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Air Law and ATC Procedures

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01 Visual Flight Rules Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, VFR flights shall not take
0 off or land at an aerodrome within a CTR or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern when
the

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ceiling is less than 1


500 ft or the ground
visibility is less than 5
km.

ceiling is less than 1 000 ceiling is less than 2


ft or the ground visibility 000 ft or the ground
is less than 5 km.
visibility is less than 5
km.

01 Authority The final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft has the:
0

Pilot-in-command.

aircraft owner.

01 Avoidance of collisions The highest priority for landing has:


0

an aircraft that is
compelled to land
(Emergency landing).

ATC controller whenever


the aircraft is flying in
controlled airspace.
a military aircraft.

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ceiling is less
than 1 000 ft or
the ground
visibility is less
than 8 km.
Operator.

01 The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "B" above 10 000 feet MSL are:
0

clear of clouds; 8 km
visibility

01 Visual Flight Rules Above an altitude of 10000 ft, flights operating within airspace Class "G" in
0 accordance with VFR shall observe the following weather minima:

a distance from cloud:


1500 m horizontally,
1000 ft vertically, flight
visibility: 8 km.

01 A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air
0 Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or
minus:
01 Interception An aircraft equipped with SSR transponder which is intercepted by another aircraft shall
0 immediately, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic service unit, select Mode A
01 Interception An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to
0 establish radio-communication with the intercepting aircraft or with the appropriate intercept control
unit, by making a general call on the frequency

5%

an aircraft on a
an Air
diplomatic flight (Head Ambulance
of state).
carrying a very
sick person
needing
immediate
medical
attention.
a distance from cloud of a distance from cloud of a distance from
1000 m horizontally and 1500 m horizontally and cloud of 600 m
1000 ft vertically and a
1000 ft vertically and a horizontally and
flight visibility of 5 km.
flight visibility of 8 km. 1000 ft
vertically and a
flight visibility
of 5 km.
1 mile horizontally and 1 2 000 metres
1 nautical mile
000 feet vertically from horizontally, 1 000 feet horizontally and
clouds; 5 km visibility
vertically from clouds; 8 1 000 feet
km visibility
vertically from
clouds; 8 km
visibility
a distance from cloud:
a distance from cloud: 1 a distance from
1500 m horizontally,
Nautical Mile (NM)
cloud: 1
1000 ft vertically, flight
horizontally, 1000 ft
Nautical Mile
visibility: 5 km.
vertically, flight
(NM)
visibility: 5 km.
horizontally,
1000 ft
vertically, flight
visibility: 8 km.
3%
2%
10 %

Code 7700.

Code 7500.

Code 7600.

121.5 MHz. If no
contact has been
established, and if
practicable, repeat this
call on the frequency
243 MHz.

121.5 MHz. If no contact


has been established,
and if practicable, repeat
this call on the frequency
125.5 MHz.

121.5 MHz. If no contact 243 MHz. If no


has been established, contact has
and if practicable,
been
repeat this call on the established,
frequency 282.8 MHz. and if
practicable,
repeat this call
on the
frequency
125.5 MHz.
Circling the intercepted Rocking aircraft
aircraft in a counterand flashing

01 Visual Flight Rules An aircraft operating in accordance with VFR, above the sea at altitudes between a distance from cloud
0 4500 ft and 9000 ft AMSL, outside controlled airspace shall maintain at least
of 1500 m horizontally
and 1000 ft vertically
and a flight visibility of
5 km.

01 Interception, DAY or NIGHT Which manoeuvre will be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot An abrupt break-away
0 of this aircraft wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED"?
manoeuvre from the

Rocking aircraft twice in


front of the intercepting

Code 7000.

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Air Law and ATC Procedures


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intercepted aircraft
consisting of a climbing
turn of 90 degrees or
more without crossing
the line of flight of the
intercepted aircraft.
The repeated switching
on and off of the
landing lights

aircraft, after
acknowledgement by
intercepted aircraft a
slow level turn (normally
to the left).

clockwise pattern for


aeroplanes, in a
clockwise pattern for
helicopter.

navigational
lights at regular
intervals.

Switching on and off


three times the landing
lights

Switching on and off


four times the landing
lights

01 If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common


0 language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request
the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing?
01 If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common
0 language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to
communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received?
01 A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
0

Descend

Let down

You land

Switching on
and off four
times the
navigation
lights
Descend for
landing

CAN NOT

CAN NOT COMPLY

UNABLE TO COMPLY

The airport is unsafe,


do not land

The airport is temporarily Give way to other


closed, continue circling aircraft in emergency

01 On aerodromes aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to:
0

aircraft taking off or


about to take off

01 Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft flying
0 IFR outside controlled airspace?

1 000 feet above the


highest obstacle within
8 kilometres of the
estimated position of
the aircraft

01 Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft "B" with
0 no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course.
Which has the right of way?

Aircraft "B" if "A" is on


its left

01 Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?
0

Adjust the heading of


aircraft to regain track
as soon as practicable

01 Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio
0 failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?

01 While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What The appropriate ATC
0 action must be taken?
unit shall be notified of
the action taken as
soon as circumstances
permit
01 A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
Raise arm and hand,
0
with fingers extended,
horizontally in front of
body , then clench fist

NOT POSSIBLE

Continue
circling and
wait for further
instructions
other vehicles and
other converging
all vehicles
pedestrians
aircraft
moving on the
apron except
the "follow me"
vehicle
2 000 feet above the
1 000 feet above the
2 000 feet
highest obstacle within 8 highest obstacle within above the
kilometres of course
8 nautical miles of
highest
course
obstacle within
8 nautical miles
of course
Aircraft "A" if "B" is on its Aircraft "A" regardless Aircraft "B"
right
of the direction which
regardless of
"B" is approaching
the direction
"A" is
approaching
Inform the ATC unit
If VMC, maintain this
Notify ATC of
immediately
condition, waiting for
the new track
the ATC instructions
immediately
and comply
with
instructions
Request an amended
Submit a detailed report Squawk 7700
clearance or cancel the
to ATC within 24 hours
IFR flight plan

Arms down , palms facing Crossing arms extended


inwards, moving arms
above his head
from extended position
inwards.

Horizontally
moving his
hands, fingers
extended,
palms toward
ground

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01 An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the
0 sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be
followed is:

01 A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:


0

01 Definitions (ICAO Doc 8168) What is: A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach
0 between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach
track. The tracks are not reciprocal.
01 OCA An OCA is referenced to:
0
01 Definitions What is: A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by
0 a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of
the designated track:
01 Circling approach One of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is:
0

01 Holding procedures If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal
0 conditions laid down for any particular holding pattern, he should:

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land on the closest


adopt a VFR flight level
appropriate aerodrome, and continue flight onto
then advise Air Traffic destination
Services of landing

continue flight onto


destination, complying
with last received
clearances then with
filed flight plan.

Not with standing any Come back and land.


previous instructions,
do not land for the time
being.
Base turn
Procedure turn

Give way to another


aircraft and hold the
circuit.

descend to Enroute Minimum


Safe Altitude
and join closest
airfield open to
IFR operations
Dangerous
airfield. Do not
land.

Reversal procedure

Race track

Mean Sea Level


Procedure turn.

The required visual


references have been
established and can be
maintained.
advise ATC as early as
possible.

01 Holding procedures (outbound time) The outbound time in a holding pattern at 14000 ft or below in
0 still air conditions is:
01 Holding procedures (entry) You have received instructions to hold over a radio fix. The published
0 procedure is: All turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound Magnetic Track 052. You are
approaching the fix on Magnetic Track 232. Select the appropriate entry procedure:
01 Holding procedures (outbound time) The outbound time in a holding pattern above 14000 ft in still
0 air conditions is:
01 Altimeter setting (change during climb) On flights in accordance with IFR, the change of the
0 altimeter setting from QNH to Standard shall be made at the:
01 AIP Which part contains a brief description of areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is
0 provided?
01 AIP Which part of the AIP gives detailed information about refuelling facilities and the fuel grades
0 available?
01 AIP Which part of the AIP contains information relating to existing prohibited, restricted and danger
0 areas?

1 minute.

01 A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or
0 legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:
01 A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures
0 and distributed in advance of its effective date is:
01 Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for
0 areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall
include the preparation and origination of:
01 "Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using
0 instrument approach procedures.

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the Aerodrome Reference the relevant Runway


Point
Threshold
Base turn.
Race track.

an Aerodrome
Elevation
Reversal track.

The landing runway and The horizontal Visibility The Ceiling is


an alternative landing
is at least 5 NM and the 1500 ft or
possibility (runway) are in Ceiling is 1500 ft or
higher.
sight.
higher.
execute a non-standard remain within the
follow the radio
holding pattern in
protected area, but may communication
accordance with the
deviate from the
failure
performance of his
prescribed holding.
procedure.
aeroplane.
2 minutes.
1,5 minutes.
30 seconds.

either offset or parallel. offset only.

parallel or direct.

direct only.

1 minute 30 seconds.

1 minute.

2 minutes.

transition altitude.

transition layer.

transition level.

GEN

ENR

METEO

2 minutes 30
seconds.
level specified
by ATC.
AD

AD

ENR

GEN

FAL

ENR

GEN

AD

Aeronautical
Information Circular
(AIC).
An AIRAC.

Aeronautical Information NOTAM.


Publication (AIP).

The AIP does


not contain this
information
AIRAC.

A NOTAM RAC.

Integrated Aeronautical Only AIP and NOTAMs.


Information Package.

An ATS NOTAM.
AIP, NOTAMs, Circular
and AIRAC.

Non precision approach Precision approach


Instrument approach
runways, precision
runways category I, II and runways, precision

An Advisory
NOTAM.
Only NOTAMs
and Circulars.
Precision
approach

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01 "Code letter D" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer main gear
0 wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be:
01 "TODA" take-off distance available is:
0

01 "Clearway" is defined rectangular area established to:


0

01 Which "code letter" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having a wheel
0 base of 15 m?
01 According to the "Aerodrome Reference Code", the "Code Letter E" shall identify an aircraft wing
0 span of:
01 In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 shall identify:
0
01 The "Aerodrome Reference Code" is a code composed of two elements which are related to the
0 aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a
number and a letter as in the example under listed:
01 According with the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the "Code number 4" shall identify an aircraft
0 reference field length of:
01 The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available
0 prepared as a suitable area where:

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approach runways
category I, II and III.
18 m.

III.

The length of the takeoff run available plus


the length of clearway
available (if provided).

The length of the runway


available plus the length
of clearway available (if
provided).

Permit aircraft to make


a portion of its initial
climb to a specific
height.
Code letter "C".
52 m up to but not
including 65 m.

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approach runways
category I, II and III.
23 m.

runways in
general.
25 m.

Reduce the risk of


damage to aircraft
running off a runway.

The length of the takeoff run available plus


the length of the stop
way and clearway (if
provided).
Protect aircraft during
take-off or landing
operations.

Code letter "B".

Code letter "D".

The length of
the take-off run
available plus
the length of
the stop way.
Permit the
aircraft to stop
if it fails the
take-off.
Code letter "E".

36 m up to but not
including 52 m.

24 m up to but not
including 36 m.

15 m.

The aircraft wing span Only the aircraft wing


and the outer main
span.
gear wheel span.
2B.
6D.

15 m up to but
not including
24 m.
The width of the aircraft The length of
wing.
the aircraft
fuselage.
5E.
4F.

1 800 m and over.

1 500 m.

1 600 m.

An aircraft can be
A landing aircraft can be A landing aircraft can
stopped in the case of stopped if overcoming
be stopped only in
an abandoned take-off. the end of runway.
emergency.

01 "ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:


0

The length of the takeoff run available plus


the length of stop way
(if stop way provided) .

01 How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following a normal glide
0 path defined by a PAPI?
01 Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:
0
01 In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be:
0

2.

The length of the runway The length of the takeplus the length of stop
off run available plus
way available (if stop way the length of stop way
provided).
and clearway (if
provided) .
3.
None.

Fixed lights showing


green.
Fixed lights showing
variable white.

Fixed lights showing blue. Fixed lights showing


yellow.
Flashing lights showing
Fixed lights showing
variable white.
variable green.

01 The abbreviation PAPI stands for:


0
01 The "PAPI" shall consist of:
0

01 In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red
0 and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:
01 In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented:
0

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1 200 m.
An aircraft
taking-off or
landing can be
stopped.
The length of
the take-off run
available plus
the length of
the clearway.
1.

