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Nurse Practice 1
University of Iloilo- College of Nursing
Refresher Drills

1. The most important nursing intervention to
correct skin dryness is:
a. Avoid bathing the patient until the condition is
remedied, and notify the physician
b. Ask the physician to refer the patient to a
dermatologist, and suggest that the patient wear
home-laundered sleepwear
c. Consult the dietitian about increasing the
patients fat intake, and take necessary
measures to prevent infection
d. Encourage the patient to increase his fluid
intake, use nonirritating soap when bathing the
patient, and apply lotion to the involved areas

2. When bathing a patients extremities, the
nurse should use long, firm strokes from the
distal to the proximal areas. This technique:
a. Provides an opportunity for skin assessment
b. Avoids undue strain on the nurse
c. Increases venous blood return
d. Causes vasoconstriction and increases

3. Vivid dreaming occurs in which stage of
a. Stage I non-REM
b. Rapid eye movement (REM) stage
c. Stage II non-REM
d. Delta stage

4. The natural sedative in meat and milk
products (especially warm milk) that can help
induce sleep is:
a. Flurazepam
b. Temazepam
c. Tryptophan
d. Methotrimeprazine

5. Nursing interventions that can help the patient
to relax and sleep restfully include all of the
following except:
a. Have the patient take a 30- to 60-minute nap
in the afternoon
b. Turn on the television in the patients room
c. Provide quiet music and interesting reading
d. Massage the patients back with long strokes

6. Restraints can be used for all of the following
purposes except to:
a. Prevent a confused patient from removing
tubes, such as feeding tubes, I.V. lines, and
urinary catheters
b. Prevent a patient from falling out of bed or a
c. Discourage a patient from attempting to
ambulate alone when he requires assistance for
his safety
d. Prevent a patient from becoming confused or

7. Which of the following is the nurses legal
responsibility when applying restraints?
a. Document the patients behavior
b. Document the type of restraint used
c. Obtain a written order from the physician
except in an emergency, when the patient must
be protected from injury to himself or others
d. All of the above

8. Kubler-Rosss five successive stages of death
and dying are:
a. Anger, bargaining, denial, depression,
b. Denial, anger, depression, bargaining,
c. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression
d. Bargaining, denial, anger, depression,

9. A terminally ill patient usually experiences all
of the following feelings during the anger stage
a. Rage
b. Envy
c. Numbness
d. Resentment

10. Which is the correct procedure for collecting
a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity
a. Have the patient place the specimen in a
container and enclose the container in a plastic
b. Have the patient expectorate the sputum
while the nurse holds the container
c. Have the patient expectorate the sputum into
a sterile container
d. Offer the patient an antiseptic mouthwash just
before he expectorate the sputum

11. The best way to decrease the risk of
transferring pathogens to a patient when
removing contaminated gloves is to:
a. Wash the gloves before removing them
b. Gently pull on the fingers of the gloves when
removing them
c. Gently pull just below the cuff and invert the
gloves when removing them
d. Remove the gloves and then turn them inside

12. After having an I.V. line in place for 72
hours, a patient complains of tenderness,
burning, and swelling. Assessment of the I.V.
site reveals that it is warm and erythematons.
This usually indicates:
a. Infection
b. Infiltration
c. Phlebitis
d. Bleeding

13. How should the nurse prepare an injection
for a patient who takes both regular and NPH
a. Draw up the NPH insulin, then the regular
insulin, in the same syringe
b. Draw up the regular insulin, then the NPH
insulin, in the same syringe
c. Use two separate syringe
d. Check with the physician

14. A patient has just received 30 mg of codeine
by mouth for pain. Five minutes later he vomits.
What should the nurse do first?
a. Call the physician
b. Remedicate the patient
c. Observe the emesis
d. Explain to the patient that she can do nothing
to help him

15. Nurse Brenda is teaching a patient about a
newly prescribed drug. What could cause a
geriatric patient to have difficulty retaining
knowledge about prescribed medications?
a. Decreased plasma drug levels
b. Sensory deficits
c. Lack of family support
d. History of Tourette syndrome
16. When examining a patient with abdominal
pain the nurse in charge should assess:
a. Any quadrant first
b. The symptomatic quadrant first
c. The symptomatic quadrant last
d. The symptomatic quadrant either second or

