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1100.Organizational Behaviour

MCQ (50 Questions)

1. A model is a(n) _____.
a. abstraction of reality
b. someone held in high esteem
c. independent variable
d. real-world scenario
e. dependent variable
(a; Moderate; Model; p. 26)

2. At its root, productivity involves concern for both ____.
a. dependence and independence
b. diversity and homogeneity
c. motivation and distraction
d. absenteeism and motivation
e. effectiveness and efficiency
(e; Moderate; Productivity; p. 27)

3. Which of the following is an example of being an efficient company?
a. operating at the lowest possible cost while yielding a higher output
b. creating the highest customer satisfaction ratings
c. meeting the production schedule
d. obtaining the highest market share
e. maximizing diversity at high cost
(a; Challenging; Productivity; p. 27)

4. In general, _____ reinforcement schedules tend to lead to higher performance than
_____ reinforcement schedules.
a. variable; fixed
b. fixed; intermittent
c. fixed; variable
d. variable; ratio
e. fixed; static
(a; Moderate; Intermittent Reinforcement; p. 60)

5. The application of reinforcement concepts to individuals in the work setting is referred to
as _____.
a. classical conditioning
b. self-management
c. reengineering
d. OB Mod
e. social modeling
(d; Moderate; OB Mod; p. 62)

6. Which of the following is one of the steps of the problem-solving model followed by the
typical OB Mod program?
a. identifying critical behaviors
b. reinforcing behavior
c. developing horizontally arrayed data
d. developing vertically arrayed data
e. identifying member barriers
(a; Moderate; OB Mod Steps; p. 62)

7. Which of the following statements is not true about attitudes in the workplace?
a. Changing employee attitudes is necessary if you are to manage dissonance.
b. High pay alone is not likely to create a satisfying workplace.
c. Generating positive job attitudes helps lower absenteeism and turnover.
d. Attitudes help determine how well employees perform on the job
e. Attitudes give warnings of potential problems
(a; Moderate; Attitudes in the Workplace; pp. 85-90)

8. An important moderator of the satisfaction-turnover relationship is the _____.
a. employees level of performance
b. organizations culture
c. managements style
d. employees values and attitudes
e. employees level of workplace deviance
(a; Challenging; Job Satisfaction and Turnover; p. 90)

9. Why should managers be interested in their employees attitudes?
a. They result from behavior.
b. They cause problems.
c. They give warnings of potential problems.
d. They are generally low.
e. They result in cognitive dissonance.
(c; Moderate; Job Satisfaction and Implications for Managers; p. 92)

10. Each of the six personality types developed in Hollands personality-job fit theory has a
a. supplemental personality style
b. congruent personality style
c. congruent occupational environment
d. supplemental occupational environment
e. supplemental skill set
(c; Challenging; Personality-Job Fit Theory; p. 122)

11. The realistic personality from Hollands typology of personality and congruent
occupations would be well suited for which of the following jobs?
a. painter
b. accountant
c. mechanic
d. lawyer
e. biologist
(c; Moderate; Personality-Job Fit Theory; p. 122)

12. What are consequences of a good fit between person and occupation?
a. a low level of stress
b. a high level of accomplishment
c. high satisfaction and low turnover
d. maximum performance and efficiency
e. a high rate of turnover
(c; Easy; Person-Organization Fit; p. 122)


13. What is the segment of the three-component model of creativity that is the foundation for
all creative work?
a. expertise
b. creative thinking skills
c. intrinsic task motivation
d. intuition
e. realization
(a; Moderate; Three-Component Model of Creativity; p. 159)

14. What segment of the three-component model of creativity encompasses personality
characteristics that are associated with imagination?
a. expertise
b. creative thinking skills
c. intrinsic task motivation
d. intuition
e. realization
(b; Moderate; Three-Component Model of Creativity; p. 159)

15. What is the segment in the three-component model of creativity that turns creative
potential into actual creative ideas?
a. expertise
b. creative thinking skills
c. intrinsic task motivation
d. intuition
e. realization
(c; Moderate; Three-Component Model of Creativity; p. 160)

