a host and model in a local television show herein the Philippines.
X is therefore taxable as a
A. non resident alien engaged in trade or business
B. resident alien
C. foreign citizen
D. resident citizen
12.) The following dividends are taxable except
A. property dividends
B. liquidating dividends
C. cash dividends
D. stock dividends
13.) Under the tax code, the following are income taxpayers, except:
a. GOCC
b. Estate and Trust
c. Min wage income earners
d. non-resident foreign corp.
Answers: 1.) C 2.) D 3.) B 4.) C 5.) D 6.) D 7.) C 8.) C 9.) B 10.) D 11.) B 12.) B 13.) c
MERCANTILE LAW (COMMERCIAL LAW)-- 15%
1.) The bank deposit secrecy law bars all inquiries into a bank deposit. A deposit may, however, be
looked into
A. after prior notice to the depositor.
B. upon court order in annulment of marriage cases.
C. in cases of impeachment.
D. on motion in a bribery case.
2.) A draws a bill payable to B or order with X, as the drawee. The bill was successively endorsed to C,
D, E and F, holder. X does not pay and F has duly protested non-payment. Y pays for the honor of C.
Which of the following statement is wrong?
A. D is discharged.
B. E is discharged.
C. C is discharged.
D. Y can ask reimbursement from A.
3.) When an endorser waives presentment and notice of dishonor, he increases his liability. His
endorsement is:
A. Facultative endorsement
B. Qualifed endorsement
C. Alternative endorsement
D. Restrictive endorsement
4.) Ariel issued a note to Brando. There was a total failure of consideration. Brando issued the note for
consideration to Cecil who is a holder in due course. Cecil indorsed the note to David who knew of the
failure of consideration. Can David successfully collect from Ariel?
A. No, because David knew the failure of consideration.
B. No, although David acquired the rights of Cecil, a holder in due course and he was not a party to any
illegality.
C. Yes, because David acquired the note for consideration.
D. No, because David is not a holder in due course.
5.) The SEC, after notice and hearing, may dissolve a corporation upon fling of a verifed petition for the
dissolution, on grounds provided by law. Which of the following statement is not correct?
a. In case of deadlock in the management of the afairs and business of a close corporation, the SEC,
upon written petition by any stockholder, shall have the power to make such order as it deems
appropriate, including an order dissolving the corporation.
b. Any stockholder of a corporation may, by written petition to the SEC, compel the dissolution of the
corporation whenever any acts of its directors, oHcers or those in control of the corporation is illegal,
fraudulent or dishonest.
c. The SEC can automatically issue a certifcate of dissolution in case a corporation fled for its
dissolution and there are creditors afected provided that ma|ority of the board of directors or trustee
consented to such action.
d. The SEC, after notice and hearing, may dissolve a corporation in case there are violations of the
provisions of the Corporation Code not specially penalized therein.
6.) Which of the following will cause the automatic dissolution of a corporation?
a. Commission by the corporation of an ultra vires act
b. Continuous non-operation for a period of at least 5 years
c. Refusal to comply with or defance of any lawful order of the SEC restraining commission of acts
which would amount to grave violation of its franchise
d. None of the above
7.) SUJU Corporation, through its Board of Directors and with the unanimous approval of the
stockholders declared to grant stock dividends to its stockholders for the year 2008 amounting to 79
Billion Pesos. After examining the books and other records of the corporation, Sungmin Lee, Vice
President for Finance, discovered that the authorized capital stock of the Corporation is almost
depleted, that is - almost all were already issued and the remaining cannot accommodate the needed
stocks for stock dividend distribution. The Corporation though was liquid in cash and has retained
earnings amounting to 365 Billion Pesos. How should the Board of Directors of SUJU Corporation best
act on it?

a. Issue a Board Resolution deferring the distribution of dividends for the said year.
b. Increase the authorized capital stock and amend the Articles of Incorporation of SUJU Corporation to
cater to the needed stocks for stock dividend distribution.
c. Divide the remaining unissued stocks pro rata to the stockholders as stock dividends.
d. Recall its previous Resolution declaring stock dividends and in its stead, issue another Resolution
declaring cash dividends for year 2008.
