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MOCK TEST-1

Part-A
1. A bat was flying with the speed of 0.5 m/s ,
prodeced a ultrasound wave with the speed of 5 m/
s . It received the signal back exactly after 20 sec.
how far is the object from the bat at that point?
a. 100 m
b. 50 m
c. 25 m
d. 40 m
2. What is the angle covered by the hour hand
between 4.10 PM to 4.10 AM?
a. 300
b. 400
c. 360
d. 6
3. In how many ways you can build a team of 2
players, from 20 players?
a. 100
b. 190
c. 120
d. 290
4. The ratio between the three angles of a
quadrilateral is 13 : 9 : 5 respectively. The value of
the fourth angle of the quadrilateral is 36. What is
the difference between the largest and the second
a. 104
b. 108
c. 72
d. 96
5. If A = x% of y and B = y% of x, then which of the
following is true?
a. A is smaller than B.
b. A is greater than B
c. A and B are equal
d. If x is smaller than y, then A is greater
than B.
6. If the radius of a circle is diminished by 10%, then
its area is diminished by:
a. 10%
b. 19%
c. 20%
d. 36%
7. The reflex angle between the hands of a clock at
10.25 is:
a. 180
b. 192 1/2

c.
d.

195
197 1/2

8. A boat running upstream takes 8 hours 48 minutes

to cover a certain distance, while it takes 4 hours
to cover the same distance running downstream.
What is the ratio between the speed of the boat and
speed of the water current respectively?
a. 2 : 1
b. 3 : 2
c. 8 : 3
d. Cannot be determined
e. None of these
9. A hall is 15 m long and 12 m broad. If the sum of
the areas of the floor and the ceiling is equal to the
sum of the areas of four walls, the volume of the
hall is:
a. 720
b. 900
c. 1200
d. 1800
10. On a certain exam the only grades awared were 80
and 100. If the 10 students completed the project
and the average of their grades was 94. How many
eared 100?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
11. If 2x =32. What is x2?
a. 5
b. 14
c. 25
d. 100
12. A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B
alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for Rs.
3200. With the help of C, they completed the work
in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C?
a. Rs. 375
b. Rs. 400
c. Rs. 600
d. Rs. 800
13. The angle of elevation of a ladder leaning against a
wall is 60 and the foot of the ladder is 4.6 m away
from the wall. The length of the ladder is:
a. 2.3 m
b. 4.6 m
c.

7.8 m

d.

c. The prey is moving

d. The prey is on left side and bat is moving
over it.

9.2 m

14. Find out how the key figure (X) look will like after
rotation
5.

15. 4 men and 6 women can complete a work in 8 days,

while 3 men and 7 women can complete it in 10
days. In how many days will 10 women complete
it?
a. 35
b. 40
c.

45

d.

50

Part-B
1. A DNA sequence, which is homologous to active
gene, but not having any function
a. Intron
b. Interrupted sequences
c. Pseudogenes
d. Non coding repeats
2.

Which of the following statement is true?

A. Satellite DNA is a part of chromosome
localized to centromere only
B. Satellite DNA was discovered as disitinct band
on agarose gel
C.Satellite DNA contains different base
composition from rest other DNA sequences
D. All repititive DNA are a part of satellite DNA.
a. Only A
b. Only C
c. Only D
d. Both A and D

3. Around which prehsitoric time scale, homo sapiens

evolved from previous species?
a. Pleistocene epoch
b. Eocene epoch
c. Oligocene epoch
d. Jurassic period
4.