16. What is the term used for an individuals personal evaluation of their ability to perform?
a. expectancy
b. autonomy
c. self-efficacy
d. task identity
e. auto-discrimination
(c; Easy; Self-Efficacy; p. 188)

17. Which of the following is one of the relationships proposed in expectancy theory?
a. reward-satisfaction relationship
b. satisfaction-performance relationship
c. rewards-personal goals relationship
d. effort-satisfaction relationship
e. performance-achievement relationship
(c; Moderate; Rewards-Personal Goals Relationship; p. 197)

18. According to expectancy theory, the degree to which organizational rewards satisfy an
individuals personal goals or needs and the attractiveness of those potential rewards for
the individual is known as what sort of relationship?
a. performance-reward
b. effort-performance
c. rewards-personal goals
d. effort-satisfaction
e. performance-achievement
(c; Moderate; Rewards-Personal Goals Relationship; p. 197)


19. Which of the following is not a typical option in a flexible benefit program?
a. additional life insurance
b. disability insurance
c. expanded health coverage.
d. tax free health care spending accounts
e. mortgage relief
(e; Easy; Flexible Benefits; p. 234)

20. What are modular benefit plans?
a. essential benefits and a menu-like selection of other benefits
b. pre-designed packages of benefits
c. they employees to set aside funds up to the dollar amount offered in the plan to pay
for services
d. a scheme designed for single employees with no dependents
e. a scheme designed for employees with families
(b; Moderate; Modular Benefit Plan; p. 234)

21. Which of the following is a form of recognition?
a. personal congratulations
b. job enlargement
c. job sharing
d. flexible benefit packages
e. profit sharing
(a; Easy; Employee Recognition Programs; p. 235)

22. Whether a candidate has high emotional intelligence would not be a significant factor
when considering candidates for which of the following jobs?
a. An interviewer who assesses candidates in an employment agency.
b. An engineer heading up a team designing a complex software/hardware interface.
c. A meeting planner who must set up meetings for candidates around the world.
d. A copy-editor who seeks out spelling errors and grammatical mistakes in manuscripts.
e. A realtor arranging sales between homeowners and potential buyers.
(d; Moderate; Emotional Intelligence and Selection; p. 267)

23. Studies show that people who are depressed tend to make poorer decisions than those
with a more positive outlook. Why is this thought to be the case?
a. They tend to choose an outcome that will confirm their negative worldview.
b. They search for the perfect solution when rarely is any solution perfect.
c. They rarely weigh up all the options when making a decision.
d. They avoid stereotyping and other behaviors that allow them to come to a rapid
e. They tend to put too great a value on their own ability to affect outcomes.
(b; Moderate; Emotional Intelligence and Decision Making; p. 268)

24. Francine is the head of a group at an ad agency working with copywriters, artists, and
designers to come up with effective branding of new products. Why is it particularly
important for her to keep her team happy?
a. People are more conscientious when they are in a good mood.
b. People are more efficient when they are in a good mood.
c. People are more productive when they are in a good mood.
d. People are more cooperative when they are in a good mood.
e. People are more creative when they are in a good mood.
(e; Easy; Emotional Intelligence and Creativity; p. 268)


25. What term is used for the tendency for individuals to spend less effort when working
a. groupthink
b. the rule of diminishing returns
c. social loafing
d. groupshift
e. clustering
(c; Easy; Social Loafing; p. 299)

26. Which of the following is a phenomenon in which group pressures for conformity deter
the group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views?
a. group conformity
b. groupshift
c. groupthink
d. compromise
e. risk transfer
(c; Easy; Groupthink; p. 304)

27. What is brainstorming?
a. a technique used to build group cohesiveness
b. a technique that tends to restrict independent thinking
c. a process for generating ideas
d. a process used mainly when group members cannot agree on a solution
e. the most effective means of generating answers
(c; Easy; Brainstorming; p. 306)

28. Coasting on the group effort is termed ____.
a. inconsistency
b. incompetence
c. social loafing
d. dysfunction
e. half-focus bias
(c; Easy; Social Loafing; p. 337)

