NTSE (AE)

Medium :ENGLISH
Roll No:
Language : ENGLISH

____________________________________________________________

NTSE MOCK TEST, 2014

MENTAL ABILITY AND
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST
Time: 180 Minutes

Mental Ability Test

: 50 Marks
Language Comprehensive Test:40 Marks
Aptitude Test
: 90 Marks
Total
:180 Marks

Instructions to Candidates
Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions. Answers are to be
SHADED on a SEPARATE OMR Answer Sheet given, with HB Pencil. Read the Instructions
printed on the OMR Sheet carefully before answering the question.
1. Please write your Center Code
Number and Roll Number very
clearly (only one digit in one block)
on the OMR Sheet as given in your
admission card. Please see that no
block is left unfilled and even zeros
appearing in the Center Code
Number are correctly transferred to
the appropriate blocks on the OMR
Sheet as shown in the example given
in the OMR Sheet. For all the
subsequent purpose your Center
Code Number and Roll Number
shall remain the same as given on the
Admission Card.
2. The Test is in THREE PARTS, PartI (Mental Ability) consists of 50
Questions (Q.Nos. 1 to 50), Part-II
(Language Comprehensive Test)
consists of 40 Questions (Q. Nos, 51
to 90) and Part III (Aptitude Test)
Consists of 90 questions (Q.Nos, 91
to 180).
3. All questions carry one mark each.

4. Since all questions are compulsory,

do not try to read through the whole
question paper before beginning to
answer it.
5. Begin with the first question and
keep trying one question after
another till you finish all three parts.
6. If you do not know the answer to any
question, do not spend much time on
it and pass on to next one. If time
permits, you can come back to the
questions which you have left in the
first instance and try them again.
7. Since the time allotted to the
question paper is very limited, you
should make the best use of it by not
spending too much time on any
question.
8. A blank page is provided for rough
work at the end of each part.
9. REMEMBER YOU HAVE TO
SHADE
ANSWERS
ON
A
SEPARATE
OMR
SHEET
PROVIDED.
1

NTSE (AE)
10. Answer to each question is to be
indicated by SHADING the circle
having the number of the correct
alternative in OMR Sheet from
among the once given for the
corresponding question in the
booklet.
11. Now turn to the next page and start
answering the questions.

12. After the examination, you should

hand over the OMR Sheet to the
Invigilator of the room.
13. The candidate need not return this
Question Paper booklet and can take
it
after
completion
of
the
examination. No candidate should
leave the examination hall before the
end of the examination.

PART I
MENTAL ABILITY TEST (Q. Nos. 1 to 50)
Max. Marks 50
Note:SHADE the correct alternatives in the OMR Answer Sheet provided, from
amongst the ones given against the corresponding question in the Question Booklet.
For shading the circles, use HB Pencil.

Directions: (Q 1 to 4) :In each of the questions 1 to 4 some of the letters are missing
in the given series with one term missing. This term is one of the alternatives among
the four groups of letters given under it. Find the right alternative.
1.

JAZ, LEX, NIV, PMT,______

1) QUR

2.

4) SUR

2) KUE

3) KVE

4) JUE

2) cabcc

3) cabcbc

4) cbbcac

3) JIRO

4) JIRQ

ab_a_b_cc_aabbb_c
1) abcabb

4.

3) RUS

AKU, FPZ, ______ PZJ, UEO, ZJT

1) JTD

3.

2) RQR

DCXW, FEVU, HGTS ______

1) LKPO

2) ABYZ

NTSE (AE)
Directions: (Q 5 to 8) : In each of the questions 5 to 8 some of the numbers are
missing in the given series with one term missing. This term is one of the alternatives
among the four numbers given under it. Find the right alternative.
5.

11

23

1) 194
6.

126

62

30

14

2
1) 1986

_____

12

20

30

15

64
2) 1896

4) 191

3) 7

4) 8

42

2) 54
6

3) 192
2

2) 6

1) 47
8.

95 ___

2) 190

1) 5
7.

47

____
3) 58

315

4) 56

_____
3) 8196

4) 1968

Directions: (Q 9 to 12): Diagram is given in which the figures are interlocking each
other. Figure represents certain section of people which are indicated there on. Different
regions of the diagram are lettered. Read the statements of the questions given below the
diagram and write down the letter of the region which represents the set.

9.

Americans who are painters but not sculptors

1) a

10.

4) b

2) f

3) g

4) e

Non-American Painters who are also sculptors

1) d

12.