8.) FYI Corporation has increased its capital stock and new shares of stock are issued. The
stockholders of FYI Corp wish to exercise their pre-emptive right regarding the shares to be issued.
Which of the following shares does a pre-emptive right of stockholders extends?
a. to shares to be issued in compliance with laws requiring stock oferings or minimum stock ownership
by the public
b. to shares to be issued in good faith with the approval of stockholders representing 2/3 of the
outstanding capital stock in exchange for property needed for corporate purposes
c. to shares to be issued in good faith with the approval of the stockholders representing 2/3 of the
outstanding capital stock in payment of previously contracted debt
d. treasury shares reacquired using the funds from the surplus profts of the corporation which could
have been declared as dividends
9.) The following instances are considered as "indicators" that a foreign corporation is "transacting
business" in the Philippines, even without securing a license, except
a. Soliciting orders, purchases and service contracts
b. Subscribing shares of stock from a domestic corporation
c. Engaging into continuous business acts or transactions
d. Participating in the management, supervision or control of any domestic business frm, entity or
corporation in the Philippines
10.) Which among the following is not a necessary result or consequence when a foreign corporation
secures a license and/or registers?
A. the foreign corporation can do regular business in the Philippines
B. the foreign corporation can avail the aid of the Philippine courts and sue
C. the foreign corporation may be sued in any regular court for any valid cause of action recognized
under Philippine laws.
D. the foreign corporation can intervene in any action, suit or proceeding in any court or administrative
agency
11.)Assuming all the other requisites of negotiability are present, which of the following instruments is
NOT payable to bearer?
a. "Pay to the order of Cash."
b "Pay to the order of Jose Rizal, national hero."
c. "Pay to Pedro Padernal, bearer."
d. "Pay to Pedro Padernal or bearer."
12.) Unless the by-laws provide otherwise, written notice of regular meetings shall be sent to all stock
holders of record:
a. at least one day prior to the meeting
b. at least two days prior to the meeting
c. at least one week prior to the meeting
d. at least two weeks prior to the meeting
Answers: 1.)c 2.)c 3.)a 4.)c 5.) d 6.) d 7.) b 8.) d 9.) b 10.) b 11.) c 12.) d
CRIMINAL LAW-- 10%
1. Badong, with evident premeditation and treachery killed his father. What was the crime committed?
a. Murder
b. Parricide
c. Homicide
d. Qualifed Homicide
2. PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy against the latter`s will on suspicion that Totoy keep
unlicensed frearms in his home. What was the crime committed by PO3 Bagsik?
a. Trespass to Dwelling
b. Violation of Domicile
c. Usurpation Of Authority
d. Forcible Trespassing
3. Berung and Betang had been married for more than six months. They live together with the children
of Betang from her frst husband. Berung had sexual relationship with Bea, the 14 year old daughter of
Betang. Bea love Berung very much. What was the crime committed by Berung, if any?
a. Simple Seduction
b. Qualifed Seduction
c. Consented Abduction
d. Rape
4. Prof. Dabcat gave a failing grade to one of his students, Sixto. When the two met the following day,
Sixto slapped Prof. Dabcat on the face. What was the crime committed by Sixto?
a. Corruption of Public OHcials
b. Direct Assault
c. Slight Physical In|uries
d. Grave Coercion
5. A warrant of arrest was issued against Pekto for the killing of his parents. When PO2 Tapang tried to
arrest him, Pekto gave him 1 million Pesos to set him free. PO2 Tapang refrained in arresting Pekto.