17. The nurse is assessing a postoperative adult
patient. Which of the following should the nurse
document as subjective data?
a. Vital signs
b. Laboratory test result
c. Patients description of pain
d. Electrocardiographic (ECG) waveforms

18. Which of the following planes divides the
body longitudinally into anterior and posterior
a. Frontal plane
b. Sagittal plane
c. Midsagittal plane
d. Transverse plane

19. A female patient with a terminal illness is in
denial. Indicators of denial include:
a. Shock dismay
b. Numbness
c. Stoicism
d. Preparatory grief

20. The nurse in charge is transferring a patient
from the bed to a chair. Which action does the
nurse take during this patient transfer?
a. Position the head of the bed flat
b. Helps the patient dangle the legs
c. Stands behind the patient
d. Places the chair facing away from the bed

21. She is the first one to coin the term
NURSING PROCESS She introduced 3 steps
of nursing process which are Observation,
Ministration and Validation.
A. Nightingale
B. Johnson
C. Rogers
D. Hall

22. The American Nurses association
formulated an innovation of the Nursing process.
Today, how many distinct steps are there in the
nursing process?

23. They are the first one to suggest a 4 step

nursing process which are : APIE , or
assessment, planning, implementation and
1. Yura
2. Walsh
3. Roy
4. Knowles

A. 1,2
B. 1,3
C. 3,4
D. 2,3

24. Which characteristic of nursing process is
responsible for proper utilization of human
resources, time and cost resources?
A. Organized and Systematic
B. Humanistic
C. Efficient
D. Effective

25. Which characteristic of nursing process
addresses the INDIVIDUALIZED care a client
must receive?
A. Organized and Systematic
B. Humanistic
C. Efficient
D. Effective

26. A characteristic of the nursing process that is
essential to promote client satisfaction and
progress. The care should also be relevant with
the clients needs.
A. Organized and Systematic
B. Humanistic
C. Efficient
D. Effective

27. Rhina, who has Menieres disease, said that
her environment is moving. Which of the
following is a valid assessment?
1. Rhina is giving an objective data
2. Rhina is giving a subjective data
3. The source of the data is primary
4. The source of the data is secondary

A. 1,3
B. 2,3
C. 2.4
D. 1,4

28. Nurse Angela, observe Joel who is very
apprehensive over the impending operation. The
client is experiencing dyspnea, diaphoresis and
asks lots of questions. Angela made a diagnosis
This is what type of Nursing Diagnosis?
A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk

29. Nurse Angela diagnosed Mrs. Delgado, who
have undergone a BKA. Her diagnosis is SELF
BODY IMAGE. Although the client has not yet
seen her lost leg, Angela already anticipated the
diagnosis. This is what type of Diagnosis?
A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk

30. Nurse Angela is about to make a diagnosis
but very unsure because the S/S the client is
experiencing is not specific with her diagnosis of
focus on gathering data to refute or prove her
diagnosis but her plans and interventions are
already ongoing for the diagnosis. Which type of
Diagnosis is this?
A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk

31. Nurse Angela knew that Stephen Lee Mu
Chin, has just undergone an operation with an
incision near the diaphragm. She knew that this
will contribute to some complications later on.
She then should develop what type of Nursing
A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk

32. Which of the following Nursing diagnosis is
A. Fluid volume deficit R/T Diarrhea
B. High risk for injury R/T Absence of side
C. Possible ineffective coping R/T Loss of loved
D. Self-esteem disturbance R/T Effects of
surgical removal of the leg

33. Among the following statements, which
should be given the HIGHEST priority?
A. Client is in extreme pain
B. Clients blood pressure is 60/40

C. Clients temperature is 40 deg. Centigrade
D. Client is cyanotic

34. Which of the following need is given a higher
priority among others?
A. The client has attempted suicide and safety
precaution is needed
B. The client has disturbance in his body image
because of the recent operation
C. The client is depressed because her
boyfriend left her all alone
D. The client is thirsty and dehydrated

35. Which of the following is TRUE with regards
to Client Goals?
A. They are specific, measurable, attainable and
time bounded
B. They are general and broadly stated
C. They should answer for WHO, WHAT
D. Example is : After discharge planning, Client
demonstrated the proper psychomotor skills for
insulin injection.