29. If an employee is considered untrainable as a team member, he or she most
a. will be willing to undergo training in order to learn team skills
b. can be successfully transferred from one team to another
c. lacks the technical skills necessary for a team position
d. will find it difficult to transition to working in teams
e. comes from a culture that upholds collectivist values
(d; Moderate; Selection; pp. 337-338)

30. Exercises that help individuals become team players include workshops in _____.
a. negotiation
b. individualism
c. goal setting
d. event planning
e. recruiting
(a; Moderate; Training; p. 338)


31. Receivers in communication see and hear based on their needs, motivations, experience,
background, and other personal characteristics. This is called _____.
a. communication apprehension
b. filtering
c. selective perception
d. emotional block
e. projection
(c; Moderate; Selective Perception; p. 368)

32. During the communication process, which of the following is most likely to result in lost
a. information processing
b. information overload
c. information filtering
d. effective communication
e. the maximal effort effect
(b; Moderate; Information Overload; p. 368)

33. Communication _____ is the tension and anxiety about oral communication, written
communication, or both.
a. obstruction
b. apprehension
c. breakdown
d. block
e. frustration
(b; Moderate; Communication Apprehension; p. 370) {AACSB: Communication}

34. According to LMX theory, which of the following is not true of those individuals who fall
into the out-group?
a. They receive a disproportionate amount of the leaders attention.
b. They have leader-follower relations based on formal authority interaction.
c. They are less trusted.
d. They receive fewer of the preferred rewards that the leader controls.
e. All of the above statements are true.
(a; Easy; Leader-Member Exchange Theory; p. 399)

35. According to LMX theory, a leader implicitly categorizes followers as in or out _____.
a. after careful analysis
b. on a temporary basis
c. early in the interaction
d. because of political pressure
e. based on job requirements
(c; Easy; Leader-Member Exchange Theory; p. 399)

36. Vroom and Yettons leadership theory could also be described as a _____ theory.
a. contingency
b. decision
c. behavioral
d. trait
e. cognitive dissonance
(b; Moderate; Leadership-Participation Model; p. 400)

37. Organizational characteristics that can be substitutes for leadership include all of the
following except _____.
a. explicit formalized goals
b. rigid rules and procedures
c. cohesive work groups
d. mentor relationships
e. All of the above can be substitutes for leadership.
(d; Easy; Substitutes for Neutralizers of Leadership; p. 435)

38. According to the text, which of the following skills should be included in leadership
a. vision creation
b. trust building
c. situational analysis
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
(d; Easy; Training Leaders; p. 436)

39. Reactive and protective behaviors designed to avoid action, blame, or change are termed
a. political behaviors
b. defensive behaviors
c. protectionism
d. impression management
e. shielding bias
(b; Moderate; Defensive Behaviors; p. 468)

40. The process by which individuals attempt to control the perceptions that others form of
them is called _____.
a. impression management
b. information management
c. defensive behavior
d. perception management
e. reflection control
(a; Easy; Impression Management; p. 469)

41. What factor would most likely increase the negative impact of an arbitration session?
a. limited options of the arbitrator
b. heavy-handedness of the arbitrator
c. compulsory nature of the arbitration
d. voluntary nature of the arbitration
e. establishment of an agreement that is non-binding
(b; Moderate; Arbitration; p. 504)

42. In third-party negotiations, a third party who provides an informal communication link
between the negotiator and the opponent is known as a(n) _____.
a. mediator
b. arbitrator
c. consultant
d. conciliator
e. executor
(d; Moderate; Conciliator; p. 504)


43. A company oriented around cost minimization is best served by which type of structure?
a. virtual
b. combination
c. mechanistic
d. organic
e. targeted
(c; Moderate; Strategy-Structure Relationship; p. 535)

44. The _____ of an environment refers to the degree to which it can support growth.
a. capacity
b. qualifications
c. potential
d. capability
e. permeability
(a; Moderate; Capacity; p. 537)

45. What does a positive organizational culture do?
a. uses positive reinforcement instead of punishment
b. rarely uses rewards
c. emphasizes individual growth
d. emphasizes building on the organizations strengths
e. emphasizes organizational vitality
(c; Moderate; Creating a Positive Organizational Culture; p. 567)

