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Schedule of Minimum Testing Requirements Governing Items of Work of the
DPWH Specifications for Highways, Bridges and Airports (2004 Edition)






PART C - EARTHWORKS


ITEM 100 CLEARING AND GRUBBING
* This item shall consist of clearing, grubbing, removing and disposing all vegetation
and debris as designated in the contract.
Tests: None

ITEM 101 REMOVAL OF STRUCTURES AND OBSTRUCTIONS
* This item shall consist of the removal wholly or in part, and satisfactory disposal of all
buildings, fences, structures, old pavements abandoned pipelines, and any other
obstruction which are not designated or permitted to remain.
Tests: None

ITEM 102 EXCAVATION
* This item shall consist of roadway, drainage and borrow excavation and the disposal of
materials.
Tests: Same as for Items 103, 104 and 105, whichever is applicable

ITEM 103 STRUCTURE EXCAVATION
* This item shall consist of the necessary excavation for foundation of bridges, culverts,
under-drains, and other structures not otherwise provided in the specifications.
If the excavated materials are washed, the volume involved shall be reported so
that quality control requirements may be adjusted accordingly (submit Project
Engineer Certificate of Waste).
If the excavated materials are incorporated into the work:
Tests:
For every 1,500 m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 G, Grading Test
1 P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI)
1 C, Laboratory Compaction Test
For every 150 mm in uncompacted depth:
1 D, Field Density

ITEM 104 EMBANKMENT
* This item shall consist of the construction of embankment.
Tests:
For every 1,500m
3
or fraction thereof:
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1 G, Grading Test
1 P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI)
1 C, Laboratory Compaction Test
For each 500m
2
of each layer of compacted fill or fraction thereof:
At least one group of three in situ density test. The layer shall be
placed not exceeding200 mm in loose measurement or based on
the result of compacted trials.


ITEM 105 SUBGRADE PREPARATION
* This item shall consist of the preparation of the sub-grade for the support of overlying
structural layers.
Tests: Same as for Item 104

ITEM 106 COMPACTION EQUIPMENT AND DENSITY CONTROL STRIPS
* This item shall be used in determining the density requirements of selected
embankments, sub-grade, bases and bituminous concrete.
Tests: Same as for Items104, 105, 200, 201, 202, 203, 204, 205, 206 and
300

ITEM 107 OVERHAUL
* This item shall consist of authorized hauling in excess of free-haul distance.
Tests: None


PART D SUB - BASE AND BASE COURSE


ITEM 200 AGGREGATE SUBBASE COURSE
* This item shall consist of furnishing, placing and compaction of aggregate sub-base
course on a prepared sub-grade.
Tests:
For every 300 m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 G, Grading Test
1 P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI)
For every 1,500 m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 C, Laboratory Compaction Test
1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion)
For every 2,500m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 CBR, California Bearing Test
For every layer of 150 mm of compacted depth based on the result
of compaction test trials:
At least one group of three in situ density tests for each 500
m
2
or fraction thereof

ITEM 201 AGGREGATE BASE COURSE
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* This item shall consist of furnishing, placing, and compaction of aggregate base course
on a prepared sub-grade.
Tests:

For every 300 m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 G, Grading Test
1 P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI)
For every 1,500 m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 C, Laboratory Compaction Test
1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion)
For every 2,500m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 CBR, California Bearing Test
For every layer of 150 mm of compacted depth based on the result
of compaction test trials:
At least one group of three in situ density tests for each 500
m
2
or fraction thereof

ITEM 202 CRUSHED AGGREGATE BASE COURSE
* This item shall consist of furnishing, placing, and compacting crushed gravel, crushed
stone or crush rock on a prepared sub-grade.
Tests:
Same as for Item 201
For every 1,500m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 F, Fractured face

ITEM 203 LIME STABILIZED ROAD MIX BASE COURSE
* This item shall consist of a foundation for surface course composed of soil aggregate,
lime and water in proper proportions.
Amount of lime to be added:
3 12 mass percent of dry soil aggregates test
Tests:
A. SOIL AGGREGATE
For every 300 m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 G, Grading Test
1 P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI)
For every1,500 m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion)
B. MIX
For every 300 m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 C, Laboratory Compaction Test
1 UC, Unconfined Compaction Test
C. COMPACTED BASE COURSE
For every layer of 150 mm compacted depth:
1 D, Field Density Test for every 150 m or fraction thereof
1 T, Thickness determination for every 150 m or fraction
thereof
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D. HYDRATED LIME
For every 100T or fraction thereof:
1 Q, Quality Test

ITEM 204 PORTLAND CEMENT STABILIZED ROAD MIX BASE COURSE
* This item shall consist of a foundation for surface course, composed of soil aggregate,
Portland cement and water in proper proportions.
Amount of cement to be added:
6 to 10 mass of dry soil aggregate
Tests:
A. SOIL AGGREGATE
Same as for Item 203
B. CEMENT
1 Q, Quality Test for every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof
C. WATER
1 Q, Quality Test/Project Engineers Certificate
D. MIX
For every 300 m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 C, Laboratory Compaction Test
1 UC, Unconfined Compaction Test
1 CBR, California Bearing Ratio
E. COMPACTED BASE COURSE
For every layer of 150 mm compacted depth:
1 D, Field Density Test for every 150 m or fraction thereof
1 T, Thickness Determination for every 150 m or fraction
thereof

ITEM 205 ASPHALT STABILIZED ROAD MIX BASE COURSE
* This item shall consist of a foundation for surface course, composed of soil aggregate
and asphaltic material in proper proportions.
Amount of asphalt to be added:
4 7 mass of dry soil aggregate
Tests:
A. SOIL AGGREGATE
Same as for Item 203
B. EMULSIFIED ASPHALT
1 Q, Quality Test for every 40T of 200 drums or fraction
thereof
C. MIX
Same as for Item 203
C. COMPACTED BASE COURSE
Same as for Item 203

ITEM 206 PORTLAND CEMENT STABILIZED TREATED PLANT MIX BASE
COURSE
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* This item shall consist of a foundation for surface course composed of aggregate
Portland cement and water in proper proportion.
Amount of cement to be added:
6 to 10 mass of dry soil aggregate
Tests:
A. SOIL AGGREGATE
Same as for Item 203
B. PORTLAND CEMENT
For every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof:
1 Q, Quality Test
C. MIX
Same as for Item 204
D. WATER
1 Q, Quality Test/Project Engineers Certificate
E. COMPACTED BASE COURSE
For every layer of 150 mm compacted depth:
1 D, Field Density Test for every 150 m or fraction thereof
1 T, Thickness Determination for every 150 m or fraction
thereof

ITEM 207 AGGREGATE STOCKPILE
* This item shall furnishing and placing aggregate in stockpiles at locations.
Tests:
Same as the specified Item No. of the Specification


PART E SURFACE COURSES


ITEM 300 AGGREGATE SURFACE COURSE
* This item shall consist of wearing of top course composed of gravel or crushed
aggregate and other binder material.
Tests:
For every 300 m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 G, Grading Test
1 P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI)
For every 1,500 m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 C, Laboratory Compaction Test
1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion)
For every layer of 150 mm of compacted depth based on the result
of compaction test trials:
At least one group of three in situ density tests for each 500
m
2
or fraction thereof
For crushed gravel or crushed stone 1,500 m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 F, Fractured face

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ITEM 301 BITUMINOUS PRIME COAT
* This item shall consist of preparing and treating an aggregate base course.
Quantity:
1 to 2 L/m
2

Test: 1 Q, Quality Test for every 40T or 200 drums

ITEM 302 BITUMINOUS TACKCOAT
* This item shall consist of preparing and treating an existing bituminous or cement
concrete with bituminous material.
Quantity:
0.2 to 0.7 L/m
2

Test:
1 Q, Quality Test for every 40T or 200 drums

ITEM 303 BITUMINOUS SEAL COAT
* This item shall consist of an application of bituminous material with or w/o an
application of aggregate on an existing bituminous surface course.
A. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
0.2 to 1.5 L/m
2
Test:
1 Q, Quality Test for every 40T or 200 drums
B. COVER AGGREGATES
Quantity:

5 to 14 kg/m
2
Test:
For every 75 m
3
/200 kg or fraction thereof:
1 G, Grading Test

ITEM 304 BITUMINOUS SURFACE TREATMENT
* This item shall consist of either a single application of bituminous materials followed
by a single spreading of aggregate (single surface treatment) or two applications
bituminous material each followed.
A. AGGREGATES
Quantity:
13.6 to 38 kg/m
2
if using cut back asphalt or asphalt cement
13.6 to 19.04 kg/m
2
if using emulsified asphalt
Tests:
For every 75 m
3
/200 kg or fraction thereof:
1 G, Grading Test
1 P, Plasticity Test (LL, PI)
For every 1,500 m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion)
For every 1,500m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 F, Fractured Face
B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
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Quantity:
1.58 to 2.04 L/m
2
if using cut back asphalt or asphalt cement
1.58 to 2.04 L/m
2
if using emulsified asphalt


ITEM 305 BITUMINOUS PENETRATION MACADAM PAVEMENT
* This item shall consist of furnishing and placing one or more aggregate and one or
more application of bituminous material followed by a seal coat a with cover aggregate
constructed on a prepared base.
A. AGGREGATES
Quantity:
Using Asphalt Cement or Rapid Curing Emulsified Asphalt
Course (crushed) 80 kg/m
2

Key (crushed) 24 kg/m
2

Cover (crushed or screened) 8 kg/m
2

B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
7.2 to 11 L/m
2
Test:
Same as for Item 301

ITEM 306 BITUMINOUS ROAD MIX SURFACE COURSE
* This item shall consist of constructing a bituminous road mix surface course on a
prepared base.
A. AGGREGATES
Tests:
Same as for Item 304
B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
Using cut back asphalt 4.5 to 7 mass % of total dry aggregate
Using emulsified asphalt 6 to 10 mass % of total dry aggregate
Tests:
Same as for Item 301
C. MIX
Tests:
For every 75 m
3
/130T or fraction thereof:
1 G, Grading Test
1 Ext, Stability Test
1 C, Laboratory Compaction Test
D. HYDRATED LIME
Tests:
For every 100T or fraction thereof:
1 Q, Quality Test
E. COMPACTED PAVEMENT
Tests:
For each full days operation:
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D & T (Density & Thickness Test), at least one (1) but not more
than three (3) samples shall be taken



ITEM 307 BITUMINOUS PLANT MIX SURFACE COURSE GENERAL
* This item includes general requirements that are applicable to all type of bituminous
surface courses irrespective of gradation of aggregate or kind and amount of bituminous
material.
A. AGGREGATE
Tests:
For every 75 m
3
/200T or fraction thereof:
1 G & P, Grading & Plasticity Tests
For every 1,500m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion, Stripping
and Bulk specific gravity)
1 F, Fractured face
B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
5 to 8 mass percent of total dry aggregates
Tests:
1 Q, Quality Test for each 40T or 200 drums or fraction thereof
C. MIX
Tests:
For every 75 m
3
/130T or fraction thereof:
1 G. Grading Test
1 Ext, Stability Test
1 C, Laboratory Compaction Test
D. HYDRATED LIME
Tests:
For every 100T or fraction thereof:
1 Q, Quality Test
E. MINERAL FILLER
Tests:
For every 75 m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 G & P, Grading & Plasticity Tests (LL, PL, PI)
F. COMPACTED PAVEMENT
Tests:
For each full days operation:
D & T (Density & Thickness Test), at least one (1) but not more
than three (3) samples shall be taken

ITEM 308 BITUMINOUS PLANT MIX SURFACE COURSE COLD LAID
* This item shall consist of constructing Bituminous Surface Course (Asphalt Cold Mix)
prepared in central mixing plant, laid cold on a prepared base.
A.AGGREGATE
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Tests:
Same as for Item 307
B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
Using cut back asphalt -- 4.5 to 7 mass % of total dry aggregate
Using emulsified asphalt 6 to 10 mass % of total dry aggregate
Tests:
1 Q, Quality Test for each 40T or 200 drums fraction thereof
C. MIX
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
D. HYDRATED LIME
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
E. MINERAL FILLER
Tests:
For every 75 m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 G & P, Grading & Plasticity Tests (LL, PL, PI)
F. COMPACTED PAVEMENT
Tests:
Same as for Item 307

ITEM 309 BITUMINOUS PLANT MIX (STOCKPILE MAINTENANCE
MIXTURE)
* This item shall consist of a bituminous stockpile maintenance mixture composed of
aggregate, mineral filler, hydrated lime and bituminous material mixed in a central
plant.
A. AGGREGATE
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
4 to 10 mass percent of total mix
Tests:
1 Q, Quality Test for each 40T or 200 drums fraction thereof
C. MIX
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
D. HYDRATED LIME
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
E. MINERAL FILLER
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
F. COMPACTED PAVEMENT
Tests:
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Same as for Item 307




ITEM 310 BITUMINOUS CONCRETE SURFACE COURSE HOT LAID
* This item shall consist of constructing a bituminous concrete surface course composed
of aggregate, mineral filler and bituminous material mixed in a central plant, constructed
and laid hot on prepared base.