36. Which of the following is a NOT a correct
statement of an Outcome criteria?
A. Ambulates 30 feet with a cane before
B. Discusses fears and concerns regarding the
surgical procedure
C. Demonstrates proper coughing and breathing
technique after a teaching session
D. Reestablishes a normal pattern of

37. Which of the following is a OBJECTIVE
A. Dizziness
B. Chest pain
C. Anxiety
D. Blue nails

38. A patients chart is what type of data source?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Can be A and B

39. All of the following are characteristic of the
Nursing process except
A. Dynamic
B. Cyclical
C. Universal
D. Intrapersonal

40. Which of the following is true about the
A. It is nursing centered
B. Rationales are supported by interventions
C. Verbal
D. Atleast 2 goals are needed for every nursing

SITUATION : Aling Brea, a 32 year old fish
vendor from Barangay Wisteria Lane came
to see you at the prenatal clinic. She brought
with her all her three children. Maye, 1 year
and 6 months; Joy, 3 and Dan, 7 years old.
She mentioned that she stopped taking oral
contraceptives several months ago and now
suspects she is pregnant. She cannot
remember her LMP.
41. Which of the following would be useful in
calculating Aling Brea's EDC?
A. Appearance of linea negra
B. First FHT by fetoscope
C. Increase pulse rate
D. Presence of edema

42. Which hormone is necessary for a positive
pregnancy test?
A. Progesterone
C. Estrogen
D. Placental Lactogen

43. With this pregnancy, Aling Brea is a
A. P3 G3
B. Primigravida
C. P3 G4
D. P0 G3

44. In explaining the development of her baby,
you identified in chronological order of growth of
the fetus as it occurs in pregnancy as
A. Ovum, embryo, zygote, fetus, infant
B. Zygote, ovum, embryo, fetus, infant
C. Ovum, zygote, embryo, fetus, infant
D. Zygote, ovum, fetus, embryo, infant

45. Aling Brea states she is happy to be
pregnant. Which behavior is elicited by her
during your assessment that would lead you to
think she is stressed?
A. She told you about her drunk husband
B. She states she has very meager income from
C. She laughs at every advise you give even
when its not funny
D. She has difficulty following instructions


46. When teaching Aling Brea about her
pregnancy, you should include personal
common discomforts. Which of the following is
an indication for prompt professional
A. Constipation and hemorrhoids
B. Backache
C. Facial edema
D. frequent urination

47. Which of the following statements would be
appropriate for you to include in Aling Brea's
prenatal teaching plan?
A. Exercise is very tiresome, it should be
B. Limit your food intake
C. Smoking has no harmful effect on the growth
and development of fetus
D. Avoid unnecessary fatigue, rest periods
should be included in your schedule

48. The best advise you can give to Aling Brea
regarding prevention of varicosities is
A. Raise the legs while in upright position and
put it against the wall several times a day
B. Lay flat for most hours of the day
C. Use garters with nylon stocking
D. Wear support hose

49. In a 32 day menstrual cycle, ovulation
usually occurs on the
A. 14th day after menstruation
B. 18th day after menstruation
C. 20th day after menstruation
D. 24th day after menstruation

50. Placenta is the organ that provides
exchange of nutrients and waste products
between mother and fetus. This develops by
A. First month
B. Third month
C. Fifth month
D. Seventh month

51. In evaluating the weight gain of Aling Brea,
you know the minimum weight gain during
pregnancy is
A. 2 lbs/wk
B. 5 lbs/wk
C. 7 lbs/wk
D. 10 lbs/wk