3) c

Painters who are neither Americans nor sculptors

1) a

11.

2) f

2) g

3) e

4) d

Americans who are painters as well as sculptors

1) d

2) e

3) c

4) g

Directions: (Q 13 to 15): In each of the following questions, find out which of the
alternatives (1), (2), (3) or (4) indicates the correct relationship between the three
given words.
13.

Elected house, M.P, M.L.A

1)

2)

3)

4)
3

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14.

Triangle, Four sided figure, Square

1)
15.

2)

3)

4)

3)

4)

Doctor, Nurse, Human being

1)

2)

Directions: (Q 16 to 19): Three alternatives are alike in certain way but the rest one
is different. Find out the odd one and write correct answer.
16.

1) C Z H K

2) M L A G

3) X U B U

4) S E N O

17.

1) C F I L

2) P S V X

3) J M P S

4) O R U X

18.

1) 199

2) 326

3) 527

4) 248

19.

1) Carnatic

2) Kuchipudi

3) Kathak

4) Kathakali

Directions (Q 20 to 21): Numbers from 1 to 6 are placed on different faces of the dice.
20.

Two positions of a dice are shown. When 4 is at the bottom, what number will be on the top ?

1) 1
21.

2) 2

3) 5

4) 6

A die is thrown four times and its four different positions are given below. Find the number
on the face opposite to 3.

1)1

2) 2

3) 4

4) 6

Direction (Q 22 to 23): Give answer on the basis of given figure that the different
faces are folded in the form of a cube.
22.

The number on opposite side of the face having the number 3 will be
1) 2
2) 4
3) 5
4) 6
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23.

The number on opposite side of the face having the number 1 will be
1) 2
24.

2) 4

3) 3

4) 6

In a certain code language, 479 means fruit is sweet: 248 means very sweet voice and
637 means eat fruit daily. Which digit stands for is that code?
1) 7

25.

2) 9

3) 4

4) 8

If diamond is called gold, gold is called silver, silver is called ruby and ruby is called emerald,
which is the cheaper jewel?
1) Diamond

26.

3) gold

4) ruby

In a certain language, CAT = 12, MAT = 17, then what is the value of JAM
1) 15

27.

2) silver

2) 16

3) 17

4) 12

In a certain code language STUDENT is written as TUTDNES. How will SOURCES be

written in that language?
1) SOURCES

2) SUORECS

3) SRUOCES

4) SOURSES

Directions: (Q. 28 to Q.30): In each of the following questions a statement is given

followed by two conclusions I and II:
28.

Statement: Good voice is a natural gift but one has to keep practicing to improve and excel
well in the field of music.
Conclusions:
I) Natural gift needs nurturing and care.
II) Even though your voice is not good, one can keep practicing.

29.

1) Only Conclusion I is true

2) Only Conclusion II is true

3) Conclusions I and II both are true

4) Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II are true

Statement: Fortune favours the brave

Conclusions:I) Risk is necessary for success II) Cowards die many times before their death

30.

1) Only Conclusion I is true

2) Only Conclusion II is true

3) Conclusions I and II both are true

4) Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II are true

Statement: Morning walks are good for health

Conclusions:I) all healthy people go for morning walks. II) Evening walks are harmful.
1) Only Conclusion I is true

2) Only Conclusion II is true

3) Conclusions I and II both are true

4) Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II are true

NTSE (AE)
Directions: (Q. 31 to 32):A is the Son of B: C,Bs Sister has a son D and a Daughter
E : F is the Maternal Uncle of D.
31.

How A is related to D ?
1) Nephew

32.

3) Two

4) Three

2) 96

3) 98

4) 80

2) Monday

3) Sunday

4) Thursday

Which of the following years had the same calendar as that of the year 1998?
1) 1987 and 2009

36.

2) One

If 26th January 1995 fell on a Thursday, on what day did it fall in the year 1986?
1) Friday

35.

4) Uncle

If 23 * 52 = 48, then 43 * 35 = ?
1) 78

34.

3) Brother

How many nephews does F have?

1) Nil

33.

2) Cousin

2) 1987 and 2004

3) 2004 and 2009

4) 1993 and 2009

If 8th February in a certain non-leap year is Wednesday, then on which day of the week is 4th
October in the same year.
1) Thursday

37.

2) Wednesday

3) Tuesday

4) Saturday

Saritha is at 27th position from the top in a class of 43 students. What is her rank from the
other side?
1) 16th

38.