Bat use echolocation to locate the prey. The right ear

of the bat picked up the wave slightly before being
recognized by the left ear. This is interepted as
a. The prey is on right side
b. The prey is on left side

In non-human primates, the dominant male shows

A. More ability to capture prey
B. Polygynous
C. Parental care
a. Only B
b. Only c
c. Both A and B
d. All the above

6. The phenotype is governed by bot genotype and

environment. Sometimes we find penotype is not
inheritable and is prduced by organism exposed to a
particular environment. This is due to
a. Pleotropy
b. Phenocopy
c. Psedogenes
d. Complementation
7. What is the minimum number of transesterification
reactions required to splice out an intron from an
mRNA transcript?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
8. Match the following Proteins involved in DNA
replication with their functions:
Protein
Functions
for
DnaB
1. DnaA
A.Required
binding at origin
2. HU
B.Methylates 5 GATC
sequences at oriC
Recognizes
ori
3. DnaC
C.
sequences; opens duplex
at specific sites in origin
Dam
4.
D. DNA binding protein;
methyl
stimulates initiation
ase
a. 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B
b. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
c. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
d. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
9. Which of the following processes allows activation
of transcription by changing the accessibility of
chromatin to transcription factors?
a. Extensive methylation of DNA
b. Binding of protamines to DNA
c. Action of ATPase chromatin remodeling
complexes

d.
e.

Formation of a Barr body

Deacetylation of histones

10. Rifampicin is an important antibiotic used to treat

tuberculosis, as well as other mycobacterial diseases.
Some strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, are
resistant to rifampicin, these strain become resistant
by which of the following mechanisms?
a.Mutations in the MDR-type ABC
transporter, which pumps the drug out of
the Mycobacterium.
b. By production of rifamycin oxidase (RO).
c. Mutations that alter rpoB gene, involved
in synthesis of subunit of RNA
polymerase.
d. Mutations in the sigma () subunit of
RNA polymerase.
11. E. coli cells are growing in medium containing
lactose but no glucose. A mutation is introduced
such that it prevents binding of CRP to its binding
site near the lac promoter. What will be the
consequence of such type of mutation?
a. When glucose is introduced in the
medium, the cells will not be able to
utilize glucose.
b. The lac operon will be constitutively
expressed
irrespective
of
the
concentration of glucose in the external
medium.
c. The lac operons expression will decrease
irrespective of the concentration of
lactose in the surrounding medium.
d. The lac operons expression will be halted
when glucose concentration is high.
12.Which of the following is not a pathway for
biosynthesis of Auxins?
a. Indole-3-pyruvic acid pathway
b. Tryptamine pathway
c. Indole-3-acetonitrile pathway
d. Oxindole-3-acetic acid pathway
13.Match the Following as per the importance of
stratification taking place in lake ecosystem?
Column A
Column B
at
edges
1.
a. epilimnion
of biomes
2. vertical
b. hypolimnion
temperature
3. upper layer of
c. ecocline
warm water
4. rich in organic
d. thermocline

nutrients
5.lower layer of
water at 40 F.
a.
b.
c.
d.

e.

eutrophic

f.

oligotrophic

c,d,a,e,b
d,c,a,e,f
b,c,a,e,f
a,b,d,e,f

14.Arrange the biomes as per the characteristics

peculiar to it
Column A
Column B
1. Biome including grass,
a. savannah
hyenas,
antelopes,
zebras, and lions.
2. This biome exhibits
b. taiga
the greatest diversity
of plant species.
3. The subsoil of this
c. deciduous forest
biome is permanently
frozen
4. This biome can be
d. tundra
recognized
by
its
coniferous forests and
relatively
infertile
acidic soil.
e. tropical rain forest
f. temperate grassland
a. a,e,d,b
b. a,b,d,e
c. b,d,a,e
d. a,e,b,d
15. Mark out the appropriate difference between r and
k selected species
a. R- Density dependent regulation K
Density independent regulation
b. R- abiotic factors K- biotic factors
c. R low r max
K- High r max
d. Both b) and c)
16. In syncytial specification, the fates of cells can be
determined by __________________ within the egg
cytoplasm
b. Ectoderm
c. Mesoderm
d. Endoderm

17. Competence is the ability to bind and to respond to

the inducers, and it is often the result of a inducing
protein. __________ are inducing proteins that bind
to cell membrane receptors in competent cells.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Paracrine factors
Juxtacrine factors
neurotransmitters,
cytokines