A. AGGREGATES
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
5 to 8 mass percent of total mix
Tests:
1 Q, Quality Test for each 40T or 200 drums fraction thereof
C. MIX
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
D. HYDRATED LIME
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
E. MINERAL FILLER
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
F. COMPACTED PAVEMENT
Tests:
Same as for Item 307

ITEM 311 PORTLAND CEMENT CONCRETE PAVEMENT
* This item shall consist of pavement of Portland cement concrete, with or without
reinforcement, constructed on the prepared base.
A. CEMENT
Quantity:
9.0 bags/m
3
(40 kg/bag)
Test:
For every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof:
1 Q, Quality Test
B. FINE AGGREGATE
Quantity:
0.50 m
2
/m
3
concrete if using rounded course aggregate
0.54 m
2
/m
3
concrete if using angular or crushed coarse
aggregate
Tests:
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For every 1,500 m
3
or fraction thereof:
a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test:
1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation wash, Bulk Specific
Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength, Soundness, Organic
Impurities, Unit Weight, % clay lumps and % shale)
b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test:
1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation wash, Bulk Specific
Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength)
For every 75 m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 G, Grading Test
C. COURSE AGGREGATE
Quantity:
0.77 m
2
/m
3
concrete if using rounded coarse aggregate
0.68 m
2
/m
3
concrete if using angular or crushed coarse
aggregate
Tests:
For every 1,500 m
3
or fraction thereof:
a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test:
1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption,
Abrasion, Soundness and Unit Weight)
b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test:
1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption
and Abrasion)
For every 75 m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 G, Grading Test

D. WATER
Test:
1 Certificate from Project Engineer or 1 Q, Quality Test if
source is questionable
E. JOINT FILLER
1. Poured joint filler
Test:
1 Q, Quality Test on each type of ingredient for each
shipment
2. Pre molded joint filler
Test:
1 Q, Quality Test on each thickness of filler for each
shipment
F. SPECIAL CURING AGENTS
Test:
1 Q, Quality Test for each shipment
G. STEEL BARS
Test:
For every 10,000 kg or fraction thereof for each size:
1 Q, Quality Test (Bending, Tension and Quality Analysis)
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H. CONCRETE
Test:
Flexural Strength Test on concrete beam samples:
1 Set consisting of 3 beam samples shall represent a 330 m
2
of
pavement, 230 mm depth or fraction thereof placed each day
Volume of concrete not more than 75 m
3

I. COMPLETED PAVEMENT
Test:
Thickness determination by concrete core drilling on a lot basis
Five (5) holes per km per lane or five (5) holes per 500 m when
two (2) lanes are poured concurrently


PART F BRIDGE CONSTRUCTION

ITEM 400 - PILING
* This item shall consist of piling, furnished, driven or placed, cut and spliced.
A. TIMBER PILES
Test:
1 Inspection Report for each size and shipment of timber
B. CONCRETE PILES
a.) Concrete
Test: Same as for Item 405
b.) Reinforcing Steel
Test: Same as for Item 404
C. STRUCTURAL PILES
Tests:
1 IR, inspection Report
1 Q, Quality Test or Mill Test Certificate

ITEM 401 RAILINGS
* This item shall consist of furnishing, fabricating or placing, for bridges and other
structures of the material of combination of materials.
A. CONCRETE
Test:
Same as for Item 405, Class C
B. REINFORCING STEEL
Test:
Same as for Item 404

ITEM 402 TIMBER STRUCTURES
* This item shall consist of construction of timber structures to the dimensions, lines and
grades as shown on the plans.
Tests:
1 Q, Quality Test or Manufacturers Certificate for each type of
material used
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1 IR, Inspection Report for each type and shipment of timber

ITEM 403 METAL STRUCTURES
* This work shall consist of steel structures portions of composite structures, constructed
in reasonably close conformity with the lines, grades and dimension.
Tests:
1 Q, Quality Test or Manufacturers Certificate for each type of
material used
1 IR, Inspection Report for each type and shipment of metal

ITEM 404 REINFORCING STEEL
* This item shall consist of furnishing, bending, fabricating and placing of steel
reinforcement of the type, size, shape and grade required.
A. BAR REINFORCEMENT FOR CONCRETE
Test:
For every 10,000 kg or fraction thereof for each size:
1 Q, Quality Test (Bending, Tension and Quality Analysis)
B. WIRE AND WIRE MESH
Test:
1 Q, Quality Test

ITEM 405 STRUCTURAL CONCRETE
* This item shall consist of furnishing, bending, and placing and finishing concrete in all
structures except pavements.
A. CEMENT
Quantity: (40 kg/bag)
Class A 9 bags/m
3
of concrete 3,000 psi/20.7 MPa
Class B 8 bags/m
3
of concrete 2,400 psi/16.4 MPa
Class C 9.5 bags/m
3
of concrete 3,000 psi/20.7 MPa
Class P 11 bags/m
3
of concrete 5,000 psi/20.7 MPa
Class Seal 9.5 bags/m
3
of concrete 3,000 psi/20.7 MPa
Test:
For every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof:
1 Q, Quality Test
B. FINE AGGREGATES
Quantity:
ROUNDED ANGULAR/CRUSHED
Class A 0.50 0.54 m
2
/m
3
of concrete
Class B 0.45 0.52 m
2
/m
3
of concrete
Class C 0.53 0.59 m
2
/m
3
of concrete
Class P 0.44 0.47 m
2
/m
3
of concrete

Test:
For every 1,500 m
3
or fraction thereof:
a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test:
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1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation wash, Bulk Specific
Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength, Soundness, Organic
Impurities, Unit Weight, % clay lumps and % shale)
b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test:
1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation wash, Bulk Specific
Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength)
For every 75 m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 G, Grading Test
C. COARSE AGGREGATES
Quantity:
ROUNDED ANGULAR/CRUSHED
Class A 0.77 0.68 m
2
/m
3
of concrete
Class B 0.82 0.73 m
2
/m
3
of concrete
Class C 0.70 0.66 m
2
/m
3
of concrete
Class P 0.56 0.65 m
2
/m
3
of concrete

Test:
For every 1,500 m
3
or fraction thereof:
a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test:
1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption,
Abrasion, Soundness and Unit Weight)
b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test:
1 Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption
and Abrasion)
For every 75 m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 G, Grading Test
D. WATER
Tests:
1 Certificate from Project Engineer or 1 Q, Quality Test if
source is questionable
E. PRE MOLDED FILLER FOR EXPANSION JOINTS
Test:
1 Q, Quality Test on each thickness of filler for each shipment
F. STEEL REINFORCEMENT
Test:
For every 10,000 kg or fraction thereof for each size:
1 Q, Quality Test (Bending, Tension and Quality Analysis)
G. CONCRETE
Tests:
Compressive Strength Test on concrete cylinder samples, one (1)
set consisting three (3) concrete cylinder samples shall be taken
from each days pouring and to represent not more than 75 m
3
of
concrete or fraction thereof

ITEM 406 PRE STRESSED CONCRETE STRUCTURES
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* This item shall consist of pre-stressed concrete structures and the pre-stressed concrete
portions of composite structures.
A. CONCRETE
Tests:
Same as for Item 405, Class P
B. STEEL REINFORCEMENT
Test:
Same as for Item 404
C. WIRE STRAND
Test:
1 Q, Quality Test for every 20T or fraction thereof

ITEM 407 CONCRETE STRUCTURES
*This item shall consist of the general description of the materials, equipment,
workmanship and construction requirements of concrete structures and the concrete
portions of composite structures.
Tests:
Same as for Items 403, 404 and 411
Elastometric Bearing Pads will be tested to determine its quality

ITEM 408 STEEL BRIDGES
* This item shall consist of construction of steel structure conforming to the lines, grades,
dimension and designs.
Tests:
Same as for Item 403 and 411
Painting:
1 Q, One 20 L can for every 100 cans or fraction thereof
1 Q, One 4 L can for every 100 cans or fraction thereof

ITEM 409 WELDED STRUCTURAL STEEL
* This work shall consist of the joining of structural steel members with welds of the type.
Test:
Same as for 403 and Inspection Report

ITEM 410 TREATED AND UNTREATED TIMBER
* This item shall consist of structural timber of the specie size called on the plans either
treated or untreated as called for in the proposal.
Test:
1 IR, Inspection report
1 Q, Quality Test for preservatives

ITEM 411 PAINT
* This item shall consist of furnishing and applying all paint materials including vehicles,
pigments, pastes, dryers, thinners, and mixed paints for steel and wooden structures.
Test:
1 Q, One 20 L can for every 100 cans or fraction thereof
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1 Q, One 4 L can for every 100 cans or fraction thereof

ITEM 412 ELASTOMETRIC BEARING PADS
*This item shall consist of the requirement for elastomeric bearing pads whose main
function is to transfer loads or accommodate relative movement between a bridge
superstructure and its supporting structures

ITEM 413 PRE MOLDED JOINT FILLER FOR CONCRETE PAVING AND
STRUCTURAL CONCRETE
* Preformed sponge rubber and rock expansion joint filler for concrete paving and
structural construction

PART G DRAINAGE AND SLOPE PROTECTION STRUCTURES


ITEM 500 PIPE CULVERTS AND STORMDRAINS
* This item shall consist of the construction or reconstruction of pipe culverts and storm
drains.
A. PIPES
Test:
1 Q, Quality Test for one (1) pipe for every 50 pieces (Strength,
Absorption and Dimension)
Alternative Requirements:
1. Compressive Strength for one (1) set consisting of three (3)
concrete cylinder samples for not more than twenty five (25)
pipe cast in the field
2. Inspection Report for each size for not more than twenty five
(25) pipes cast in the field
B. MORTAR AND JOINT FILLER
Cement, fine aggregates and water:
Test:
Same as for Item 405

ITEM 501 UNDERDRAINS
* This item shall consist of constructing under drains, using pipe and granular filter
materials, under drain pipe outlets, and blind drain using granular materials.
A. CONCRETE PIPE (NON REINFORCED)
Test:
Quality Test for 0.5% of the number of pipes for each size but not
less than two (2) for Strength, Absorption and Dimension
Alternative requirements:
1. Compressive Strength for one (1) set consisting of three (3)
concrete cylinder samples for not more than twenty five (25)
pipe cast in the field
2. Inspection Report for each size for not more than twenty five
(25) pipes cast in the field
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B. CLAY PIPE
Test:
Quality Test for one (1) pipe for every 200 pieces of each size,
with a minimum number of two (2) specimens for Strength,
Absorption and Dimension

ITEM 502 MANHOLES, INLETS AND CATCHBASINS
* This item shall consist of the construction, reconstruction or adjustment of manholes,
inlets, and catch basins.
A. CONCRETE
Test:
Same as for Item 405, Class A
B. LIDS, CAST IRON FRAMES AND GRATING
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 503 DRAINAGE STEEL GRATING WITH FRAME
* The steel frame clear openings of drainage grates shall be 15 mm larger than nominal
sizes of industry standard sized pits.

ITEM 504 CLEANING AND RECONDITIONING OF EXISTING DRAINAGE
STRUCTURES
* This item shall consist of cleaning and reconditioning existing pipes and appurtenant
structures.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 505 RIPRAP AND GROUTED RIPRAP
* This item shall consist of the furnishing and placing riprap with or without grout as the
case maybe, with or without filter backing.
Test:
Same as for Item 506
(Cement Aggregate ratio = 1:3)

ITEM 506 STONE MASONRY
* This item shall consist of stone masonry of minor structures, in headwalls for culverts,
in retaining walls at the toes of slopes.
A. CEMENT
Quantity:
2 bags/m
3
of concrete
Test:
For every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof:
1 Q, Quality Test
(Cement Aggregate ratio = 1:2)
B. FINE AGGREGATE
Quantity:
20
0.17 m
2
/m
3
of concrete
Test:
For every 1,500 m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 Q, Quality Test (same as for Item 405)
For every 75 m
3
or fraction thereof:
1 G, Grading Test
C. STONE
Test:
Inspection Report
D. WATER
Test:
1 Certificate from Project Engineer or 1 Q, Quality Test if
source is questionable
ITEM 507 RUBBLE CONCRETE
* This item shall consist of construction of rubble concrete.

ITEM 508 HAND LAID ROCK EMBANKMENT
* This item shall consist of hand-laid rock embankment.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 509 SHEET PILES
* This item shall consist of furnishing, driving cutting off of sheet pile.
A. TIMBER SHEET PILES
Test:
Inspection Report
B. CONCRETE SHEET PILES
Test:
Same as for Item 400
C. STEEL SHEET PILES
Test:
Same as for Item 403

ITEM 510 CONCRETE SLOPE PROTECTION
* This item shall consist of furnishing and placing of concrete slope protection including
all necessary excavation, a bed course and reinforced concrete to the required thickness
and extent to protect slope against erosion.
A. BED COURSE
Test:
Same as for Item 200
B. STEEL REINFORCEMENT
Test:
Same as for Item 404
C. CONCRETE
Test:
Same as for Item 405
21

ITEM 511 GABIONS
* This item shall consist of furnishing, forming wire mesh baskets, and placing rocks
installed at the location designated.
Test:
1 Q, Quality Test for each shipment





PART H MISCELLANEOUS STRUCTURES


ITEM 600 CURB AND GUTTER
* This item shall construction of curb and gutter either pre-cast of cast - in place made of
concrete.
A. CONCRETE
Quantity:
0.078 m
3
/m (curb only)
0.092 m
3
/m (curb and gutter, Type A)
0.145 m
3
/m (curb and gutter, Type B)
0.074 m
3
/m (curb and gutter, Type C)
Test:
Same as for Item 405
B. JOINT FILLER
Test:
Same as for Item 311

ITEM 601 SIDEWALK
* This item shall consist of construction of asphalt of Portland cement concrete sidewalk.
A. CONCRETE
Test:
Same as for Item 405, Class A
B. PRE MOLDED EXPANSION JOINT FILLER
Test:
Same as for Item 311

ITEM 602 MONUMENTS, MARKERS AND GUIDE POSTS
* This item shall consist of right-of-way monuments, maintenance marker posts,
kilometer posts and/ or guideposts.
A. CONCRETE
Test:
Same as for Item 405, Class A
B. REINFORCING STEEL
Test:
22
Same as for Item 404
C. TIMBER
Test:
Same as for Item 410
D. PAINT
Test:
Same as for Item 411

ITEM 603 GUARDRAIL
* This item shall consist of furnishing and constructing posts and guardrails.
A. STEEL POSTS
Test:
Same as for Item 403
B. TIMBER POSTS
Test:
Same as for Item 410
C. CONCRETE
Test:
Same as for Item 405
D. REINFORCING STEEL
Test:
Same as for Item 404
E. RAIL
Test:
Inspection Report
F. PAINT
Test:
Same as for Item 411

ITEM 604 FENCING
* This item shall consist of furnishing and constructing of post and barb wire or chain
link fences.
A. BARB WIRE, CHAIN LINK FABRIC
Test:
1 Q, Quality Test
B. CONCRETE POSTS
Test:
Same as for Item 405
C. STEEL REINFORCEMENT
Test:
Same as for Item 404

ITEM 605 ROAD SIGN
* This item shall consist of furnishing and installing road signs.
Test:
Inspection Report
23

ITEM 606 PAVEMENT MARKINGS
* This item shall consist of placing markings of the finished pavement.
Test:
Same as for Item 411

ITEM 607 REFLECTIVE PAVEMENT STUDS
* This item shall consist of furnishing and installing reflective pavement studs on the
surface of the pavement.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 608 TOPSOIL
* This consists of topsoil furnished, transported and spread, or topsoil removed from
designated areas, haul and spread.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 609 SPRIGGING
* This item consists of planting sprigs of living grass plants.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 610 SODDING
* This item shall consist of furnishing and laying of live sod on the shoulders, slopes,
ditches, or other locations as designated, construction of sod ditch checks or similar
appurtenances.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 611 TREE PLANTING
* This item shall consist of furnishing and planting deciduous shade, flowering trees
evergreen trees less than 150 mm diameter on the areas.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 612 REFLECTIVE THERMOPLASTIC STRIPPING
* This item shall be applied to the road surface in a molten state by mechanical means
with surface application glass beads at a rate not less than 350g/L.