2) 17th

3) 15th

4) 21th

How many 3s are followed by 7 but are not preceded by 1?

5377342637271377373432376137
1) 2

39.

3) 4

4) 5

How many times does the digit 7 appear when you write from 11 to 100?
1) 9

40.

2) 3

2) 10

3) 11

4) 19

If the numbers 810, 912, 910, 809, 781, 673, 573 are written in ascending order, then the sum
of the digits of middle number will be:
1) 9

2) 12

3) 17

4) 13

Directions: (Q 41 to 45) : There are four (or) five figures given. One of these doesn't
correlate with the rest of the figures. Find out that figure
41.

1) 2

2) 5

3) 4

4) 1

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42.

1) 3

2) 4

3) 5

4) 2

1) 2

2) 1

3) 4

4) 3

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

43.

44.

45.

Directions : (Q 46 to 50) : There are two sets of figures. One set contains problem
figures while the other has answer figures. There is a sequence according to which
the problem figures are arranged. You have to select one figure from the set of
answer. Figure which can be placed in sequence after the set of problem figures. Find
out the correct figure.
46.

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47.

48.

49.

50.

NTSE (AE)
PART-II
LANGUAGE COMPREHENSIVE TEST
(Q. Nos. 51 TO 90)
Max. Marks 40

Note :
i)

ii)

SHADE the correct alternatives in the OMR Answer Sheet

provided, from amongst the ones given against the
corresponding question I the Question Booklet. For shading
the circles, use HB Pencil.
Q. No 51 to 90 of Language Comprehensive Test contains
English Language along with a blank sheet for rough work.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions.
To set and work toward any goal is an act of courage. When we exercise the courage to set and
act on goals that are connected to principles and conscience, we tend to achieve positive results.
Over time, we create an upward spiral of confidence and courage. Our commitment becomes
stronger than our moods. Eventually, our integrity is not even an issue. We build the courage to
set increasingly challenging, even heroic goals. This is the process of growth, of becoming all
we can become.
On the other hand, when we exercise courage in setting goals that are not deeply connected to
principles and conscience, we often get undesirable results that lead to discouragement and
cynicism. The cycle is reversed. Eventually, we find ourselves without the courage to set even
small goals.
The power of principle-basedgoal setting is the power of principles the confidence that the
goals we set will create quality of life results, that our ladders are leaning against the right
walls. Its the power of integrity the ability to set and achieve meaningful goals regularly, the
ability to change with confidence when the best becomes the good. Its the power of the
four human endoments working together to create the passion, vision, awareness, creativity, and
character and strength that nurture growth.
To access this power is to create the upward spiral that empowers us to continually put first
things first in our lives.
51. We achieve positive results
1) When we exercise the courage to set and act on goals.
2) When we give connection to conscience.
3) When we set goals.
4) When we respect our goals.

NTSE (AE)
52.

53.

54.

55.

We get unwanted results when

1) We exercise courage in setting goals.
2) We are discouraged by others.
3) We set the goals that are not deeply connected to principles and conscience.
4) When we set the goals that is connected deeply to principles and conscience.
We find ourselves without the courage to set even small goals.
1) if we do not have goals
2) if we discourage others
3) if we are discouraged
4) if we do not have courage
Growth is nurtured by
1) passion and awareness
2) character and strength
3) passion, vision, awareness, creativity
4) strength and passion
Which one of the following statements is true according to the above passage.
1) our mood becomes stranger than our commitment
2) setting the goal is an act of courage
3) discouragement is also an encouragement
4) none of the above

Direction :In the following passage, there are blanks each of which has been
numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, some
words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the
appropriate words.
About (6)_________ year and half after I had entertained these notions, and by long
musing had, as it were, resolved all (7)_________ nothing, for want of an occasion to put them
(8)_________execution, I was (9)_________, one morning early, with seeing no less than five
can all on shore together on my side the island, and the people (10) _________belonged to them
all landed, and out of my sight.
56. 1) an
57. 1) into
58. 1) with
59. 1) surprising
60.1) that

2)
2)
2)
2)
2)

a
in
of
am surprised
who

3)
3)
3)
3)
3)

the
by
on
was surprised
whose

4)
4)
4)
4)
4)

no article
on
in
surprised
none of these

Direction :Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the
blank to make the sentence meaningful complete.
61.

I worked about on the shore _____up my hands.

