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1. Patient was aware that physician was drunk yet he allowed the doctor to inject him:
A. doctrine of continuing negligence
C. res ipsa loquitor
B. vicarious liability
D. captain of the ship
2. Patient Mr. Lee promised to pay Dr. B one million pesos if he us cured of his cancer. The
professional fee to be collected by B refers to:
A. contingent fee B. package deal fee C. retainers fee D. simple contractual fee
3. HIV patient takes experimental drugs despite unknown side effects:
A. doctrine of informed consent
C. assumption of risk
B. doctrine of foreseeability
D. doctrine of contributory negligence
4. There is direct physical connection between the wrongful act of the Physician and the injury
suffered by the patient:
A. Doctrine of proximate cause
C. Sine Qua now test
B. But for test
D. Substantial factor test
5. Principle applied when the medical fee is not specified:
A. Asumpsit on quanthum merit
C. Dura Lex sed Lex
B. Lex Loci contract
D. Sine Qua now
6. Article 365 which deals with imprudence and negligence is a provision of:
A. Civil code
B. Medical Act 1959 C. Revised penal code D. Criminal Act of 1970
7. To which forum can an administrative complaint be filed against doctors?
A. Regional Trial Court
C. Department of health
B. National Bureau of Investigation
D. Professional Regulation Comission
8. Reprimand is a sanction imposed against a doctor when he is guilty of what liability:
A. Administrative liability B. Civil liability C. criminal liability D. no liability
9. If the license of a physician is suspended indefinitely, after how long can he apply for
A. 3 years B. 6 months C. 2 years D. it will depend on the pleasure of the Board of medicine
10. What is the degree of proof/evidence needed to convict physician of a crime?
A. Guilt beyond reasonable doubt C. Prosecution must prove that Dra. Gajardo got pregnant
B. Preponderance of evidence D. Prosecution must prove that Dr. Gimenez is a medical doctor
11. The study of licensure laws, regulatory laws and physician-patient relationship, is known in
medical school curriculum as:
A. Legal Medicine
B. Legal Ethics C. Medical Jurisprudence D. M<edical Ethics
12. Which of the following does not affect a termination of physician-patient relationship?
A. withdrawal of physician without patient consent
C. death of patient
B. recovery of patient
D. death of physician
13. A physician should never examine or treat hospitalized patient of another physician without the
latters knowledge and consent except when:
A. the patient expressly asks him to do so in the absence of attending physician
B. he is a relative of the patient
C. he will not changed the patient a professional fee
D. in case of emergency, the attending physician is not readily available
14. A physician accused of criminal abortion was acquitted because:
A. he was a duly licensed medical practitioner
B. the woman plaintiff was emotionally unstable
C. the product of conception could not be produced in court
D. a pregnancy test done 3 days before the alleged abortion definitely ruled out pregnancy
CASE: Mr. A brought his 3 yrs old son to a hospital. Dr. B, the admitting physician admitted the
pediatric case to the medicine ward because the pediatric ward is full. During the night, the patient
child was seen in the floor with a fractured skull resulting from a fall. It was found out that the bed
was without railings. Mr. A wanted to sue Dr. B and the hospital.
15. The doctrine applicable in this case would be:
A. Res ipsa loquitor B. Osiensible agent C. Forseeability D. Common knowledge
16. Suppose before admission Mr. A was informed of the absence of railings to protect the child from
A. assumption of risk
C. res ipsa loquitor
B. continuing negligence
D. common knowledge
17. Suppose Mr. A has already previously and repeatedly complained of the absence of railings to Dr.
B but no attention was given to the complaint, which doctrine could be applicable?
A. assumption of risk
C. contributory negligence
B. continuing negligence
D. common knowledge
18. Suppose one day after an intramuscular injection a part of the needle was discovered protruding
from the buttocks of the patient, what is the doctrine applicable?