Fixed lights
showing white.
Flashing lights
showing
variable green.
Precision Approach
Precision Approach Path Precision Approach
Precision
Path Indicator.
Index.
Power Indicator.
Approach
Power Index.
A wing bar of 4 sharp Two wing bars of 4 sharp Two wing bars of 6
A wing bar of 2
transition multi-lamp or transition multi-lamp or sharp transition multi- sharp transition
paired units equally
paired units equally
lamp or paired units
multi-lamp
spaced.
spaced.
equally spaced.
equally spaced.
On or close to the
Above the approach
Below the approach
Only on the
approach slope.
slope.
slope.
approach slope.
By a letter - for
By a number like "0" and By a letter for 2 parallel By a letter - for
example 2 parallel
"01" for 2 parallel
runways.
example 3

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01 Taxiway edge lights shall be:


0
01 Runway end lights shall be:
0

01 Runway threshold lights shall be:


0

01 Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:
0
01 Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:
0
01 The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification Beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be:
0

01 In the "VASIS" , how many light units are in each wing bar?
0
01 In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the
0 centre line have a length of:
01 High intensity obstacle lights should be:
0
01 Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be:
0
01 Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:
0
01 The runway edge lights shall be:
0
01 A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:
0

01 The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:
0

01 The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracting State
0 shall terminate from the moment such person has been definitely admitted in other Contracting
State of destination.

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runways "L" and "R" for 3 "L", "C" and "R".

runways.

Fixed showing blue.

Fixed showing green.

Fixed unidirectional
Fixed unidirectional lights
lights showing red in
showing white in the
the direction of the
direction of the runway.
runway.
Fixed unidirectional
Fixed unidirectional lights
lights showing green in showing white in the
the direction of
direction of approach to
approach to the
the runway.
runway.
Fixed lights showing
Fixed lights, white or
variable white.
yellow colour.
Flashing white.
Fixed green.

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Fixed showing yellow.


Fixed lights showing
variable red.

Fixed lights green


colours.

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parallel
runways "L"
and "R" and the
central has no
letter.
Flashing
showing blue.
Fixed lights
showing
variable white.
Fixed lights
showing green
or white
colours.

Fixed lights showing


Flashing white.
variable white or yellow.
Flashing green.
Fixed white.

Green colour
Blue colour identification White and green colour White colour
identification given by given by Morse Code.
identification given by identification
Morse Code.
Morse Code.
given by Morse
Code.
3.
2.
4.
5.
300 m.

150 m.

200 m.

250 m.

Flashing white.

Flashing red.

Fixed red.

Fixed orange.

Flashing red or
preferably yellow.
Fixed red.

Fixed red or preferably


orange.
Flashing red.

Fixed red or preferably


blue.
Flashing yellow.

Flashing blue.

white

blue

green

red

Special precautions
must be observed due
to bad state of the
taxiways.

Need special
precautions
while
approaching for
landing.
The longest
aeroplane
maximum
width only

The aerodrome is being An area unit for the


used by gliders and
movement of aircraft.
that glider flights are
being performed.
The over-all length of
the longest aeroplane
normally using the
aerodrome and its
maximum fuselage
width.
The stated above is
correct.

Fixed orange.

The over-all length of the The over-all length of


longest aeroplane
the longest aeroplane.
normally using the
aerodrome and its
maximum fuselage
weight.
The operator has no
The obligation is for the The obligation
obligation.
Contracting State of the of the operator
operator.
terminates as
soon as the
person leaves
the aeroplane.

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01 Search and Rescue The unit responsible for promoting efficient organisation of search and rescue
0 service is the:
01 Accident, incident notification and reporting After landing, while taxiing towards the apron, the
0 landing gear of your aircraft sinks into a hole. No persons are injured, but the aircraft sustains
structural damage. As a consequence you have to cancel the onward flight.

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01 A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is:
0

Control area.

Flight Information
Centre
Since there is no person This is an irregularity in
injured and the flight is
the operation. The crew
terminated, a damage
must inform the
report has to be made
operator of the
out with the services of
aerodrome and
the aerodrome in charge establish a report.
of the runway and
taxiways for the
insurance company.
Control zone.
Advisory airspace.

01 A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is:
0
01 ATS airspace's where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control
0 service and are separated from each other is classified as:
01 Aerodrome traffic is:
0

Control zone.

Control area.

Air traffic zone.

Class B.

Class A.

Class D.

All traffic on the


manoeuvring area and
flying in the vicinity of
an aerodrome.
Air Traffic Control units,
Flight Information
Centres or Air Services
reporting offices.

All traffic on the


manoeuvring area.

All traffic on the


movement area and
flying in the vicinity of
an aerodrome.
Air Traffic Control units
and Air Services
reporting offices.

01 Air Traffic Service unit means:


0

Rescue Co-ordination
Centre
This is an accident and
the crew must follow
the procedure relevant
to this case.

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01 Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled?


0

The aerodrome shall be


provided with a Control
Tower.

01 Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided:
0

Flight Information
Service and Alerting
Service.

01 Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:


0

A controlled airspace
extending upwards
from a specified limit
above the earth.

01 A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least:


0

5 nautical miles from


the centre of the
aerodrome or
aerodromes concerned
in the direction from
which approaches may
be made.

Alerting Centre

Air Traffic Control units


and Flight Information
Centres.

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Area Control
Centre
This is an
incident and
the pilot-incommand must
report it to the
airport
authority within
the next 48
hours.
Flight
Information
Region.
Advisory
airspace.
Class E.
All traffic in the
aerodrome
circuit.

Flight
Information
Centres and Air
Services
reporting
offices.
The aerodrome shall be The aerodrome shall be The aerodrome
located within a Control located within a
shall be located
Zone.
controlled airspace.
within a Control
Zone (CTR) and
provided with a
Control Tower.
Flight Information
Flight Information
Flight
Service, Alerting Service Service only.
Information
and Advisory Service.
Service and
Advisory
Service.
A controlled airspace
A controlled airspace
A controlled
extending upwards from extending upwards from airspace
a height of 900 feet
the surface of the earth extending
above the earth.
to a specified limit.
upwards from a
height of 1000
feet above the
earth.
10 miles from the centre 15 miles from the
20 miles from
of the aerodrome or
centre of the aerodrome the centre of
aerodromes concerned in or aerodromes
the aerodrome
the direction from which concerned in the
or aerodromes
approaches may be
direction from which
concerned in
made.
approaches may be
the direction
made.
from which
approaches

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01 A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not 200 metres.
0 less than:
01 The units providing Air Traffic Services are:
Area Control Centre 0
Flight Information
Centre - Approach
Control Office Aerodrome Control
Tower and Air Traffic
Services reporting
office.
01 Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:
Preventing collisions
0
between aircraft,
between aircraft and
obstacles on the
manoeuvring area and
expediting and
maintaining an orderly
flow of air traffic
01 Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:
Achieving separation
0
between controlled
flights
01 Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:
Achieving separation
0
between controlled
flights
01 You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearance expires at 0920. What does it mean?
If not airborne until
0
0920, a new clearance
has to be issued
01 When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
0

Upon receipt of any


official weather,
regardless of content
change or reported
values

01 When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is
0 the responsibility of the:

operational air traffic


control centres

01 The Alerting Service is provided by:


0

The ATS unit


responsible for the
aircraft at that
moment.
uncertainty phase,
alert phase, distress
phase.

01 The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:


0

01 A radio communications, "Distress" differs from "Urgency" because in the first case:
0

There is a serious and


imminent danger
requiring immediate
assistance.

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may be made.
500 metres.

300 metres.

150 metres.

Area Control Centre Approach Control Office


and Aerodrome Control
Tower.

Area Control Centre Advisory Centre - Flight


Information Centre Approach Control Office
and Tower.

Area Control
Centre - Flight
Information
Region Approach
Control Office
and Tower.

Applying separation
between aircraft and
expediting and
maintaining an orderly
flow of air traffic

Preventing collisions
between controlled air
traffic and expediting
and maintaining an
orderly flow of air traffic

Avoiding
collisions
between all
aircraft and
maintaining an
orderly flow of
air traffic

Achieving separation
between IFR flights

Providing flight
Information Service

Providing
advisory
service
Providing flight
Providing advisory
Providing
Information Service
services
alerting
services
Do not take off before
The take off clearance After 0920
0920
is expected at 0920
return to the
ramp and file a
new flight plan
Every 30 minutes if
Only when weather
Only when the
weather conditions are
conditions change
ceiling and/or
below those for VFR ;
enough to require a
visibility
otherwise hourly
change in the active
changes by a
runway or instrument
reportable
approach in use
value
flight information or
air traffic co-ordination search and
control organisations
services
rescue coordination
centres
The ATC unit responsible Only by ATC units.
The Area
for the aircraft at that
Control
moment, when it is
Centres.
provided with 121.5 MHz.
uncertainty phase,
uncertainty phase,
uncertainty
urgency phase, distress distress phase, urgency phase, alert
phase.
phase.
phase, distress
phase and
urgency phase.
The aeroplane has
The aeroplane will not The aeroplane
suffered damages which be able to reach a
or a
impair its fitness to fly.
suitable aerodrome.
passenger's
safety require
the flight
immediately

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01 Alert phase is defined as follows:


0

A situation where an
apprehension exists as
to the safety of an
aircraft and its
occupants.

An emergency event in
which an aircraft and its
occupants are considered
to be threatened by a
danger.

01 Separation methods and minima - ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC INFORMATION Essential traffic is:
0

Controlled Traffic not


Controlled Traffic
separated from another separated from other
controlled traffic with controlled traffic with the
the prescribed
prescribed separation
separation minima.
minima.

01 General provisions - change from IFR to VFR A change from instrument flight rules (IFR) to visual
0 flight rules (VFR) is only acceptable, when VFR is permitted in that air space and when

the change is initiated


by the PIC with a
message containing
the specific expression
"cancelling my IFR
flight".

the PIC has requested


and obtained an ATC CLR
for the change and has
filed a special VFR flight
plan.

01 General provisions - handling an ATC-flight plan in case of a delay In the event of a delay of a
0 controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan
submitted when the delay is in excess of:

30 minutes of the
estimated time off
blocks.

30 minutes of the
estimated time of
departure.

01 General provisions for ATS - Content of voice position reports (according Doc4444) A complete
0 position report transmitted by radiotelephony shall contain the following elements of information in
the order listed.

1) Aircraft
identification, 2)
position, 3) time, 4)
flight level or altitude,
5) next position and
time over, 6) ensuing
significant point.

1) Aircraft identification,
2) position, 3) flight level
or altitude, 4) time, 5)
next position and time
over, 6) ensuing
significant point.

01 General provisions - Responsibility for terrain clearance Who is in general responsible for an ATC
0 clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?

The pilot-in-command. The aircraft operator.

01 General provisions - handling an ATC-flight plan in case of a delay In the event of a delay for an
estimated off-block
0 uncontrolled flight for which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a time by 60 minutes.
new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when the delay is exceeding the original
01 Procedures related to communication failure - IFR in VMC Which procedure do you follow after having Continue to fly in VMC,
0 experienced a two way communication failure during a flight in accordance with IFR in VMC?
land at the nearest
suitable aerodrome,
report the arrival by
the most expeditious
means to the
appropriate Air Traffic
Control unit.
01 General provisions - amended clearance If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot-in-command The PIC may request
0 of an aircraft
and, if practicable,
obtain an amended
clearance.

estimated off-block time


by 30 minutes.
Continue the flight at the
assigned level and route,
carry out level changes
as indicated in the filed
ATC flight plan, start the
approach to the flight
plan destination at the
planned ETA.
The PIC may propose
another clearance. ATC
has to amend the
clearance in accordance
with the pilots request.

RispostaC

RispostaD

interrupted.
A situation related to an A situation
aircraft and its
related to an
occupants are
aircraft which
considered to be in a
reports that the
state of emergency.
fuel on board is
exhausted.
Controlled IFR flights
Uncontrolled
separated from
IFR flights
uncontrolled flights
separated from
within advisory
uncontrolled
airspace.
VFR flights
within advisory
airspace.
the position of the
ATC invites the
change has been noted PIC to change
on the ATC flight plan. from IFR to
The cancellation of the VFR.
IFR flight will then be
made automatically by
ATC.
60 minutes of the
60 minutes of
estimated time off
the estimated
blocks.
time of
departure.
1) Aircraft identification, 1) Aircraft
2) position, 3) time, 4) identification,
true air speed, 5) flight 2) position, 3)
level or altitude, 6) next time, 4) flight
position and time over. level or
altitude, 5) next
position, 6)
time over.
The ATC.
The ATS
reporting office
accepting the
flight plan.
estimated departure
estimated
time by 60 minutes.
departure time
by 30 minutes.
Maintain the assigned Continue to fly
level and route and land in VMC and
at the nearest
return to the
aerodrome where VMC aerodrome of
conditions prevail.
departure.

The PIC has to accept


the ATC clearance. The
clearance is based on
the flight plan filed with
ATC.

