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1. Patient was aware that physician was drunk yet he allowed the doctor to inject him:
A. doctrine of continuing negligence
C. res ipsa loquitor
B. vicarious liability
D. captain of the ship
2. Patient Mr. Lee promised to pay Dr. B one million pesos if he us cured of his cancer. The
professional fee to be collected by B refers to:
A. contingent fee B. package deal fee C. retainers fee D. simple contractual fee
3. HIV patient takes experimental drugs despite unknown side effects:
A. doctrine of informed consent
C. assumption of risk
B. doctrine of foreseeability
D. doctrine of contributory negligence
4. There is direct physical connection between the wrongful act of the Physician and the injury
suffered by the patient:
A. Doctrine of proximate cause
C. “Sine Qua now” test
B. “But for” test
D. “Substantial factor” test
5. Principle applied when the medical fee is not specified:
A. “Asumpsit on quanthum merit”
C. “Dura Lex sed Lex”
B. “Lex Loci contract”
D. “Sine Qua now”
6. Article 365 which deals with imprudence and negligence is a provision of:
A. Civil code
B. Medical Act 1959 C. Revised penal code D. Criminal Act of 1970
7. To which forum can an administrative complaint be filed against doctors?
A. Regional Trial Court
C. Department of health
B. National Bureau of Investigation
D. Professional Regulation Comission
8. Reprimand is a sanction imposed against a doctor when he is guilty of what liability:
A. Administrative liability B. Civil liability C. criminal liability D. no liability
9. If the license of a physician is suspended indefinitely, after how long can he apply for
A. 3 years B. 6 months C. 2 years D. it will depend on the pleasure of the Board of medicine
10. What is the degree of proof/evidence needed to convict physician of a crime?
A. Guilt beyond reasonable doubt C. Prosecution must prove that Dra. Gajardo got pregnant
B. Preponderance of evidence D. Prosecution must prove that Dr. Gimenez is a medical doctor
11. The study of licensure laws, regulatory laws and physician-patient relationship, is known in
medical school curriculum as:
A. Legal Medicine
B. Legal Ethics C. Medical Jurisprudence D. M<edical Ethics
12. Which of the following does not affect a termination of physician-patient relationship?
A. withdrawal of physician without patient consent
C. death of patient
B. recovery of patient
D. death of physician
13. A physician should never examine or treat hospitalized patient of another physician without the
latter’s knowledge and consent except when:
A. the patient expressly asks him to do so in the absence of attending physician
B. he is a relative of the patient
C. he will not changed the patient a professional fee
D. in case of emergency, the attending physician is not readily available
14. A physician accused of criminal abortion was acquitted because:
A. he was a duly licensed medical practitioner
B. the woman plaintiff was emotionally unstable
C. the product of conception could not be produced in court
D. a pregnancy test done 3 days before the alleged abortion definitely ruled out pregnancy
CASE: Mr. A brought his 3 yrs old son to a hospital. Dr. B, the admitting physician admitted the
pediatric case to the medicine ward because the pediatric ward is full. During the night, the patient
child was seen in the floor with a fractured skull resulting from a fall. It was found out that the bed
was without railings. Mr. A wanted to sue Dr. B and the hospital.
15. The doctrine applicable in this case would be:
A. Res ipsa loquitor B. Osiensible agent C. Forseeability D. Common knowledge
16. Suppose before admission Mr. A was informed of the absence of railings to protect the child from
A. assumption of risk
C. res ipsa loquitor
B. continuing negligence
D. common knowledge
17. Suppose Mr. A has already previously and repeatedly complained of the absence of railings to Dr.
B but no attention was given to the complaint, which doctrine could be applicable?
A. assumption of risk
C. contributory negligence
B. continuing negligence
D. common knowledge
18. Suppose one day after an intramuscular injection a part of the needle was discovered protruding
from the buttocks of the patient, what is the doctrine applicable?
A. assumption of risk B. res ipsa loquitor C. contributory negligence D. continuing negligence