A. assumption of risk B. res ipsa loquitor C. contributory negligence D. continuing negligence

19. Originally there were railings on the bed of the patient. Mr A, the father removed the railings so
that he himself can sleep on the bed. His child fell with a broken skull. What is the doctrine
applicable: A. res ipsa loquitor
C. contributory negligence
B. borrowed servant doctrine
D. common knowledge
20. Patient leaves the hospital against advice:
A. Continuing Negligence
C. Vicarious Liability
B. Res Iplsa Loquitor
D. Contributory Negligence
21. Common defense of the hospital are regards consultants liability to his private patients:
A. Independent Contractor
C. Captain of the ship doctrine
B. Joint and several liability
D. Vicarious liability
22. The reporting of treatment of serious physical injuries by a physician is:
A. Voluntary B. Mandatory
C. Case to case
D. Every end of the month
23. Under the doctrine the hospital owner may be liable for the mistakes of the residents:
A. Borrowed servant doctrine
C. Vicarious liability
B. Captain of the ship
D. Fellow Servant doctrine
24. Which of the following laws is enforced by the state:
A. Substantive law
B. Moral law C. Divine Law
D. Natural Law
25. A terminally ill patient is given an overdose of sedatives without his knowledge. What crime if
any is committed by the doctor:
A. Murder
C. Homicide
B. No crime because ethically allowed
D. Assisted Suicide
26. The bone which is most informative regarding the sex of the owner of the skeleton being
examined is the:
A. Skull
B. Sternum
C. Pelvis
D. Femur
27. The willful deliberate and painless acceleration of death of a person:
A. Parricide
B. Euthanasia
C. Homicide
D. Infanticide
28. The cause of death resulting from lack of skill, lack of foresight, and reckless imprudence is
called: A. Homicide
B. Accidental
C. Murder
D. Negligence
29. When a body is the subject matter of a criminal investigation, it may be exhumed:
A. Anytime
B. 3 years after burial
C. 5 years after burial D. 10 years after burial
30. Any change for the position of the cadaver will not change the location of this type of cadaveric
lividity: A. Hypostatic
B. Osmotic
C. Diffusion
D. Alteration
31. Exhumation is also known as:
A. interment
B. ground burial
C. embalming
D. disinterment
32. Deep burial sites will make decomposition :
A. faster
B. slower
C. stationary
D. negligible
33. When blood accumulates in the most dependent portions of the dead body, it is called
A. primary6 flaccidity
C. post-mortem lividity
B. secondary flaccidity
D. algor mortis
34. A missing person is presumed dead if he is not heard from for:
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
35. Musketry, electrocution, and hanging are examples of
A. dead body disposal
C. sudden death
B. judicial death
D. asphyxial death
36. If the physician performs euthanasia without the patients knowledge, he is guilty of:
A. murder
C. merciful killing
B. nothing
D. assistance to the commission of suicide
37. If a 3-day old unidentified child was intentionally killed with cruelty, and during a calamity, the
offender may be changed with:
A. infanticide
B. murder
C. homicide
D. parricide
38. Cadaveric rigidity is also known as
A. Rigor mortis
C. cadaveric spasm
B. Algor mortis
D. heat stiffening
39. The convict is put to death by a volley of fire from a firing squad in:
A. mugging
B. Muskety
C. garroting
D. murder
40. An unembalmed body should be buried not later than: (if the person died as a result of a natural
A. 12 hrs
B. 20 hrs.
C. 24 hrs.
D. 48 hrs.
41. An unembalmed body should be buried not later than: (if the person died as a result of a
communicable disease): A. 12 hrs.
B. 20 hrs.
C. 24 hrs.
D. 48 hrs.
42. If one performed lawful act, and he did it with due care, and death occurred without intending to
cause it, the death is
A. negligent
B. homicide
C. accidental
D. murder
43. Instantenous rigor is also known as
A. Rigor mortis
C. post-mortem muscular irritability
B. cadaveric spasm
D. post-mortem rigidity
44. It is the prominence of the superficial veins with reddish discoloration due to the process of
decomposition which develops on both flanks of the abdomen.