The PIC may


request an
amended
clearance from
the ATC.
Amended

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01 Separation - VMC and own separation The "Clearance to fly maintaining own separation while in
0 visual meteorological conditions" may be given by the appropriate ATS authority. This has to be
requested by the pilot of a controlled flight and has to be agreed by the pilot of the other aircraft.
The conditions are:
01 Separation Methods and Minima - General What are the controlled traffic separation methods
0 applied by ATC?
01 Separation methods and minima - vertical separation The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for
0 flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL 290 is:
01 Separation methods and minima - vertical separation The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for
0 flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace above FL 290 is:
01 Communications Failure - Flight Procedures You are on a flight in accordance with IFR in IMC, exactly
0 on the current flight plan route. At 18:36 UTC you receive and acknowledge the following instruction
from the radar controller: "Turn immediately, fly heading 050 until further advised". At 18:37 UTC
you discover a communication failure. Two way radio communication cannot be established again.
01 Separation methods and minima - vertical separation Above flight level FL 290 the Vertical
0 Separation Minimum (VSM) between aircraft flying in the same direction is:
01 Separation in the vicinity of aerodromes - timed approaches A "Timed Approach Procedure" may be
0 utilized as necessary in order to expedite the approaches of a number of arriving aircraft. This will be
obtained by requesting aircraft to

01 General provisions for ATS - obstacle clearance When does Air Traffic Control Services have the
0 responsibility to prevent collisions with terrain?

01 One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is:
0

01 The primary duty provided by a radar unit is:


0

01 When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall:
0

01 One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is:
0

RispostaA

RispostaB

RispostaC

Airspace Class D and E, Airspace Class C, VMC,


VMC, hours of daylight hours of daylight

Airspace Class C, D,
VMC

Vertical and horizontal Vertical, horizontal and


separation.
angular separation.
1000 feet (300 m).
2000 feet (600 m).

Time separation and


track separation.
500 feet (150 m).

2000 feet (600 m).

500 feet (150 m).

RispostaD
clearances will
only be given
when VMC
prevails.
Airspace Class
B. C, D and E,
VMC

You have to return to


You continue on Heading You continue on
your current flight plan 050.
Heading 050 for 15
route.
minutes.

Composite
separation.
2500 feet (750
m).
4000 feet
(1200 m).
You continue on
Heading 050
for 30 minutes.

4 000 feet.

1 500 feet.

pass a specified point


inbound at the
previously notified
time.

1000 feet (300 m).

2 000 feet.

3 000 feet.

notify the time when


keep distance and time maintain a
passing a specified point. equal between aircraft specified
in the approach.
airspeed during
the approach
procedure.
When a flight in
Always when ATS are
ATS never prevent
ATS only
accordance with IFR is provided.
collisions with terrain. provides
vectored by radar.
prevention
when an
aircraft is flying
IFR in IMC.
To conduct surveillance To apply a reduced
To apply a horizontal
To provide
radar approaches.
vertical separation of 500 separation less than 5 instructions in
feet between IFR flights NM.
order to reduce
and VFR flights.
separations
minima, if
accepted by
the pilots.
To provide radar
To assist aircraft due to
To assist aircraft on the To assist
separation.
failure of airborne
location storms.
aircraft where
equipment.
navigation
appears
unsatisfactory.
Inform the aircraft prior Inform the aircraft only if not advise the aircraft Inform the
to issue any
communication's load
before issuing
aircraft only if
instructions or advice permits it.
instructions.
radar
based on the use of
identification
radar.
has been
achieved
without
availability of
SSR.
To conduct precision
To apply a horizontal
To apply a reduced
To provide
radar approach (PAR). separation less than 5
vertical separation of
instructions to

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01 Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) 2 NM.
0 shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of:
01 When "Secondary Radar" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures:
Observation of
0
compliance with an
instruction to operate
transponder from "ON"
to "STBY" and back to
"ON".
01 Where a "Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be achieved To instruct the pilot to
0 by one of the following procedures:
execute one or more
changes of 30 or
more.
01 Which code shall be used on Mode "A" to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful
Code 7500.
0 interference?
01 Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify?
Your aircraft has been
0
identified on the radar
display and radar flight
instructions will be
provided until radar
identification is
terminated.

RispostaB

RispostaC

RispostaD

NM.

500 feet between IFR


and VFR flights.

reduce the
separation
minima.
3 NM.

4 NM.

5 NM.

To request pilot to set


transponder on position
"ON".

To request pilot to set


To request pilot
transponder on position to switch from
"OFF".
"ON" to
"STDBY".

To instruct the pilot to


execute one or more
changes of 20 or more.

To instruct the pilot to


execute one or more
changes of 10.

Code 7700.

Code 7600.

Your aircraft has been


identified and you will
receive separation from
all aircraft while in
contact with this radar
facility.

You will be given traffic


advisories until advised
that the service has
been terminated or that
radar contact has been
lost.

To instruct the
pilot to execute
one or more
changes of 45.
Code 2000.

ATC is receiving
your
transponder
and will furnish
vectors and
traffic
advisories until
you are advised
that contact
has been lost.
01 What is meant when departure control instruct you to "resume own navigation" after you have been You should maintain
Radar Service is
Advisories will no longer You are still in
0 vectored to an airway?
that airway by use of
terminated.
be issued by ATC.
radar contact,
your navigation
but must make
equipment.
position
reports.
01 The proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous proficiency 31th of December the 15th of October the same 30th of October the
30th of April
0 check was the 30th of June. The period of the new proficiency check can be and can't exceed:
same year
year
same year
the following
year
01 Abbreviations What does the abbreviation OIS mean? (Doc 8168)
Obstacle identification Obstacle in surface.
Obstacle identification Obstruction in
0
surface.
slope.
surface.
01 Abbreviations In Pans-Ops, the abbreviation DER stands for (Doc 8168)
Departure end of
Distance error in routing. Direct entry route.
Displaced end
0
runway.
of runway.
01 Instrument Departure Procedure Wind correction Flying an Instrument Departure Procedure pilots correct the track for
request from ATC an
ignore the wind and
request a
0 are expected to:
known wind to remain adequate heading to
proceed on a heading
clearance from
within the protected
cater for wind direction
equal to the track.
ATC with
airspace.
and strength.
regards to a
wind correction
to be applied.
01 Departure procedure Design The main factor/s that dictate/s in general the design of an instrument the terrain surrounding ATC availability and
availability of
airspace
0 departure procedure is/are:
the aerodrome.
requirements.
navigation aids.
restrictions
applicable and
in force.
01 Instrument Departure Procedures Obstacle Clearance The minimum obstacle clearance at the
0 ft.
3.3 % gradient.
35 ft.
0.8 % gradient.
0 departure end of runway equals:
01 Standard Instrument Departure Procedures Straight Departures A straight departure is one in
15.
30.
45.
12.5.
0 which the initial departure track does not deviate from the alignment of the extended runway centre
line by more than:

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01 Holding procedures Offset Entry Above 14000 ft in still air, the outbound time on a 30 offset track 1 minute 30 seconds.
0 is limited to:
01 Arrival and Approach segments, General What are the names of all separate segments that can be Arrival, initial,
0 part of an instrument approach procedure?
intermediate, final,
missed approach.

01 Approach Procedures Arrival and Approach Segments The minimum obstacle clearance in the
0 primary area of the initial approach segment for an instrument approach procedure is at least:
01 Approach procedures, Arrival and Approach Segments Intermediate approach segment What is the
0 minimum obstacle clearance requirement at the end of the primary area of the intermediate
approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?
01 Approach procedures Arrival and approach segments In an instrument approach procedure, the
0 segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called:
01 Approach procedures Final approach segment In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach
0 segment begins at the:
01 Approach procedures final approach segment In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path
0 interception occurs at heights above runway elevation from:

300m (984 ft).

RispostaB
1 minute.

RispostaC
2 minutes.

Initial, intermediate, final. Arrival, holding, initial,


intermediate, final,
missed approach.

150m (492 ft).

450m (1476 ft).

300m (984 ft) reducing 150m (492 ft) reducing to 450m (1476 ft)
to 150 m (492 ft).
0 m.
reducing to 150 m (492
ft).
Final approach
Initial approach segment. Intermediate approach
segment.
segment.
FAP.
FAF.
MAP.
300m (984 ft) to 900m 300m (984 ft) to 600m
(2955 ft).
(1968 ft).

01 Approach procedures Final approach segment - precision approach - ILS The ILS obstacle clearance Half a scale deflection One full scale deflection
0 surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline more than:
after being established after being established
on the track.
on the track.

Arrival, initial,
intermediate and final.
Visual approach.

RispostaD
3 minutes.
Descend,
holding arrival,
initial,
intermediate,
final, missed
approach.
600m (1968 ft).
300 m (984 ft)
reducing to 0
m.
Arrival
segment.
IF.

150m (492 ft) to 300m 150m (492 ft)


(984 ft).
to 900m (2955
ft).
A quarter of a scale
One and a half
deflection after being
of a scale
established on the
deflection after
track.
being
established on
the track.
Arrival, intermediate
Initial and final.
and final.
Contact approach.
Aerodrome
traffic pattern.

01 Approach Procedures Missed Approach Phases A complete missed approach procedure consists of
0 the following phases?
01 Approach Procedures Circling The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing
0 an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not
suitably located for straight-in approach, is:
01 Approach Procedures Circling It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector
0 where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final
approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure:

Initial, intermediate
and final.
Visual manoeuvring
(circling).

Prohibits circling within Permits circling only in


the total sector in
VMC.
which the obstacle
exists.

Recommends not to
perform circling within
the total sector in which
the obstacle exists.

01 Approach Procedures Visual Flight Manoeuvre - Circling A circling approach is:


0

A visual flight
A visual manoeuvre to be
manoeuvre keeping the conducted only in IMC.
runway environment in
sight while at MDA/H.

A visual flight
manoeuvre to be
performed when radar
vectoring is available.

01 Holding Procedures - Entry Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of
0 flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of:
01 Holding Procedures Buffer Area How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the
0 buffer area?
01 Altimeter setting procedures Transition Altitude The transition altitude of an aerodrome shall be as
0 low as possible but normally not less than:
01 Altimeter setting procedures Transition Level The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the
0 transition level with altimeter setting 1013.2 hPa has to be reported:
01 SSR Transponder When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the
0 transponder:

5.

10.

15.

Prohibits the
circling
approach to the
affected
runway.
A visual flight
manoeuvre that
may be carried
out as long as
visual ground
contact can be
maintained.
20.

5 NM.

3 NM.

5 km.

3 km.

3000 ft.

2500 ft.

1500 ft.

1000 ft.

as Flight Level.

as Height.

as Altitude.

At all times during


flight, regardless of

Only when the aircraft is Only when the aircraft


flying within airspace
is flying within

According to
pilot's choice.
Only when
directed by

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RispostaC

RispostaD

where SSR is used for ATS controlled airspace.


purposes.

ATC.

only when directed by


ATC.

regardless of ATC
instructions.

01 SSR Transponder When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall 7500.
0 indicate the situation by setting the transponder to Mode A, Code
01 SSR Transponder Pilots shall not SQUAK IDENT unless they:
are requested by ATC.
0

7700.

7600.

only when the


aircraft is flying
within
controlled
airspace.
7000.

01 SSR Transponder When acknowledging mode / code setting instructions, pilots shall:
0

read back the mode


and code to be set.

use the word ROGER.

use the word WILCO.

01 The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where
0 navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:
01 The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where
0 navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is
maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
01 The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where
0 navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is
maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
01 The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and
0 following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more
faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
01 The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and
0 following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more
faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
01 When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following
0 minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided:

10 minutes.

5 minutes.

15 minutes.

operate outside
controlled
airspace.
read back the
code to be set
and SQUAK
IDENT.
3 minutes.

5 minutes.

3 minutes.

10 minutes.

15 minutes.

3 minutes.

5 minutes.

6 minutes.

10 minutes.

5 minutes.

3 minutes.

10 minutes.

2 minutes.

3 minutes.

5 minutes.

10 minutes.

8 minutes.

01 The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses
0 DME stations, is:

20 NM.

01 The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations,
0 is:

10 NM provided that
the leading aircraft
maintains a true
airspeed of 20 kt or
more faster than the
succeeding aircraft.

01 SSR Transponder When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall
0 continuously operate this mode

whether the aircraft is


within or outside
airspace where SSR is
used for ATS purposes.
unless otherwise
directed by ATC.

RispostaB

operate within controlled operate a transponder


airspace.
with Mode C.

15 minutes at the time 10 minutes at the time


the level is crossed.
the level is crossed.

5 minutes at the time


the level is crossed.