What was the crime committed by PO2 Tapang?
a. Indirect Bribery
b. Direct Bribery
c. Corruption of Public OHcials
d. Qualifed Bribery
6. Exemption to the hearsay rule made under the consciousness of an impending death.
a. parol evidence b. ante mortem statement
c. suicide note d. dead man statute
7. The meaning of factum probans.
a. preponderance of evidence
b. ultimate fact
c. evidentiary fact
d. suHciency of evidence
8. It refers to family history or descent transmitted from one generation to another.
a. inheritance
b. heritage
c. pedigree
d. culture
9. The authority of the court to take cognisance of the case in the frst instance.
a. Appellate Jurisdiction
b. General Jurisdiction
c. Original Jurisdiction
d. Exclusive Jurisdiction
10. A person designated by the court to assist destitute litigants.
a. Counsel de oHcio
b. Attorney on record
c. Attorney at law
d. Special counsel
11. Which of the following is not covered by the Rules on Summary Procedure?
a. Violation of rental laws
b. Violation of traHc laws
c. The penalty is more than six months of imprisonment
d. The penalty does not exceed 6 months imprisonment
12. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to be exercised.
a. |urisdiction b. |urisprudence
c. venue d. bench
13. The Anti-Bouncing Check Law.
a. RA 6425 b. RA 8353
c. BP 22 d. RA 6975
14. The taking of another person`s personal property, with intent to gain, by means of force and
intimidation.
a. qualifed theft b. robbery
c. theft d. malicious mischief
15. Felony committed when a person compels another by means of force, violence or intimidation to do
something against his will, whether right or wrong.
a. grave threat b. grave coercion
c. direct assault d. slander by deed
16. Persons having no apparent means of subsistence but has the physical ability to work and neglects
to apply himself or herself to lawful calling.
a. pimps b. prostitutes
c. gang members d. vagrants
17. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant noises designed to annoy and insult.
a. tumultuous b. charivari
c. sedition d. scandal
18. The unauthorized act of a public oHcer who compels another person to change his residence.
a. violation of domicile b. arbitrary detention
c. expulsion d. direct assault
19. The deprivation of a private person of the liberty of another person without legal grounds.
a. illegal detention b. arbitrary detention
c. forcible abduction d. forcible detention
20. An ofense committed by a married woman through carnal knowledge with a man not her husband
who knows her to be married, although the marriage be later declared void.
a. concubinage b. bigamy
c. adultery d. immorality
21. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime.
a. 15-18 years old b. 18-70 years old
c. 9 years old and below d. between 9 & 15 years old
22. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of the ofense by previous or
simultaneous acts.
a. accomplices b. suspects
c. principal actors d. accessories
23. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the fnal sentence after the lapse of a
certain time fxed by law.
a. prescription of crime
b. prescription of prosecution
c. prescription of |udgement
d. prescription of penalty
24. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty is suspended.
a. pardon b. commutation
c. amnesty d. reprieve
25. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a more orderly regulation of the afairs
of the society.
a. mala prohibita b. mala in se
c. private crimes d. public crimes
26. Felony committed by a public oHcer who agrees to commit an act in consideration of a gift and this
act is connected with the discharge of his public duties.
a. qualifed bribery b. direct bribery
c. estafa d. indirect bribery
27. The wilful and corrupt assertion of falsehood under oath of aHrmation, administered by authority of
law on a material matter.
a. libel b. falsifcation
c. per|ury d. slander
28. Deliberate planning of act before execution.
a. treachery b. evident premeditation
c. ignominy d. cruelty
29. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted together in the commission of a crime.
a. gang b. conspiracy
c. band d. piracy
30. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to.
a. negligence b. imprudence
c. omission d. act
31. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law breaker in the
execution of his criminal plan.
a. misfeasance b. entrapment
c. inducement d. instigation
32. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of public policy and sentiment there is no
penalty imposed.
a. impossible crimes
b. aggravating circumstances
c. absolutory causes
d. complex crimes
33. An alternative circumstance.
a. insanity b. intoxication
c. passion or obfuscation d. evident premeditation
34. If the accused refuse to plead, or make conditional plea of guilty, what shall be entered for him?
a. a plea of not guilty b. a plea of guilty
c. a plea of mercy d.plea of surrender
35. At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or information?
a. at any time before his arrest
b. only after entering his plea
c. any time before entering his plea
d. Monday morning
36. The process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a criminal case work out a mutually
satisfactory disposition on the case sub|ect to court approval.