A. putrefaction
C. Adiposer formation
B. Marbolization
D. Maceration

45. The microorganisms that plays a dominant role in decomposition is

A. bacillus mesenterious
C. chlostridium welchi
B. bacillus coli
D. bacillus proteus vulgaris
46. The following manner of death should be autopsied, EXCEPT
A. suicides
C. accidental death
B. death unattended by physician
D. death occurring in natural manner
47. A common law-husband who kills his common law wife with whom he has a 2 days old child can
be prosecuted for
A. infanticide
C. homicide
B. parricide
D. impossible crime
48. Presidential Decree 169 mandates all doctors to report all cases involving:
A. slight and less physical injury
C. less serious and serious physical
B. mutilation
D. child abuse cases
49. When the color of the contusion changes to green, the contusions estimated age is
A. 2-4 days
B. 4-5 days
C. 7-10 days
D. 14-15 days
50. Fracture produced by a tangential or glancing approach of bullet:
A. pond fracture
C. gutter fracture
B. indented fracture
D. bursting fracture
51. This is a firearm which has a cylindrical magazine situated at the rear of the barrel which can
accommodate five or six cartridge:
A. automatic pistol
C. rifle
B. revolver
D. shotgun
52. Its main function is the transformation of mechanical energy by the hit of the firing pin on the
percussion cap to chemical energy:
A. primer
B. powder
C. bullet
D. projectile
53. If the diameter of the gunshot wound point of entry is 1 cm x 1 cm the probable caliber of the
firearm used is
A. 0.38
B. 0.22
C. 0.45
D. 9 mm
54. The primer is usually made up of
A. lead, barium, antimony
C. lead and antimony
B. lead and barium
D. lead, barium and copper
55. Tattooing is also known as
A. stippling
B. soot
C. smudging
D. fouling
56. Factors which make the wound of entrance bigger than the caliber, except
A. deformity of the bullet which entered
B. bullet enters the skin sidewise
C. acute angular approach of the bullet
D. contraction of the elastic tissues of the skin
57. Pugilistic position of a boxer is associated with
A. burns
B. drowning
C. asphyxia
D. gunshot wounds
58. The average time required for death in drowning is
A. 1-3 minutes
C. 5-10 minutes
B. 2-5 minutes
D. 3-6 minutes
59. This is quantitative determination of the chloride content of the blood in the right and left
ventricle of the heart:
A. Gettlers test
C. Winslows test
B. Takayama test
D. Loords test
60. The test which determines the whether semen is of human origin or not:
A. biological test of farnum
C. Berberios
B. Gangulis method
D. puramen reaction
61. It is an expressed acknowledgement by the accused in a criminal case of the truth of his guilt as
the crime charged.
A. confession
D. all of the above
B. admission
E. none of the above
C. interrogation
62. The presence of weapon which is highly grasped by the hand of a victim of a shooting incident is
an example of
A. Rigor mortis
C. cadaveric spasm
B. death stiffening
D. cadaveric rigidity
63. Cases when trauma or disease kill quickly that there is no opportunity for sequel or complication
to develop is known as
A. proximate cause of death
C. immediate cause of death
B. secondary cause of death
D. complete cause of death
64. The most practical, useful and reliable means of preserving evidence is by
A. photography
C. description
B. sketching
D. manikin method
65. The comprehensive study of a dead body performed by trained physician employing recognized
procedures and techniques is known as
A. Post-mortem examination
C. medical examination
B. autopsy
D. Post-mortem dissection

66. The principle used in the Magnus test for determining somatic death is
A. no change in color of the finger
B. no change in the temperature of the finger
C. change in the color of the finger
D. change in the temperature of the torniqueted finger
67. When the body surface of corpse is pressed it leaves a flattened area due to
A. absence of edema
C. precipitated skin proteins
B. loss of elasticity of the skin
D. absence of blood
68. Cutis Galina or Washer womans hands and feet on the corpse signifies that:
A. the body has been in water for sometime
B. the body is that of a laundry woman
C. the body died for drowning
D. the body died for syphilis
69. Permission to disinter remains of persons who died of dangerous communicable diseases maybe
granted after a burial period of
A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. 7 years
70. This is a medical evidence made known or addressed to the senses of the court no limited to the
sense of vision, but is intended to the sense of hearing, taste, smell and touch
A. experimental evidence
C. autoptic or real evidence
B. documentary evidence
D. corpus evidence
71. The most prominent sign of death is
A progressive fall of the body temperature
B. cessation of heart action and circulation
C. cessation of respiration
D. insensibility of body loss of power to move
72. The study of licensure laws, regulatory laws and physician-patient relationship, is known in
medical school curriculum as:
A. Legal Medicine
C. Medical Jurisprudence
B. Legal Ethics
D. Medical Ethics
73. A mental process whereby one or more persons appraise a situation and make a decision based
on their judgement that may or may not lead to action is called:
A. Treatment
B. Diagnosis
C. Operation
D. Analysis
74. Faith healing is allowed as an norm of treatment modality in the Philippines. This is allowed on
the basis of Constitutional guarantee on:
A. freedom of origin
C. freedom of the press
B. freedom of expression
D. freedom of sexual expression
75. The nature of liability against Dr. a would be:
A. administrative
B. civil
C. criminal
D. ethical
76. The venue with which to file the case in case Mr. Ty demands P1 million pesos as payment would
A. Regional Trial Court
C. Department of health
B. Professional Regulation commission
D. All of the above
77. The cost of the procedure to re-attach of Mr. Ty that was incided would be in nature of:
A. moral damages
C. exemplary damages
B. actual damages
D. all of the above
78. Mr. Ty suffered sleepless nights and wounded feelings as well as besmirched reputation.
This kind of damage is referred to as:
A. actual damage
C. exemplary damage
B. moral damage
D. attorneys fees
79. Dr. A uttered vexing words against Dr. B defaming his personality and dignity. Dr. A maybe guilty
A. Libel
B. Slander
C. rumor mongering
D. any of the above
80. When a surgeon operates on a patient without consent, this constitutes an assault and even
without proof of injury resulting, the plaintiff may recover what type of damage?