46. Organizations that promote a spiritual culture _____.
a. have organized religious practices
b. adopt a corporate religion
c. recognize that people have both a mind and a spirit
d. de-emphasize community in the work place
e. tend to downplay the importance of employee satisfaction
(c; Moderate; Workplace Spirituality and Organizational Culture; p. 570)

47. The centerpiece of most diversity programs is _____.
a. top management commitment
b. employee commitment
c. training
d. human resource personnel
e. employee satisfaction
(c; Moderate; Diversity Training; p. 605)

48. Diversity training programs are generally intended to provide a vehicle for _____.
a. increasing awareness and examining stereotypes
b. focusing on individual differences
c. eliminating group learning
d. balancing work/life conflicts
e. socializing otherwise unmanageable employees
(a; Moderate; Diversity Training; p. 605)

49. Family issues, economic problems, and personality characteristics are examples of the
_____ factor of potential stress.
a. social
b. environmental
c. personnel
d. psychological
e. personal
(e; Moderate; Personal Sources of Stress; p. 640)

50. _____ is an example of an individual approach to stress reduction.
a. Selection and placement
b. Redesigning jobs
c. Goal setting
d. Relaxation techniques
e. all of the above
(d; Easy; Individual Approaches to Managing Stress; p. 645)

Short Questions (20 Questions)

1. Discuss three different criteria for ethical decision making.

There are three different criteria in making ethical choices.
a) The first is the utilitarian criterion, in which decisions are made solely on the
basis of their outcomes or consequences. The goal of utilitarianism is to
provide the greatest good for the greatest number. This is the view that tends
to dominate business decision making.
b) Another criterion is to focus on rights. This calls on individuals to make
decisions consistent with fundamental liberties and privileges as set forth in
documents like the Bill of Rights. An emphasis on rights in decision making
means respecting and protecting the basic rights of individuals.
c) A third criterion is to focus on justice. This requires individuals to impose and
enforce rules fairly and impartially so there is an equitable distribution of
benefits and costs. (Moderate; Ethics; p. 157)

2. What is self-efficacy?

Self-efficacy refers to an individuals belief that he or she is capable of performing
a task. The higher your self-efficacy, the more confidence you have in your ability
to succeed in a task. Individuals high in self-efficacy seem to respond to negative
feedback with increased effort and motivation, while those low in self-efficacy are
likely to lessen their effort when given negative feedback. (Easy; Self-Efficacy; p.


3. Explain the three job redesign options.

a) Job rotation. This is the practice of periodically shifting an employee from one
task to another. When an activity is no longer challenging, the employee is
rotated to another job, usually at the same level, that has similar skill
b) Job enlargement. This is the expansion of jobs horizontally; increasing the
number and variety of tasks that an individual performs. Instead of only sorting
the incoming mail by department, for instance, a mail sorters job could be
enlarged to include physically delivering the mail to the various departments or
running outgoing letters through the postage meter.
c) Job enrichment. Job enrichment refers to the vertical expansion of jobs. It
increases the degree to which the worker controls the planning, execution, and
evaluation of his or her work. An enriched job organizes tasks so as to allow
the worker to do a complete activity, increases the employees freedom and
independence, increases responsibility, and provides feedback, so an
individual will be able to assess and correct his or her own performance.
(Moderate; Job Redesign; pp. 218-220)

4. Discuss whether there are gender differences regarding emotions.

The common belief is that women are more emotional than are men. Is there any
truth to this? The evidence does confirm that women are more emotionally
expressive than are men; they experience emotions more intensely; they tend to
hold onto emotions longer than men, and they display more frequent
expressions of both positive and negative emotions, except anger. Although there
may be innate differences between the genders, research suggests that emotional
differences also are due to the different ways men and women have been
socialized. Men are taught to be tough and brave. Showing emotion is inconsistent
with this image. Women, in contrast, are socialized to be nurturing. For instance,
women are expected to express more positive emotions on the job (shown by
smiling) than men, and they do. (Moderate; Emotions and Gender; p. 259) {AACSB:
Analytic Skills}

5. What is team efficacy?

Effective teams have confidence in themselves. They believe they can succeed.
This is called team efficacy. Teams that have been successful raise their beliefs
about future success, which in turn, motivates them to work harder. (Easy; Team
Efficacy; p. 336) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}