PART I MATERIALS DETAILS


ITEM 700 HYDRATED CEMENT
24
Test:
Same as for Item 405

ITEM 701 CONSTRUCTION LIME (HYDRATED)
Test:
1 Q, Quality Test for every 100T or fraction thereof

ITEM 702 BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Test:
Same as for Items 301, 302, 303, 306, 307, 308, 309 and 310

ITEM 703 AGGREGATES
Test:
Same as for item of work in the Bill of Quantities

ITEM 703A MINERAL FILLER
* This item shall consist of finely divided material mineral matter such as rock dust, slug
dust, hydrated lime, hydraulic cement, fly ash or other suitable mineral matter.
Test:
Same as for Item 307

ITEM 704 MASONRY UNITS
Test:
1 Q, Quality Test for every 10,000 units or fraction thereof

ITEM 705 JOINT MATERIALS
Test:
Same as for Items 311 and 500

ITEM 706 CONCRETE, CLAY, PLASTIC AND FIBER PIPES
A. CONCRETE
Test:
Same as for Item 500
B. CLAY AND OTHER TYPE OF PIPES
Test:
Refer to applicable requirements of AASHTO Test and Specs

ITEM 707 METAL PIPE
Test:
Same as for Item 400

ITEM 708 CONCRETE CURING MATERIALS AND ADMIXTURE
* This item specifies the classification, sampling, testing, packing and marking of
concrete admixtures.
Test:
1 Q, Quality Test for each shipment
25

ITEM 709 PAINTS
Test:
Same as for Item 411

ITEM 710 REINFORCING STEEL AND WIRE ROPE
A. REINFORCING STEEL
Test:
Same as for Item 404
B.WIRE ROPE
Test:
Same as for Item 406

ITEM 711 FENCE AND GUARDRAIL
A. FENCE
Test:
Same as for Item 604
B. GUARDRAIL
Test:
Same as for Item 603

ITEM 712 STRUCTURAL METAL
Test:
Same as for Items 403 and 406

ITEM 713 TREATED AND UNTREATED TIMBER
Test:
Same as for Item 410

ITEM 714 WATER
Test:
Certificate from Project Engineer or 1 Q, Quality Test, if source
is questionable

ITEM 715 GEOTEXTILES
* This item covers geotextiles fabric for use in subsurface drainage, hydraulic filter,
erosion control, sediment control, pavement superstructures as a water proofing and
stress relieving membrane, and as permeable separator to prevent mixing of dissimilar
materials.







26





































27














MINIMUM REQUIREMENTS FOR SUBMISSION OF SAMPLES



MATERIALS MNIMUM TESTING
REQUIREMENTS
MINIMUM
QUANTITY/VOLUME OF
MATERIALS FOR EACH
SAMPLE SUBMITTED
1. Cement 1 sample per 2000 bags 10 kg
2. Asphaltic material
1 sample per 40T or 200
drums
5L
3. Aspahlt mix 1 sample per 130T 20 kg
4. Aggregates
a. coarse aggregate
b. fine aggregate
1 sample per 1,500 m
3

70 kg
50 kg
5. Soil aggregates
a. Classification
b. Routinary tests
c. MDR test and CBR
1 sample per 1,500 m
3

20 kg
50 kg
50 kg
6. Non Reinforced Concrete
Pipes
2 pipes min./0.5% of no.
of pipes
2 pipes
7. Reinforced Concrete Pipes
1 sample per 50 pipes or
2% of # of pipes
1 pipe (1 m length)
8.Steel pipe (galvanized)
1 sample per 500 lengths 2 pcs Of 100 mm long taken
from both ends w/ thread
9. Concrete hollow blocks (CHB)
a. strength
b. moisture content
1 sample per 10,000 units
3 units
3 units
10. Steel bar 1 sample per 10T 1 m
11. Steel sheet (galvanized) 1 sample per 100 sheets 3 pcs 60mm x 60mm
12. Wire strand 1 sample per 20T 2 m
13. Gabion 1m x 2m
28
14. Paints 1 sample per 100 cans 1 - 4L can
15. Joint filler (pre molded) 1 400mm x 400mm
16. Curing compound 1L
17. Concrete cylinder 1 sample per 75 m
3
1 set (3 cylinders)
18. Concrete beam 1 sample per 75 m
3
or 1
day pouring
1 set (3 cylinders)
19. Concrete core 5 holes for every km/lane
20. Asphalt core 1 core for every 100m
21. Water
a. Chemical analysis
b. Sediment load analysis

500 ml
500 ml
22. Structural steel/sheet 1 sample per 50T Reduced section as prescribed
23. Hydrated lime 1 sample per 100T


COMPOSITION AND STRENGTH OF CONCRETE FOR USE IN STRUCTURE



Class of
concrete
Minimum
cement
content per
cu. m


kg (bags)

Maximum
water
cement ratio



kg/kg
Consistency
range in
slump



mm (inch)
Designated
size of
coarse
aggregate

square
opening
std. mm
Minimum
compressive
strength of
150mm x
300mm
concrete
cylinder @
28 days
MN/m
2
(psi)
A 360 (9) 0.53
50 -100 (2
4)
37. 5 4.75
(1 - No. 4)
20.7 (3000)
B 320 (8.5) 0.58
50 -100 (2
4)
50.0 4.75
(2 - No. 4)
16.5 (2400)
C 380 (9.5) 0.55
50 -100 (2
4)
12. 5 4.75
( - No. 4)
20.7 (3000)
P 440 (11) 0.49
100 max ( 4
max)
19.0 4.75
(3/4 - No. 4)
37. 7 (5000)
Seal 380 (9.5) 0.58
100 200 (4
8)
25.0 4.75
(1 - No. 4)
20.7 (3000)





PAYMENT ADJUSTMENT FOR PAVEMENT WITH DEFICIENCY IN
STRENGTH

29


Deficiency in strength of concrete
pavement
Percent (%)
Percent (%) of
contract price
allowed
Less than 5 100
5 to less than 10 80
10 to less than 15 70
15 to less than 20 60
20 to less than 25 50
25 or more 0


PAYMENT ADJUSTMENT FOR PAVEMENT WITH DEFICIENCY IN
THICKNESS



Deficiency in the
average thickness
per lot(mm)
Percent (%) of
contract price
per lot
0 5 100
6 10 95
11 15 85
16 20 70
21 25 50
more than 25 removed and replaced (no payment)



COMMON LABORATORY TESTS



Kind of material Type of test Test duration per sample
(min. # of days)
Cement Physical and chemical 8
Coarse aggregate Grading 3
Specific gravity 3
Absorption 3
Abrasion 1
Unit weight 1

Fine aggregate Grading 3
Specific gravity 3
30
Absorption 3
Unit weight 1

Soil aggregates mixture
(subbase, base and surfaces
courses
Grading 3
Liquid limit 3
Plastic limit 3
Compaction 3
CBR 7
Abrasion 1

Asphalt Physical 4
Paint Physical and chemical 4

Concrete cylinder Compressive 1

Concrete beam Flexural 1

Concrete core Cutting of sample 1


LIMITATIONS/VARIATIONS


ITEM
104
ITEM
105
ITEM
200
1TEM
201
ITEM
202
ITEM
203
ITEM
300
Abrasion loss 50%
max
50%
max
45%
max

45%
max
Plastic index 6%
max

12%
max
6% max
6%
max
4% to
10%
4% to
9%
Liquid limit 30%
max

35%
max
25%
max
25%
max

35%
max
Permitted
variation from
design
THICKNESS
OF LAYER

20mm 10mm
+15mm,
-5mm
Permitted
variation from
design LEVEL
OF SURFACE

+20mm,
-30mm
+10mm,
-20mm
+5mm,
-10mm

+15mm,
-5mm
Permitted
surface
irregularity

30mm 20mm 5mm 5mm
31
measured by 3-
m straight edge
Permitted
variation from
design cross
fall or camber

0.5% 0.3% 0.2% +0.2%
Permitted
variation from
design
longitudinal
grade over 25m
length

0.1% 0.1% 0.1% +0.1%
California
Bearing Ratio


25%
min
80%
min
80%
min
100%
80%
min
DIMESION OF PILES


Length of pile (1m from the butt) Minimum
tip minimum maximum
less than 12m 300mm 450mm 200mm
12m to 18m 320mm 450mm 180mm
more than 18m 350mm 500mm 150mm


REMOVAL OF FORMS


Scope of work Minimum time Minimum % of design
strength
Centering under girders,
beams, frames or arches
14 days 80%
Floors slabs 14 days 70%
Walls 1 day 70%
Columns 2 days 70%
Sides of beams and all other
vertical surfaces
1 day 70%


SIEVE SIZES


NO. 200 0.075mm NO. 20 0.840mm
NO. 100 0.150mm NO. 16 1.180mm
NO. 60 0.300mm NO. 12 1.700mm
NO.50 0.250mm NO. 10 2.000mm
NO. 40 0.425mm NO. 8 2.360mm
32
NO. 30 0.600mm NO. 4 4.750mm


DETAILS OF WELDS


Size of fillet weld Maximum thickness of part
5mm 13mm
6mm 19mm
8mm 32mm
10mm 51mm
13mm 152mm
16mm 152mm and above
MINIMUM LAP FOR SPLICING


GRADE 40 GRADE 60
Tension 24 times bar 36 times bar
Compression 20 times bar 24 times bar


MINERAL FILLER SHALL BE GRADE WITH IN THE FF. LIMITS (703-A)


Sieve size Mass % passing
NO. 30 100
NO. 50 95 100
NO. 200 70 - 100


HYDRATED LIME SHALL CONFORM TO THE FF. REQUIREMENTS (701)


Sieve size Mass % passing
NO. 20 100
NO. 200 85 - 100


MINIMUM WEIGHT OF SAMPLE FOR MOISTURE CONTENT


Sieve No. (passing) Weight
NO. 40 25 grams
NO. 10 50 grams
NO. 4 200 grams
33
300 grams
1 500 grams
2 1000 grams


















34
1. What is the sample for compressive strength determination of a structural concrete? Answer: concrete
cylinder sample
2. What is the test to determine the consistency of concrete?
Ans: Slump test
3. What is the length required for RSB sample for quality test?
Ans: 1.0 m/10,000 kg/size/shipment
4. How many samples should be taken for every 75 cu.m fresh concrete?
Ans: 1 set consist of 3-pcs sample
5. What is the required size of test specimen for G.I. sheets?
Ans: 3 pcs-60 mm in 1 sht/100 sheets
6. What kind of paint that has a reflectance or beads?
Ans: Reflectorized Paint
7. What is that construction material that has a property of being a dark brown to black cementitious material in
which the predominating substance is bitumen?
Ans: asphalt
8. For how long or how many hours shall a bituminous prime coat be left undisturbed?
Ans: 24 hours
9. What is the rate of application of bituminous tack coat?
Ans: 0.2 to 0.7 L/sq.m
10. What is the penetration grade of blown asphalt?
Ans: 0 to 30 penetration grade
11. What kind of sample is taken for flexural test?
Ans: Concrete beam sample
12. What are the tests needed for the 2.650 cu.m Item 201 (Aggregate Base Course)?
Ans: CBR, abrasion, GPCD
13. How many grading tests are required for a 3,200 cu.m selected borrow topping (Item 104)?
Ans: 3 grading tests
14. As a materials Engineer, what will you recommend if you find out that the materials to be used as Item 200 if
finer than the required materials?
Ans: blend Item 200 with coarser materials
15. What is the standard specification for LL and PI of Item 201(Aggregate Base Course)?
Ans: maximum of 25% and maximum of 6% respectively
16. What is the CBR requirement for Item 201?
Ans: 80% maximum
17. What asphalt is used for sealing weaken plane joint of concrete pavement?
Ans: Blown Asphalt
18. What is Item 311 of the DPWH Specification (Blue Book)?
Ans: Portland Cement Concrete Pavement
19. What is the machine used for abrasion test?
Ans: Los Angeles Abrasion Machine
20. How to determine the degree of compaction of Items 104, 200, & 201?
Ans: by Field Density Test
21. What is the formula in obtaining the value of PI?
Ans: Liquid Limit minus Plastic Limit
22. What are the other terms for sieve analysis?
Ans: Grading Test, Particle Size Distribution Test, Mechanical Analysis
23. What is the degree of compaction of the soil if the wet density is 2,200 kg/m
3
, with an actual moisture content
of 10.2% and a maximum dry density of 1,960 kg/m
3
?
Ans: 101.23%
24. How many concrete cores shall be taken for one (1) kilometer concrete pavement?
Ans: 5 holes/km/lane
25. What is the moisture content of the soil having an original weight of 162.5 grams and an oven dried weight
of 138.2 grams?
Ans: 17.58%
26. If the group index of a soil is high, what indication does it mean?
Ans: the soil is clayey
27. As a Materials Engineer, how can you determine that the sample placed in the oven is already oven dried?
Ans: if the sample reaches its constant weight
28. In oven drying a sample for test, what temperature shall be maintained?
Ans: 110 5
o
C
29. Why is it that cooling an oven dried sample before weighing is advisable?
Ans: because it can affect its weight
35
30. What is the difference between hygroscopic moisture content from natural moisture content?
Ans: hygroscopic moisture content is the moisture content of an air- dried sample while natural
moisture content is the moisture content of the original sample from the field.
31. For how many bags of cement does a 10 kgs. sample represents?
Ans: 2000 bags
32. For 15, 000 kgs RSB, how many samples shall be submitted for Quality Test?
Ans: 2 pcs 1 m sample
33. An admixture is being introduced to the fresh concrete mixture for heavily reinforced concrete structure using
a pumpcrete to pump out the fresh concrete mix, what admixture should it be?
Ans: Superplasticizer
34. What is the use of blown asphalt?
Ans: as joint filler and water proofing
35. What asphalt is commonly known as hot asphalt or penetration grade asphalt?
Ans: Asphalt Cement
36. How many days does the sample for Immersion Compression Test be soaked in water?
Ans: 4 days @ 50
o
C
37. If ductility test is for asphalt, _____ is for cement? consistency
Ans: Magnesium Oxide, Insoluble Residue, Loss on Ignition
38. Paint is composed of _____
Ans: 35% vehicle, 50% pigment, 15% beads
39. What is the size of tamping rod used in tamping concrete sample?
Ans: 16 mm and 610 mm long with hemispherical tip
40. What is the temperature to be maintained when curing sample after its initial curing?
Ans: 23
o
C 1.7
o
C
41. Concrete cylinders are cured and ready for test. Temperature between 63F to 85F are permitted for a period
not to exceed _____ hours immediately prior to test if free moisture is maintained on the surface of the
specimen at all times.
Ans: three (3)
42. The molds of specimen not to be transported shall be removed after initial curing of _____ hours and should
be cured to the standard curing temperature of 73.4 F 3F
Ans: Twenty-four (24)
43. High plasticity index means _____ of a soil?
Ans: high degree of compressibility
44. Sample to be used for liquid limit and plastic limit tests should pass to what sieve?
Ans: No. 40 (0.425 mm)
45. What compaction rammer shall be used if the specs given for Moisture Density Relation Test (MDR) are
T 180?
Ans: 4.54 kg with 457 mm drop
46. A bean mold measuring 6 x 6 x 20 is to be used for sampling concrete, how many blows/tamps per layer
shall be applied?
Ans: 60 blows/layer
47. If asphalt mix having a weight of 3,020g and an aggregate weighing 2,865.98g, what is the % asphalt by
weight of mix?
Ans: 5.10%
48. What is the material used for Bituminous Prime Coat?
Ans: Cut-back asphalt
49. In Item 303, application of cover aggregates shall be evenly spread over the surface at the rate of
approximately _____?