1) Leaved
2) Lifting
3) Leave
4) was lifting
62. I thought that I _____on the ground, on the outside of my wall, where I sat when the
storm below after the earthquake.
1) was sat
2) was sitting 3) is sitting
4) seating
63. Success comes to those who are vigilant not to permit _____from the chosen path.
1) diversion
2) deviation
3) distraction 4) obstruction
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NTSE (AE)
Direction :In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence
has an error. If there is no mistake, the answer is No error.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.

If Ihad time, I would havemet you without fail.No error

1
2
3
4
Hardly had I seenThe snake than I tooka stick and threw at it.No error
1
2
3
4
I have been playing heresince seven yearsto make our team perform the best. No error.

1
2
3
She has made an appeal to all the peopleyesterday to be alertNo error.
1
2
3
4
If I wereThe Chief MinisterI would not have done so. No error.
1
2
3
4

Direction: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active
/ Passive voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best
expresses the same sentence in Passive / Active voice.
69. They treat me well.
1) I am being treated well
3) I am been treated well
70. Have you informed him?
1) He has been informed by you.
3) Has he been informed by you?
71. Dust covered the walls.
1) The wall were covered by dust
3) The walls were covered with dust

2) I am treated well
4) None of the above
2) Have he been informed by you?
4) Have you been informed by you?
2) The walls covered with dust.
4) The walls covered the dust.

Direction :In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Direct /
Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best
express the same sentence in Indirect / Direct speech.
72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

She said to me. Why were you late?

1) She asked me why I was late.
2) She asked me that why I had been late
3) She asked me why I had been late
4) She asked me why you were late.
I said to them, Do you play chess?
1) I asked them did you play chess.
2) I asked them if they played chess ?
3) I asked them if they playing chess ?
4) I said to them if they played chess.
She says, I am Unwell.
1) She says that she was unwell.
2) She says that she is unwell.
3) She said that she was unwell.
4) She said that I was unwell.
Which one of the following sentences is in comparative degree.
1) He is as good as Ramu.
2) She is the best student.
3) This is worse than anything else.
4) I am beautiful.
No other country is as rich as the U.S.A. The comparative degree of the sentence is.
1) The U.S.A is the richest country.
2) The U.S.A is richer than many other countries.
3) The U.S.A is richer than any other country.
4) Some countries are as riches the U.S.A
11

NTSE (AE)
77.

78.

79.

80.

81.
82.

Ramu runs faster than Raju. The positive degree of the sentence is.
1) Ramu is running faster than Raju.
2) Raju does not run as fast as Ramu
3) Raju runs as fast as Ramu
4) Raju did not run as fast as Ramu
Which one of the following is a simple sentence.
1) He bought a blue shirt.
2) I saw a man who is strange
3) You are simple and sweet
4) This is the book that changed the whole society
She is ill but she attended the class Change the sentence into complex.
1) In spite of her illness she attended the class.
2) Though she is ill she attended the class.
3) Although she was ill she attended the class.
4) Being ill she attended the class.
Which one of the following sentences is not a compound sentence.
1) He came and met me.
2) He came to meet me.
3) She gave me book but I did not read 4) I gave her book but she did not return
Somebody gave you this book. (Add Question Tag)
1) did they ?
2) didnt he ? 3) didnt she ?
4) didnt they ?
I am aware of this. (Add question Tag)
1) amnt I ?
2) arent I ?
3) are not I ? 4) am I not ?

Direction :In each of the following questions, a word has been written in four
different ways out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
83.

1) recedeing

2) receding

3) receeding

4) reeceding

Direction :Find out the wrongly spelt word among the following.
84.

1) arrangement

85.

A close shave idiom gives the following meaning.

1) a clean shave
2) a lucky escape 3) a narrow escape 4) no escape
One of the following idioms give the meaning of get into trouble.
1) to split hours
2) to spill the beans
3) to lose ones head
4) to get into hot waters.

86.

2) laureat

3) alliteration

4) overlapped

Direction :Rearrange the following sentences to make a meaningful paragraph.

87.
88.
89.
90.

A) and asked him if he had solved the tough problems.

B) Rama got surprised
C) he did not feel the problems were tough.
D) One day Rama went to Ravi.
E) Hearing this, he laughed and said that
1) d, e, c, b, a
2) d, a, e, c, b
3) d, a, e, c, b
The synonym for INCENTIVE
1) Punishment
2) reward
3) sensitive
The antonym for IOTA
1) tiny
2) high
3) big
It is an interesting news.
The underlined word is.
1) Noun
2) Adjective
3) Verb

4) d, e, b, c, a
4) tough
4) shallow

4) Gerund

12

NTSE (AE)
PART III
APTITUDE TEST [Q.Nos 91 to 180]
Max. Marks - 90
i.

ii

Subjects, Questions Sl. No. and Marks allotted:

1.
Physics
91 to 102 Questions

12 Marks

2.
3.