6. What is communication apprehension?

Communication apprehension is a major barrier to effective communication.
People who suffer from communication apprehension experience undue tension
and anxiety in oral communication, written communication, or both. (Easy;
Communication Apprehension; p. 370) {AACSB: Communication} {AACSB:
Analytic Skills}

7. What are the key dimensions that underlie the concept of trust?

The key dimensions that underlie the concept of trust are integrity, competence,
consistency, loyalty, and openness.
a) Integrity refers to honesty and truthfulness.
b) Competence encompasses an individuals technical and interpersonal
knowledge and skills.
c) Consistency relates to an individuals reliability, predictability, and good
judgment in handling situations.
d) Loyalty is the willingness to protect and save face for another person.
e) The final dimension of trust is openness, or the degree to which a person can
be counted on to provide the full truth. (Moderate; Key Dimensions of Trust; p.

8. What are defensive behaviors?

Defensive behaviors occur when people perceive politics as a threat rather than an
opportunity. They respond with reactive and protective behaviors to avoid action,
blame, or change. Defensive behaviors are often associated with negative feelings
toward the job and work environment. In the short run, employees may find that
defensiveness protects their self-interest. But in the long run, it is the only way
they know how to behave. At that point, they lose the trust and support of their
peers, bosses, employees, and clients. (Easy; Defensive Behaviors; p. 468)

9. Identify the five primary conflict-handling intentions, giving the title of each and the
cooperative and assertiveness dimensions of each.

a) Competing (assertive and uncooperative),
b) Collaborating (assertive and cooperative),
c) Avoiding (unassertive and uncooperative),
d) Accommodating (unassertive and cooperative), and
e) Compromising (midrange on both assertiveness and cooperativeness).
(Easy; Conflict-Handling Intentions; p. 490)

10. What is workforce spirituality?

Workplace spirituality is not about organized religious practices. Its not about God
or theology. Workplace spirituality recognizes that people have an inner life that
nourishes and is nourished by meaningful work that takes place in the context of
community. Organizations that promote a spiritual culture recognize that people
have both a mind and a spirit, seek to find meaning and purpose in their work, and
desire to connect with other human beings and be part of a community. (Easy;
Workplace Spirituality; p. 570)


11. Describe the advantages and disadvantages of the selection interview.

Not only is the interview widely used, it also seems to carry a great deal of weight.
That is, the results tend to have a disproportionate amount of influence on the
selection decision. The candidate who performs poorly in the employment
interview is likely to be cut from the applicant pool, regardless of his or her
experience, test scores, or letters of recommendation. Conversely, all too often,
the person most polished in job-seeking techniques, particularly those used in the
interview process, is the one hired, even though he or she may not be the best
candidate for the position. (Easy; Interviews; p. 588)

12. Explain how Fred Luthans differentiates between successful and effective managers.

Luthans defined successful managers in terms of the speed of their promotions.
Effective managers were defined in terms of the quantity and quality of their
performance and the satisfaction and commitment of their employees. Different
skills were associated with each group. Successful managers used more
networking skills, whereas effective managers used more communication skills.
(Easy; Effective Versus Successful Managers; p. 9)

13. How can managers shape employee behavior?

Managers can shape employee behavior by systematically reinforcing each
successive step that moves the individual closer to the desired response.
Managers can mold individuals by guiding their learning in graduated steps.
Reinforcement increases as responses more closely approximate the desired
behavior. Managers may use positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement,
punishment, and extinction to promote this gradual shaping of employee behavior.
(Easy; Shaping; p. 58)

14. List and explain the four ways employees can express job dissatisfaction.

Employees can express dissatisfaction by using exit, voice, loyalty, and neglect.
These arise from whether a response is active or passive, and constructive or
1) Behavior directed toward leaving the organization is defined as exit
behavior. It is active and destructive.
2) Voice involves actively and constructively attempting to improve
conditions, including suggesting improvements, discussing problems with
superiors, and some forms of union activity.
3) Loyalty involves passively but optimistically waiting for conditions to
improve, so it is passive and constructive.
4) Neglect is passively allowing conditions to worsen, including chronic
absenteeism or lateness, reduced effort, and increased error rate, so it is a
passive and destructive response.
(Moderate; Job Dissatisfaction; p. 87)