Ans: 0.004 to 0.007 m
3
/m
2

50. Applying the tolerance of 0.4% for asphalt content to your answer in prob. 47, what is the acceptable range of
asphalt content?
Ans: 4.7% to 5.5%
51. An embankment having a PI of 30%, LL of 40% and GI of 0, what is the degree of compaction for this kind of
soil?
Ans: 95% degree of compaction
52. The minimum cement factor for concrete Class A is 9 bags/cu.m, how about for concrete Class B?
Ans: 8 bags/ cu.m
53. Quality control testing in a DPWH project is the responsibility of the_____?
Ans: Contractor
54. As Materials Engineer, when is the right time to start sampling and testing aggregates?
Ans: Once the source is identified

36
55. The minimum compressive strength for concrete Class P is 5,000 psi, what is the minimum compressive
strength for concrete Class C?
Ans: 3000 psi
56. The volume of concrete mixer per batch shall not exceed the mixers nominal capacity in cu.m as shown on
the manufacturers standard plate on the mixer, except that an overload up to _____ percent above the
mixers nominal capacity may be permitted provided concrete test data for strength, segregation, and uniform
consistency are satisfactory, and provided that no spillage of concrete takes place.
Answer: Ten (10)

57. Where do we take additional cores when the measurement of any core taken from pavement is deficient in
thickness by more than 25 mm?
Answer: at no less than 5 meter intervals parallel to the centerline in each direction from the affected
location

58. Under what climatic condition do we use lower penetration grade or hard asphalt?
Answer: hot climate (cold climate higher penetration grade or soft asphalt)

59. What is the basis for the acceptance or rejection of any construction material?
Answer: Materials test results/reports

60. Penetration test is for asphalt: cement is to _____?
Answer: consistency

61. Slump test is a very important test in fresh concrete to determine _____?
Answer: consistency of concrete

62. How many samples should be taken for an asphalt mix for each full days operation?
Answer: at least one but not to exceed three samples

63. The thickness of asphalt core using a caliper is based on how many measurements?
Answer: four (4)

64. The thickness of concrete core using a caliper is based on how many measurements?
Answer: nine (9)

65. Failed samples do not necessarily mean that the structure it represents is defective, why?
Answer: may be the sampling is incorrect


66. The specification calls for a 1: 2:4 concrete mix. In a one bagger mixer, which of the following amount of
water is most likely required for the mix?
Answer: 20 liters

67. The spot test on asphalt is used to determine ______.
Answer: overheating during the process of manufacture

68. How many samples shall be submitted for test if 315 pails of flat wall enamel paint are to be used in the
project?
Answer: four (4) pails

69. Aggregate Sub base course has a volume of 5, 000 cu.m and to be laid in a 15cm compacted depth. How
many samples shall be submitted for CBR test and for sieve analysis?
Answer: 2 samples for CBR and 17 samples for sieve analysis

70. How many samples shall be submitted for quality test if 60 tons of Bituminous Prime Coat is to be used in the
project?
Answer: Two (2) samples

71. How many compaction tests shall be conducted for Item 201 having a volume of 8,250 cu.m?
Answer: Six (6) compaction tests

72. What composed of Materials Quality Control Monthly Reports?
37
Answer: Summary of field tests and status of test
73. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 505 (Stone Masonry)?
Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water
74. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 500 (Pipe Culverts and Storm Drains)?
Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water
75. Before the project starts, the materials Engineer or the technician must have a program on how many samples
for each item of work should be tested based on the minimum testing requirements. What program or report
is this?
Answer: Quality Control Program
76. If sample splitter is not available for use in reducing samples for test, what is the alternative way of reducing
sample for testing size?
Answer: apply quartering method and get two opposite sides as sample
77. The road will not be opened to traffic until test specimens molded and cured have attained the minimum
strength requirements. If such tests are not conducted prior to the specified age the pavement shall not be
operated to traffic until _____ days after the concrete was placed.
Answer: Fourteen (14)
78. As the work progresses, the Materials Engineer should know how many sample has been submitted and tested
and how many samples are to be submitted, in other words the ME must refer to what report so that he/she
may be updated on the balance and on file quality test of the construction materials being used in the project?
Answer: Status of Test
79. It is the minimum moisture content at which the soil can be molded without breaking or crumbling up to 1/8
(3.2 mm).
Answer: Plastic Limit
80. The _____ is expressed as the moisture content corresponding to 25 blows.
Answer: Liquid Limit

81. The concrete has been tested for consistency by the use of a slump cone with base and tamping rod. After the
test, the height of concrete measured is 178 mm. what is the slump of the concrete?
Answer: 127 mm
82. What is the rate of revolution per minute of an abrasion Machine used for testing the mass percent of wear?
Answer: 30 33 rpm
83. If the design of concrete mix has the following corrected batch weights: cement = 40 kgs, fine aggregates = 65
kgs, coarse aggregate = 115 kgs, and water = 15 liters. What is your actual batch weights for 1 cu.m Class
A concrete?
Answer: 360 bags of cement; 585 kgs of fine aggregates; 1035 kgs coarse aggregates; 130 liters water
84. After the soil has been tested in an Abrasion Machine, the mass % of wear computed is equal to 21%. If this
material is for Item 201, does it pass the DPWH specs?
Answer: Yes, because the specs is 50% maximum
85. Quality Control Assurance Report should be submitted every _____?
Answer: week
86. One of the duties of Materials Engineer is to see to it that all the construction materials be tested:
Answer: before it is incorporated into work
87. What is the maximum depth or roadway embankment per horizontal layer in loose measurement?
Answer: 200 mm loose measurement
88. Why is it that 6 samples are needed for quality test of concrete masonry?
Answer: 3 samples for compressive strength and 3 samples for absorption
89. Sample submitted for test should have a tag bearing the name of the project, the quantity represented, kind of
sample, original source, who sampled and who submitted it, the date sampled and date submitted and etc.
What is the common name of that tag for you as Materials Engineer?
Answer: Sample Card
90. If course aggregate like embankment is to be placed in layers, how many layers should a 40 cm thick
Aggregate Base Course is placed?
Answer: Three (3)
91. The ME should always be alert of his schedule with regards to the number of days of a quality test that takes
place. Since not all construction materials can be tested just for a day or even a week so, what is the lead time
should he consider for a quality test of a cement sample?
Answer: One (1) month
92. CBR Sample for test has been compacted but it should be soaked for how many days before testing?
Answer: Four (4)
93. If sieve analysis and plasticity test are used for Soil Classification, what test that its result be used in field
density test?
Answer: Compaction Test or Moisture Density Relation Test
38

94. Heavy rains occur the night before prior to your scheduled field density test, are you going to pursue your
schedule? Why?
Answer: No, because the moisture content is high and can affect the result
95. Checking the gradation of composite aggregates and asphalt content of asphalt mix can be done by what test?
Answer: Extraction Test
96. What is the device used in testing for liquid limit test?
Answer: liquid limit device with grooving tool
97. What apparatus is used in plastic limit test?
Answer: glass plate
98. How long does a vibrator be inserted in a concrete mix?
Answer: not to exceed 15 seconds at 50 60 cm interval
99. Along the slope of high embankment _____ is provided as an erosion control measures and also to improve the
stability of the slope.
Answer: Berm
100. In soil and sub surface explorations for flood control design of foundation condition, a soil sample was
taken for field and laboratory tests. The test required for soil was taken, except
Answer: specific gravity, abrasion, water content, Atterberg Limits, gradation, compaction, relative density
101. Structure crossing above such covered underground drainage conduit shall be laid at least _____ above the
top of the conduit.
Answer: 1.0 m, 0.5 m, 1.5 m, 2.0 m

102. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 30 kgs to a maximum of 70 kgs with at least 50% of the stones
weighing more than 50 kgs.
Answer: Class B

103. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 15 kgs to a maximum of 25 kgs with at least 50% of the stones
weighing more than 20 kgs.
Answer: Class A

104. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 60 kgs to a maximum of 100 kgs with at least 50% of the stones
weighing more than 80 kgs.
Answer: Class C

105. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 100 kgs to a maximum of 200 kgs with at least 50% of the stones
weighing more than 1500 kgs.
Answer: Class D

106. The maximum size of stone for stone masonry.
Answer: 150 mm

107. The maximum size of aggregate for item 300.
Answer: 1 inch

108. Required maximum liquid limit for Item 300.
Answer: 35%

109. Required plasticity index range on Item 300.
Answer: 4% to 9%

110. Range of sand size.
Answer: 2.0 mm to 0.050 mm
111. The ratio of the volume of voids to volume of solids
Answer: void ratio

112. The ratio of the weight of water to the weight of solids
Answer: moisture content

113. Significance of grading test are, except
Answer: Gives particle size distribution, measures permeability, capillarity, measures the potential cohesion
of soil

39
114. Significance of plasticity index are, except
Answer: indicates compressibility, permeability, indicates the clay fraction of a binder material, measures
the shearing resistance of soil
115. Properties of concrete are, except
Answer: workability, strength, durability, cracking
116. In roadway construction test on sub grade, the following will determine the economical thickness, except
Answer: embankment, base, surfacing, sub-base
117. The relative consistency of a cohesive soil in natural state.
Answer: Liquidity Index

118. In Atterberg limit, the following are determined, except
Answer: shrinkage limit, liquid limit, plastic limit, group index

119. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for centering under girders, beam, frames and arches.
Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design strength 80%)

120. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for floor slabs.
Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design strength 70%)

121. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for walls.
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength 70%)

122. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for columns.
Answer: 2 days (minimum % of design strength 70%)

123. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for side of beams and all other vertical surfaces.
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength 70%)

124. Amass of solid reinforced concrete cast around the head of a group of piles to ensure that act as a unit to
support the imposed load
Answer: Pile cap

125: An embankment shall be compacted layer by layer.
Answer: 150 mm

126. Class of concrete deposited in water.
Answer: Class Seal

127. Class of concrete used in all superstructures and heavily reinforced substructures. The important parts of the
structure included are slabs, beams, girders, columns, arch ribs, box culverts, reinforced abutments, retaining
walls, and reinforced footings.
Answer: Class A

128. Class of concrete used in footings, pedestal, massive pier shafts, pipe bedding and gravity walls, unreinforced
or w/ only a small amount of reinforcement.
Answer: Class B

129. Class of concrete used in thin reinforced sections, railings, pre-cast piles, cribbing, and for filler in steel grid
floors.
Answer: Class C

130. Class of concrete used in pre stressed concrete structures and members.
Answer: Class P

131. Height of dropping concrete to the point of deposit
Answer: 1.50 m

132. Reflectorized Thermoplastic Pavement Markings
Answer: Item 612

133. Permitted variation from the design thickness of layer for Item 300
Answer: + 15 mm and 5 mm
40
134. Item 310 shall have a mass percent of air voids with range of _____
Answer: 3% to 5 %
135. Dowel bars for PCCP shall be _____
Answer: plain bars
136. Concrete beam sample when tested by Third Point Method shall have a flexural strength of _____ when
tested in 14 days.
Answer: 3.80 MPa
137. When the required thickness of Item 200 is more than 150 mm, the aggregate sub base shall spread and
compacted in ____
` Answer: two or more layers
138. Item 202 shall have a minimum soaked CBR value of _____
Answer: 80%
139. Permitted variation from design thickness of layer for Item 201.
Answer: 10 mm
140. Sieve designation standard (in mm) for 0.425 mm to alternate US standard
Answer: No. 40
141. If slag is used as course aggregate for Item 311, the minimum density is _____
Answer: 1,120 kg/m
3