18. Mammalian sperm bind to the zona pellucida before

undergoing the acrosome reaction. In the mouse,
this binding is mediated by ____________ and one
or many sperm proteins that recognize it.
a. ZP3 (zona protein 3)
b. ZP2 (zona protein 2)
c. ZP1 (zona protein 1)
d. ZP4 (zona protein 4)
19. Media containing spores can be sterilized by
a. pasteurization
b. UV
c. dry heat
d. tyndallization

b.Ensure that genetically engineered

bacteria are not accidentally released
into the environment.
c.Incorporate recombinant DNA into
infectious bacteriophage particles.
d. Very effective
24.Which of the following does not apply to the
construction or use of a DNA library?
a. Many segment of DNA from a cellular
genomes are cloned
b. Specialized DNA libraries can be made
by cloning DNA copies of mRNAs.
c. The DNA copies of mRNA found in
a cDNA library are made by reverse
transcriptase.
d.Genomic libraries are better for
expressing gene products than cDNA
libraries.

20. Two proteins have same molecular weight and same

isoelectric focusing .The best way to seperate them
will be
a. Ion exchange chromatography
b. Gel filtration chromatography
c. Reverse phase chromatography
d. Chromato-focussing

25. Two sites that are often used to grow animal viruses
a. Chorioallantoic membrane and allantoic
cavity
b. Yolk sac and amniotic cavity
c. Amniotic cavity only
d. Yolk sac only

a. diffusion
b. charge
c. turbulence
d. solubility

26. Which of the following organism produce hydrogen

peroxide as virulence factor
a. Mycoplasma
b. Streptococcus species
c. Salmonella sp
d. Pseudomonas

22. EcorI restriction enzymes produce cohesive (sticky)

ends. This means that they
a. Cut both DNA strands at the same base
pair
b. Cut in regions of high GC content,leaving
ends that can form more hydrogen bonds
than ends of high AT content
c. Make a staggered double stand cut,
leaving ends with a few nucleotides of
single-standed DNA protruding.
d. Stick tightly to the ends of the DNA they
have cut.
23. In recombinant DNA technology, invitro packing is
used to
a. Cut a desired region out of the
bacterium`s chromosome.

27. Glucose effect is

a. Higher the glucose concentration cause
decreased cAMP
b. Lower the glucose concentration caused
decreased the cAMP
c. Higher the glucose concentration caused
increased the cAMP
d. Lower glucose concentration cause
increased cAMP
28. Increased activity of calcitonin is seen during
a. High blood calcium level
b. Low blood calcium level
c. Decreased osteoclast activity.
d. All of the above
29. Andrenergic neurons are
a. sympathetic post-ganglionic neuron

b.
c.
d.

sympathetic pre-ganglionic neuron

parasympathetic post-ganglionic neurons
parasympathetic-preganglionic neurons

30. Anti inflammatory effect is shown by

a. Cortisol
b. Aldosterone
c. Epinephrine
d. Norepinephrine
31. Which of the following antigens can be processed by
TAP deficient cells?
a. Any antigen as antigen processing is
independent of TAP proteins.
b. Only endogenous antigens
c. Endogenous and non proteinaceous
antigens
d. Only exogenous antigens
32. Which of the following cytokines mediates activation
of T helper cells by macrophages?
a. IL-2
b. IL-4
c. IFN
d. IL-12
33. Polymers of D-amino acids are poor immunogens
because
containing L-amino acids.
B. MHC cannot present polymers of D amino
acids.
C. APCs cannot express an MHC with the
polymers.
D. No polymer can activate cell mediated
immunity.
E. Only Tc cells get activated by polymers of
D amino acids.
a. B and D
b. A and E
c. C and E
d. A and B
34. An Enzyme which binds to the substrate at Gly 60
position is inhibited by compound X, X binds to the
the substrate at Asp 72. What would be the effect of
this inhibitor on the Vmax and Km of the reaction?
a. Vmax and Km will increase drastically
b. Vmax remains the same but Km
decreases.
c. Both Vmax and Km decrease
d. No effect on Vmax and Km
35.Familial glucocorticoid deficiency and isolated
glucocorticoid deficiency are caused due to