15. Discuss the Big Five model of personality.

The five-factor model of personality is typically called the Big Five. An
impressive body of research supports its thesis that five basic dimensions
underlie all others and encompass most of the significant variation in human
personality. Research on the Big Five has found relationships between these
personality dimensions and job performance. (Easy; Big Five Personality Model;
pp. 108-109)

16. Identify and briefly describe the five key traits in the Big Five personality model.

The five key traits in the Big Five personality model are extroversion,
agreeableness, conscientiousness, emotional stability, and openness to
a) Extroversion captures ones comfort level with relationships.
b) Agreeableness refers to an individuals propensity to defer to others.
c) Conscientiousness is a measure of reliability.
d) Emotional stability taps a persons ability to withstand stress.
e) Openness to experience addresses ones range of interests and fascination
with novelty.
(Easy; Big Five Personality Model; pp. 108-109)

17. Discuss the importance of values.

Values are important to the study of organizational behavior because they lay the
foundation for the understanding of attitudes and motivation and because they
influence our perceptions. Individuals enter an organization with preconceived
notions of what ought and what ought not to be. These notions are not value-
free. They contain interpretations of right and wrong. Values cloud objectivity and
rationality. Values generally influence attitudes and behavior. (Easy; Importance of
Values; p. 117)

18. Discuss three different criteria for ethical decision making.

There are three different criteria in making ethical choices.
a) The first is the utilitarian criterion, in which decisions are made solely on the
basis of their outcomes or consequences. The goal of utilitarianism is to
provide the greatest good for the greatest number. This is the view that tends
to dominate business decision making.
b) Another criterion is to focus on rights. This calls on individuals to make
decisions consistent with fundamental liberties and privileges as set forth in
documents like the Bill of Rights. An emphasis on rights in decision making
means respecting and protecting the basic rights of individuals.
c) A third criterion is to focus on justice. This requires individuals to impose and
enforce rules fairly and impartially so there is an equitable distribution of
benefits and costs. (Moderate; Ethics; p. 157)

19. What is a quality circle?

A quality circle is a work group of eight to ten employees and supervisors who
have a shared area of responsibility. They meet regularly to discuss their quality
problems, investigate causes of the problems, recommend solutions, and take
corrective actions. (Easy; Quality Circle; p. 226)

20. Identify and describe the different types of communication flows.

Communication can flow vertically or laterally. The vertical dimension can be
further divided into downward and upward directions. (Easy; Direction of
Communication; pp. 353-355) {AACSB: Communication} {AACSB: Analytic Skills}


Case Study



Although the 40-hour workweek is now the exception rather than the norm, some
individuals are taking things to the extreme:

John Bishop, 31, is an investment banker who works for Citigroup's global energy
team in New York. A recent workday for Bishop consisted of heading to the office for
a conference call at 6:00 P.M. He left the office at 1:30 A.M. and had to be on a
plane that same morning for a 9:00 A.M. presentation in Houston. Following the
presentation, Bishop returned to New York the same day, and by 7:00 P.M., he was
back in his office to work an additional 3 hours' Says Bishop, "I might be a little
skewed to the workaholic, but realistically, expecting 90 to 100 hours a week is not at
all unusual."

David Clark, 35, is the vice president of global marketing for MTV. His job often
consists of travelling around the globe to promote the channel as well as to keep up
with the global music scene. If he is not travelling (Clark typically logs 200,000 miles
a year), a typical day consists of waking at 6:30 A.M. and immediately responding to
numerous messages that have accumulated over the course of the night. He then
goes to his office, where throughout the day he responds to another 500, or so
messages from clients around the world. If he's lucky, he gets to spend an hour a
day with his son, but then it's back to work until he finally goes to bed around
midnight. Says Clark, "There are plenty of people who would love to have this job.
They're knocking on the door all the time. So that's motivating."

Given that the two individuals we just read about tend to be satisfied with their
jobs, how might this satisfaction relate to their job performance, citizenship
behaviour and turnover?