142. Minimum price allowed of contract for deficiency in strength of concrete specimens for PCCP which 10% to
less than 15%
Answer: 70%
143. This joint is also called cold joint. It is constructed when there is an interruption of more than 30 minutes in
the concreting operation
Answer: Transverse Construction Joint
144. Minimum variation of the surface from the testing edge of the straight edge between contacts with the surface
in Item 310
Answer: 6.0 mm
145. Portland Cement Treated Plant Mix Base Course after the completion of the final rolling, the surface will be
treated with bituminous curing seal, how much is the rate of application?
Answer: 0.5 L/m
2
to 1.0 L/m
2
146. In Item 201, the volume required in the project is 10,000 cu.m. The required number of CBR test is _____
Answer: four (4)
147. Slump test of concrete determines the following, except
Answer: workability, fluidity, consistency, job density
148. The significance of liquid limit are the ff., except
Answer: measures the shearing resistance of soil, measures the potential cohesion of soil, fineness and shape
of grain, Atterberg limits
149. In soil classification, 35% or less passing No. 200 sieve are the ff., except
Answer: A-1, A-2, A-3, A-4
150. To evaluate the performance quality of a soil as a highway subgrade material
Answer: Group Index
151. If the paving of concrete pavement will be done at the rate 200 ln.m, half width per paving day, how many
sets of concrete beam samples shall be required. Given: A = 115,000 sq.m, width = 6.50 m, thickness = 230
mm
Answer: 353 sets
152. The required liquid limit for selected borrow toppings
Answer: 30%
153. The maximum plastic limit for selected borrow toppings
Answer: 6%
154. Soil is considered unsuitable material when the liquid limit and plastic limit exceeds
Answer: 80% and 55% respectively
155. Soil is considered unsuitable when the material density is
Answer: 800 kg/cu.m or lower
156. The plasticity index is determined in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 90
157. The liquid limit is determined in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 89
158. The required compaction of embankment, layer by layer
Answer: 95%
159. The minimum compaction trial of embankment
Answer: 10 m wide by 50 m long

41
160. At least how many in situ density tests should be carried out for each 500 m
2
of each layer of compacted
fill?
Answer: three (3)
161. Maximum plasticity index for Item 200
Answer: 12%

162. Maximum liquid limit for Item 200
Answer: 35%

163. Maximum size of grading requirement for Item 200
Answer: 2

164. The Los Angeles Abrasion Test for aggregate sub-base course is determined in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 96

165. The required abrasion loss for Item 200
Answer: 50%

166. The minimum CBR required for Item 200
Answer: 25%

167. The required soaked CBR for aggregate sub-base course is determined by
Answer: AASHTO T 193

168. Minimum required percent compaction of each layer of aggregate sub-base course
Answer: 100%

169. In place density determination of aggregate sub-base course material shall be made in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 191

170. In some areas where the conventional base course materials are scarce or non available, the use _____
allowable percent weathered limestone (anapog) blended with crushed stones or gravel.
Answer: 40% (60% - crushed stones or gravel)

171. Maximum size of aggregate for base course material under grading B
Answer: 1 inch

172. Maximum required percent abrasion loss for Item 202
Answer: 45%

173. Maximum required mass percent shall have at least one (1) fractured face of Item 202
Answer: 50%

174. Minimum required soaked CBR for Item 202
Answer: 80%

175. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading A
Answer: 1 inch

176. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 201 under grading A
Answer: 2

177. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading B
Answer: 1 inch

178. This item consists of a foundation for surface course composed of soil aggregate, lime, water in proper
proportion, road mixed and constructed on a prepared subgrade/subbase.
Answer: Lime Stabilized Road Mix Base Course (Item 203)

179. The required plasticity index for Item 203
Answer: 4% to 10%

42
180. Maximum required mass percent of wear for the aggregate on Item 203
Answer: 50%

181. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 203 under grading A and B
Answer: 2

182. Item number for water?
Answer: Item 714

183. In Item 203, how much is the required mass percent of lime to be added to the soil aggregate?
Answer: 3% to 12%

184. Minimum soaked CBR for Item 203
Answer: 100%

185. Required percent compaction for Item 203
Answer: 100%

186. Equipment to be used for initial rolling
Answer: Pneumatic tire roller

187. Equipment to be used for final rolling
Answer: 3 wheel tandem type steel wheel roller

188. The test on asphalt cement consisting of heating the asphalt in an open cup and passing a small test flame
Answer: flash point

189. It is a manually operated device for deriving a measurement of roughness from the surface profile which
may be expressed in terms of International Roughness Index.
Answer: Merlin Road Roughness Measuring Device

190. It is used for the rapid in situ measurement of the structural properties of existing pavement with unbound
granular properties.
Answer: Dynamic Cone Penetrometer

191. What is the thinnest cut back asphalt?
Answer: MC 3000

192. In the construction of bridges projects, what is the method used to determine the casting length of the regular
piles?
Answer: Test Pitting

193. It is an equipment which is used to measure differential deflection between joints of a concrete pavement, to
determine the modulus of the existing slabs for use in the design of an overlay, and to determine the
remaining life of existing pavement.
Answer: Falling Weight Deflectometer

194. What is the equipment used to pinpoint rebars, conduits, pipes, nails and other metals embedded in concrete
before cutting or drilling?
Answer: Rebar Locator

195. What is the instrument or equipment used to measure for surface test of concrete and asphalt pavements as
soon as he concrete has hardened sufficiently or as soon as the asphalt mix has been initially compacted?
Answer: 3 meter straight edge

196. What is the latest state of the art equipment consuming radioactive material which is commonly used in the
compaction control of earth and asphalt road construction and in the measurement of moisture content?
Answer: Nuclear Density Gauge

197. It is an instrument used to measure pavement deflections resulting from vehicle wheel loadings. The results
of the elastic deformation tests are used to evaluate the structural condition of roads, and to help in the design
of road strengthening measures and road capacity improvement.
43
Answer: Benkelman Beam and Deflection Logger

198. What is the instrument that is used for examining the quality of rigid materials such as rocks and concrete?
This instrument is a non destructive portable instrument with dimensions of 110 mm x 180 mm x 160 mm
and its main uses includes the determination of concrete strength (either in situ or pre cast),also to
determine the presence of voids, cracks and other imperfections.
Answer: Pundit Ultrasonic Concrete Tester



199. Soil stabilizing agent
Answer: Lime for silty and clayey soil
Cement for sandy soil

200. Water content at which soil passes from plastic to liquid state.
Answer: LIQUID LIMIT

201. Water content at which soil passes from semi solid to plastic state.
Answer: PLASTIC LIMIT

202. Water content at which soil passes from solid to semi solid.
Answer: SHRINKAGE LIMIT

203. Steel bars placed along longitudinal joints to hold the adjoining slabs together are called _____
Answer: tie bars

204. The concrete pavement surface shows high spots of 15 mm in a 3 m straight edge. The concrete in the area
represented by these high spots _____
Answer: shall be removed and replaced (but if high spots being noted exceeds 3 mm but not exceeding
12 mm, it shall be ground down only.

205. The calibration of the Universal testing machine is conducted _____
Answer: Once a year

206. What is the sampling requirement of bituminous mixture?
Answer: 1 sample per 130 tonnes

207. What is the depth of the thermometer inserted in the bituminous mixture?
Answer: 2

208. In the design of bituminous mix, the design criteria for stability under the Marshall Stability Method for
heavy traffic is ____
Answer: 1800 lbs

209. The stability criteria of the Marshall Stability Method is the maximum load resistance that a specimen will
develop at _____
Answer: 60

210. Bituminous mix specimens are compacted at how many blows at each end for a heavy traffic design under
the Marshall Stability Method?
Answer: 75 blows

211. In a penetration test, if the penetration is 9. What is the grade of the asphalt?
Answer: 85 100

212. In case of scarcity or non availability of Type I Portland cement, what type of pozzolan shall be used?
Answer: Portland Pozzolan Cement Type 1P

213. The required flexural strength of concrete beam sample of Item 311 when tested by the midpoint method.
Answer: 4.50 MPa

214. The required forms to be used in concrete pavement are _____
44
Answer: Steel forms of an approved section

215. Sowing of the weakened plane joints shall be done usually at _____
Answer: Within 24 hours

216. Removal of forms of concrete pavement
Answer: 24 hours

217. The required slump of concrete using slip form method of paving is _____
Answer: 1 inches

218. Deficiency in strength of concrete specimen wherein no payment of contract price allowed is _____
Answer: 25% or more

219. What is the length of a lot of pavement when a single traffic lane is poured?
Answer: 1,000 ln.m

220. What is the length of a lot of pavement when two lanes lane are poured concurrently?
Answer: 500 ln. m

221. What is the required size of concrete beam sample?
Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm x 525 mm

222. What is the required number of set of concrete beam specimens to be taken from each 330 sq. m of pavement
of fraction thereof placed each day?
Answer: 1 set

223. What is the required compressive strength that concrete piles be moved?
Answer: 80% of the designed 28 day compressive strength

224. The required circular pin diameter used to bend 10 20 mm reinforcing steel.
Answer: 6d (20 mm 25 mm = 8d: 28 mm and above = 10d)

225. The mixing speed of the transit mixer during batching.
Answer: 4 to 6 rpm

226. What is the slump of concrete Class A deposited in water?
Answer: 10 to 20 cm

227. This item shall consist of preparing and treating an aggregate base course preparatory to the construction of a
bituminous surface course.
Answer: Prime Coat

228. What item no. is Bituminous Surface Treatment?
Answer: Item 304

229. What is the required tolerance for bituminous material in job mix formula for Item 310?
Answer: 0.4%

230. This item consists of an application of bituminous material with or without the application of aggregate on
existing bituminous surface?
Answer: Seal Coat

231. Job mix tolerance for temperature in the mixture for Item 310.
Answer: 10C

232. What is the size of the sample in Item 310 taken for each full days operation?
Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm or 100 mm

233. What is the required temperature of mix in item 310 when placed?
Answer: 107C

45
234. The required speed in rolling in Item 310.
Answer: 5 kph

235. It is the resulting difference in elevation across a joint or crack.
Answer: faulting

236. In core specimen asphalt mix thickness determination, it shall have a diameter of at least ______
Answer: 100 mm

237. In batching concrete mix, the accuracy of cement content shall be _____
Answer: 1.0 mass %

238. Minimum thickness measured perpendicular to the slope using Class D stones for riprap.
Answer: 800 mm (Class A 300 mm; Class B 500 mm; Class C 600 mm)

239. This item shall consist of preparing and bearing an existing bituminous or cement concrete surface with
bituminous materials preparatory to the construction of bituminous surface course.
Answer: Tack Coat

240. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using asphalt cement?
Answer: 0.9 to 1.8 lit/m
2


241. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using cut back asphalt?
Answer: 1.5 to 3.0 lit/m
2

242. What is the maximum tolerance of the variation of the surface of Item 310 from the testing edge of the
straight edge between any two contacts with the surface?
Answer: 6 mm

243. What is the minimum dry compressive of Item 310?
Answer: 1.40 MPa

244. What is the required Index of Retained Strength of Item 310 when tested by AASHTO T 65?
Answer: 70% minimum

245. Job mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 4 and larger sieve.
Answer: 7

246. Job mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No 8 to No. 100 (inclusive).
Answer: 4

247. .Job mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 200 sieve.
Answer: 2

248. The property of asphalt mix to resist deformation from imposed load.
Answer: stability

249. The property of asphalt mix to resist the detrimental effects of air, water, temperature and traffic.
Answer: durability

250. The property of asphalt mix to withstand repeated flexing caused by the passage of wheel loads.
Answer: fatigue resistance

251. The property of asphalt mix to bend slightly without cracking and to conform to gradual settlements and
moments of the base and subgrade.
Answer: flexibility

252. The range of aggregates composition in Item 310.
Answer: 92% to 95%

253. What is the test on asphalt in order to determine the effect of water on the cohesion of the mix?
Answer: Immersion Compression Test
46

254. In temperate countries like the Philippines, what is the most commonly used grade of asphalt cement?
Answer: 60 70 and 85 100

255. To determine the thickness _____ of asphalt, Immersion Compression Test is performed.
Answer: stability

256. Percent air voids will _____ as percent asphalt increases in Marshall Stability.
Answer: decrease

257. To determine the temperature of delivered asphalt mix, what apparatus is used?
Answer: armored thermometer

258. Peat and muck soils are considered as:
Answer: highly organic soils

259. Why is it that a trial section is conducted in sub base or base course construction?
Answer: to check the suitability of materials, efficiency of the equipment used and the construction
method.

260. What does it mean when there is bleeding in a newly paved asphalt road?
Answer: excessive asphalt content

261. A good subgrade soil should have the following:
Answer: low liquid limit and low plastic limit

262. Concrete samples may be tested at an earlier stage in order to _____
Answer: determine the trend of its strength development

263. What is the test criterion for reinforced concrete pipe tested in a three edge bearing test machine?
Answer: 0.3 mm crack

264. In testing concrete cylinder sample, the applied load should be continuous without shock at a constant rate
within the range of _____
Answer: 20 to 50 psi/second (compression); 125 175 psi/second (flexural)

265. Cement which has been in storage for a long period of time and that there is already doubt as to its quality
should:
Answer: be retested prior to use

266. It is a process of improving the properties of soil to make it more suitable for a particular purpose.
Answer: Stabilization

267. Two tests are done in one lot sample. The test differs from each other, third test is taken. What will be this
test?
Answer: referee test

268. If no beam sample taken to determine the strength of concrete pavement, is it allowed in DPWH specs to use
core samples to determine the strength. What is the required compressive strength?
Answer: Yes, 3,500 psi at 14 days

269. Tact coat must be at what condition prior to the application of asphalt mix?
Answer: tacky

270. The use of sea water in reinforced concrete may _____
Answer: induce risk of corrosion in reinforcing steel

271. Subgrade having a CBR value of 2% or less is considered _____
Answer: weak subgrade

272. Subgrade having a CBR value of 15% or more is considered _____
Answer: very stable
47

273. Subgrade other than those defined in the two above categories is considered ___
Answer: normal

274. What are the three (3) major groups of soil?
Answer: granular soil, fine grained soil, organic soil

275. What is the significance of field density test?
Answer: to determine the degree of compaction of soil. It is also a control test in embankment
construction to ensure adequate compaction.