52. The more accurate method of measuring
fundal height is
A. Millimeter
B. Centimeter
C. Inches
D. Fingerbreadths

53. To determine fetal position using Leopold's
maneuvers, the first maneuver is to
A. Determine degree of cephalic flexion and
B. Determine part of fetus presenting into pelvis
C. Locate the back,arms and legs
D. Determine what part of fetus is in the fundus

54. Aling Brea has encouraged her husband to
attend prenatal classes with her. During the
prenatal class, the couple expressed fear of pain
during labor and delivery. The use of touch and
soothing voice often promotes comfort to the
laboring patient. This physical intervention is
effective because
A. Pain perception is interrupted
B. Gate control fibers are open
C. It distracts the client away from the pain
D. Empathy is communicated by a caring person

55. Which of the following could be considered
as a positive sign of pregnancy ?
A. Amenorrhea, nausea, vomiting
B. Frequency of urination
C. Braxton hicks contraction
D. Fetal outline by sonography

56. Angela, at her first visit to the prenatal clinic,
states that she has missed three menstrual
periods, thinks she has twins because her
abdomen is so large, but has started to have a
brownish vaginal discharge. Her blood pressure
is elevated indicating that she may have
gestational hypertension. The nurse is aware
that a further assessment is required because
she may have:
A. Renal failure
B. Abruptio placenta
C. Placenta previa
D. H-mole

57. A client at 36 weeks gestation is schedule
for a routine ultrasound prior to an
amniocentesis. After teaching the client about
the purpose for the ultrasound, which of the
following client statements would indicate to the
nurse in charge that the client needs further
a. The ultrasound will help to locate the
b. The ultrasound identifies blood flow through
the umbilical cord
c. The test will determine where to insert the

d. The ultrasound locates a pool of amniotic

58. While the postpartum client is receiving
herapin for thrombophlebitis, which of the
following drugs would the nurse Mica expect to
administer if the client develops complications
related to heparin therapy?
a. Calcium gluconate
b. Protamine sulfate
c. Methylegonovine (Methergine)
d. Nitrofurantoin (macrodantin)

59. When caring for a 3-day-old neonate who is
receiving phototherapy to treat jaundice, the
nurse in charge would expect to do which of the
a. Turn the neonate every 6 hours
b. Encourage the mother to discontinue breast-
c. Notify the physician if the skin becomes
bronze in color
d. Check the vital signs every 2 to 4 hours

60. A primigravida in active labor is about 9 days
post-term. The client desires a bilateral
pudendal block anesthesia before delivery. After
the nurse explains this type of anesthesia to the
client, which of the following locations identified
by the client as the area of relief would indicate
to the nurse that the teaching was effective?
a. Back
b. Abdomen
c. Fundus
d. Perineum

61. You performed the leopolds maneuver and
found the following: breech presentation, fetal
back at the right side of the mother. Based on
these findings, you can hear the fetal heart beat
(PMI) BEST in which location?
A.Left lower quadrant
B.Right lower quadrant
C.Left upper quadrant
D.Right upper quadrant

62. In Leopolds maneuver step #1, you
palpated a soft broad mass that moves with the
rest of the mass. The correct interpretation of
this finding is:
A.The mass palpated at the fundal part is the
head part.
B.The presentation is breech.
C.The mass palpated is the back
D.The mass palpated is the buttocks.

63. In Leopolds maneuver step # 3 you
palpated a hard round movable mass at the
supra pubic area. The correct interpretation is
that the mass palpated is:
A.The buttocks because the presentation is
B.The mass palpated is the head.
C.The mass is the fetal back.
D.The mass palpated is the fetal small part

64. The hormone responsible for a positive
pregnancy test is:
C.Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
D.Follicle Stimulating hormone

65. The hormone responsible for the maturation
of the graafian follicle is:
A.Follicle stimulating hormone
D.Luteinizing hormone

66. The most common normal position of the
fetus in utero is:
A.Transverse position
B.Vertical position
C.Oblique position
D.None of the above

67. In the later part of the 3rd trimester, the
mother may experience shortness of breath.
This complaint maybe explained as:
A.A normal occurrence in pregnancy because
the fetus is using more oxygen
B.The fundus of the uterus is high pushing the
diaphragm upwards
C.The woman is having allergic reaction to the
pregnancy and its hormones
D.The woman maybe experiencing complication
of pregnancy