Chemistry
Biology

103 to 113 Questions

114 to 125 Questions

11 Marks
12 Marks

4.
5.

Mathematics
History

126 to 145 Questions

146 to 155 Questions

20 Marks
10 Marks

6.

Geography

156 to 165 Questions

10 Marks

7.

Political Science

166 to 175 Questions

10 Marks

8.

Economics

176 to 180 Questions

05 Marks

SHADE the circle having the correct alternative in the OMR Sheet provided,
from among the ones given against the corresponding question in the Question
Paper Booklet. For shading the circles, use HB Pencil

PHYSICS
91.

A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Which of the following plot represents the velocitytime graph of the ball during its flight, if the air resistance is not ignored ?

92.

The motion of rocket is based on the principle of conservation of

1) mass

93.

2) kinetic energy

3) Angular momentum 4) linear momentum

The earth rotates about the sun in an elliptical orbit. At which point is velocity maximum?
B

1) At A
2) At B
A

3) At C
4) At D
94.

S
D

Two bodies having kinetic energies in the ratio of 4:1 are moving with equal linear
momentum. The ratio of their masses is
1) 1:2

2) 1:4

3) 1:1

4) 4:1
13

NTSE (AE)
95.

Match the following :

Column - A

Column - B

a) pitch

d) wave form

b) quality

e) frequency

c) loudness

f) Intensity

The correct match is

1) a e, b d, c f 2) a e, b f, c d 3) a d, b e, c f 4) a f, b d, c e
96.

540 gm of ice at 00c is mixed with 540 gm of water at 800 C. The final temperature of the
mixture is (given that latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal/gm, Specific heat of water = 1
cal/gm-0C)
1) 800c

97.

2)4 00c

3) 00c

4) 79.90c

For a prism, the correct relationship between i and is represented by (i = angle of

incidence, = angle of deviation)

98.

A hunter wants to shoot a fish the image of which can be seen through clear water. It is to
be aimed.

99.

1) Above the image of fish

2) Below the image of fish

3) Directly towards the image

4) In any direction

Total internal reflection is possible when a ray of light passes from

1) air into water

100.

2) air into glass

3) glass into water

4) water into glass

What is the resistance between the points A and B ?

1)

2)

3)

4) 2
101.

A current carrying conductor experiences a mechanical force of maximum value in a

magnetic field when it is
1) parallel to the field

2) Inclined at 450 to the field

3) perpendicular to the field

4) none of these
14

NTSE (AE)
102.

Induced e.m.f. in a coil is proportional to the

1) current in the coil

2) Magneticflux linked with the coil

3) Rate of change of magnetic flux linked with the coil

4) magneticflux density

CHEMISTRY
103.

The chemical equation Cacl2 + 2AgNO3 2Agcl + Ca(NO3)2 represents following

type of chemical reaction.

104.

1) displacement reaction

2) combination reaction

3) Decomposition reaction

4) Double decomposition reaction

Element with electronic configuration (2, 8, 2) is

1) metal

105.

2) Non-metal

3) Metalloid

4) Inert gas

Ca has atomic number 20 and atomic weight 40. Which of the following statement is NOT
correct about Ca atom ?
1) The number of electrons is same as the number of neutrons
2) The number of nucleons is double of the number of neutrons
3) The number of protons is half of the number of neutrons
4) The number of nucleons is double of the atomic number

106.

In which of the following, the elements belong to the same period

1) Na, Li, k

2) Cu, Zn, Cr

3) Cr, Sn, At

4) H, He, F

107.

Ionisation energy of nitrogen is more than oxygen because

1) Attraction of electrons by the nucleus is more
2) Half filled p orbitals are more stable
3) nitrogen atom is small
4) more penetration effect

108.

The unit cell of Nacl has

1) Greater number of Na+ ions than Cl ions
2) unequal number of Na+ ions than Cl ions
3) equal number of Na+ and Cl ions 4) smaller number of Na+ ions than Cl ions

109.