276. Weighing hot sample is not advisable because it affects the accuracy of the result. True or false?
Answer: true

277. How to prepare or to come up with an air dried sample?
Answer: air dry the sample under the heat of the sun

278. If it is impossible to air dry the sample under the heat of the sun, what alternative should be used?
Answer: oven dry the sample @ 60C

279. Sample for compaction test should pass to what sieve size?
Answer: Method A & B use sample passing No. 4
Method C & D use sample passing inch

280. What is the difference between T 99 and T 180 compaction test method?
Answer: T 99 uses 2.5kg (5.5lbs) rammer with a 12 drop while T 180 uses 4.54 kg (10lbs) rammer
with an 18 drop.

281. What is particle size analysis?
Answer: It is the determination of particle size distribution in soils by sieve, hydrometer or a combined
analysis

282. What kind of water shall be used in laboratory test especially if it deals with chemicals?
Answer: distilled water

283. Liquid limit brass cup w/ sample is raised and allowed to drop sharply on the base through a height of _____?
Answer: 10 mm

284. How many rotations per second will the crank of a liquid limit be rotated?
Answer: 2 rps

285. In doing a plastic limit test, to what will the soil thread begin to break?
Answer: 3.2 mm (1/8)

286. What is specific gravity?
Answer; It is used in a gravimetric volumetric relationship in soils (or defined as the ratio of the wt.
in air of an equal volume of water at a stated temperature)

287. What is the approximate area for density control strips?
Answer: 335 sq. m

288. What Item of work is embankment?
Answer: Item 104

289. What kind of material for Item 200?
Answer: Aggregate sub base course

290. What is the required particle size for selected borrow for toppings under Item 104?
Answer: All particle size will pass sieve 75 mm or 3 openings and not more than 15 mass % will pass
0.075 mm. (AASHTO T 11)

291. What is the minimum degree of compaction for Item 200 and 201?
48
Answer: 100%

292. What is the highest point in the moisture density curve of the moisture density relation test or compaction
test?
Answer: Maximum dry density (MDD) and Optimum moisture content (OMC)

293. What is the required size of calibrated sand used for field density test (FDT)?
Answer: Any clean, dry, free flowing, uncemented sand passing No. 10 and retained No. 200 sieve

294. What is the standard diameter of an orifice of an FDT sand cone?
Answer: inch (12.7 mm)

295. What are the apparatus used in FDT?
Answer: sand cone, jug (at least 4 liters), guide plate, moisture cans, calibrated sand, weighing scale,
oven with temperature control, chisel or digging tool, plastic bags and labeling materials (tag name)

296. How many hours does a fine aggregate tested for specific gravity and absorption be soaked in water?
Answer: 15 to 19 hours

297. How to determine if the fine aggregate reaches the saturated dry condition?
Answer: It is determined by the use of cone test for surface moisture. If the molded shape of fine
aggregate slumps slightly, it indicates that it has reached a surface dry condition

298. What are the tests required for concrete aggregates?
Answer: Fine aggregate = grading, specific gravity, absorption, dry unit weight: Coarse aggregate =
grading, specific gravity, absorption, dry unit weight an d abrasion
Note: Soundness test is also performed as per request

299. What are the size or diameter and weight of cast iron spheres used in abrasion test?
Answer: Approximately 46.8 mm and each weighing between 390 455 grams

300. What is the required total weight of sample for abrasion test of coarse aggregate, grading A with 12 as
number of spheres?
Answer: 5,000 grams 25 grams

301. What is significance of abrasion test?
Answer: It evaluates the structural strength of coarse aggregate. It gives an indication of quality as
determined by resistance to impact and wear. It also determines whether the aggregates will have
degradation during traffic or rolling.

302. What is the sieve used in sieving materials for abrasion test?
Answer: No. 12 (1.70 mm)

303. At what age should a concrete beam sample be tested for flexural test?
Answer: 14 days

304. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at third point?
Answer: R = PL
bd
2


305. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at center point?
Answer: R = 3PL
2bd
2


306. What is the size of the tamping rod used is sampling concrete?
Answer: 16 mm and 610 mm long with the tamping end rounded to a hemispherical tip of the same
as the rod.

307. Concrete masonry (hollow blocks) if subject to test, how many samples are required?
Answer: 6 pcs/10,000 units (12 pcs if more than 10,000 units)

308. What is the strength requirement for load bearing concrete masonry units?
49
Answer:
Individual = 5.5 MPa (800 psi) minimum
Average (for 3 samples) = 6.9 MPa (1000 psi) minimum


309. What is the strength requirement for non load bearing concrete masonry units?
Answer:
Individual = 3.45 MPa (500 psi) minimum
Average (for 3 samples) = 4.5 MPa (600 psi) minimum


310. What is the significance of testing reinforcing steel bars?
Answer: To determine the yield and tensile strength of the bar as well as its elongation and is used to
classify the bars into grade.

311. What is the significance of bending test for RSB?
Answer: To evaluate the ductile properties of RSB

312. What is the required testing requirement for paints?
Answer: 1 can (gal or pail)/ 100 cans (gal or pail)

313. SS l or SS lh is what kind of asphalt?
Answer: slow setting emulsified asphalt

314. For how many hours or how long shall a bituminous prime coat be left undisturbed?
Answer: 24 hours

315. What kind of asphalt is used as tack coat?
Answer: cut back asphalt

316. One (1) set of concrete cylinder sample shall be taken for every how many pieces of RCCP?
Answer: 25 pieces

317. What is being determined in a core sample from asphalt pavement?
Answer: thickness and density of pavement

318. All records regarding quality control such as accomplishment, daily activities, weather, etc. are recorded in a
_____
Answer: Materials logbook

319. The Standard Penetration Test (SPT) is an in situ test that measures what?
Answer: depth of soil layer

320. The main problem associated with wrong practice of conveying concrete is called _____
Answer: segregation

321. A one lane road with a pavement width of 3.5 m and shoulder width of 0.5 m on each side of the pavement
was designed to have subbase and base courses with a combined thickness of 300 mm. If the thickness of
the subbase is 125 mm, the spreading and compaction of the base and subbase courses shall be carried out in
_____?
Answer: three (3) layers over the full width of 4.5 m

322. During the application of the first half of the anticipated load a _____ rate of loading shall be permitted?
Answer: higher

323. Quality of factory produced RCCP may be best established through what?
Answer: Test of concrete pipe samples

324. Soft and unstable soils were encountered during the course of subgrade preparation. If you were the ME
assigned to the project, what is the most effective and cheaper method that you would recommend to
stabilize the soil prior to the construction of the subbase course?
Answer: geotextiles
50

325. How many times per layer should a concrete specimen molded in a 6 x 6 x 21 beam mold be rodded?
Answer: 63 blows/layer

326. Rolling of bituminous mix shall be discontinued whenever it begins to produce excessive _______ or
_______.
Answer: pulverizing of the aggregate, displacement of the mixture

327. In placing concrete, the required temperature should be less than ____
Answer: 29C

328. How many concrete cylinder samples is required for a 300 pcs RCCP?
Answer: 12 sets

329. If concrete cylinder is not available for a 300 pcs RCCP, how many pipes shall be subjected to test?
Answer: 6 pcs RCCP

330. If there is a necessity to add water to the concrete mix in order to increase its workability (provided concrete
does not excced specified slump), how many minutes after the initial time of mixing does adding water be
permitted?
Answer: not exceeding 45 minutes and that water cement ratio is not exceeded.

331. What are the two (2) types of bitumen that are commonly used in the bituminous mixture?
Answer:
TAR is a viscous liquid obtained from the distillation of coal or wood.
PETROLEUM ASPHALT are the products of the distillation of crude oil.

332. What are the three (3) major petroleum asphalts?
Answer: Asphalt cement, cut back asphalt, emulsified asphalt

333. What are the solvents of cut back asphalts?
Answer:
GASOLINE for rapid curing type
KEROSENE for medium curing type
DIESEL for slow curing type
334. Emulsified asphalts are either _____ or _____.
Answer:
CATIONIC EMULSION works better with wet aggregates and in cold weather. It is
a positively charge electron.
ANIONIC EMULSION - adheres better to aggregates which have positive charge. It is a
negatively charge electron.

335. What is the bituminous material used in Item 310?
Answer: asphalt cement

336. What greatly affects the service of asphalt cement?
Answer: grade and quantity of asphalt

337. What influences primarily the grade of asphalt selected?
Answer: climatic condition

338. How many weeks do the producer of asphalt mix or the contractor shall submit the job mix formula?
Answer: three (3) weeks

339. Who will approve the job mix formula?
Answer: DPWH PE and ME

340. The job mix formula contains provisions the following:
Answer:
a. grading of aggregates
b. percentage and type of asphalt
c. temperature of aggregates and asphalt
51
d. temperature of mixture upon delivery or time of compaction

341. When tar is used, what is the temperature that the mixture shall be placed?
Answer: 66C to 107C

342. When is the right time to compact in order to attain the required density?
Answer: when the mixture is still hot and workable

343. What is to be done in order to determine the number of passes that would attain the required density?
Answer: trial section

344. What needs to be controlled during the mixing and compaction and is of great significance in the strength of
the resulting pavement?
Answer: temperature

345. In Item 310, how is rolling be done?
Answer: It should begin from the sides and proceed longitudinally parallel towards the center line,
each trip overlapping one half the rollers width.

346. After the final rolling, what will be checked?
Answer: degree of compaction

347. The compacted pavement shall have a density equal to or greater than _____
Answer: 95% of the laboratory compacted density

348. When will the traffic be permitted to utilize the pavement?
Answer: when the pavement has cooled to atmospheric temperature

349. How do we take sample from the finish pavement?
Answer: by the use of core drill or saw

350. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if not vibrated?
Answer: 40 mm 75 mm

351. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if vibrated?
Answer: 10 mm 40 mm

352. When concrete is mixed in a central mixing plant, what is the time of mixing?
Answer: not less than 50 seconds or more than 90 seconds

353. In transporting concrete, what is the time elapsed from the time water is added to the mix until the concrete
is deposited in place at the site?
Answer: It shall not exceed 45 minutes if hauled in non agitating trucks and 90 minutes if hauled in
truck mixers or agitators

354. How is concrete consolidated?
Answer: by the use of vibrator inserted in the concrete vertically

355. If the lanes are concreted separately, what kind of joint in a form of a keyway is used?
Answer: longitudinal construction joint

356. What kind of bar is placed perpendicular to the joint stated in the preceding problem?
Answer: deformed steel tie bars


357. What is the depth of the weaken plane joint when sawed with a concrete saw?
Answer: not less than 50 mm

358. The width of the weaken plane joint is _____
Answer: not less than 6 mm

359. What shall be done if cracks appear at or near the joint prior to the time of sawing?
52
Answer: sawing shall be omitted

360. Tie bars shall not be coated or painted with _____
Answer: asphalt or other materials

361. What is the material that is used as a load transfer device held in a position parallel to the surface and center
line of the slab of pavement?
Answer: dowel

362. To protect dowels from corrosion and to facilitate sliding in concrete, it shall be coated with _____
Answer: thin film of bitumen

363. The surface of the pavement shall be roughened by means of _____
Answer: brooming

364. What is the depth of corrugation produced by brooming in the surface of the pavement?
Answer: 1.5 mm

365. The surface of a newly put concrete when has sufficiently set shall be cured for a period of _____
Answer: 72 hours

366. The curing of the pavement is done by means of the following:
Answer:
a. by covering the concrete with mats saturated with water
b. by thoroughly wetting the pavement
c. by ponding
d. by applying curing compound immediately after finishing of the surface

367. When is the right time to seal the joints?
Answer: after the curing period or before it is opened to traffic

368. What is the difference between Item 504 and Item 505 (bluebook 95)?
Answer: the placement of stone or boulders and the ratio of cement and fine sand

369. The ME of the contractor is directly under the supervision of the _____?
Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH

370. The requisites in transporting samples of the laboratory is _____
Answer: Well packed in durable containers to avoid damages in transit, accompanied by a sample
card filled up in detail and duly signed by the ME

371. Who has the power to recommend the acceptance or rejection of construction materials for use in the
project based on test results?
Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH

372. It is a chemical composition of asphalt that gives color and hardness.
Answer: asphaltene

373. The mineral filler which is used in the bituminous mix is passing sieve?
Answer: No. 200

374. Cold mix asphalt is used in _____
Answer: pothole patching

375. VMA means
Answer: Voids in Mineral Aggregates

376. The compaction temperature in molding the bituminous mixture specimen
Answer: 124C

377. The mixing temperature of bituminous mix is
Answer: 163C
53

378. The heating temperature of bituminous mix is
Answer: 121C - 188C

379. The heating temperature of aggregates ranges from
Answer: 177C - 191C

380. The maximum absorption content of CHB
Answer: 240 kg/m
3


381. The maximum moisture content of CHB
Answer: 45%

382. SPT means
Answer: Standard Penetration Test


383. A tube sampler is used in sampling undisturbed sample
Answer: Shelby tube

384. Used in sealing undisturbed sample
Answer: wax

385. A tube sampler used in sampling disturbed sample
Answer: split spoon sampler

386. It is a dynamic test used in the field to obtain rapid empirical results which can be used to estimate shear
strength and bearing capacity
Answer: Standard Penetration Test

387. A type of coring bit used in rock coring
Answer: diamond bit

388. CQCA means
Answer: Certificate of Quality Control Assurance (submitted weekly)

389. The specific gravity of asphalt ranges from
Answer: 1.01 1.04

390. The type of electron present in rapid curing emulsified asphalt?
Answer: cationic

391. How many group of three in situ densities are required if the compacted volume of embankment laid was
estimated to be 1,500 cu. m with a thickness of 200 mm/layer?
Answer: fifteen (15)

392. The allowable % variation in mass of deformed reinforcing steel is
Answer: 6% maximum under nominal stress

393. The maximum allowable % phosphorous content of a deformed and plain billet steel bar is
Answer: 0.06%

394. Tensile and yield strengths of steel bars?
Answer:
TENSI LE STRENGTH YI ELD POI NT
GRADE 40 483 MPa 276 MPa
GRADE 60 621 MPa 414 MPa
GRADE 75 689 MPa 517 MPa

395. Plasticity index is an indication of percent
Answer: clay content

54
396. The condition of the soil to be tested in the laboratory compaction test is
Answer: air dried condition

397. The method in the determination of density of soil in place
Answer: Sand cone method

398. Air dry sand used in the density apparatus is passing
Answer: sieve No. 10 retained No. 200

399. Which of the following items does not need CBR?
Answer:
a. subbase materials
b. surfacing materials
c. base course materials

400. In abrasion test, the abrasive charge shall consist of cast iron spheres or steel spheres.
Answer:
GRADING A 12 spheres
GRADING B 11 spheres
GRADING C 8 spheres
GRADING D 6 spheres

401. In truck mixing, the minimum number of revolutions after all ingredients including water is in the drum is
Answer: 100 rpm

402. A maximum time of _____ shall be permitted for wet mixing, lay down and finishing when this method is
used (Item 206)
Answer: two (2) hours

403. Traffic shall be prohibited from traveling at the speeds in excess of _____ until the asphaltic material has
set.
Answer: 40 kph

404. Mortar shall be used within _____ after its preparation
Answer: 90 minutes

405. In placing concrete for slab, using buggies, the correct method that should be followed is
Answer: concrete should be dumped into the face of the previously placed concrete.