a. arraignment b. plea bargaining
c. preliminary investigation d. trial
37. The security given for the release of a person in custody, furnished by him or a bondsman,
conditioned upon his appearance before any court as required under the conditions specifed by law.
a. subpoena b. recognizance
c. bail d. warrant
38. The examination before a competent tribunal, according to the laws of the land, of the acts in issue
in a case, for the purpose of determining such issue.
a. trial b. arraignment
b. pre-trial d. |udgment
39. The ad|udication by the court that the accused is guilty or is not guilty of the ofense charged, and
the imposition of the proper penalty and civil liability provided for by law on the accused.
a. trial b. pre-trial
c. arraignment d. |udgment
40. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining whether there is suHcient ground to
engender a well founded belief that an ofense has been committed and the ofender is probably guilty
thereof and should be held for trial.
a. pre-trial b. arraignment
c. preliminary investigation d. plea bargaining
41. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts.
a. secondary evidence b. prima facie evidence
c. corroborative evidence d. best evidence
42. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted is suHcient to maintain the
proposition aHrmed.
a. secondary evidence b. prima facie evidence
c. corroborative evidence d. best evidence
43. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived from conventional symbols, such as
letters, by which ideas are represented on material substances.
a. documentary evidence b.testimonial evidence
c. material evidence d. real evidence
44. When the witness states that he did not see or know the occurrence of a fact.
a. positive evidence b.corroborative evidence
c. secondary evidence d. negative evidence
45. Personal property that can be sub|ects for search and seizure.
a. used or intended to be used as means in committing an ofense
b. stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the ofense
c. sub|ect of the ofense
d. all of the above
46. All persons who can perceive and perceiving, can make known their perception to others.
a. suspects b. witnesses
c. victims d. informers
47. The unlawful destruction, or the bringing forth prematurely, of human fetus before the natural time of
birth which results in death.
a. abortion b. infanticide
c. murder d. parricide
48. Felony committed when a person is killed or wounded during the confusion attendant to a quarrel
among several persons not organized into groups and the parties responsible cannot be ascertained.
a. alarm and scandal
b. mysterious homicide
c. death under exceptional circumstances
d. tumultuous afray
49. A question which arises in a case the resolution of which is the logical antecedent of the issue
involved in said case and the cognisance of which pertains to another tribunal.
a. legal question b. |uridical question
c. pre|udicial question d. |udicial question
50. The ofender has been previously punished for an ofense to which the law attaches an equal or
greater penalty or two or more crimes to which it attaches a lighter penalty.
a. reiteracion b. recidivism
b. quasi-recidivism d. habitual delinquency
51. An act or omission which is a result of a misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not
intentional.
a. impossible crime b. mistake of facts
c. accidental crime d. complex crime
52. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not more than..
a. 36 hours b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours d. 72 hours
53. Ignorance of the law excuses no one from compliance therewith.
a. ignorantia legis non excusat b. parens patriae
c. res ipsa loquitur d. dura lex sed lex
54. An act which would be an ofense against persons or property were if not for the inherent
impossibility of its accomplishment.
a. compound crime b. impossible crime
c. complex crime d. accidental crime
55. The law which reimposed the death penalty.
a. RA 5425 b. RA 8553
c. RA 7659 d. RA 8551
56. One who is deprived completely of reason or discernment and freedom of the will at the time of the
commission of the crime.
a. discernment b. insanity
c. epilepsy d. imbecility
57. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its owner or author.
a. responsibility b. duty
c. guilt d. imputability
58. Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and although it comes about through some acts
of our will, lies beyond the bounds of humanly foreseeable consequences.
a. fortuitous event b. fate
c. accident d. destiny
59. A sworn written statement charging a person with an ofense, subscribed by the ofended party , any
peace oHcer or other public oHcer charged with the enforcement of the law violated.
a. subpoena b. information
c. complaint d. writ
60. This right of the accused is founded on the principle of |ustice and is intended not to protect the
guilty but to prevent as far as human agencies can, the conviction of an innocent person.