20 minutes at
the time the
level is crossed.
10 NM.
5 NM.
20 NM when
the leading
aircraft
maintains a
true airspeed of
20 kt or more
faster than the
succeeding
aircraft.
10 NM provided that the 20 NM provided that the 10 NM provided
leading aircraft maintains leading aircraft
that the leading
a true airspeed of 40 kt maintains a true
aircraft
or more faster than the
airspeed of 10 kt or
maintains a
succeeding aircraft.
more faster than the
true airspeed of
succeeding aircraft.
10 kt or more
faster than the
succeeding
aircraft.

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01 A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed,
0 provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on track" way-point. This
minimum is:
01 A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in controlled airspace
0 classified as:
01 One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging
0 by at least:

RispostaA

RispostaB

RispostaC

RispostaD

80 NM.

60 NM.

50 NM.

20 NM.

B.

B and C.

B, C and D.

B, C, D and E.

45 immediately after
take-off.

30 immediately after
take-off.

15 immediately after
take-off.

01 When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished shall be such
0 as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater than:
01 The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same localizer
0 with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence:
01 The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course shall be:
0

30 degrees.

25
immediately
after take-off.
The preceding aircraft is The preceding aircraft is The preceding
30 kt or more faster than 20 kt or more faster
aircraft is 10 kt
the following aircraft.
than the following
or more faster
aircraft.
than the
following
aircraft.
25 degrees.
15 degrees.
20 degrees.

3 NM.

2 NM.

5 NM.

3.0 NM between
aircraft on the same
localizer course.

3.0 NM between aircraft


on adjacent localizer
course.

01 The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the
0 controller is accurate shall be:
01 Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation
0 minimum shall be:
01 The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall
0 be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion):
01 An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived
0 level information indicated that it is within:
01 An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C derived
0 level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by:
01 The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below:
0
01 Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should notify the
0 non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately:
01 An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed approach, if
0 the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach or if
the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for significant interval during the last:
01 When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the surveillance
0 radar approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of:
01 Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request
0 radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach.
This speed adjustment should not be more than:
01 The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft has passed:
0

+/- 300 ft.

+/- 200 ft.

2.0 NM between aircraft 5.0 NM


on the same localizer
between
course.
aircraft on the
same localizer
course.
+/- 250 ft.
+/- 500 ft.

5.0 NM.

3.0 NM.

10.0 NM.

3.5 NM.

+/- 300 ft.

+/- 200 ft.

+/- 150 ft.

+/- 250 ft.

+/- 300 ft of the


assigned level.
More than 300 ft.

+/- 200 ft of the assigned +/- 250 ft of the


level.
assigned level.
300 ft.
+/- 300 ft.

3.0 NM.

5.0 NM.

2.0 NM.

+/- 500 ft of the


assigned level.
More than 200
ft.
1.5 NM.

8 NM.

10 NM.

5 NM.

6 NM.

2 NM.

3 NM.

1 NM.

4 NM.

2.5 NM from
touchdown.
+/- 15 kt.

1 NM from
touchdown.
+/- 8 kt.

01 Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, The preceding aircraft
0 when:
is 40 kt or more faster
than the following
aircraft.

01 Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic
0 advisory service:

2 NM from touchdown. 3 NM from touchdown.


+/- 20 kt.

+/- 10 kt.

2.5 NM.

4 NM from the
2 NM from the threshold 3 NM from the threshold 5 NM from the
threshold on final
on final approach.
on final approach.
threshold on
approach.
final approach.
Shall nevertheless
Shall nevertheless submit need to file a flight plan may file a flight
submit a flight plan and a flight plan but changes
plan under
notify changes made
made thereto are not
pilot's
thereto to the ATS unit necessary to be notified.
discretion.
providing that service.

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RispostaB
b
01 Search and Rescue The colour of droppable containers and streamers for medical supply and first aid Red
Blue
0 equipment is:
01 The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival
Yellow for blankets and Red for food and water.
0 equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code:
protective clothing.
01 Search and Rescue The colour of droppable containers and streamers for food and water is:
0
01 The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from designated
0 medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the licence authority, provided
that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:

Blue

Red

A single period of six


month in the case of a
flight crew member of
an aircraft engaged in
non-commercial
operations.

Two consecutive periods


each of three month in
the case a flight crew
member of an aircraft
engaged in noncommercial operations.

01 In accordance with annex 1, when a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another
0 contracting state, the validity of the authorisation:

Shall not extend


beyond the period of
validity of the licence.

01 The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:
0

01 The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with:


0

01 Altimeter setting procedures transition altitude / level In the vicinity of an aerodrome of intended
0 landing or used for take-off, the vertical position of aircraft shall be expressed in term of:

01 Altimeter setting procedures Transition Layer When flying through the transition layer the vertical
0 position of the aircraft should be expressed as:
01 Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of approach light
0 system?

01 The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot?
0
01 What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?
0
01 Change from IFR to VFR will always take place:
0

RispostaC

RispostaD

Black

Yellow

Blue for medical


supplies and first aid
equipment.
Black

Black for food


and water.
Yellow

A single period of three


month in the case of a
flight crew member of
an aircraft engaged in
commercial operations.

Two
consecutive
periods each of
six month in
the case of a
flight crew
member of an
aircraft
engaged in
noncommercial
operations.
Shall not extend beyond Is only
one year for ATPL and considered for
PCL.
PPL.

Depends on the
regulations of the
contracting sate which
renders valid the licence.
binding for the member advice and guidance for binding for all member binding for all
states that have not
the aviation legislation
states
air line
notified ICAO about a within the member states
companies with
national difference
international
traffic
limitation of the
the regulation of
operators licence for
the security
operator's liability for transportation of
international scheduled system at
damage caused to
dangerous goods
aviation
airports
passengers and goods
transported
altitude above mean
altitude above mean sea flight level at or below flight level at or
sea level at or below
level at or above the
the transition level
below the
the transition altitude transition altitude
transition
altitude
altitude during descent altitude during climb
flight level during
either altitude
descent
or flight level
during climb
5 crossbars, centre line 4 crossbars, centre line
3 crossbars, centre line 3 crossbars,
with 3, 2 and 1 lamp
with 3 or 2 lamps per
with 3, 2 or 1 lamp per centre line with
per light unit
light unit
light unit
3 or 2 lamps
per light unit
The radar identity of
The pilot does not have The aircraft is subject to Position reports
the aircraft has been
to follow up the position positive control
may be omitted
established
of the aircraft
1000 feet
500 feet
1500 feet
2000 feet
on the initiative of the
aircraft commander

at the clearance limit,


irrespective of the
weather conditions

as instructed by an air
traffic control unit

when the
aircraft is
leaving
controlled
airspace during

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RispostaA

RispostaB

RispostaC

RispostaD

01 Approach procedures Circling The visual contact with the runway is lost on the down-wind leg,
0 while circling to land following an instrument approach. You have to initiate a go-around:

Make an initial climbing


turn towards the
runway and initiate the
missed approach.

Make a turn of 90
degrees towards the
runway and try to regain
visual contact.

01 Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO?


0

ICAO must be informed


about differences from
the standards in any of
the Annexes to the
convention

ICAO shall approve the


pricing of tickets on
international airline
connections

01 Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for
0 adoption?

the Air Navigation


Commission

the Assembly

01 You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL
0

With a valid licence


plus flight instructor
rating
1 year

With a PPL plus CPL


theory

VMC
Turn towards
the runway,
maintain
altitude and
request ATC
instructions.
ICAO must be informed ICAO must be
about changes in the
informed about
national regulations
new flight crew
licenses and
any suspended
validity of such
licenses
the Council
the Regional Air
Navigation
meeting
With a PPL plus flight
With a CPL
instructor rating

6 months

5 years

2 years

GEN

ENR

AD

LOC

17 years

16 years

18 years

21 years

70 degrees with the


plane of symmetry of
the latter

50 degrees with the


60 degrees with the
plane of symmetry of the plane of symmetry of
latter
the latter

01 The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is:


0
01 AIP Which part of the AIP contains a list with "Location Indicators"?
0
01 The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is:
0
01 An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a
0 line forming an angle of less than:

01 Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT?


0

01 VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are:
0

01 During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication
0 failure. You will:

01 An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighbouring state. Which
0 freedom of the Air will be exercised?
01 Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed
0 adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than:
01 What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT II:
0
01 What is a "barrette"?
0

If you have other visual


cues of the aerodrome
environment, continue
with visual ground
contact.

80 degrees with
the plane of
symmetry of
the latter
Service provided:
Service provided: Air
Service provided: Traffic Service
Traffic Information as
Traffic Control Service;
Information as far as
provided: Air
far as practical; ATC
ATC Clearance: required ; practical; ATC
Traffic Control
Clearance: not required
Clearance: required ;
Service; ATC
;
Clearance: not
required
8 km visibility, and
5 km visibility, 1500 m
8 km visibility, 1500 m No minima, VFR
clear of clouds ;
horizontal and 1000 ft
horizontal and 1000 ft flights are not
vertical distance from
vertical distance from
permitted
clouds ;
clouds ;
Land at the nearest
Select A7600 and
Descend to the flight
Land at the
suitable aerodrome
continue according
level submitted for that nearest suitable
maintaining VMC and current flight plan to
portion of flight ;
aerodrome and
inform ATC ;
destination ;
inform ATC
2nd freedom
1st freedom
3rd freedom
4th freedom
20 knots and not within 10 knots and not within 5 15 knots at any stage
4 NM of threshold
NM of threshold
900m
150m
300m

25 knots at any
stage
600m

three or more ground a high obstacle near the


lights closely spaced
runway and/or taxiway.
together to appear as a

a frangible
structure on
which approach

a CAT II or III holding


position.

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01 When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at:
0
01 Approach Procedures Non-precision straight-in A so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered to
0 be acceptable for a non-precision approach, if the angle between the final approach track and the
runway centreline is:
01 To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E :
0

RispostaA

RispostaB

RispostaC

bar of lights.
300 m from threshold

150 m from threshold

450 m from threshold

30 or less

40 or less

20 or less

two way radio


communication is not
required.

a clearance is required.

a clearance and twoway radio


communication is
required.

RispostaD
lights are fixed.
600 m from
threshold
10 or less

a clearance
and/or two-way
radio
communication
is required.
01 Which statement regarding approach control service is correct?
If it is anticipated that Approach control have to An approach sequence During a visual
0
an aircraft has to hold advise the aircraft
shall be established
approach an
for 30 minutes or more, operators about
according to the
aircraft is
an Expected Approach substantial delays in
sequence of initial radio maintaining its
Time will be
departure in any event
contact between
own
transmitted by the
when they are expected aircraft and approach
separation ;
most expeditious
to exceed 45 minutes ;
control ;
means to the aircraft
01 Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain 1NM
2NM
3NM
5NM
0 distance from the end of the runway. Identification has to be achieved within:
01 Runway-lead-in lighting should consist:
of group of at least
always of a straight row of flashing lights only; of an arbitrary
0
three white lights
of lights towards the
amount of
flashing in sequence
runway
green lights;
towards the runway ;
01 Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct?
Alerting Service and
The Alert phase is
The distress phase is
Aircraft in the
0
Flight Information
established when no
established when an
vicinity of an
Service are often
communication has been aircraft is known or
aircraft known
provided by the same received from an aircraft believed to be the
or believed to
ATS unit
within a period of thirty
subject of unlawful
be the subject
minutes after the time a interference
of unlawful
communication should
interference,
have been received;
shall be
informed about
this;
01 Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct?
An aircraft entering the The aerodrome control
Suspension of VFR
ATC permission
0
traffic circuit without
service is a service
operations can not be is required for
permission of ATC, will provided for the purpose initiated by the
entering the
be cleared to land if
of preventing collisions
aerodrome controller;
apron with a
this is desirable ;
between aircraft on the
vehicle
movement area;
01 Which statement is correct?
The lower limit of a
The lower limit of a CTA The upper limit of a CTR The lower limit
0
TMA shall be
shall be established at a shall be established at a of an UIR may
established at a height height of at least 1500ft height of at least 3000ft coincide with
of at least 700ft AGL;
AGL;
AMSL;
an IFR cruising
level
01 The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till a
Composite separation Combined separation
Reduced separation
Essential
0 maximum of half the standard criteria is called:
separation
01 The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published:
in NOTAM and AIP,
only in NOTAM
only in AIP
NOTAM, AIP and
0
inclusive Supplement.
MAL
01 Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration:
information signs;
mandatory instruction
information signs;
mandatory
0
yellow or black
signs ; red background
orange background with instruction
background with black with black inscriptions.
black inscriptions.
signs; black
or yellow inscriptions.
background