A. Nominal
B. Moderate
C. Exemplary
D. Liquidated
81. When is patients consent necessary?
A. in an emergency, patient need tracheostomy
B. in a women diagnosed with ectopic pregnancy, it turns out be a case of acute appendicitis
and the surgeon decides to remove the appendix
C. During an appendectomy, the surgeon discovers and abnormal ovary and
desiced to remove it.
D. The colon was perforated during simoidoscopy and the surgeon decides on laparotomy to
undertake repair
82. A physician may perform a diagnostic or therapeutic procedure without the consent of the
patient or his relatives.
A. when the physician believes the procedure is necessary
B. when the patient is merely being stubborn
C. when the patient is unconscious
D. in an acute emergency when there in no time to discuss the situation in order to
seek consent

83. A physician may apply a procedure even it is against the wishes of the patient if
A. the procedure is known to be safe
B. the procedure is necessary for the good of the patient
C. the procedure is required by law
D. there is implied consent by he patients spouse
84. The following are provisions of Penal Law wherein a physician may be hold criminally liable.
Which provision specifically mention the physician as the wrong-doer?
A. defamation
B. criminal negligence and imprudence
C. violation of the Dangerous Drug Act
D. refusal to render treatment in emergency cases
85. The testimony of an expert witness is NOT needed to prove a negligent act when which doctrine
is applicable? A. res ipsa loquitor
C. ostensible agent
B. borrowed servant
D. captain of the ship
86. Instances when a physician may NOT be held liable for abandonment.
A. failure to visit the patient sufficiently after believing that the patient needed no
further treatment
B. failure to provide follow-up attention
C. refusal to attend a case for which he has assumed responsibility
D. failure to arrange for a substitute during the attending physicians absence
87. A physician cannot be held liable for the ill effect of his management procedure if
A. he can show that he applied his knowledge and skill with diligence and care
B. the doctrine of res ipsa loquitor is applicable
C. the patient contributed to the ill-effects
D. the procedure is by its nature risky
88. A physician who gives an overdose of a drug may be charged for
A. Immorality
C. gross negligence
B. Dishonorable conduct
D. incompetence
89. One of the grounds for the suspension or revocation of the certificate of registration of a
physician on account of a criminal act is
A. immoral or dishonorable conduct
B. violation of the Code of ethics
C. conviction by court of an offense involving moral turpitude
D. false, extravagant or unethical advertisement
90. A balikbayan physician puts up a sign board at his clinic. Which is unethical?
A. Disease of Women and Children
C. consultation hours 9-11 a.m.
B. Trained at Mayo Clinic
D. consultation by appointment only
91. The mistress of a married physician sought redress from the Board of Medicine when the
physician left her for another woman. Which statement is VALID?
A. she can charge the physician for immorality C. she has no right to complain
B. she can accuse him for adultery
D. she can charge him of abandonment
92. An unmarried physician was discovered having sex with an unmarried nurse. He may be charged
before the Board of medicine for
A. Seduction
B. Immorality
C. Adultery
D. reckless imprudence
93. The prohibition and imposition of penalty on physicians who sell medical samples gratuitously
given to them by drug promoters is embodied in
A. Medical Act 1959 as amended
C. Revised Penal Code
B. Revised Administrative Code
D. Pharmacy Law
94. The element of deceit is required in case of:
A. forcible obduction
C. simple seduction
B. consented obduction
D. qualified seduction
95. The spinning motion of the bullet, its rough surface, and the imagination of the skin, all produce
A. Tattooing
B. Rifling
C. Contusion collar
D. smudging
96. The skin is whitened, macerated and wrinkled in:
A. cutis anserina
C. washerwomans skin
B. saponification
D. contact flattening
97. Sexual intercourse is NOT necessary in this crime:
A. Abduction
B. Seduction
C. Adultery
D. Concubinage
98. Virginity is a requirement in this crime:
A. simple seduction
C. qualified seduction
B. forcible abduction
D. white slave trade
99. The laceration involving more than half of the hymenal height but does not reach the hymenal
based is called:
A. Superficial
B. Deep
C. Complete
D. Complicated
100. Stippling is caused by:
A. Flame
B. gunpowder residue
C. smoke
D. bullet