An electronegativity difference between combining atoms increases

110.

i) Covalent character increases

ii) covalent character decreases

iii) ionic character increases

1) (i) and (iii)
2) (ii) and (iv)

iv) ionic character decreases

3) (ii) and (iii)
4) (i) and (iv)

Match the following

a) Bleaching powder (

i)

NaHCO3

b) Gypsum

ii)

CaSO4.2H2O

c) Baking soda

iii)

CaOcl2

d) plaster of paris
1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

iv)
CaSO4 H2O
2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
15

NTSE (AE)
111.

The ore that is concentrated by Froth floatation process is ___

1) cinnabar

112.

2) Bauxite

3) malachite

4) Zincite

Which of the following are chain isomers of C5H12

(I) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH3

(II) CH3 CH CH2 CH3

|

CH
3

1) I & II
113.

2) II & III

3) I & III

CH
3
|
(III) CH3 C| CH3
CH
3

4) I, II & III

List - I

List - II

i) Graphite

p) 13 bonds

ii) Buckminster fullerene

q) sp3

iii) C4H10

r) good conductor of heat and electricity

iv) Diamond
1) i-s, ii-q, iii-r, iv-p

s) 12 pentagons, 20 hexagons
2) i-r, ii-s, iii-p, iv-q

3) i-r, ii-s, iii-q, iv-p

4) None of these

BIOLOGY
114.

115.

116.

117.
118.

119.

120.
121.

Match the following

i) Tuber
(
)
a) Onion
ii) Corm
(
)
b) Colocasia
iii) Bulb
(
)
c) Bryophyllum
iv) Reproductive leaves
(
)
d) Potato
1) i-b,ii-a,iii-c,iv-d
2) i-b,ii-a,iii-d,iv-c
3) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c
4) i-d, ii-b , iii-c, iv-a
Plasmodesmata connections help in
1) Cytoplasmic streaming
2) Synchronous mitotic divisions
3) Locomotion of unicellular organisms
4) Movement of substances between cells
A cell is plasmolysed after being kept in a hypertonic solution. What will be present
between cell wall and plasmalemma?
1) Hypertonic solution 2) Air
3) Hypotonic solution 4) Isotonic solution
Agar is commercially obtained from
1) Blue green algae
2) Brown algae
3) Red algae
4) Green algae
The mouth parts of mosquito are of
1) Siphoning type
2) Piercing and sucking type
3) Sponging type
4) Cutting and chewing type
Identify the true statement
1) Pellagra is due to deficiency of vitamin B2
2) Scurvy is due to deficiency of vitamin A
3) Rickets is due to deficiency of vitamin D
4) Beri beri is due to deficiency of vitamin B6
The pyramid that cannot be inverted in a stable ecosystem is pyramid of
1) Number
2) Energy
3) Biomass
4) All the above
The longest cell in the body of an animal is
1) Osteocytes
2) Neuron
3) Chromatophores
4) Lymph corpuscles
16

NTSE (AE)
122. The book named Philosophic Zoologique was published in 1809 and was written by:
1) Mendel
2) Darwin
3) De Vries
4) Lamarck
123. Double fertilization is characteristic of
1) Angiosperms
2) Algae
3) Gymnosperms
4) Bryophytes
124. In 28-day human ovarian cycle, ovulation occurs on
1) day 1
2) day 10
3) day 14
4) day 28
125. Normal haemoglobin content of an adult man is
1) 10.5 gm/100 ml of blood
2) 12.5 gm/100 ml of blood
3) 14.5 gm/100 ml of blood

4) 13.5 gm/100 ml of blood

MATHEMATICS
126.

The given figure consists of three semicircular arcs and one circle. The smaller arcs are
equal. If AB = 6cm, AC = 4 cm, then the complete length of the two figures is

127.

128.

129.

1) 2 cm
2) 4 cm
3) 6 cm
4) 8 cm
3
2
If , , are the real roots of the equation x 3ax + 3bx 1 = 0, then the centroid of
1 1 1
the triangle whose vertices are the points , , , , , is

1) (a, b)
2) (a, -b)
3) (-a, b)
4) (-a, -b)
Four circular cardboard pieces, each of radius 7cm are placed in such a way that each
piece touches the two other pieces. The area of the space enclosed by the four pieces is
1) 21 cm2
2) 42 cm2
3) 84 cm2
4) 168 cm2
Let S be the sample space of the random experiment of throwing simultaneously two
unbiased dice with six faces (numbered 1 to 6). Let Ek a, b s : ab k for k 1 .
If Pk P( Ek ) for k 1 , then which of the following is correct?

130.