68. Which of the following findings in a woman
would be consistent with a pregnancy of two
months duration?
A.Weight gain of 6-10 lbs. and presence of
striae gravidarum
B.Fullness of the breast and urinary frequency
C.Braxton Hicks contractions and quickening
D.Increased respiratory rate and ballottement

69. Which of the following is a positive sign of
A.Fetal movement felt by mother

B.Enlargement of the uterus
C.(+) pregnancy test
D.(+) ultrasound

70. What event occurring in the second trimester
helps the expectant mother to accept the

71. Shoes with low, broad heels, plus a good
posture will prevent which prenatal discomfort?
C.Leg cramps

72. When a pregnant woman experiences leg
cramps, the correct nursing intervention to
relieve the muscle cramps is:
A.Allow the woman to exercise
B.Let the woman walk for a while
C.Let the woman lie down and dorsiflex the foot
towards the knees
D.Ask the woman to raise her legs

73. From the 33rd week of gestation till full term,
a healthy mother should have prenatal check up
B.2 weeks
C.3 weeks
D.4 weeks

74. The expected weight gain in a normal
pregnancy during the 3rd trimester is
A.1 pound a week
B.2 pounds a week
C.10 lbs a month
D.10 lbs total weight gain in the 3rd trimester

75. Which of the following conditions will lead to
a small-for-gestational age fetus due to less
blood supply to the fetus?
A.Diabetes in the mother
B.Maternal cardiac condition
C.Premature labor
D.Abruptio placenta
76. The lower limit of viability for infants in terms
of age of gestation is:
A.21-24 weeks
B.25-27 weeks
C.28-30 weeks
D.38-40 weeks

77. Which provision of our 1987 constitution
guarantees the right of the unborn child to life
from conception is
A.Article II section 12
B.Article II section 15
C.Article XIII section 11
D.Article XIII section 15

78. In the Philippines, if a nurse performs
abortion on the mother who wants it done and
she gets paid for doing it, she will be held liable
A.Abortion is immoral and is prohibited by the
B.Abortion is both immoral and illegal in our
C.Abortion is considered illegal because you got
paid for doing it
D.Abortion is illegal because majority in our
country are catholics and it is prohibited by the

79. The preferred manner of delivering the baby
in a gravido-cardiac is vaginal delivery assisted
by forceps under epidural anesthesia. The main
rationale for this is:
A.To allow atraumatic delivery of the baby
B.To allow a gradual shifting of the blood into
the maternal circulation
C.To make the delivery effort free and the
mother does not need to push with contractions
D.To prevent perineal laceration with the
expulsion of the fetal head

80. When giving narcotic analgesics to mother in
labor, the special consideration to follow is:
A.The progress of labor is well established
reaching the transitional stage
B.Uterine contraction is progressing well and
delivery of the baby is imminent
C.Cervical dilatation has already reached at
least 8 cm. and the station is at least (+)2
D.Uterine contractions are strong and the baby
will not be delivered yet within the next 3 hours.

SITUATION: Dervid, A registered nurse,
witnessed an old woman hit by a motorcycle
while crossing a train railway. The old
woman fell at the railway. Dervid Rushed at
the scene.
81. As a registered nurse, Dervid knew that the
first thing that he will do at the scene is

A. Stay with the person, encourage her to
remain still and Immobilize the leg while waiting
for the ambulance.
B. Leave the person for a few moments to call
for help.
C. Reduce the fracture manually.
D. Move the person to a safer place.

82. Dervid suspects a hip fracture when he
noticed that the old womans leg is
A. Lengthened, Abducted and Internally
B. Shortened, Abducted and Externally Rotated.
C. Shortened, Adducted and Internally Rotated.
D. Shortened, Adducted and Externally Rotated.

83. The old woman complains of pain. John
noticed that the knee is reddened, warm to
touch and swollen. These signs and symptoms
are likely related to
A. Infection
C. Thrombophlebitis
B. Inflammation
D. Degenerative disease

84. The old woman told Dervid that she has
osteoporosis; Dervid knew that all of the
following factors would contribute to
osteoporosis except
A. Hypothyroidism
B. End stage renal disease
C. Cushings Disease
D. Taking Furosemide and Phenytoin.