406. There is a failure of flexural strength in the pavement, if you are the ME of your firm, what will you
recommend?
Answer: conduct recoring

407. When loads have been arriving at the spreader with the material peaked or doomed up and a load suddenly
appears in which the material lies flat, it indicates
Answer: excessive asphalt

408. Where and when was the first use of Portland cement?
Answer: Bellafontaine, Ohio (1893)
409. The curve in the logarithmic scale where the 25
th
blow is projected in order to determine the liquid limit of
the soil.
Answer: Flow curve


410. Percentage of wear represents the value of _____
Answer: abrasion loss

411. In the design of concrete mix, what is the volume of water in the concrete mix that produces a slump of 76.2
mm?
Answer: 24.7 liters
55

412. The standard fineness modulus of sand is about _____
Answer: 2.75

413. The standard packaging weight of cement
Answer: 40 kg/bag

414. It is an impervious membrane applied to concrete pavement before its initial setting that prevents rapid
evaporation of water from the mix.
Answer: curing compound

415. The type of paint that is used for zone marking, traffic lanes and parking spaces which is rapid drying,
resistant to abrasion and weather conditions and possess improved visibility at night.
Answer: reflectorized paint

416. An ingredient in the paint that gives reflection during night time.
Answer: glass beads

417. The paint which is used on concrete or masonry units.
Answer: Latex

418. The average loss in weight of three specimens in zinc coating test.
Answer: Triple spot test

419. One the three specimens in the triple spot test with lightest coating.
Answer: Single spot test

420. The type of paint that is used in wood surfaces. It is a special type of paint made with varnish as the vehicle.
Answer: Enamel

421. Group index is an empirical number ranging from 0 to 20 under average conditions of good drainage and
adequate compaction. The supporting value of a material as subgrade may be assumed as an inverse ratio to its
group index, that is a group index of zero indicates
Answer: good subgrade material

422. It determines the target density which is constructed at the beginning of the work on each course of material
to be compacted.
Answer: Control strips

423. The instrument used in placing concrete in water in a compact mass in its fina position.
Answer: tremie with 250 mm

424. The maximum specific gravity of thermoplastic paint.
Answer: 2.15

425. The softening point of a thermoplastic paint.
Answer: 102.5C

426. The maximum drying time of thermoplastic paint.
Answer: 10 minutes

427. The rate of application of traffic paint.
Answer: 0.33 lit/m
2


428. The maximum drying time of traffic paint.
Answer: 15 30 minutes

429. The minimum weight of sample for reflectorized paint.
Answer: 10 kg

430. The apparatus used to measure the thickness or height of compacted bituminous paving mixture.
Answer: vernier caliper
56


431. It is used in calculating the unit weight of the mixture of the degree of compaction of the asphalt pavement.
Answer: Bulk specific gravity of compacted bituminous mixtures using saturated surface dry specimens.

432. The solvent in the extraction of bitumen.
Answer: gasoline

433. The percent of bitumen is computed based on
Answer: mass of dry aggregates

434. The method used to determine the grading of aggregate extracted from bituminous mixture.
Answer: Mechanical analysis of extracted aggregates

435. A device used to determine the relative hardness of asphalt.
Answer: penetrometer

436. Volatization test which measures the relative proportion of asphalt to oil.
Answer: Distillation

437. The measurement wherein the asphalt begins to melt.
Answer: Softening point

438. The Index of Retained Strength (IRS) is computed through the formula
Answer: (Wet Stability/Dry Stability) x 100%

439. The temperature requirement in initial rolling for Item 310.
Answer: 200F to 225F

440. What is the color of asphalt when it is overcooked?
Answer: yellowish brown

441. How many gradation ranges for Hot Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there in the blue book?
Answer: seven (7)

442. How many gradation ranges for Cold Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there in the blue book?
Answer: two (2)

443. The cored sample of asphalt pavement is measured at
Answer: approximately quarter points

444. Too much asphalt in the bituminous mixes causes
Answer: bleeding

445. What is the plasticity index of mineral filler?
Answer: not greater than 4

446. The wearing away of pavement surface caused by dislodging of aggregate particle.
Answer: raveling

447. The interconnected cracks forming a series of small blocks resembling an alligators skin or chicken wire.
Answer: alligator cracking

448. It is prescribed in each project based on estimated quantities and specifies the kind and number of test of each item of
work.
Answer: Minimum Testing Requirements

449. If the coarse aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test, the weighted loss shall not exceed
Answer: 10 mass %

450. If the fine aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test, the weighted loss shall not exceed
Answer: 12 mass %

451. Additives used in concrete mixing.
Answer: admixtures

452. The test that determines the resistance of aggregates to disintegration by saturated solutions of sodium sulfate or
magnesium sulfate.
Answer: Soundness test

57
453. The design of concrete mix specified in the bluebook is based on
Answer: Absolute Design Method

454. The initial setting time of Portland cement is not less than
Answer: 45 minutes

455. The final setting time of Portland cement
Answer: 10 hours

456. The standard sand used in testing the mortar strength of Portland cement
Answer: Ottawa sand

457. The apparatus used to determine the fineness of Portland cement by air permeability
Answer: Blaine Air Permeability Apparatus

458. A mixture of cement and water is
Answer: cement paste

459. The apparatus used to determine the initial and final setting of Portland cement in the laboratory.
Answer: Gillmore needle

460. The compressive strength of cement mortar samples in 7 days is
Answer: 19.3 MPa

461. What is the appearance of the molded cement paste which fails to meet the autoclave?
Answer: crumbled

462. The critical number of days of curing of concrete
Answer: first seven (7) days

463. It is the equally as important as testing, and the sampler shall sue every precaution to obtain samples that will show the
nature and condition of the materials which they represent.
Answer: sampling

464. A soil sample received from the field for subsequent tests by reducing aggregations of particles into sizes which will pass
certain sieves.
Answer: disturbed samples

465. A procedure to recover relatively undisturbed soil samples suitable laboratory tests of structural properties.
Answer: thin walled tube sampling

467. The representative who will witness the testing of materials in an accredited laboratory.
Answer: government

468. Samples obtained from the field with minimum disturbance by using any drilling equipment that provides clean hole
before insertion of thin walled tubes that is, both the natural density and moisture content are preserved as much as
practicable.
Answer: undisturbed samples

469. The type of additive that is used to delay the setting of fresh concrete.
Answer: retarder


470. The type of additive that is used to attain maximum early compressive strength of concrete.
Answer: accelerator

471. The best enemy of construction.
Answer: water

472. The following are considered unsuitable materials:
Answer:
a. Materials containing detrimental quantities of organic materials such as grass, roots and sewage
b. Highly organic soils such as peat and muck
c. Soils with LL exceeding 80% and/or PL exceeding 55%
d. Soils with a natural moisture content exceeding 100%
e. Soils with very low natural density, 800kg/m
3

f. Soils that cannot be properly compacted as determined by the engineer

473. What is the spec of mass % passing in sieve No. 200, grading A for aggregate base course?
Answer: 0 12%
58

474. The rate of application of special curing agent
Answer: 4 liter per 14 sq. m

475. The method of measurement for determining the depth of the river channel.
Answer: sounding

476. If the type of soil in Item 200 is non plastic, what Atterberg limit test can be performed?
Answer: Liquid limit test

477. The minimum penetration of the preservatives into the surface of timber is
Answer: 20mm

478. The engineer shall be notified at least _____ before the treating process of timber.
Answer: 10 days

479. All grout shall pass through a screen with a _____ maximum clear opening.
Answer: 2mm

480. The allowable height of fall in driving piles to avoid injury using gravity hammer.
Answer: 2.5m 3.5 (concrete)
4.5m (timber)

481. This increases the shearing strength of aggregates of any size, shape and gradation.
Answer: Compaction

482. In general, soils high value of this and plasticity index are poor as engineering materials.
Answer: liquid limit of fines

483. The recommended thickness of Hot Mix asphalt overlay depending on the expected traffic and the modulus of the
cracked and seated pavement section.
Answer: 3 to 5

484. Stabilization and under sealing are recommended if the mean deflection is ____ or the differential deflection is ____.
Answer: greater than 0.14, greater than 0.002

485. Super plasticizers can reduce the water content by _____ and increase the 24 hour strength by _____.
Answer: 25% to 35%, 50% to 70%

486. Loose material is removed from all joints, cracks and areas that have previously patched by asphalt by _____ with
nominal _____ air pressure.
Answer: power sweeping and air blowing, 100 psi

487. Admixtures which can help incorporate a controlled amount of air on the form moist in concrete during mixing without
significantly altering the setting or the rate of characteristic of concrete.
Answer: air entraining admixtures

488. It is the activity of monitoring planned scheduled against actual and by speed task to make up for the past or future loss
of time.
Answer: Delivery control

489. Bowl shaped holes of various sizes in the pavement surface.
` Answer: potholes

490. A form of plastic movement typified by ripples (surface waves) across the pavement.
Answer: corrugation

491. A form of plastic movement resulting in localized bulging of the pavement.
Answer: shoving

492. Longitudinal surface depression in the wheel paths.
Answer: rutting

492. It is the chief load bearing of gravel road?
Answer: base or subbase course

493. The maximum distance of the discharge point from the point of deposit by pneumatic means.
Answer: 3 meters

494. It reduces the vertical compressive stress induced by traffic in the subbase and subgrade.
59
Answer: base course

495. Minimum separation of splices when staggered.
Answer: 40 times bar

496. Consist of furnishing, placing and finishing concrete in all structures except pavements conforming to the lines, grade
and dimension.
Answer: Structural concrete

497. Minimum grouting pressure of bonding tendons.
Answer: 0.6984 MPa (100 psi)

498. The main cross member of Bailey bridge that carry the roadway structure.
Answer: transom

499. Coring sampling shall be done at _____ interval by using split spoon sampler and the depth needed is _____.
Answer: one (1) meter, 30m

500. What is the diameter of split spoon sampler?
Answer: 50mm

501. The uniform sampling run in core drilling.
Answer: 1.50m length

502. The initial diameter of bore hole.
Answer: 76mm

503. What is the core bit diameter?
Answer: 67mm

504. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline of roads for 300 VPD traffic.
Answer: 250m (1.5m below subgrade)

505. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline of roads for less than 300 VPD traffic.
Answer: 500m (along centerline)

506. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline for new road on swampy or marshy ground.
Answer: 100m (2m along the centerline of new road)

507. The required spacing of bore holes for bridge project
Answer:
1 deep drill for each abutment (30m run)
1 boring for each pier for multi span (3m into the bed rocks)

508. The required spacing and depth of bore holes over foundation area of dam.
Answer: 60m spacing, 30m intermediate along centerline
Depth = times base width

509. For ports and harbors projects:
Answer: 30m to 150m; 1m below dredged bottom (12m minimum for piers & wharves)

510. For buildings (large area greater than 930 m
2
):
Answer: 1 bore hole at each corner of the structure and one on the interior (9m below lowest foundation)

511. For buildings less than 930 m
2
Answer: two (2) boring at opposite corners

512. This reflector shall be the short type having a minimum base area of 180mm x 140mm.
Answer: Flush Surface Reflector

513. Occurs on PCCP when the cutting of weakened plane is delayed.
Answer: shrinkage cracking

514. What is the primary purpose in establishing design criteria in design?
Answer: consistency

515. Positional tolerance of duct tubes during casting operations.
Answer: 4mm

516. This method is usually adopted when there is no visible evidence of termite infestation.
60
Answer: Cordoning


517. This method is used when soil shows termite infestation.
Answer: Drenching

518. Moisture content of rough lumber should not exceed _____
Answer: 22%

519. Moisture content of dressed lumber should not exceed _____
Answer: 14%

520. Design pressure of glass in glazed position.
Answer: 244 kg/m
2


521. The minimum pressure of testing water tank.
Answer: 1,033.50 KPa

522. The minimum energy per blow of diesel hammer on concrete/steel pile at each stroke.
Answer: 831.48 kg/m

523. The minimum distance allowed for the top portion of the splice below ground line or seabed.
Answer: 2.5 meters

524. Consist of the excavation of river beds, bottom of creeks or esteros and other bodies of water.
Answer: dredging

525. The slope of batter piles
Answer: 1:6

526. Longitudinal gutter grades shall not be flatter than ____
Answer: 0.12%

527. Allowance for sediments or debris provided in design
Answer: 20%

528. It is the digging of soil after the final marking of the building outline has been established on the ground.
Answer: Minor excavation

529. It requires wide excavation of total extraction bearing capacity.
Answer: footing

530. This shall be conducted for buildings three (3) storey and above.
Answer: Boring test

531. The minimum depth of CHB wall footing of other minor structure on the ground.
Answer: 700mm

532. The minimum depth of footing on a well compacted fill.
Answer: 100mm

533. Typically a plain or reinforced concrete that is usually provided to support a column.
Answer: Spread footing

534. Gabion dimensions are subject to tolerance limit of _____ of the manufactured state.
Answer: 3%

535. A field density result of 88% degree of compaction obtained on the subgrade indicates that
Answer: compaction of the subgrade fails the compaction specs and needs additional compaction

536. Liquid limit is usually
Answer: greater than plastic limit

537. The blue book requires that the base course be compacted at least
Answer: 100% modified proctor

538. As construction work progresses, you noticed that the delivered materials are different from the on tested passed. If you
are in doubt, what will you do?
Answer: conduct immediate re testing for verification