1) P1 < P30 < P4 < P6 2) P36 < P6 < P2 < P4 3) P1 < P11 < P4 < P6 4) P36 < P11 < P6 < P4
OABC is a quadrant with radius 14 cm and a semi-circle with OA as diameter. The
area of the shaded portion is:

1) 55 cm2
131.

2) 66 cm2

3) 77 cm2

4) 88 cm2

If sin A, cos A and tan A are in G.P, then tan6 A + tan4 A =

1) 0

2) 1

3) 2

4) 1
17

NTSE (AE)
132.

If f x cos 2 x cos 2 x, where is the step function, then

1) f 0 1

2) f / 4 2

3) f / 2 1

4) f 1

133.

In the given figure below, the value of QSR is

4) 650

134.

1) 700
2) 600
3) 750
The sum of all odd numbers between 100 and 200 is
1) 6200

4) 3700

135.

2) 6500

The number of solutions of the equation x2 |x 1 | = 1 is

1) 0

136.

3) 7500

2) 1

3) 2

4) 3

The angle of elevation of the top of a lamp post of 4m tall from a point on the ground is
300. How far should the observer walk so that the elevation gets doubled?
1) 8 3 m

137.

2)

8
m
3

3) 8 m

If ab + bc + ca = 0, then the value of

1) 3

2) 3abc

x 2 3

x 2 3

4) 4 m

1
1
1
2
2
is equal to
a bc b ca c ab
3) abc
4) 0
2

138.

If 5 2 6

139.

1) 2, 2
2) 3, 3
3) 3, 7
4) None
In the given figure, sectors of two concentric circles of radii 7cm and 3.5 cm are shown.
The area of the shaded region is

1)
140.

77 2
cm
4

52 6

2)

77 2
cm
8

10 , then x = ..

3)

77 2
cm
2

4) None of these

If ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral, in which BC is parallel to AD. Then DAC

1) 400

2) 500

3) 600

4) 640
18

NTSE (AE)
141.

x x ... x20
If M 1 2
, then the value of
20

1)
142.

19 M
20

2) 1

20

xi M
is
20
i 1

3) 0

4) 1/20

The value of k for which the system of equations kx y = 2 and 6x 2y = 3 have a

unique solution is
1) k 2

143.

2) k = 3

3) k 6

4) k 3

If the zeros of the polynomial f(x) = x3 12x2 + 39x + k are in A.P., then the value of k
is
1) 28

2) 28

3) 30

4) 30

144.

The values of x satisfying log3(x2 + 4x + 12) = 2 are

3) -1, 3

145.

1) 2, -4
2) 1, -3
Which of the following is false?
1) A B C A B A C

2) A B Ac B c

3) A B Ac B c

4) -1, -3
c

4) A Ac

HISTORY
146.

Praying Hands is a famous, sketch by

1) Albert Durer

147.

3) Leonardo Davinei 4) Delacroix

Who among the following did not contribute to the unification of Italy
1) cavour

148.

2) Michelangelo

2) victor immanuel

3) Garibaldi

4) Georges michelet

Which among the following statements regarding the mill workers in India during 19th
century are correct.
1) They had to work till the sun set and it became only impossible to see
2) payments were made in proportion to the amount of goods produced
3) mill owner would keep some part of wages till the end of next month as security
4) when electric bulbs began to be fitted the hours of work also increased

149.

1) 1, 3 and 4 are correct

2) only 1 & 4 are correct

3) only 2 & 3 are correct

4) 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct

Animal Farm was written by

1) George Orwel

150.

2) Shawkat Usmani

3) Joseph Stalin

4) Florence owens

Long March was conducted in

1) 1905-06

2) 1934-35

3) 1948-49

4) 1944-45

19

NTSE (AE)
151.

The amount of Agent Orange sprayed over vietnam by US is

1) 11 million gallons

152.

153.

2) 25 million gallons

3) 5 million gallons

4) 18 million gallons

Sare Jahan se Achha Hindustan Hamara was written by

1) Rabindranath Tagoore

2) Mohammed Iqbal

3) Sarojini Naidu

4) Jayaprakash Narayan

Gandhiji did not celebrate the first independance day because

1) he was against celebrations
2) He thought that India could not achieved Indipendance
3) He was unhappy with the communal frenzy
4) He was busy with the preparation of constitution

154.

Punnapra-Vayalar revolt took place in

1) Tamilnadu

155.