a. right to due process of law
b. presumption of innocence
c. right to remain silent
d. right against self-incrimination
61. Known in other countries as the body of principles, practices, usages and rules of action which are
not recognized in our country.
a. penal laws b. special laws
c. common laws d. statutory laws
62. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the crime any of all the conditions that
would make an act voluntary and hence, though there is no criminal liability there is civil liability.
a. exempting b. alternative
c. |ustifying d. aggravating
63. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance with the law, and hence, he incurs
no criminal and civil liability.
a. exempting b. alternative
c. |ustifying d. aggravating
64. When the ofender en|oys and delights in making his victim sufer slowly and gradually, causing him
unnecessary physical pain in the consummation of the criminal act.
a. ignominy b. cruelty
c. treachery d. masochism
65. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been previously convicted by fnal |udgment
of another crime embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal Code.
a. recidivism b. habitual delinquency
c. reiteracion d. quasi-recidivism
66. Alevosia means
a. craft b. treachery
c. evident premeditation d. cruelty
67. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and render |udgment after a fair trial.
a. ex post facto law
b. equal protection of the law
c. rule of law
d. due process of law
68. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his release or last conviction of the crime of
serious or less serious physical in|uries, robbery, theft, estafa or falsifcation, he is found guilty of any of
the said crimes a third time or oftener.
a. recidivist b. quasi-recidivist
c. habitual delinquent d. hardened criminal
69. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.
a. Primary b. Best
c. Secondary d. Conclusive
70. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.
a. Primary b. Best
c. Secondary d. Conclusive
71. These questions suggest to the witness the answers to which an examining party requires.
a. leading b. misleading
c. stupid d. hearsay
72. A method fxed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of persons alleged to have committed a
crime, and for their punishment in case of conviction.
a. Criminal Law b. Criminal Evidence
c. Criminal Procedure d. Criminal Jurisprudence
73. The period of prescription of crimes punishable by death.
a. 20 years b. 15 years
c. 10 years d. 40 years
74. Persons who take direct part in the execution of a crime.
a. accomplices
b. accessories
c. instigators
d. principals
75. A crime against honor which is committed by performing any act which casts dishonor, discredit, or
contempt upon another person.
a. libel
b. slander by deed
c. incriminating innocent person
d. intriguing against honor
76. The improper performance of some act which might lawfully be done.
a. misfeasance
b. malfeasance
c. nonfeasance
d. dereliction
77. A sworn statement in writing, made upon oath before an authorized magistrate or oHcer.
a. subpoena
b. writ
c. warrant
d. aHdavit
78. Any other name which a person publicly applies to himself without authority of law.
a. alias
b. common name
c. fctitious name
d. screen name
79. A special aggravating circumstance where a person, after having been convicted by fnal |udgment,
shall commit a new felony before beginning to serve such sentence, or while serving the same.
a. quasi-recidivism
b. recidivism
c. reiteracion
d. charivari
80. Which of the following is not a person in authority.
a. Municipal mayor
b. Private School Teacher
c. Police OHcer
d. Municipal Councilor
81. In its general sense, it is the raising of commotions or disturbances in the State.
a. Sedition
b. Rebellion
c. Treason
d. Coup d`etat
82. The length of validity of a search warrant from its date.
a. 30 days
b. 15 days
c. 10 days
d. 60 days
83. The detention of a person without legal grounds by a public oHcer or employee.
a. illegal detention
b. arbitrary detention
c. compulsory detention
d. unauthorized detention
84. A breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person who owes allegiance to it.
a. treason
b. espionage
c. rebellion
d. coup d`etat
85. A building or structure, exclusively used for rest and comfort.
a. sanctuary
b. prison
c. |ail
d. dwelling
86. The mental capacity to understand the diference between right and wrong.
a. treachery
b. premeditation
c. recidivism
d. discernment
87. Conspiracy to commit this felony is punishable under the law.
a. Estafa
b. Murder
c. Rebellion
d. Rape
88. It means that the resulting in|ury is greater than that which is intended.
a. Aberratio ictus
b. Error in personae
c. Dura Lex Sed lex
d. Praeter Intentionem
89. It means mistake in the blow.
a. Aberratio Ictus
b. Error in Personae
c. Dura lex sed lex
d. Praeter Intentionem
90. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are
present.