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01 When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, ATC has to be informed in the TAS varies by plus
0 case:
or minus 5% of the TAS
notified in the flight
plan.
01 When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restore is impossible,
departure to the
0 than:
nearest suitable airport
where repair can be
effected is allowed
01 Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above
0 the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight:

01 An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:


0

01 The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:


0

01 Interception If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the
0 intercepting aircraft by visual signals, the intercepted aircraft shall:

01 Approach procedures Instrument Approach Area The primary area of an instrument approach
0 segment is:

01 A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed:


0

01 An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if:


0

at least 2000 feet


within 8 KM of the
estimated position

RispostaB

of an emergency.

you must indicate the


failure in the fight plan,
after which the ATC will
endeavour to provide for
continuation of the flight;
at least 1000 feet within
5KM of the estimated
position

RispostaC

RispostaD

with red
inscriptions.
the estimated time is in it is a deviation
error by more than 10 from the track.
minutes.
the flight can only
continue in the most
direct manner;

at least 1000 feet


within 8 KM of the
estimated position

you are not


allowed to
commence the
flight

at least 2000
feet within 5KM
of the
estimated
position
on the ground when
outside the daylightwhile taxiing, but not
outside the
the engines are
period in flight, but not
when it is being towed; daylight-period
running
on the ground when it is
at engine-start.
being towed;
During the
daylight-period
this is not
applicable;
taxiing need not be
glider flying is performed landing, take-off and
this aerodrome
confined to the
outside the landing area; taxiing is allowed on
is using parallel
taxiways ;
runway and/or taxiway runways
only;
follow the instructions ignore the signals of the ignore the signals of the select
of the intercepting
intercepting aircraft and intercepting aircraft and transponder
aircraft and request
request instructions from continue in accordance mode A,
immediate clarification. the appropriate ATS unit. with the last clearance squawk 7600,
received and confirmed fly holding
by the appropriate ATS patterns until
unit.
having received
instructions
from the
appropriate ATS
unit.
a defined area
the most critical part of the first part of the
the outside part
symmetrically disposed the segment where the
segment.
of the segment
about the nominal
minimum altitude should
where the
flight track in which the be kept very carefully.
obstacle
Minimum Obstacle
clearance
Clearance is provided.
increases from
zero ft to the
appropriate
minimum.
during IFR flights, if
during IFR and VFR flights during IFR flights, if the as in above, but
there is permanent
in VMC;
cloud base is 1000 ft
in addition
sight on the movement
more than the
there should be
area and the
appropriate DA or MDA a visibility of
underlying ground;
for that procedure;
5,5 km or more
all mentioned answers the pilot has the field and the aircraft gets radar the pilot is
are correct
the underlying terrain in vectors ;
following the

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RispostaA

RispostaB

RispostaC

sight and will keep it in


sight;

RispostaD

01 To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is:
0
01 The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is:
0
01 Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar-control
0 shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than:
01 During radar-control, a "radar-controller" shall issue a missed-approach instruction, in case the
0 "tower-controller" has not issued a "landing-clearance" at the moment the aircraft is:
01 Which statement is correct ? During a "Visual Approach" in Controlled Airspace (Class C):
0

21 and 59 years

16 and 60 years

17 and 59 years

5 minutes or more.

15 minutes or more

10 minutes

published
approach
procedure
18 and 60
years
20 minutes

2,5 NM

1,5 NM

3 NM

5 NM

01 "Cabotage" refers to:


0
01 A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. In section I the pilot fills in:
0

domestic air services ; a national air carrier;

2 NM from touch-down; 1NM from touch-down;


ATC will apply
separation with other
traffic

the pilot to apply


separation with other
traffic;

3 NM from touch-down; 4 NM from


touch-down;
ATC will apply
ATC will apply
separation only with
separation with
other IFR-traffic
other arriving
traffic
a flight above territorial crop spraying
waters;
flight identification and urgent
weather noted ;
messages

01 An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from
0 the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:

a position report,
weather noted ;
including aircraft
identification, height,
position and time ;
Continue at an altitude Fly the emergency
that differs from the
triangle
semicircular rule with
1000 feet when above
FL 290 and 500 feet
when lower than FL
290

01 What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?


0

250 kt for IFR and VFR 250 kt only for VFR up to 250 kt VFR and IFR, all
UP TO FL 100
FL 195
levels

01 Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for
0 different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4?
01 Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a specific
0 dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this
approach light system?
01 One of the main objectives of ICAO is to:
0

45 metres

35 metres

40 metres

As soon as
possible
commence
emergency
descent in
order minimise
the difference
between cabin
pressure and
outside
pressure
250 kt only for
IFR up to FL
100
50 metres

900 metres

420 metres

1000 metres

1200 metres

develop principles and


technique for
international aviation
Continue at an altitude
that differs from the
semicircular rule with
1000 feet when above
FL 290 and 500 feet
when lower than FL
290

approve the ticket prices


set by international
airline companies
Fly the emergency
triangle

approve new
international airlines
with jet aircraft
Declare an emergency

approve new
international
airlines
As soon as
possible
commence
emergency
descent in
order minimise
the difference
between cabin
pressure and
outside
pressure

01 An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from
0 the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:

Declare an emergency

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RispostaA
b
01 Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for a
Annex 1
0 crew licence to have international validity?
01 Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the Annex 14
0 design of aerodromes?
01 Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and
Annex 11
0 recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?
01 An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving When the other aircraft
0 a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a
has reported that it has
clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected?
descended through FL
130
01 A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is:
Poor
0
01 Accident investigation Who is responsible for the initiation of an accident investigation?
The Authority of the
0
State in which the
accident took place.
01 According to international agreements wind direction shall be adjusted to the local variation and
Before landing and
0 given in degrees magnetic:
take-off

01 Which information is not included in Instrument Approach Charts (IAC) in the AIP
0
01 Altimeter setting procedures Definitions The Transition Level:
0

Any addition to minima


when the aerodrome is
used as alternate
shall be the lowest
flight level available for
use above the
transition altitude.

RispostaB

RispostaD

Annex 2

Annex 3

Annex 4

Annex 6

Annex 11

Annex 10

Annex 14

Annex 6

Annex 17

When the other aircraft


has reported that it has
left FL 140
Good

When the other aircraft When the other


has reported that it has aircraft has
reached FL 70
reported that it
has left FL 120
Medium/poor
Medium

The Operators of the


same aircraft type.

The aircraft
manufacturer.

The State of
design and
manufacturer.
When the local variation In upper wind forecast When an
exceeds 10 East or 10 for areas north of lat
aircraft on the
West.
60 north or 60 south. request by a
meteorological
watch office
(MWO) or at
specified points
transmits a
PIREP
Obstacles penetrating the OCA or OCH
DMEobstacle free area in the
frequencies
final approach sector
shall be the highest
is published for the
is calculated
available flight level
aerodrome in the
and declared
below the transition
Section ENR of the AIP. for an approach
altitude that has been
by the Pilot-in
established.
command.
is published on the
is calculated by the
is published
approach and landing
Pilot-in command
and updated in
chart for each aerodrome
the NOTAM
When QNH is higher than only in airspace class A if the obstacle
the standard pressure
clearance is
1013 hPa
more than 2000
feet
If instructed by ATC so
If instructed by ATC so Only when
long as VMC is forecasted long as VMC is
leaving
during the next 30
forecasted during the
controlled
minutes
next 60 minutes
airspace
At the discretion of the
If the commander of the Only if the air
air traffic controller
involved aircraft so
traffic controller
requests
has the
involved
aircraft in sight

01 Altimeter setting procedures transition level The transition level:


0

will be passed to
aircraft by ATS units

01 Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level (FL)
0

Above the transition


altitude when
applicable

01 Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible


0

If the commander so
requests

01 For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be
0 reduced:

When the commander


in the following aircraft
has the preceding
aircraft in sight and is
able to maintain own
separation
The air traffic controller Continued approach will
will provide separation be according to VFR
to other controlled
traffic

01 If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a
0 clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditions

RispostaC

The approach must be


passing the FAF

The
meteorological
visibility must
not be less than
8 km

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b
01 What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraft preceding a 'Light' 6 NM
0 aircraft
01 Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME and it 10 NM
0 is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in DMEdistance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend
01 The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the:
Chicago convention
0
1944
01 Search and Rescue signals The ground - air visual code for: "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is:
0
01 Search and Rescue signals The ground - air visual code for: "REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE" is:
0
01 The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they are suffering
0 which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a
period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is:
01 If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that licence due to
0 illness, the authority must be informed:

RispostaB

RispostaC

RispostaD

3 NM

2 km

10 km

12 NM

15 NM

20 NM

Warsaw convention 1929 Geneva convention


1948

Geneva
convention
1936
Y

21

30

60

90

After 21 days of
consecutive "illness"

as soon as possible if the after one calendar


illness is expected to last month of consecutive
more than 21days
illness

if still not fit to


fly when his/her
current medical
certificate
expires
01 If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off in any
until five minutes
until three minutes
until two minutes
until ten
0 direction
before the arriving
before the arriving
before the arriving
minutes before
aircraft is estimated to aircraft is estimated to be aircraft is estimated to the arriving
be over the instrument over the instrument
be over the instrument aircraft is
runway
runway
runway
estimated to be
over the
instrument
runway
01 When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the runway transmission 4 NM from the
2 NM from the touchdown 3 NM from the
1.5 NM from
0 should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a
touchdown
touchdown
the touchdown
distance of:
01 The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown
half NM
1 NM
1.5 NM
half mile
0 except when as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy of the radar equipment
permits to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case
distance and level information shall be given at each
01 Clearance to land or any alternative clearance received from the non-radar controller should
2 NM from touchdown 3 NM from touchdown
4 NM from touchdown 5 NM from
0 normally be passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of:
touchdown
01 An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach if no
2 NM from the
4 NM from the touchdown 5 NM from the
1.5 NM from
0 clearance to land has been received from the non-radar controller by the time the aircraft reaches a touchdown
touchdown
the touchdown
distance of:
01 An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if Last 2 NM of the
Last 4 NM of the
Last 3 NM of the
Last 5 NM of
0 the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the:
approach
approach
approach
the approach
01 What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under radar 20KT
15 KT
10KT
25 KT
0 control and established on intermediate and final approach?
01 Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be again
At least one hour
At least 30 minutes
At least 15 minutes
At least 5
0 brought into operation:
before the expected
before the expected
before the expected
minutes before
arrival of an aircraft
arrival of an aircraft
arrival of an aircraft
the expected
arrival of an
aircraft
01 At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of 5 KT
3 KT
10 KT
8 KT
0 components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted
to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant change is:
01 At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of 2 KT
4 KT
5 KT
3 KT

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0 components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted
to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is:
01 At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of
0 components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted
to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant change is:
01 Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic distinct display
0 of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar controller shall attempt to verify
this suspicion by:

RispostaA

10 KT

RispostaB

5 KT

Setting the SSR


Setting the SSR decoder
decoder to mode A
to mode A code 7000 and
code 7500 and
thereafter to code 7500
thereafter to code 7700

RispostaC

8 KT

RispostaD

4 KT

01 When the Mach number technique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft shall maintain 80 NM
0 a mach number equal to or greater than the following aircraft a RNAV distance based separation
minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation
minimum. The distance is:
01 Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same cruising level 20 NM
0 and track, provided that each aircraft utilises "on Track" DME stations and separation is checked by
obtaining simultaneous DME readings, is:
01 Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation 3 minutes
0 aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is
maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be
01 Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation 5 minutes
0 aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is
maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be
01 Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation 10 minutes
0 aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be
01 Repetitive flight plans (RPLs) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of
On at least ten
0 consecutive weeks and:
occasions or every day
over a period of at
least ten consecutive
days
01 What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is taking off behind a 2 minutes
0 medium aircraft and both are using the same runway?
01 Special VFR flights may the authorised to operate locally within a control zone when the ground
E airspace
0 visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning
radio receiver within class:
01 In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what
medium aircraft behind
0 minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft?
heavy aircraft - 2
minutes

100 NM

Setting the SSR decoder Setting the SSR


to mode A 7500 then to decoder to
standby and thereafter mode A 7700
to code 7700
then to standby
and thereafter
to code 7500
70 NM
60 NM

10 NM

25 NM

40 NM

5 minutes

10 minutes

2 minutes

3 minutes

10 minutes

2 minutes

15 minutes

5 minutes

3 minutes

01 A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS
0 localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel
approaches are being conducted:
01 A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and
0 between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed
approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a
parallel opposite direction runway separated by:
01 A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and
0 between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed
approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum
is:
01 A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS
0 localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel

On at least ten occasions On at least 20 days


or every day over a
consecutively
period of at least 20
consecutive days

On at least 20
occasions

3 minutes

1 minute

5 minutes

D and E airspace

D airspace

C, D and E
airspace

medium aircraft other


medium aircraft - 2
minutes

light aircraft behind


medium aircraft -4
minutes

300 m (1000 ft)

200 m (660 ft)

150 m (500 ft)

medium aircraft
behind heavy
aircraft - 3
minutes
100 m (330 ft)

Less than 760 m

760 m

Less than 730 m

730 m

2 minutes

5 minutes

3 minutes

1 minute

3.0 NM

5.0 NM

1.0 NM

2.0 NM

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approaches are being conducted:


01 Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that:
0

RispostaA

RispostaB

RispostaC

RispostaD

the missed approach


track for one approach
diverges by at least
30 (degrees) from the
missed approach track
of the adjacent
approach

the missed approach


track for one approach
diverges by at least 20
(degrees) from the
missed approach track of
the adjacent approach

the missed approach


track for one approach
diverges by at least 25
(degrees) from the
missed approach track
of the adjacent
approach

25 degrees

20 degrees

the missed
approach track
for one
approach
diverges by at
least 45
(degrees) from
the missed
approach track
of the adjacent
approach
15 degrees

500 m is established
between extended
runway centre lines and
as is depicted on the
radar display

710 m is established
between extended
runway centre lines and
as is depicted on the
radar display

01 When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS
30 degrees
0 localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to
intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than:
01 Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no
610 m is established
0 transgression zone (NTZ) of at least:
between extended
runway centre lines
and as is depicted on
the radar display

600 m is
established
between
extended
runway centre
lines and as is
depicted on the
radar display
01 When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to
at least 2.0 NM prior to at least 3.0 NM prior to
at least 1.5 NM prior to at least 2.5 NM
0 intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the vector shall be such as to enable
intercepting the ILS
intercepting the ILS glide intercepting the ILS
prior to
the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track in level flight for: glide path or specified path or specified MLS
glide path or specified intercepting the
MLS elevation angle
elevation angle
MLS elevation angle
ILS glide path
or specified
MLS elevation
angle
01 Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that: the missed
at least 30 (degrees) at least 45 (degrees)
at least 25 (degrees) at least 15
0 approach track for one approach diverges by:
from the missed
from the missed
from the missed
(degrees) from
approach track of the approach track of the
approach track of the
the missed
adjacent approach
adjacent approach
adjacent approach
approach track
of the adjacent
approach
01 In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a
2 minutes
3 minutes
4 minutes
1 minute
0 medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway?
01 The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m
Not applicable
250 KT IAS
250 KT TAS
240 KT IAS
0 (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
01 The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m
250 KT IAS
250 KT TAS
Not applicable
240 KT IAS
0 (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
01 The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m
250 KT IAS
250 KT TAS
Not applicable
260 KT IAS
0 (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
01 The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when
Not applicable
250 KT IAS
250 KT TAS
260 KT IAS
0 flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is:
01 A strayed aircraft is:
An aircraft which has
only that aircraft which
only that aircraft which an aircraft in a
0
deviated significantly has deviated significantly reports that it is lost
given area but
from its intended track its intended track
whose identity
or which reports that it
has not been
is lost
established
01 Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning
C to G (inclusive)
A to G (inclusive)
A to E (inclusive)
F and G
0 collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes:

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01 ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover,
0 when the clouds are:

01 Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there in:
0

RispostaA

RispostaB

below 1 500 m (5.000 below 900 m (3.000 ft) or


ft) or below the highest below the highest
minimum sector
minimum sector altitude,
altitude, whichever is whichever is the greater
the greater
need not to be identical has to be the same as
with those applicable in the underlying flight
the underlying flight
information region
information region

RispostaD

Airspace D

below 2 000 m (600 ft) cumulonimbus


or below the highest
minimum sector
altitude, whichever is
the greater
have to be as indicated have to be as
by ICAO council
agreed at the
regional air
navigation
meetings
5 NM visibility below
5 NM visibility
3050 m (10.000 ft)
when below
AMSL, clear of clouds
3050 m (10.000
ft) AMSL, 1500
m horizontal
and 300 m
vertical from
cloud
8 km below 3050 m
5 km visibility,
(10.000 ft) AMSL, 1 500 1500 m
m horizontal and 300 m horizontal and
vertical from clouds
300 m vertical
from clouds
5 NM at or above 3050 8 km at or
m (10.000 ft) AMSL,
above 3050 m
1500 m horizontal and (10.000 ft)
300 m vertical from
AMSL, and clear
clouds
of clouds
Airspace E
Airspace B

Airspace C

Airspace D

Airspace E

Airspace B

Airspace E

Airspace A

Airspace D

Airspace B

Airspace A

Airspace G

Airspace E

Airspace D

Airspace F

Airspace C

Airspace E

AIP, including
amendment service;
supplements to AIP,
NOTAM, AIC and checklist
summaries

AIP, supplements to AIP; AIP including


NOTAM and PIB; AIC
amendment
and checklist
service;
summaries
supplements to
AIP; NOTAM,
AIC; AIRAC

01 The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is:
0

8 km visibility when at
or above 3050 m
(10.000 ft) AMSL and
clear of clouds

8 km visibility when at or
above 3050 m (10.000 ft)
AMSL, and 1500 m
horizontal and 300 m
vertical from clouds

01 A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima
0 of flight visibility and distance from clouds

5 km below 3050 m
(10.000 ft) AMSL and
clear of clouds

5 km below 3050 m
(10.000 ft) AMS 1.500 m
horizontal and 300 m
vertical from clouds

01 A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima
0 of flight visibility and distance from clouds

8 km at or above 3050
m (10.000 ft) AMSL
1500 m horizontal and
300 m vertical from
clouds
Airspace C

5km at or above 3050 m


(10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m
horizontal and 300 m
vertical from clouds

01 An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control
0 service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are
separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified
as:
01 An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control
Airspace B
0 service and are separated from each other is classified as
01 An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic
Airspace D
0 control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in
respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified
as:
01 An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service Airspace E
0 and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is
classified as
01 An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air
Airspace F
0 traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified
01 An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, Airspace G
0 is classified as
01 An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements
AIP, including
0
amendment service;
supplements to AIP;
NOTAM and pre-flight
information bulletin
(PIB); AIC; checklists
and summaries
01 The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by:
The nationality letters
0
for location indicators

RispostaC

The letters P (Prohibited), The nationality letters


R (Restricted) and D
for the location

The letters P
(Prohibited), R

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RispostaA

RispostaB

assigned to the state or (Dangerous) for the area


territory, followed the concerned and figures
letters P. R and D and
figures
01 In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area, restricted area At least one year after At least 6 months after
0 and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of
cancellation of the area cancellation of the area
to which they refer
to which they refer

RispostaC

RispostaD

indicators assigned to (Restricted) and


the state, followed by P, D (Dangerous)
R and D
followed by
figures
At least 3 months after At least 2
cancellation of the area months after
to which they refer
cancellation of
the area to
which they
refer
One year or longer
Two months or
longer

01 Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information of short
0 duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements. It is
considered a long duration.
01 Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with:
0

Three months or longer Six months or longer

AIRAC procedures and


identified by the
acronym AIRAC

NOTAM procedures and


identified by acronym
NOTAM followed by a
number

01 A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of:


0
01 A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of:
0
01 The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity
0 is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano
level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with
ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert
colour code is
01 AIP SIGMET information can be found in which part of the AIP?
0
01 AIP Which part of the AIP contains a brief description of the service(s) responsible for search and
0 rescue?
01 AIP Which part of the AIP contains information about holding, approach and departure procedures?
0
01 Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to:
0

Not more than one


month
Not more than one
month
RED

Not more than three


months
No more than 15 days
YELLOW

AIC procedures
and identified
by the acronym
AIC followed by
a number
Not more than 28 days Not more than
2 months
Not more than 28 days Not more than
10 days
GREEN
ORANGE

GEN

ENR

AD

MET

GEN

ENR

AD

SAR

ENR

GEN

AD

MAP

01 The documents for entry and departure of aircraft:


0

are accepted in handwritten block lettering


in ink

01 When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the
0 territory of the state, the operator:

AIP supplements and


shall be clearly
identified

accompanied baggage cargo and is covered by a cargo but is free from


or under another
traffic document
any kind of declaration
simplified customs
forms
procedure distinct from
that normally
applicable to other
cargo

shall not be preclude


from recovering from
such person any
transportation costs
arising from his (her)
inadmissibility
01 The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international annex 9
0 flights is:

has to be typewritten

shall not recover from


such person any
transportation costs
arising from his (her)
inadmissibility
annex 8

cargo but
clearance
documents
provided by
airlines shall be
completed by
the passenger
prior to
shipment
has to be typewritten or are accepted at
produced by electronic the contracting
data processing
state discretion
techniques
is not responsible for
and the state of
the person inadmissible the operator
for entry in the
are both
receiving state
responsible for
the person
inadmissible
annex 6
annex 15

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RispostaA
b
01 The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on international
annex 9
0 flights is:
01 The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or may deliver such
0 is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offence against penal law
person to the
competent authorities

01 The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with:


0

RispostaB
annex 8

RispostaC
annex 15

RispostaD
annex 16

may request such person may require the


to disembark
assistance of
passengers to restrain
such person

Damage caused by
Regulation of
foreign aircraft to third transportation of
parties on the surface dangerous goods

may not require


or authorise the
assistance of
other crew
members
Damage caused by any offences and
aircraft to third parties certain other
on the surface
acts committed
on board
aircraft
the Paris Convention
the Tokyo
Convention
the Warsaw Convention the Montreal
Convention

01 The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to ensure adequate compensation for
the Rome Convention the Warsaw Convention
0 persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is:
01 Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an the Rome Convention the Chicago Convention
0 aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as
provided by:
01 The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is:
the convention of Tokyo the convention of Paris
the convention of Rome
0
01 The convention which deals with offences against penal law, is
the convention of Tokyo the convention of Warsaw the convention of Rome
0
01 The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co- 50 % of the co-pilot
40 % of the co-pilot flight 100 hours of flying time
0 pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than:
flight time towards the time towards, the total
required for a higher
total flight time
flight time required for a grade of a pilot licence
required for a higher
higher grade of a pilot
grade of pilot licence
licence

01 The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than:
0
01 An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold
0

18 years of age

21 years of age

17 years of age

a current class I
medical assessment

a current class II medical a current class III


assessment
medical assessment

01 The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be:


0

to act as pilot-in
command in any
aeroplane engaged in
operations other than
commercial air
transportation

to act as pilot in
command in any
aeroplane engaged in
commercial air
transportation

01 An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than ........ hours
0 of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight totalling not less
than ........ km (-NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be
made. The hours and distance referred are:
01 An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less
0 than:

20 hours and 540 km


(300NM)

10 hours and 270 km


(150 NM)

20 hours of cross
country flight time as
pilot-in-command
including a cross
country flight not less
than 540 km (300NM)

10 hours of cross country


flight time as pilot-incommand including a
cross country flight not
less than 540 km
(300NM)

the convention
of Chicago
the convention
of Madrid
60 % of the copilot flight time
towards, the
total flight time
required for a
higher grade of
a pilot licence
16 years of age

a current class
medical
assessment as
prescribed by
the state
issuing the
licence
to act as pilot in
none of the
command in any
answers are
aeroplane certificate for correct
single pilot operation
other than in
commercial air
transportation
15 hours and 540 km
20 hours and
(300NM)
270 km
(150NM)
25 hours of cross
country flight time as
pilot-in-command
including a cross
country flight not less
than 540 km (300NM)

15 hours of
cross country
flight time as
pilot-incommand
including a

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01 An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not
0 less than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not less than ...... hours as pilot-incommand and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-incommand the duties and functions of a pilot in command provided that the method of supervision
employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively:
01 The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less
0 than ...... hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than ...... hours shall be as pilot-in
command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot in command, the duties and
functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to
the licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively:
01 An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
0

RispostaA

RispostaB

RispostaC

RispostaD
cross country
flight not less
than 540 km
(300NM)
150 hours and
75 hours

250 hours and 100


hours

200 hours and 75 hours

200 hours and 100


hours

200 hours and 100


hours

250 hours and 10 hours

150 hours and 75 hours 200 hours and


75 hours

75 hours of instrument 100 hours of instrument


time, of which not more time, of which not more
than 30 hours may be than 30 hours of
instrument ground
instrument ground time
time.