61
539. Which of the following is not the responsibility of the Materials Engineer?
Answer:
a. sampling of material
b. analysis of test result of material
c. scheduling of delivery of materials
d. design of concrete mix

540. Measure of construction materials for concrete structure shall be
Answer: volume

541. The moisture density curve if different from each soil. Which of the ff statement is true?
Answer:
a. granular, well graded soil generally have fairly high maximum density at low optimum moisture
content
b. clay soil have lower densities at OMC than granular, well graded soil
c. granular, well graded soil have greater densities than uniform soil at OMC
d. none of the above

542. What should be done on the subbase course with existing moisture content of 10% higher than the optimum moisture
content?
Answer: dry out to reduce moisture, spread to the required thickness and compact

543. The DPWH specs provide _____ tolerance for asphalt pavement thickness
Answer: - 5mm

544. Geosynthetics may be used for
Answer: filtration or drainage, reinforcement, erosion control

545. Which of the ff. is not included in determining moisture content?
Answer:
a. beam balance
b. oven
c. moisture can
d. extruder

546. Steel bars are considered undersize if
Answer: its nominal diameter as determined by caliper doesnt meet the manufactured size

547. Samples of aggregates for base course when tested for quality the requirements
except grading. What will you recommend?
Answer: reprocess the materials by blending

548. Concrete curing refers to
Answer: procedure done to maximize concrete strength

549. What is the most inferior type of soil as to its engineering properties?
Answer: organic

550. What is the testing soil that involves the application of energy and addition of water as lubricant?
Answer: Moisture Density relation test

551. The dividing line between gravel and sand in concrete pavement is
Answer: No. 10

552. What is the volume of the mold using 6 for AASHTO T 180 D method in compaction test?
Answer: 0.002124 m
3


553. A material resulting from the disintegration, grinding or crushing of rock and which will pass 2.00mm sieve and be
retained on the 0.075mm sieve
Answer: sand

554. What is ASTM?
Answer: American Society for Testing & Materials

555. What is AASHTO?
Answer: American Association of State Highway & Transportation Officials

556. DPWH thru Bureau of Research & Standards has prepared a revised laboratory
testing procedure manual, in order to have be consistent with the latest methods as prescribed under
Answer: ASTM & AASHTO
62

557. What is the category of contractor that are required by DPWH to have laboratory equipments or apparatus in pre
bidding qualifications?
Answer: large

558. What is the maximum size of aggregate used in Item 104?
Answer: of the thickness

559. What kind of material that passes .001mm sieve?
Answer: colloids

560. In soaking sample for CBR, the water should at least _____ above the specimen
Answer: 25mm

561. A natural or prepared mixture consisting predominantly of stone, gravel or sand and containing silt clay materials
Answer: soil aggregates

562. A rock fragment usually rounded or semi rounded with an average dimension between 75mm 305mm
Answer: boulders

563. The process of cutting the branches around a tree on the roadside to make them denser and grow straight.
Answer: Pruning

564. The road near or abutting a bridge.
Answer: Approach


565. Settlement of right of way problems should be done
Answer: before the construction work

566. Material that has the greatest load carrying capacity
Answer: sand and gravel

567. In hydrographic survey, sounding joints should be made at a maximum interval of
Answer: 20 meters

568. The use of geofabric material to increase the strength of the subgrade
material for road construction is classified as
Answer: Soil Reinforcement Method

569. What to recommend if the surface test of newly asphalted which showed a lump
Answer: remove and replace the pavement area with irregularity

570. Controlled Density Method in embankment construction involves
Answer: Depositing and spreading materials in layers of not more than 225mm depth, loose materials and
extending to the full width of the embankment

571. What type of cracks will appear on concrete if it was not cured immediately after final placement especially during the
first seven days?
Answer: Plastic shrinkage cracks

572. What is commonly used as curing media for fresh concrete?
Answer: Liquid membrane forming

573. What is the work sequence on cylinder specimen?
Answer: cylinder shall be prepared, cured and tested at the specified date

574. When to remove the false work of continuous structure?
Answer: when the 1
st
and 2
nd
adjoining span on each side have reached the specified strength

575. It is generally either a soft soil composed largely of silt, clay, organic deposit or loose sand having high void rather and
usually not high water content
Answer: Weak Subgrade

576. What is Twelve Inch Layer Method Embankment?
Answer: the material shall be deposited and spread in layers not more than 300 mm in depth (12) loose measure,
parallel to the finished grade and extending to the full width of the embankment

577. What is Rock Embankment Method?
63
Answer: the material shall be deposited on the fill and push over the end of the fill by means of bulldozer. This
method is only applicable to fill 1.2 m in depth. It shall not be placed within 600 mm of the other grade

578. What is Hydraulic Fill Method Embankment?
Answer: the material shall be taken from borrow locations and shall be deposited so as to form the grade and
cross section and shall be thoroughly compacted

579. What is the principal factor used in determining the thickness of the pavement?
Answer: STRENGTH OF SUBGRADE (deterioration due to frustration move also be considered)

580. What is Placing and Removing Surcharge Method Embankment?
Answer: were unsuitable material is present under the embankment corrective work consists of placing a
surcharge constructed to the full width of the road bed. The surcharge shall remain in place until the
embankment has reached stability or the required settlement

581. What is Hydraulic Construction Method Embankment?
Answer: this involves the introduction of water into the embankment to accelerate consideration

582. Mixture of fine grained aggregates, bituminous binder and water for surface sealing
Answer: slurry seal (bituminous slurry)

583. What is the formula for percentage of wear?
Answer:
Percentage of wear, % = (orig wt. wt. retained @ sieve # 12) x 100
original wt.

584. Free bitumen on the surface of the pavement which creates a shiny, glass like reflecting surface that usually becomes
quite sticky
Answer: bleeding

585. Occurring usually at the transverse cracks joint caused by excessive expansion of the slabs during hot weather
Answer: buckling

586. The splitting of concrete surface material from the concrete pavement
Answer: crushing

587. The authorized hauling of materials in excess of the of the free haul distance
Answer: Overhaul

588. If slurry (wet) lime is employed, what is the typical slurry ratio?
Answer: 1 tonne lime : 2 cubic meter of water

589. What is the amount of cement to be added to the soil aggregates in Item 204?
Answer: 6 10 mass % of the dry soil

590. Who is the father of Soil Mechanics?
Answer: Dr. Karl Terzhagi

591. What is quality?
Answer: It the degree of excellence

592. What is control?
Answer: Is to regulate

593. What is quality control?
Answer: It is conformance to requirements

594. What is assurance?
Answer: it the degree of certainty

595. What are the two kinds of control activities?
Answer: Inspection and Testing

596. What is the minimum distance of water table from subgrade level?
Answer: 4 5 feet

597. What is the process of combining two or more soil in suitable properties to produce good grading on gravel, sand, silt
and clay?
Answer: Mechanic Stabilization

64
598. What is the common material employed in stabilizing the moisture content of soil or liquid and hydroscope in nature? It
is an aid in the compaction process by slowing the rate of evaporation of moisture from the soil
Answer: Calcium chloride or rock salt

599. When do clay and granular soils become unstable?
Answer: Clay soil becomes unstable if moisture content increases. Granular material becomes unstable if it has
dried

600. Why do liquid asphalt was introduced in road construction aside from asphalt cement?
Answer: It was introduced in order to save heating costs and from convenience in road mixing or priming

601. The theory of concrete design mix is to
Answer: Optimize aggregate packing and optimizes properties of cement mortar

602. To optimize the properties of the cement mortar, one has to depend on
Answer: cement type, cement content and water content

603. What type of cement is the Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC)?
Answer: Type I

604. What type of cement is the Moderate Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement?
Answer: Type II

605. What type of cement is the Rapid Hardening Portland Cement?
Answer: Type III

606. What type of cement is the Low Heat Portland Cement?
Answer: Type IV

607. What type of cement is the High Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement?
Answer: Type V

608. What type of cement is the Portland Blast Furnace Slag Cement?
Answer: Type 1S

609. What type of cement is the Portland Pozzolan Cement?
Answer: Type 1P

610. Type I is for general use such as
Answer: pavements & sidewalks, buildings & bridges and tanks & water pipes

611. Type III cement is used for
Answer: early stripping of forms & high early strength

612. Type IV is used for
Answer: massive structures such as dams

613. Type V cement is used for
Answer: when sulphate content of groundwater is very high

614. The inventor of Portland cement was
Answer: Joseph Aspdin

615. Portland cement is composed of blended materials containing
Answer: calcium, alumina, iron and silica

616. The simple recipe of Portland cement is
Answer: 2 parts of crushed limestone, 1 part clay/pulverized shale, 1 pinch of iron ore, then 1 pinch of gypsum
added to clinker

617. Pozzolan cement is composed of a raw material called
Answer: volcanic earth

618. The 75% compressive strength of Portland cement is composed of
Answer: C3S and C2S

619. The 25% setting time of Portland cement is controlled by
Answer: C3A and C4AF

620. When water is added to Portland cement, _____ process is developed
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Answer: hydration

621. Calcium Silicate Gel (CSH) and lime [Ca(OH)2] are developed when _____ is added to Portland cement
Answer: water

622. When Portland cement contains a low C3A, it means
Answer: the setting time is larger

623. Surplus lime [Ca(OH)2] in Portland cement when mixed with water takes care of the concretes
Answer: alkalinity

624. Coarse aggregates can be taken from
Answer: crushed rock, slags and river gravel

625. The water required for concrete mix should be
Answer: fresh water

626. Sea water is deleterious to concrete mix unless on admixture is added because it contains
Answer: chloride

627. The entrapped air in concrete is
Answer: accidental and unwanted

628. The entrained air in concrete is
Answer: deliberate and desirable

629. We use aggregate in concrete as
Answer: filler materials in concrete

630. Aggregates are important in concrete because they strongly influence:
Answer: the properties of concrete, its mix proportion and its economy

631. Which of the following is not deleterious material to concrete?
Answer:
a. calcium
b. chloride
c. coal
d. sulphate

632. Over sanded and under sanded mixture require more water to be workable, but making it so will only result to
sacrifice in
Answer: strength

633. Concrete in the area represented by the cores will be considered adequate if the average strength of the cores is equal to
or at least _____ of the specified strength, fc and no single core is less than _____
Answer: 85% of fc, 75% of fc

634. Fine aggregate shall be rejected when it fails in the _____ for organic impurities
Answer: Colormatic Test

635. Portland cement may be/shall be rejected if:
Answer: it has partially set, it contains lumps of cake cement and it comes from a discarded or used bag

636. A measurement of the coarseness or fineness of aggregates
Answer: fineness modulus

637. An excess water needed for absorption of coarse aggregates
Answer: free water

638. What do you mean by SSD?
Answer: Saturated Surface Dry

639. A general term relating to the character of a mix with respect to its fluidity
Answer: consistency

640. More silt and clay content to fine aggregates is
Answer: objectionable

641. Type A admixture is classified by ASTM C494 as
Answer: Water reducing admixture
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642. For core specimens, each lot will be divided into how many equal segments?
Answer: five (5)

643. The unit pressure greater than which progressive settlement occur leading to failure
Answer: bearing capacity

644. The recommended thickness of hot mixed asphalt overlay
Answer: 2

645. In the test to determine the moisture content of samples, the beam balance should be sensitive up to
Answer: 0.1g

646. If a sample can not be weighed within the prescribed time after being removed from the oven, it will placed inside a
Answer: dessicator

647. Plastic and finely grain soil will require at least how many hours to dry ay constant weight/mass
Answer: 4 hours

648. A sample may be cooled at room humidity and must be weighed after it has been removed from the oven within
Answer: 1 hour

649. Drying the material sample in the oven to constant weight at a prescribe temperature; the drying time depends on the
kind of soil and size of sample. A 25-gram sample of sandy material will be dried in about
Answer: 2 hours

650. Test conducted for buildings 3 storeys and above
Answer: Boring Test

651. A test to determine the moisture content of soil
Answer: calcium tri chloride

652. The aggregate crushing value of strong aggregate is
Answer: low

653. The kind of asphalt used in overlaying seated pavement
Answer: hot mix asphalt

654. The minimum width of paved sidewalk
Answer: 1.5 m

655. The limit of water cement ratio of concrete
Answer: 0.50 0.60

656. A cement which has a cementitious effect
Answer: Portland cement

657. A concrete where compression is induced before the application of working load so that tension under these loads is
reduced
Answer: Pre stressing

658. What laboratory test is used in determining the phosphorus content of steel materials?
Answer: Phospho - molydate

659. What chemical property in the composition of steel material that will cause brittleness or cold shortness when its content
goes beyond 0.05% to 0.10%
Answer: phosphorous

660. Base or sub base is extended beyond each edge of proposed concrete pavement
Answer: 0.60 m

661. If you want to adjust the slump and the air content, how do you it?
Answer:
10 mm slump = 2 kg/m
3
from (water)
air entrapment = 3 kg/ m
3
of average (water)

662. In non entrained concrete, what is the range of % air entrained?
Answer: 3% - 0.2% (small bigger aggregates)

663. In air entrained concrete, what is the range of % air entrained?
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Answer: 8% - 3% (small bigger aggregates)

664. For a constant water cement ratio, what will happen if air content is involved?
Answer: the strength of concrete is reduced

665. What will happen if you lower the water cement ratio and maintaining other values of its ingredients?
Answer: it will acquire strength

666. What is the mixing time of concrete?
Answer:
1.5 m
3
capacity mixer, T 60 seconds
Above1.5 m
3
capacity mixer, T 90 seconds


667. When cement is in contact with moist aggregates, batch made by mix will be disallowed beyond ____
Answer: 1 hours

668. How many hours should an aggregate be washed and stockpiled before batching starts?
Answer: 12 hours prior to batching shall be stockpiled or binned for draining

669. When will truck mixing start?
Answer: mixing shall begin within 30 minutes upon cement has due added
15 minutes when wet aggregates is used, as 32C temperature is present

670. Concrete delivered by agitation of truck mixer must be discharged within 1 hour or 250 revolutions of the drum or loader.
Why?
Answer: to avoid over mixing and initial setting of concrete

671. In final computation of concrete in road to be paid, what is the maximum size of pipe that is negligible in the volume
computation?
Answer: pipes with of 4 or less