2) Karnataka

3) Kerala

4) Odisha

Kalidasa lived during the reign of

1) Samudra gupta

2) Chandragupta mourya 3) Ashoka

4) Chandragupta II

GEOGRAPHY
156.

157.

Which of the following is called Lungs of the earth

1) Tropical evergreen forest of Brazil

2) Tropical deciduous forest of central America

3) Temperate evergreen forest of China

4) Temperate deciduous forest of chile

A man travels from 1700E to 170W. On 01.01.2014 saturday at 1am. He took 2 hours to
reach his destination. What changes he has to make on his wrist watch after reaching
1700W.
1) the watch will automatically adjust
2) He has to adjust his watch to 4:20 AM Sunday Jan 2, 2014.
3) He has to adjust as 1:40 AM Jan 1 2014 Saturday
4) He has to adjust as 1:40 AM Dec 31 Friday 2013

158.

Which among the following is not a reason for ocean current.

1) Centrifugal force

159.

B) Solar energy

3) Tilting of the earth

4) wind directions

A foot ball stadium is located in the Northern hemisphere have goal points at North
and South. A player kicks the ball freely into the air from the South east corner and
towards the goal post. What will be the possible coriolis effect on the ball.
1) The ball moves away from the post

2) The ball moves into the post

3) The ball goes strait to North East corner

4) The ball goes towards the centre of the stadium

20

NTSE (AE)
160.

Which among the following is not a fibre crop :

1) Jute

161.

164.

2) Saraswathy

3) Yamuna

4) Ravi

2) Naga Hills

3) Palani Hills

4) Khasi Hills

Match the following :

1) Vasantha

a) Sravana-Bhadra

2) Grishma

b) Aswayuja - Karthika

3) Varsha

c) Chaitra- Vaishaka

4) Sharad

d) Margashira-Pusha

5) Hemantha

e) Jyesta - Ashadha

1) ceabd

2) caebd

3) cdeab

4) cebad

3) 50-100

4) 1000-2000

3) Kodaicanal

4) Makurti

How many kopis do a Gadi have ?

1) 200-500

165.

4) Sesamum

Find the odd one from the group

1) Patkai Hills

163.

3) Coconut

Which of the following river does not include in Sapta Sindu.

1) Jhalem

162.

2) Hemp

2) 10-50

The highest peak in South India is

1) Doda betta

2) Anaimudi

POLITICAL SCIENCE
166.

General We Win belongs to

1) Burma

167.

4) Belgium

2) 1946

3) 1948

4) 1949

3) Article 32

4) Article 21

Right to enviornment is laid under

1) Article 19

169.

3) Libya

UDHR was made in

1) 1945

168.

2) Vietnam

2) Article 24

Which among the following does not come under Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act 1956.
1) Reading rustic writings and watching observe pictures
2) Taking work with out making proper payments
3) Stealing vehicles

170.

4) Removing body parts and doing busines

Which among the following document cannot be produced as a residance proof for a
driving licence
1) Ration card

171.

2) electricity bill

3) life insurance policy 4) Bank account

According to Ambedkar which article of Indian constitution is known as the Heart and
Soul of the constitution.
1) Article 42

2) Article 17

3) Article 32

4) Article 29
21

NTSE (AE)
172.

Official language Act was passed in

1) 1963

173.

4) 1966

2) 1994

3) 1983

4) 1998

Which Indian Prime Minister brought constitutional status to local self governments.
1) Rajiv Gandhi

175.

3) 1965

In which year Supreme Court laid down strict norms for the use of Article 356.
1) 1976

174.

2) 1964

2) LalBahadur Shastri 3) V.P. Singh

4) P.V.Narasimha Rao

Federalism means
1) Existence of more than one level of government in the country
2) Federation of states to run the country
3) Only the central government has the right to make laws
4) Judiciary is the highest authority in the country

ECONOMICS
176.

177.
178.

179.
180.

START was signed between

1) The USA & The USSR
2) The USA & Vietnam
3) The USSR & China
4) India & Pakistan
Juvenile Justice Act was passed in
1) 1976
2) 1956
3) 1986
4) 1987
Money Kumar and Monitory policy is a
1) Comic published by Reserve Bank of India
2) novel written by Amarthya Sen
3) cartoon by SLBC
4) short film by RBI
As per WDR percapita Income of low income countries is
1) less than $1035
2) less than $12,600 3) less than $2085
4) less than $5430
Literacy rate of India for men in 2011 census was
1) 65.46%
2) 74.04%
3) 82.14%
4) 80.12%

_________ X _________

22