Herpesviruses:

1. A 25 year old male with a history of AIDS presents with red purple plaques on his
food and the tip of his nose. The lesions are caused by:
A. HSV
B. CMV
C. EBV
D. HHV-8

2. A 24 year old nurse developed painful blisters on her middle finer. What is the
diagnosis?
A. Varicella
B. Varicella zoster
C. Herpetic whitflow
D. Human herpes virus-7

3. The initial infection with HMCV most commonly occurs:
A. During early childhood, by exchange of body fluids
B. In utero by transplacental transmission from a latently infected pregnant
woman
C. By sexual intercourse
D. As a result of blood transfusion or organ transplantation

4. asymptomatic virus shedding NOT an important factor in the transmission of
the virus?
A. HHV-6
B. HSV
C. VZV
D. EBV

5. Ramsay Hunt syndrome, a symptoms of herpes zoster, develops due to
A. Extensive invasion of herpes zoster virus
B. Invasion of both motor and sensory nerve fibers
C. Involvement of seventh cranial nerve and geniculate ganglion
D. Affects young and immunodeficients

6. A 32 year old HIV infected male is noted to have acute cytomegalovirus infection
causing acute gastrointestinal symptoms. The treating physician has ordered that
antiviral therapy be administered. Which of the following is most likely to be
targeted by the antiviral agent?
A. Protease cleavage
B. Nuclear transport of virus
C. Viral-cell fusion
D. Synthesis of viral DNA
Healthcare-associated infections:
7. Which of the following is a risk factor for the given nosocomial infection?
A. Central line-associated bloodstream infections insertion at femoral
vein
B. Catheter-related urinary tract infection young male
C. Ventilator-associated pneumonia lower abdominal surgery
D. Surgical site infection clean surgery

8. All of the following are factors known to be associated with an increased risk for
surgical site infection EXCEPT
A. Hypothermia during surgery
B. Poorly controlled blood glucose in the perioperative period
C. Colonization with Staphylococcus aureus
D. Positive pressure airflow in the operating room

9. When attempting to diagnose a CLABSI, two sets of blood samples should be
drawn for culture. The proper sites to culture are:
A. One from a catheter hub, the other from a peripheral source
B. Two different peripheral sources
C. Both from a catheter hub
D. Five from a catheter hub, one from a peripheral source

10. Which type of isolation precaution should you initiate in a patient with
meningococcemia?
A. Protective isolation
B. Standard airborne infection isolation
C. Standard and droplet precautions
D. Standard contact precautions

11. Which finding would not lead to culturing a patient for VAP?
A. New or changing infiltrate on chest x-ray
B. Leukocytosis
C. Macroscopic purulent sputum
D. Hypoxia

12. What is one of the highest quality cultures for VAP?
A. Bronchoalveolar lavage cultures
B. Endotracheal aspirate
C. Tracheal aspirate
D. Upper airway cultures
Sexually transmitted infections:
13. Treatment of genital ulcers may begin before lab results are available and they
are characteristic signs of:
A. Scabies
B. Genital herpes
C. Chlamydial infections
D. Trichomoniasis

14. Patients need to know that genital warts are a characteristic sign of:
A. HPV infection
B. Secondary syphilis
C. Pubic lice
D. HIV infection

15. Which of the following is more likely to lead to serious PID with lasting scarring?
A. Gonorrhea
B. Chlamydia
C. Syphilis
D. Herpes

16. Which of the following is more likely to be associated with risk of major organ
damage or death after treatment with antibiotics is no longer helpful?
A. Gonorrhea
B. Chlamydia
C. Syphilis
D. Herpes

17. A characteristic of symptomatic trichomoniasis is:
A. Skin or mucous membrane ulcers with necrotic bases and ragged edges
B. Vaginitis or urethritis with a copious white, yellow or grayish
discharge
C. Dome-shaped skin papules with a tiny dimple (umbilication) in the center
D. Skin or mucous membrane ulcers with smooth bases and firm (indurated)
raised edge

18. These STDs can be transmitted to a newborn at birth by transmission of an
infected vagina:
A. HIV and molluscum contagiosum virus
B. Scabies and pubic lice
C. Gonorrhea and Chlamydia
D. Hepatitis A and B
Sepsis:
19. Diagnostic criteria for sepsis include:
A. Temperature of 36.5C
B. Heart rate greater than 90 beats per minute
C. Respiratory rate less than 20 breaths per minute
D. Leukocyte count between 5,000 and 11,000 cells/mm
3


20. One characteristic of organ dysfunction is:
A. Polyuria
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Gradual and subtle changes in mental status
D. A ratio of arterial oxygen tension to fraction of inspired oxygen of 380 or
more

21. A major cause of sepsis among hospitalized severely ill patients is:
A. Malignancy
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Intestinal ulceration
D. Nosocomial infection

22. The role of the coagulation system in the sepsis-induced inflammatory:
A. Upregulation fibrinolysis
B. Blocking further inflammation
C. Downregulating the anticoagulant system
D. All of the above

23. The common manifestations of sepsis are seen in all of the following organ
systems, EXCEPT:
A. Skeletal
B. Pulmonary
C. Cardiovascular
D. Central Nervous System

24. What drugs are the first choices to restore blood pressure and perfusion in the
patient with sepsis?
A. Dobutamine or vasopressin
B. Norepinephrine or dopamine
C. Phenylephrine or epinephrine
D. Chlorpromazine or pseudoephedrine
Rational antibiotic use:
25. An emergency room doctor was given rifampicin 600mg twice a day for three
days after intubating a patient with meningococcemia. The antibiotic was
indicated as:
A. Definitive treatment
B. Empiric treatment
C. Prophylactic treatment
D. A and C

26. Which of the following combination do not exemplify synergy?
A. Penicillin + chloramphenicol
B. Co-amoxiclavulanic acid
C. Cotrimoxazole
D. Ceftazidime + amikacin

27. Which of the following have prolonged post-antibiotic effect?
A. Meropenem
B. Clindamycin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Levofloxacin

28. Which of the following antibiotics have NO coverage for Pseudomonas
aeruginosa?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Ceftazidime
C. Ertapenem
D. Piperacillin-tazobactam

29. Which of the following quinolone is not suitable for treatment of UTI?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Ofloxacin
C. Levofloxacin
D. Moxifloxacin

30. Which of the following is not used for pneumonia against MRSA?
A. Vancomycin
B. Tigocycline
C. Daptomycin
D. Linezolid