a. Decrease in the carbohydrates in the

food
b. Defect in ACTH receptor
d. Defect in glucocorticoid receptor.
PART-C
1. Bacteriophage is a small virus with 9 genes coding
for 9 different polypeptide sequences. When
counted the weights of all polypeptides, it was
calcultated that the genome need to have minimum
6078 nucleotides, but it was found to have only
5387 nucleotides. 5387 bases can no way produce
9 polypeptides as per our gene knowledge. What
may be going on in the viral genome that it could
code for 9 polypeptides with fewer than needed
nuclotides?
a. May be the calculations of 9 polypeptides
is wrong, it is coding for only 8
polypeptides, for which 5387 bases are
enough
b. May be calculations of genome size is
wrong, it is actually 6078 bases
c. The genes may be overlapping in the
virus, so that they can produce 9 peptide
sequences
d. The virus has extrachromosomal DNA.
2. Chromosomes are always easy to mutate. Imagine
a gamete with a small arm of chromosome 2 is
missing. This chromosome containing gamete fused
with a normal gamete and produced a offspring.
The recessive gene present on the nondeleted
chromosome, now started showing its phenotypes,
as its counterpart on deleted chromosome was lost.
This phenomenon is due to
a. Pseudogenes
b. Pseudo dominance
c. Exon shffling
d. Suppressor mutation.
3. Imagine we have only with One species of each
produced plant, herbivore, carnivore and
decomposer with sufficient light source. All in a
bioshpere interdependent on each other. Will this
system work?
a. Yes, it will as all the essential
components are present
b. No, it will never work as comsumers will
be more than the producers
c. No, it will not work for long time, as
with the threat to or death of one of the
species, entire system will break down.

d. No, it needs Human who produces

enough CO2 and other chemicals for
plant survival.
4. It is seen in lions, that the Alpha lion mates with
almost all the female lions and builds a bigger
pride. The female lions allow the copulation to only
the lion which is stronger and has larger territory.
Hence other male lions are always under conflict
for females. Which of the following can be a
suitable explanation for the female lion behavior?
a. Females are bigger cats and hence need
more space for them
b. More terrotiry means more food available
c. More territory means it will ensure a
larger area of healthy and comfort for the
offsprings to grow, hence reproductive
success.
d. Female like to go on walk in larger
terrotiry.
5. Which of the following are not types of phenolic
plant secondary metabolites?
a. Lignin
b. Caffeic acid
c. Cardenolides
d. Anthocyanin
6. Which one of the following sugar phosphates is
not part of the pool of readily interconvertible
metabolites used by the plant cell?
a. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
b. Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate
c. Glucose 1-phosphate
d. 6-phosphogluconate
e. Xylulose 5-phosphate
7. Following are statements regarding the plant
hormone ethylene.
A. Ethylene biosynthetic pathway is also called as
the Yang cycle which involves the amino acid
Glycine and an intermediate ACC.
B. Auxins promote synthesis of Ethylene.
C. Ethylene can be measured by GC.
D. Fruits are stored under high concentration of
CO2, to delay ripening as CO2 acts as Ethylene
antagonist.
The correct combination of statements is
a. A, B, C
b. A, B, D
c. B, C, D
d. A, C, D
8. The importance of dark period in photoperiodism
is that it can be made ineffective by interruption

with a short exposure to light, called a night break.