150 hours of instrument 75 hours of


time, of which not more instrument
than 75 hours of
time, of which
instrument ground time. not more than
20 hours of
instrument
ground time.
01 An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: 100 hours of night
100 hours of night flight 75 hours of night flight 75 hours of
0
flight as pilot in
only as pilot in command as pilot in command or night time only
command or as co-pilot
as co-pilot
as pilot in
command
01 The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic 100 hours, of which not 100 hours of which not
100 hours of which not 75 hours of
0 flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of the total flight time of 1 500 hours.
more than 25 hours
more than 20 hours shall more than 15 hours
which not more
Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of:
shall have been
have been acquired in a shall have been
than 20 hours
acquired in a flight
basic instrument flight
acquired in a flight
shall have been
procedure trainer or
trainer
procedure trainer or
acquired in a
basic instrument flight
basic instrument flight flight procedure
trainer
trainer
trainer or basic
instrument
flight trainer
01 An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument
50 hours and 10 hours 40 hours and 10 hours
40 hours and 15 hours 50 hours and
0 rating, shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in
15 hours
categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less than ..... hours shall be in
aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively
01 In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing
A single period of six
Two consecutive periods A single period of six
in the case of a
0 authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:
months in the case of a each of three months in months in the case of a private pilot, a
flight crew member of the case of a flight crew flight crew member of single period of
an aircraft engaged in member of an aircraft
an aircraft engaged in 12 months
non commercial
engaged in non
commercial operations.
operations.
commercial operations
01 The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date:
the medical
the licence is issued or
the licence is issued or the licence is
0
assessment is issued
validated
renewed
delivered to the
pilot
01 When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity of shall not extend
shall not extend more
the Contracting state
shall not extend
0 the authorisation
beyond the period of
than 15 days from the
rendering a licence
beyond the
validity of the licence date of the licence
valid may extend the
period of
date of the validity at
validity of the
its own discretion
licence other
than for use in
private flights

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RispostaA
RispostaB
b
01 When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and helicopter have passed their 40th 12 months to 6 months 12 months to 3 months
0 birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from:
01 Type ratings shall be established
0

for any type of aircraft


whenever considered
necessary by the
authority

01 The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in
0 command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit:

in full with his flight


time towards the total
time required for
higher grade of pilot
licence

01 For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less
0 than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night

5 hours of night flight


time including 5 takeoffs and 5 landings as
pilot in command

01 An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less
0 than:

200 hours of flight time 200 hours of flight time


or 150 hours if
and 80 hours as pilot in
completed during a
command
course of approved
training as a pilot of
aeroplanes
10 hours of instrument 20 hours of instrument
instruction time of
instruction time of which
which not more than 5 not more than 5 hours
hours may be
may be instrument
instrument ground time ground time.

01 An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
0

01 The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by:


0

Each contracting state

01 When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other the passengers
0 persons not subjected to such control after the security screening points at airports serving
concerned and their
international civil aviation have been passed
cabin baggage shall be
re screened before
boarding an aircraft
01 Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be
to all international civil
0 responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security
air transport including
programme. This programme should apply:
aircraft engaged solely
in the carriage of cargo
and yet to domestic
flights at the discretion
of each member state
01 When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign
Prior notification by the

RispostaC
24 months to 12
months

only aircraft certificated


for operation with a
minimum crew of at least
two pilots

only for aircraft


certificated for
operation with a
minimum crew of at
least two pilots and
each type of helicopter
in full with his flight but the flight time towards
not more than 300 hours the total time required
towards the total time
for higher grade of pilot
required for a higher
licence in accordance
grade of pilot licence
with the requirements
of the licensing
authority
5 hours of night flight
5 hours of night flight
time including 5 take-offs time including 3 takeand 5 landings either as offs and 3 landings as
pilot in command or as
pilot in command
co-pilot

RispostaD
none of the
answers are
correct
all the answers
are correct

50% of his
flight time
towards the
total time
required for
higher grade of
pilot licence
5 hours of night
flight time
including 3
take-offs and 5
landings as
pilot in
command
200 hours of flight time 150 hours of
and 70 hours as pilot in flight time and
command
100 hours as
pilot in
command
20 hours of instrument
instruction time of
which not more than 10
hours may be
instrument ground time

15 hours of
instrument time
of which not
more than 5
hours as pilot in
command
ICAO
ECAC
ICAO and other
organisations
including the
contracting
state
concerned
only the passengers are only the passengers
the persons not
to be re screened
cabin baggage are to be subjected to
re screened
security control
shall be
identified
only to all international
only to passengers and only to
civil transport including aircrew in international passengers and
aircraft engaged solely in civil transport flights
aircrew in
the carriage of cargo
international
civil transport
flights and
domestic flights
Notification of the pilot in Agreement between the Agreement

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0 states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, permission for the
carriage of weapons should be conditional upon:

01 Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following
0 groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below:

01 For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be
0 observed such as:

01 When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable
0 RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of:

01 Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a
0 navigation accuracy of

01 When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable
0 RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of:

01 The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed


0
01 Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated
0
01 Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the
0 responsibility of
01 ATIS broadcast
0

01 Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to
0 ensure correct time to within plus or minus
01 An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence or expected
0 occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level
aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in
the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof is
01 Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route
0 segments of

RispostaA
state of embarcation to
the foreign state in
which the weapons will
be carried on the
airport of arrival and
notification of the pilot
in command of a
decision to permit a
weapon to be carried
on board his aircraft
Deportees,
inadmissible persons
and persons in lawful
custody
boarding prior to all
passengers

RispostaB

RispostaC

RispostaD

command of a decision to state of embarcation


permit a weapon to be
and the state of
carried on board his
destination
aircraft only

between the
state of
embarcation
and the airport
of arrival

Deportees and persons in Deportees and


lawful custody only
inadmissible persons
only

None of the
answers is
correct

boarding after to all other the boarding will be at


passengers
the pilot in command
discretion

the boarding
has to be done
at the state
discretion
15 NM on the route
15 NM on the route
22.5 NM on the route
25 NM on the
between 30 and 90 between 30 and 90 at between 30 and 90 at route between
at and below FL 190
and above FL 200
and above FL 250
30 and 90 at
and below
FL190
plus or minus 4 NM on plus or minus 4 NM on a plus or minus 4 NM on a plus or minus 4
a 95 per cent
90 per cent containment 98 per cent
miles on a 90
containment basis
basis
containment basis
per cent
containment
basis
22.5 NM between 30 25.0 NM on the route
22.5 NM between 30
20 NM on the
and 90 at and above between 30 and 90 at and 90 at and above
route between
FL200
and above FL 250
FL260
30 and 90 at
and above
FL200
30 seconds
1 minute
2 minutes
3 minutes
immediately a
significant change
occurs
the air traffic services

at least every half an


as prescribed by the
hour independently of
meteorological office
any significant change
the meteorological office both air traffic services
serving the aerodrome (s) and the meteorological
office
shall not be
Shall be transmitted on
Shall not be transmitted
transmitted on the
the voice channel of an
on the voice of a VOR
voice channel of an ILS ILS, on a discrete VHF
frequency or on the voice
channel of a VOR
30 seconds of UTC at
15 seconds of UTC at all 10 seconds of UTC at all
all times
times
times
An AIRMET information A SIGMET information
A NOTAM

as prescribed
by the state

60 NM or more

100 NM or
more

75 NM or more

50 NM or more

the unit as
prescribed the
states
Shall only be
transmitted on
a discrete VHF
frequency
1 minute of UTC
at all times
An En-Route
Meteo Report

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01 Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed
0

RispostaA
by states on the basis
of regional air
navigation agreements
C, D, E, F, and G

RispostaB
by states but not on the
basis of regional air
agreements
F and G only

RispostaC
by ICAO on the basis of
regional air navigation
agreements
A, B, C, D, E, F and G

by regional air
navigation
agreements
F only

three letters
combinations used in
the international code
of signals
RCC

the
International
Telecommunica
tion Union
letters used for
ICAO
identification
documents
LLL

LLL

DDD

RCC

LLL

01 Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when
0 operating in airspace classes:
01 According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and the state of registry or the state of registry only the International Civil
0 numbers and shall be that assigned by:
common mark
Aviation Organisation
registering authority
01 When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be
0 confused with the

five letter combinations four letter combinations


used in the
beginning with Q
international code of
signals
01 When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused TTT
FFF
0 with urgent signals for example
01 When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused PAN
RCC
0 with urgent signals for example
01 When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be
XXX
DDD
0 confused with urgent or distress signals for example
01 The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
at least 50 centimetres at least between 40
0
centimetres and 50
centimetres
01 The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of at least 30 centimetres at least 40 centimetres
0 heavier than air aircraft shall be:

RispostaD

at least 60 centimetres at least 75


centimetres

at least 20 centimetres at least


between 20
centimetres
and 40
centimetres
01 The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure over 5.700 kg
over 5.700 kg maximum up to 5.700 kg
up to 5.700 kg
0 the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion
maximum certificate
certificate take-off and
maximum certificate
maximum
prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes:
take-off mass
landing mass
take-off mass
certificate takeoff and landing
mass
01 When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if
the state of registry
the state of registry, the the state of
the state of
0
considers that the
state of design and the
manufacture informs
design and the
damage sustained is of state of manufacture
the state of registry
state of
a nature such that the consider that the aircraft that the damage
manufacture
aircraft is still airworthy is still airworthy
sustained is of a nature inform the state
such that the aircraft is of registry that
still airworthy
the aircraft is
still airworthy
01 The loading limitations shall include:
all limiting mass,
all limiting mass and
all limiting mass, mass all limiting
0
centres of gravity
centres of gravity
distributions and
mass, centres
position, mass
centres of gravity
of gravity
distributions and floor
position and
loading
floor loading
01 An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. not land because the
give way to another
return to land and that not land for the
0 This signifies that the aircraft must:
airport is not available aircraft.
clearance to land will be moment
for landing.
communicated in due
regardless of
course.
previous
instructions.
01 The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international
Chicago
The Hague
Warsaw
Montreal
0 convention of:
01 The second freedom of the air is the:
right to land for a
right to overfly without
right to "cabotage"
right to operate

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RispostaA
technical stop

01 The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices Annex 1
0 for Personnel Licensing is:
01 The first freedom of the air is:
The right to overfly
0
without landing.

RispostaB

RispostaC

landing

traffic, (trans-border
traffic).

Annex 2

Annex 11

The right to land for a


technical stop.

The opportunity to
operate a commercial
flight with passengers
on board between two
states.

RispostaD
a commercial
passenger
flight with
passengers on
board between
two states.
Annex 12

The right to
board
passengers
from the state
where the
aircraft is
registered and
to fly to an
other state.
01 An AIRAC is:
An Acronym for a
A publication issued by or A notice distributed by A package
0
system aimed at
with the authority of a
means of
which consists
advance notification
state containing
telecommunication
of the following
based on common
aeronautical information containing information elements: AIP,
effective dates, of
of a lasting character
concerning the
supplements to
circumstances
essential to air
establishment,
the AIP,
necessitating
navigation.
condition or change in NOTAM, AIC,
significant changes in
any aeronautical facility checklists and
operating procedures.
service, procedure or
summaries.
hazard, the timely
knowledge of which is
essential to personnel
concerned with flight
operations.
01 The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:
standards and
aeronautical standards
proposals for
standards and
0
recommended
adopted by all states.
aeronautical regulations recommended
international practices
in the form of 18
practices
for contracting member
annexes.
applied without
states.
exception by all
states,
signatory to the
Chicago
convention.
01 The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers Warsaw Convention.
Tokyo Convention.
Hague Convention.
Montreal
0 for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the:
Convention.
01 At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received
switch his landing
make at least one
transmit, by luminous fly over the
0 these ground signals, the pilot must:
lights on and off twice complete turn over the
Morse signal, a series of group of people
or, if he is not so
group of people in
the letter "R" using his in difficulty as
equipped, his
difficulty.
navigational lights.
low as possible.
navigation lights twice.
01 The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered true air speed (TAS).
estimated ground speed indicated air speed
true air speed
0 in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
(G/S).
(IAS).
at 65% power.
01 The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time:
required by the aircraft required by the aircraft
required by the aircraft of endurance at
0
from take-off to arrive from the moment it
from brake release at
cruising power
overhead the
moves by its own power take-off until landing.
taking into
destination airport.
until it stops at the end of
account
the flight (block time).
pressure and
temperature on

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01 An air traffic control unit:


0

RispostaA

RispostaB

may ask an aircraft to may require to change


must not ask an aircraft
temporarily change its the call sign for safety
to change its call sign.
call sign for safety
reasons when there is a
reasons when there is a risk of confusion between
risk of confusion
two or more similar call
between two or more signs providing the
similar call signs.
aircraft is on a repetitive
flight plan.
3-5
3-4-5
1-4

01 The pilot in command of an aircraft: 1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received from
0 ATC. 2 - is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying". 3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety
reasons. 4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction. 5 - may
ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance. Which of the following combinations contains
all of the correct statements?
01 Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the must come back to
is cleared to land.
0 tower. The aircraft:
land and the landing
clearance will be sent
in due time.
01 The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done:
by agreement with the automatically at the
0
receiving unit.
control zone boundary.
01 Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS):
0

it can only supply


its purpose is to supply
limited services to the ATC services but it is not
users and under no
a state organisation.
circumstances may it
supply ATC services.