a. Attempted
b. Frustrated
c. Consummated
d. Accomplished
91. An act or omission which is the result of a misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not
intentional.
a. Absolutory Cause
b. Mistake of facts
c. Conspiracy
d. Felony
92. Crimes that have three stages of execution.
a. Material
b. Formal
c. Seasonal
d. Continuing
93. Felonies where the acts or omissions of the ofender are malicious.
a. Culpable
b. Intentional
c. Deliberate
d. Inculpable
94. It indicates defciency of perception.
a. Negligence
b. Diligence
c. Imprudence
d. Inference
95. Acts and omissions punishable by special penal laws.
a. Ofenses
b. Misdemeanours
c. Felonies
d. Ordinances
96. A character of Criminal Law, making it binding upon all persons who live or so|ourn in the
Philippines.
a. General
b. Territorial
c. Prospective
d. Retroactive
97. A legislative act which inJicts punishment without |udicial trial.
a. Bill of Attainder
b. Bill of Rights
c. Ex Post Facto Law
d. Penal Law
98. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may bound to answer for the commission of an
ofense.
a. Search
b. Seizure
c. Arrest
d. Detention
99. Pedro stole the cow of Juan. What was the crime committed?
a. Robbery
b. Farm Theft
c. Qualifed Theft
d.Simple Theft
100. Pedro, a 19 year old man had sexual intercourse with her 11 year old girlfriend without threat, force
or intimidation. What was the crime committed?
a. Child rape
b. Qualifed Rape
c. Statutory Rape
d. None
101.) The Revised Penal Code may be enforced outside the |urisdiction of the Philippines when
A. one commits an ofense on any ship or airship.
B. one introduces into the Philippines any counterfeit coin.
C. a public oHcer enters into a bigamous marriage.
D. one commits a crime against national security.
102.) A warrantless search is valid when the search is made by
A. a customs oHcers at the home of a known smuggler.
B. anti-drug enforcers.
C. policemen at a COMELEC checkpoint.
D. NBI agents looking for a bomb at a mall.
103.) A |ustifying circumstance is exemplifed by
A. a retreat from aggression.
B. a pre-emptive blow.
C. a counter blow.
D. a good intention.
104.) A person walks into a police station and declares that he has committed a crime before the police
could take him into custody. May his declaration be admitted against him?
A. No since he has not been forewarned of his rights to silence and to counsel.
B. Yes since he made his declaration before he could be taken into custody and investigated.
C. No since he has entered the police station and came within its |urisdiction.
D. Yes since he freely gave his declaration to the police.
105.) Rape is sexual intercourse with the use of
A. deceit
B. moral ascendance
C. intrigue
D. force or intimidation.
106.) The act of the police in placing the accused in a police line-up without his prior consent
A. violates his right against self-incrimination.
B. violates his right to counsel.
C. constitutes a valid police investigation procedure.
D. is valid conditioned on his being identifed at the trial.
107.) A warrantless search is valid when it is made
A. by customs oHcers at the home of a known smuggler.
B. by anti-drug enforcers.
C. by policemen at a COMELEC checkpoint for illegal frearms.
D. by the NBI for a bomb at the mall.
108.) A qualifying circumstance cannot be presumed, but must be established by
A. proof beyond reasonable doubt
B. clear and convincing evidence
C. substantial evidence
D. preponderance of evidence
ANSWERS:
1. B 26. B 51. B 76. A
2. B 27. C 52. D 77. D
3. B 28. B 53. A 78. A
4. B 29. C 54. B 79. A
5. D 30. C 55. C 80. C
6. D 31. B 56. D 81. A
7. C 32. C 57. D 82. C
8. C 33. B 58. C 83. B
9. C 34. A 59. C 84. A
10. A 35. C 60. B 85. D
11. C 36. B 61. C 86. D
12. C 37. C 62. A 87. C
13. C 38. A 63. C 88. D
14. B 39. D 64. B 89. A
15. B 40. C 65. A 90. C
16. D 41. C 66. B 91. B
17. B 42. B 67. D 92. A
18. C 43. A 68. C 93. A
19. A 44. D 69. D 94. A
20. C 45. D 70. D 95. A
21. C 46. B 71. A 96. A
22. A 47. A 72. C 97. A
23. D 48. D 73. A 98. C
24. D 49. C 74. D 99. C
25. A 50. A 75. B 100. C 101. ) D 102.) C 103.) C 104.) B 105.) D 106.) C 107.) C 108.) B
REMEDIAL LAW-- 20%
1. The |urisdiction of courts are determined by
A. Congress.
B. The Supreme Court.
C. The Judicial and Bar Council.
D. The Court Administrator.
2.) Which of the following constitutes antecedent collateral evidence of a bank robbery that several
accused committed?
A. The act of the lookout during the robbery.
B. The kinship among them.
C. The amount missing from the bank`s vault
D. The fngerprints on the teller`s counter.
3.) Real or ob|ect evidence is authenticated by showing
A. who owns it.
B. that it is what it is claimed to be.
C. how the evidence got to court.
D. similar or like ob|ects.
4.) A couple named their son Mario Lopez. But a confused clerk at the hospital registered his name as
Maria Lopez and his gender as female. The city civil registrar has authority to
A. correct his name and gender.
B. correct his name but not his gender.
C. correct his gender but not his name.
D. indorse the case to court.
5.) A decision states that the defendant is entitled to moral damages but its dispositive portion did not
carry an award of moral damages. The writ of execution, however, orders the defendant to pay moral
damages of P5,000. Must he comply?
A. Yes since the body of the decision contains the |ustifcation for it.
B. No since it is the dispositive portion of the decision that controls.
C. Yes since the writ of execution aHrms it.
D. No since the plaintif needed to pay docket fee on the P5,000.
6.) A criminal action must be fled in the place where
A. the ofense took place.
B. the accused was apprehended and detained.
C. the ofended party resides.
D. the preliminary investigation took place.
7.) The police nabbed two robbery suspects whom they convinced during the investigation to go with
them to the scene of the crime to reenact how they committed it. Is the reenactment admissible in
evidence?
A. No since it amounts to waiver of right to silence without the advice of counsel.
B. Yes since the reenactment was voluntary.
C. No since it is irrelevant evidence.
D. Yes since the reenactment was unaccompanied by any statement from the suspects.
8.) To prove that Susan stabbed her husband Sergio, Pete testifed that he heard Rico running down the
street, shouting excitedly, "Sinaksak daw ni Susan ang asawa niya!" Rico`s declaration is
A. admissible as part of res gestae.
B. inadmissible as hearsay.
C. admissible as independently relevant statement.
D. inadmissible as a mere opinion.
9.) The law that will determine |urisdiction over a particular case is the law in force at the time
A. the cause of action accrued.
B. the action is fled.
C. the issues in the action are |oined.
D. the defendant receives the complaint.
10.) The right to be presumed innocent is NOT violated by a law that establishes a presumption of guilt
based on a certain fact proved provided that
A.the accused has a chance to overcome it.
B. the nature of the crime permits it.
C. what is proved and presumed are reasonably connected.
D. the law is not retroactive.
11.) Choose which of the following is correct:
a. Documentary evidence is that which is directly addressed to the senses of the court and consists of
tangible things
b. Documentary evidence is ofered when a document is presented to prove its existence or condition
c. Where the purpose is to prove a collateral fact that took place while a document was being prepared,
rule on documentary evidence shall apply
d. Documentary evidence applies only when the contents of such document is the sub|ect of inquiry
Answers: 1. A 2. B3. B4. B5. B6. A7. A8. B9. B10. C 11.) d
LEGAL ETHICS/FORMS-- 5%

1.) The practice of law is a right in the sense that a lawyer cannot be prevented from practicing law
except for valid reasons.
2.) The practice of law is a privilege because it is limited to persons of good moral character with special
qualifcations duly ascertained and certifed.
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