In contrast, interrupting a long day with a brief
dark period does not cancel the effect of the long
day. Which of the following statements are correct?
A. It is possible to induce flowering in SDPs with
light periods longer than the critical value,
provided that the light period is followed by
sufficiently long nights.
B. SDPs will not flower if short days are followed
by short nights.
C. LDPs will not flower if short days are followed
by short nights.
D. LDPs will not flower if day breaks are
introduced in day time, followed by short
nights.
a. A and B
b. B and C
c. A and D
d. B and D
9. Host parsitoid interactions are been given by the
following equation:

Where is the per-capita growth rate of hosts in

the absence of parasitoids and c is the conversion
efficiency . What is f(Nt, Pt) ?
a. Effect of parasite on Host
b. Effect of Host on Parasites
c. Probability of Infection
d. Number of Host and parasites present in
the environment
10. Metapopulation Concept is given by:

Where m is the rate of colonization, and e is the

rate of extinction and e<m
If instead of one species 2 species are present in the
community then whicj of the following statements
are true

a. If Rate of Extinction is high P1 and P2

can coexist
b. If rate of extinction is high P1 and P2
cannot coexist and P1 P2 =0

c.
d.

ii. A iii, B ii, C iv, D i

iii.
A iii, B iv, C i, D ii
iv.
A iii, B I, C iv, D i

can coexist
Both a) and b)

11.Hans Spemann and colleagues developed the

concept of the primary organizer in amphibian
embryos while studying the
a. medial cells between the optic cups.
b. anterior terminus of the notochord.
c. posterior edge of the dorsal ectoderm.
d. dorsal lip of the blastopore.

12. If an amphibian zygote is manipulated so that the

first cleavage plane fails to divide the gray crescent,
then
a. the daughter cell with the entire gray
crescent will die.
b. both daughter cells will develop normally
because amphibians are totipotent at this
stage.
c. only the daughter cell with the gray
crescent will develop normally.
d.both daughter cells will develop
abnormally.
e. both daughter cells will die immediately.
13. Select the correct statement regarding Bt toxin
produced by bacillus.
I. Bt toxin protein exist as inactive protoxins
II.During sporulation, it synthesizes a cytoplasmic
inclusion containing one or more proteins that
are toxic to insect larvae.
III. Upon completion of sporulation the parent
bacterium lyses to release the spore and the
inclusion
a. only i and ii
b. only ii
c. all the above
d. only i and iii
e. only iii

14. Match the items in column I and column II and

choose the correct option:
Column I
Column II
A. UV
i. Biomagnificatron
ii. Eutrophication
Organic matter
Snow
C. DDT
iii.
blindness
BOD
D. Phosphates
iv.
The correct match is:
i. A ii, B i, C iv, D iii

15. Match each features of the plasmid pBR322

a. permits selection of
I. ampR sequence
bacteria containing the plasmid
b. a sequence required
II. ori sequence
invitro packing
c. origin of replication
III. tetR
d. cleavage of the plasmid
IV. BamHI sequence
here doesnt affect antibiotic resistance.
e. insertion of foreign DNA
V. pstI sequence
here permits identification of recombinants
a. I B, II C, III D,IV A
b. I A, II C, III E,IV B
c.

I E, II C, III D,IV B

d.

I A, II C, III B,IV E

16.Match the genes involved in plant cell

transformation by agrobacterium.
A. segment of the Ti plasmid
I. Vir
transferred to the plant genome
II. Cytokinin B. genes that involved in transfer
of a segment of Ti to plant
III. Opine C. a plant growth harmone
IV. T DNA D. an unsual metabolite that can be
metabolized only bacteria.
E. Encodes enzyme required to
metabolize auxin
a. I B, II C, III D,IV A
b. I A, II C, III E,IV B
c. I E, II C, III D,IV B
d. I A, II C, III B,IV E
17.If core body temperature rises above normal,
which of the following would occur to cool the
body? (1) dilation of vessels in the skin, (2)
increased radiation and conduction of heat to the
environment, (3) increased metabolic rate, (4)
evaporation of perspiration, (5) increased secretion
of thyroid hormones.
a. 3, 4, and 5

b.

1, 2, and 4

c.

1, 2, and 5

d.

1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

e.