85. Martha, the old woman was now
Immobilized and brought to the emergency
room. The X-ray shows a fractured femur and
pelvis. The ER Nurse would carefully monitor
Martha for which of the following sign and
A. Tachycardia and Hypotension
B. Fever and Bradycardia
C. Bradycardia and Hypertension
D. Fever and Hypertension

SITUATION: Mr. E., An obese 50 year old C.I
of UI-PEN is admitted due to pain in his
weight bearing joint. The diagnosis was
86. As a nurse, you instructed Mr. E. how to use
a cane. Mr. E. has a weakness on his right leg
due to self-immobilization and guarding. You
plan to teach Mr. hold the cane
A. On his left hand, because his right side is
B. On his left hand, because of reciprocal
C. On his right hand, to support the right leg.
D. On his right hand, because only his right leg
is weak.

87. You also told Mr. hold the cane
A. 1 Inches in front of the foot.
B. 3 Inches at the lateral side of the foot.
C. 6 Inches at the lateral side of the foot.
D. 12 Inches at the lateral side of the foot.

88. Mr. E. was discharged and 6 months later,
he came back to the emergency room of the
hospital because he suffered a mild stroke. The
right side of the brain was affected. At the
rehabilitative phase of your nursing care, you
observe Mr. E. use a cane and you intervene if
you see him
A. Moves the cane when the right leg is moved.
B. Leans on the cane when the right leg swings
C. keeps the cane 6 Inches out to the side of the
right foot.
D. Holds the cane on the right side.

SITUATION: Alfred, a 40 year old
construction worker developed cough, night
sweats and fever. He was brought to the
nursing unit for diagnostic studies. He told
the nurse he did not receive a BCG vaccine
during childhood
89. The nurse performs a Mantoux Test. The
nurse knows that Mantoux Test is also known as

90. The nurse would inject the solution in what

91. The nurse notes that a positive result for
Alfred is
A. 5 mm wheal
B. 5 mm Induration
C. 10 mm Wheal
D. 10 mm Induration

92. The nurse told Alfred to come back after
A. a week
B. 48 hours

C. 1 day
D. 4 days

93. Mang Alfred returns after the Mantoux Test.
The test result read POSITIVE. What should be
the nurses next action?
A. Call the Physician
B. Notify the radiology dept. for CXR evaluation
C. Isolate the patient
D. Order for a sputum exam

94. Why is Mantoux test not routinely done in
the Philippines?
A. It requires a highly skilled nurse to perform a
Mantoux test
B. The sputum culture is the gold standard of
PTB Diagnosis and it will definitively determine
the extent of the cavitary lesions
C. Chest X Ray Can diagnose the specific
microorganism responsible for the lesions
D. Almost all Filipinos will test positive for
Mantoux Test

95. Mang Alfred is now a new TB patient with an
active disease. What is his category according
to the DOH?
A. I

96. How long is the duration of the maintenance
phase of his treatment?
A. 2 months
B. 3 months
C. 4 months
D. 5 months

97. Which of the following drugs is UNLIKELY
given to Mang Alfred during the maintenance
A. Rifampicin
B. Isoniazid
C. Ethambutol
D. Pyridoxine

98. According to the DOH, the most hazardous
period for development of clinical disease is
during the first
A. 6-12 months after
B. 3-6 months after
C. 1-2 months after
D. 2-4 weeks after

99. This is the name of the program of the DOH
to control TB in the country
B. National Tuberculosis Control Program
C. Short Coursed Chemotherapy
D. Expanded Program for Immunization

100. Susceptibility for the disease [ TB ] is
increased markedly in those with the following
condition except
A. 23 Year old athlete with diabetes insipidus
B. 23 Year old athlete taking long term
Decadron therapy and anabolic steroids
C. 23 Year old athlete taking illegal drugs and
abusing substances
D. Undernourished and Underweight individual
who undergone gastrectomy