01 SSR special codes ATC has assigned you the transponder code 5320. In case of loosing two way
0 radio communication, you have to squawk:
01 When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot must fly
0 heading:

Mode A Code 7600

Mode A Code 5320

030 magnetic

030 magnetic in still air


conditions (thereby flying
the magnetic track)

01 The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified 7 000 kg.
0 take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:

14 000 kg.

01 If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form...
0

write ZZZZ in box 16


and indicate in box 18
(additional information)
ALTN/followed by the
name of the airport.

write XXXX in box 16 and


indicate in box 18
(additional information)
ALTN/followed by the
name of the airport

01 While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red
0 flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:

must vacate the


landing area in use.

must stop.

01 While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal: a series of
0 green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:

RispostaC

may continue to taxi


towards the take-off
area.
01 Approach procedures missed approach climb Normally the missed approach procedures are based 2.5%
0 on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:

must stop.

2%

RispostaD
that day.
may not ask an
aircraft to
change its call
sign after
accepting the
flight plan.

2-3-5

must land immediately must give way


and clear the landing
to another
area.
aircraft.
with the pilot's consent. through a
central control
unit.
it has the same
its only purpose
privileges and
is to relay ATC
prerogatives as an ATC information to
organisation but its
the aircraft in
activity is neither
flight or on the
continuous nor regular. ground.
Mode A Code 7700
Mode A Code
7500
030 true
030 true, in
still air
conditions
(thereby flying
the true track)
20 000 kg.
5 700 kg for
aeroplanes and
2 700 kg for
helicopters.
write XXXX in box 16
write ZZZZ in
and indicate in box 18 box 16 and
(additional information) indicate in box
DEGT/followed by the
18 (additional
name of the airport
information)
DEGT/followed
by the name of
the airport.
must return to its point may continue
of departure.
to taxi to the
take-off area.
must return to its point is cleared for
of departure.
take-off.
5%

3.3%

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01 For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the estimated
0 time at which the aircraft:

RispostaA

RispostaC

RispostaD

will arrive overhead the will land.


initial approach fix.

01 Given: AGL = above ground level AMSL = above mean sea level FL = flight level within uncontrolled 3 000 ft AMSL or 1
0 airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 ft margin above the following two levels:
000ft AGL.
01 Approach procedures Minimum Sector Altitudes / MSA Minimum Sector Altitudes are established for 25 NM
0 each aerodrome. The MSA provides an obstacle clearance of at least 300m (984 ft) within a circle,
associated with the homing facility for the approach procedure of that aerodrome. How many NM is
the radius of this circle?
01 Approach procedures MDH / OCH For a non-precision or circling approach, the Minimum Descent
the Obstacle Clearance
0 Height (MDH) cannot be lower than:
Height (OCH)
01 When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of:
air traffic control and
0
flight information
centres.
01 During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the
the pilot in command.
0 responsibility of:
01 According to JAR-FCL, a professional flight crew licence license issued by a non JAA State may be
At the discretion of the
0 rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a JAA Member State
Authority of that
Member State
concerned for a period
not exceeding one
year, provided that the
basic licence remains
valid.

01 According to JAR-FCL, licence holders do not exercise the privileges of their licences, related ratings
0 or authorisations at any time when they are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which
might render them unable to safely exercise those privileges. They shall without undue delay seek
the advice of the authority or AME when becoming aware of hospital or clinic admissions for:
01 According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for
0

RispostaB

More than 12 hours

60 months until age of


30, 24 months until
age of 50, 12 months
until age of 65 and 6
months thereafter

will stop on the parking will leave the


area.
initial approach
fix to start the
final approach.
3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 ft FL 30 or 100 ft AGL.
FL 30 or 1 500
AGL.
ft AGL.
20 NM
10 NM
5 NM

200 ft

350 ft

400 ft

search and rescue coordination centres.

air traffic co-ordination control centres


centres.
only.

the approach controller.

the radar controller.

60 months until age of


30, 24 months until age
of 40, 12 months
thereafter

24 months until age of


40, 12 months
thereafter

the airport
controller.
At the discretion of the
At the discretion of the At the
Authority of the Member Authority of that
discretion of
State concerned for a
Member State
the Authority of
period not exceeding the concerned for a period that Member
period validity of basic
not exceeding one year State
licence
concerned for a
period not
exceeding one
year, provided
that the basic
licence remains
valid.
More than 12 days
More than one week
Any period

24 months until
age of 40, 12
months until
age of 60 and 6
months
thereafter
01 According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed and completed an
150 hours of flight time 200 hours of flight time 150 hours of flight time 200 hours of
0 integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of
plus 10 hours of
flight time plus
airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA Member State at least:
instrument ground time 10 hours of
instrument
ground time
01 According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for:
one year
two years
The period of validity of Indefinitely
0
the licence.
01 According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A) including a night qualification or Cross country flight
Cross country flight time Instructional flight time Instructional
0 CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours:
time as pilot-inas pilot of aeroplanes or as student-pilot-inflight time as
command in
helicopters of which at
command of
student-pilot-inaeroplanes or
least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
command of
helicopters of which at aeroplanes.
aeroplanes or
least 10 hours shall be
helicopters of
in aeroplanes.
which at least
10 hours shall

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RispostaA

RispostaB

RispostaC

RispostaD

be in
aeroplanes.
01 According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a
All self.-sustaining
All types of single-pilot,
Microlights having fixed Any other type
0 type rating, including:
gliders.
single-engine aeroplanes wings and moveable
of aeroplane if
fitted with a turbojet
aerodynamic control
considered
engine.
surfaces acting in all
necessary.
three dimensions.
01 According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the
Handling
Handling characteristics A certificate of
A certificate of
0 basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has:
characteristics that
that require the use of
airworthiness issued by airworthiness
require additional flying more than one crew
a non-member state.
issued by the
or simulator training
member
manufacturer.
01 According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be one year from Of issue
Of the skill test
The application is
Of the last
0 the date:
received by the
medical
Authority.
certificate
01 According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for:
Two years
One year
Two years up to age 40 Five years after
0
years then one year
licence issue.
thereafter.
01 According to JAR-FCL, successful completion of multi-crew co-operation (MCC) training shall be
Obtain the first type
Obtain the first class
Obtain a professional
Revalidate any
0 required to:
rating on multi-pilot
rating on multi-engine
pilot licence
rating or
aeroplanes
aeroplanes
licence
01 According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A) shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplane at least 500 hours in multi-pilot 500 hours in multi-pilot
500 hours in multi-pilot 500 hours in
0 1.500 hours of flight time, including
operations on
operations on aeroplanes operations on
multi-pilot
aeroplanes type
type certificated in
aeroplanes type
operations on
certificated in
accordance with JAR/FAR certificated in
aeroplanes
accordance with
25 or JAR/FAR 23, as pilot- accordance with
type
JAR/FAR 25 or JAR/FAR in-command
JAR/FAR 25 or JAR/FAR certificated in
23.
23, of which up to 150 accordance
hours may be as flight with JAR/FAR 25
engineer.
or JAR/FAR 23,
including 200
hours of night
flight as pilotin-command or
as co-pilot.
01 According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as
a minimum crew of two the carriage of
a minimum crew of two operations by
0 pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for:
pilots under IFR
passengers at night.
pilots plus a flight
pilots under
engineer.
training.
01 According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of a newly qualified Flight Instructor are restricted to carrying
On the
On the recommendation On the recommendation On the
0 out instruction under the supervision of a FI(A), approved for this purpose. The restrictions may be
recommendation of the of the supervising FI(A)
of the supervising FI(A) recommendatio
removed from the rating:
supervising FI(A) after after the holder of the
after the holder of the n of the
the holder of the
restricted FI(A) rating has restricted FI(A) rating
supervising
restricted FI(A) rating supervised at least 100
has completed a
FI(A) after the
has completed at least solo flights.
competency test.
holder of the
100 hours flight
restricted FI(A)
instruction and , in
rating has
addition, has
supervised at
supervised at least 25
least 100 solo
student solo flights.
flights and
completed a
competency
test.
01 According to JAR-FCL, the aeroplane instructor categories recognised are:
FI(A)/TRI(A)/CRI(A)/IRI(A FE(A)/TRE(A)/CRE(A)/IRE( FI(A)/TRI(A)CRE(A)/IRE( FI(A) and IRI(A).
0
) and SFI authorisation A) and SFI authorisation. A) and SFI authorisation
01 According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of the holder of an unrestricted FI(A) rating are to conduct flight Provided that the FI(A) Provided that the FI(A)
Provided that the FI(A) Without

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0 instruction for the issue of a CPL(A):

Domanda

01 According to JAR-FCL, an examiner's authorisation is valid for:


0

RispostaA
has completed at least
500 hours of flight time
as a pilot of aeroplanes
including at least 200
hours of flight
instruction
Not more than three
years

RispostaB
has completed not less
than 15 hours on the
relevant type in the
preceding 12 months.

RispostaC
has completed 200
hours of flight
instruction

RispostaD
restriction

01 According to JAR-FCL, Medical certificates classes are:


0
01 According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid
0 subject to the:

1 and 2

Not more than two years The period of validity of The period of
the class/type rating.
validity of the
medical
certificate.
1, 2 and 3
1,2,3 and 4
class 1 only.

Laws of the State of


registry

Laws of the State in


which is operated

01 Each State of ICAO Annex 17 shall ensure the establishment of a security programme,
0

At each airport

That is common for all


airports within State

01 The ICAO Annex 17 comprise rules in order to establish security measures for passengers
0

cabin baggage,
and baggage
checked baggage,
cargo and other goods,
access control and
airport design

01 When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the most
Two aforementioned
0 expeditious means of the State of registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator of the landing States, each State
and shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to the:
whose citizens suffered
fatalities or injuries,
each State whose
citizens were detained
as hostages, each
State whose citizens
are known to be on
board the aircraft and
the ICAO
01 A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. This assistance provision of navigation
0 includes:
aids, air traffic services
and permission to land

Two aforementioned
States, each State whose
citizens suffered fatalities
or injuries, each State
whose citizens are known
to be on board the
aircraft and the ICAO

provision of navigation
aids, air traffic services,
permission to land and
refuelling
during a period of
investigation

01 A State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft which is
0 subjected to an act of unlawful interference,

until their journey can


be continued

01 Accident investigation, objective The sole objective of the investigation of an accident or incident
0 shall be the:

prevention of accidents prevention of accidents


or incidents.
or incidents and establish
the liability.

01 Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: an special NOTAM series notifying, by
0 means of a specific format, an important change for the aircraft operations, due to a volcano

ASHTAM

GVATAM

Laws of the State of


registry and operation

Requirements
laid down by
ICAO
for every airline
only for
operating in the State administrative
staff of airport
checked baggage,
checked
cargo and other goods baggage, cargo
and other
goods, access
control and
airport design
Two aforementioned
Two
States and the ICAO
aforementioned
States, each
State whose
citizens
suffered
fatalities or
injuries on
board the
aircraft and the
ICAO
provision of navigation only permission
aids, air traffic services, to land
permission to land and
catering for passengers
and arrange for them to if is requested
return to their country by an individual
of origin
passenger
prevention of accidents prevention of
or incidents and to
accidents or
provide legal evidence incidents and
for subsequent court
provide the
cases.
manufacturer
with
investigation
data for the
improvement of
the design.
NAVTAM
VULTAM

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Air Law and ATC Procedures


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b

Domanda

activity, a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash cloud.


01 The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the methods of
0 operation, based on common effective dates, is identified by the acronym:
01 The temporary, long-term modification ( 3 months or more) and the short-term extensive or
0 graphical information are published as follows:
01 The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Flight Rating in_____ aeroplanes shall
0 prove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by
instrumental rules and an engine _________.
01 The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and buildings or the parts of them with
0 controlled access is called:

RispostaA

RispostaB

RispostaC

RispostaD

AIRAC

IFPS

NOTAM

EATCHIP

AIP Supplements

AIP Amendments

NOTAM

Trigger NOTAM

Multi-engine /
Land/inactive.
inoperative or
simulated inoperative.
Aeronautical part
Security program.

Amphibious/inactive or Singlesimulated inactive.


engine/inactive.
Manoeuvring area.

Terminal.

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