1, 2, 4, and 5.

18. The four refracting media of the eye, listed in the

sequence through which light passes, are:
1. Vitreous body
2. Lens
3. Aqueous humor
4. Cornea
a. 1,2, 3, 4
b. 4, 1, 2, 3
c. 4, 3, 2, 1
d. 2, 3, 4, 1
e. 3, 2, 1, 4
19. The arrow in graph represents

a. Stationary phase in diauxic growth

b. Stationary phase of normal growth of
organism in glucose
c. Lag phase of diauxic growth curve
d. Log phase of normal growth curve with
limiting factor.
20. A Mutation in wee1 protein is induced such that
its phosphorylation activity is lost. The effect of
this would be
a. Cdc2 is active, therefore cell would
enter mitosis
b. Cdc2 to is inactive, therefore cell cycle
would arrest at G2.
c. Cdc1 to is inactive, therefore cell cycle
would arrest at G1.
d. Cdk2 to is inactive, therefore cell cycle
would arrest at GS.
21. Which of the following statement is false?
a. The and angles for every amino
acid residue in a perfect helix would
fall at a single point in a Ramachandran

plot.
b. Many Combinations of and angles
are impossible in polypeptides because
of steric interference
c. The and angles in Ramachandran
plot can each vary over a range of 360
d. The and angles in a Ramachandran
plot represent the possible angles of
rotation around the peptide bond
22. TLRs are transmembrane proteins, expressed on
the cell surface and the endocytic compartment and
recognize pathogen-associated molecular patterns
(PAMPs).TLR9 targets CpG sequences in DNA
molecules.The effect is attraction of phagocytes,
macrophages,(cell membrane) dendritic cells and it
induces secretion of several cytokines. TLR9 show
specificity for bacterial cells but not for host cells
because
a. TLR9 recognizes methylated CpG sites
which are in abundance in bacterial
genome
b. TLR9 recognizes unmethylated CpG
sites which are relatively rare in
vertebrate genome
c. TLR9 recognizes methylated CpG sites
which are relativly rare in bacterial
genome
d. TLR9 recognizes unmethylated CpG
sites which are in abundance in
vertebrate genome.
23. In an experiment setup involving B cells, mutations
are introduced in genes encoding oligosaccharyl
transferase. These B cells, along with unmutated
B cells, are stimulated to proliferate and IgGs
obtained from these cells are subjected to digestion
with papain. It was observed that
a. IgGs derived from mutated B cells are
resistant to papain digestion
b. IgGs derived from unmutated B cells are
resistant to papain digestion
c. IgGs derived from mutated B cells are
more sensitive to papain digestion
d. IgGs derived from unmutated B cells are
more sensitive to papain digestion
Correct combination of statements is
a. A and B
b. B and C
c. C and D
d. A and D
The
mythical
Gram-negative
extracellular
24.
bacterium, Stevensonella pulmonensis, causes
a disease called acute miamiosis as the result of

its thick capsule and production of a toxin that

causes buildup of fluid in the lungs. Which immune
mechanism(s) would be effective against this
bacterium?
a. Antibody specific for the toxin would be
helpful because it might neutralize the
toxin by preventing its interaction with
cellular targets.
b. Activated macrophages would be
required because these cells would be
able to prevent intracellular multiplication
of this parasite
c. Opsonizing antibody specific for capsular
antigens might be helpful because it
would be able to enhance phagocytosis
of the bacterium by neutrophils, which
could then kill it intracellularly.
d. ADCC mediated by NK cells would be
a primary line of defense against this
pathogen because it would provide for its
complement mediated lysis.
25.Which of the following statements, regarding
platelet activating factors is/are incorrect.
A. It is an ether lipid
B. It is released from leucocytes and lead to the
release of serotonin.
C. It activates inflammatory responses
D. It subdues the inflammatory responses.
E. It plays a role in allergic responses.
a. A and D
b. A and E
c. Only D
d. C and E
e. E and B