sudden death B. garroting D. cadaveric spasm D. Assisted Suicide 26. assistance to the commission of suicide 37. Divine Law D. negligible 33. dead body disposal C. Algor mortis D. the father removed the railings so that he himself can sleep on the bed. Under the doctrine the hospital owner may be liable for the mistakes of the residents: A. Mr A. Cadaveric rigidity is also known as A. Mandatory C. Captain of the ship doctrine B. electrocution. murder 40. Instantenous rigor is also known as A. Substantive law B. homicide D. 12 hrs. Deep burial sites will make decomposition : A. Rigor mortis C. secondary flaccidity D. 24 hrs. C. Vicarious liability 22. Marbolization D. merciful killing B. judicial death D. 1 year B. Euthanasia C. The convict is put to death by a volley of fire from a firing squad in: A. and reckless imprudence is called: A. Case to case D. Adiposer formation B. Anytime B. An unembalmed body should be buried not later than: (if the person died as a result of a natural cause): A. 24 hrs. Independent Contractor C. Osmotic C. borrowed servant doctrine D. Any change for the position of the cadaver will not change the location of this type of cadaveric lividity: A. C. Muskety C. post-mortem rigidity 44. 48 hrs. B. heat stiffening 39. Moral law C. 10 years after burial 30. negligent B. If the physician performs euthanasia without the patients knowledge. ground burial C. Every end of the month 23. mugging B. asphyxial death 36. 2 years C. Joint and several liability D. The willful deliberate and painless acceleration of death of a person: A. Originally there were railings on the bed of the patient. Murder D. 12 hrs B. No crime because ethically allowed D. The cause of death resulting from lack of skill. Fellow Servant doctrine 24. D. When blood accumulates in the most dependent portions of the dead body. 48 hrs. Accidental C. nothing D. Contributory Negligence 21. What is the doctrine applicable: A. A missing person is presumed dead if he is not heard from for: A. res ipsa loquitor C. and he did it with due care. common knowledge 20. Femur 27. and during a calamity. contributory negligence B. Vicarious Liability B. embalming D. His child fell with a broken skull. A. murder C. Sternum C. Pelvis D. 3 years after burial C. An unembalmed body should be buried not later than: (if the person died as a result of a communicable disease): A. Homicide B. and death occurred without intending to cause it. algor mortis 34. Murder C. putrefaction C. 3 years D. Parricide B. Res Iplsa Loquitor D. What crime if any is committed by the doctor: A. Maceration . Diffusion D. Infanticide 28. Borrowed servant doctrine C. Skull B.19. Musketry. 41. Rigor mortis C. Which of the following laws is enforced by the state: A. stationary D. If one performed lawful act. 4 years 35. post-mortem muscular irritability B. it is called A. Alteration 31. infanticide B. Hypostatic B. Natural Law 25. If a 3-day old unidentified child was intentionally killed with cruelty. post-mortem lividity B. The reporting of treatment of serious physical injuries by a physician is: A. Common defense of the hospital are regards consultants liability to his private patients: A. 42. Patient leaves the hospital against advice: A. lack of foresight. The bone which is most informative regarding the sex of the owner of the skeleton being examined is the: A. the offender may be changed with: A. primary6 flaccidity C. interment B. When a body is the subject matter of a criminal investigation. he is guilty of: A. A terminally ill patient is given an overdose of sedatives without his knowledge. parricide 38. Negligence 29. accidental D. slower C. Homicide D. 5 years after burial D. the death is A. It is the prominence of the superficial veins with reddish discoloration due to the process of decomposition which develops on both flanks of the abdomen. homicide C. Voluntary B. it may be exhumed: A. murder 43. 20 hrs. and hanging are examples of A. murder C. 20 hrs. Exhumation is also known as: A. D. cadaveric spasm B. Vicarious liability B. faster B. Captain of the ship D. Continuing Negligence C. disinterment 32. Homicide B.

the contusion’s estimated age is A. When the color of the contusion changes to green. This is a firearm which has a cylindrical magazine situated at the rear of the barrel which can accommodate five or six cartridge: A. death occurring in natural manner 47. 0. bullet D. asphyxia D. A common law-husband who kills his common law wife with whom he has a 2 days old child can be prosecuted for A. bacillus proteus vulgaris 46. bacillus mesenterious C. accidental death B. EXCEPT A. photography C. manikin method 65. contraction of the elastic tissues of the skin 57. The primer is usually made up of A. confession D. antimony C. It is an expressed acknowledgement by the accused in a criminal case of the truth of his guilt as the crime charged. Fracture produced by a tangential or glancing approach of bullet: A. puramen reaction 61. The most practical. homicide B. except A. lead and antimony B. 0. Winslow’s test B. fouling 56. The microorganisms that plays a dominant role in decomposition is A. proximate cause of death C. projectile 53. useful and reliable means of preserving evidence is by A. barium and copper 55. If the diameter of the gunshot wound point of entry is 1 cm x 1 cm the probable caliber of the firearm used is A. cadaveric spasm B. medical examination B. pond fracture C. gutter fracture B. complete cause of death 64. suicides C. 14-15 days 50. automatic pistol C. autopsy D. revolver D. smudging D. deformity of the bullet which entered B. 2-5 minutes D. Factors which make the wound of entrance bigger than the caliber. parricide D. barium. Rigor mortis C. description B. none of the above C. child abuse cases 49. lead. The average time required for death in drowning is A. impossible crime 48. all of the above B. Loord’s test 60. Gettler’s test C. 4-5 days C. rifle B. powder C. biological test of farnum C. burns B.22 C. slight and less physical injury C. death stiffening D. admission E. cadaveric rigidity 63. immediate cause of death B. The following manner of death should be autopsied. Post-mortem examination C. Takayama test D. 5-10 minutes B. Ganguli’s method D. Berberio’s B. acute angular approach of the bullet D. indented fracture D. This is quantitative determination of the chloride content of the blood in the right and left ventricle of the heart: A. secondary cause of death D. 2-4 days B. The comprehensive study of a dead body performed by trained physician employing recognized procedures and techniques is known as A. 7-10 days D. infanticide C. death unattended by physician D. Tattooing is also known as A. Presidential Decree 169 mandates all doctors to report all cases involving: A. 1-3 minutes C. lead.45 D. “Pugilistic” position of a boxer is associated with A. Post-mortem dissection . Cases when trauma or disease kill quickly that there is no opportunity for sequel or complication to develop is known as A. bullet enters the skin sidewise C. shotgun 52. interrogation 62. stippling B. chlostridium welchi B.45. Its main function is the transformation of mechanical energy by the hit of the firing pin on the percussion cap to chemical energy: A. The test which determines the whether semen is of human origin or not: A. 0. A. lead and barium D. bursting fracture 51. sketching D. The presence of weapon which is highly grasped by the hand of a victim of a shooting incident is an example of A. bacillus coli D. 3-6 minutes 59.38 B. primer B. mutilation D. less serious and serious physical B. 9 mm 54. drowning C. soot C. gunshot wounds 58.

This is allowed on the basis of Constitutional guarantee on: A. rumor mongering D. The study of licensure laws. exemplary damage B. Permission to disinter remains of persons who died of dangerous communicable diseases maybe granted after a burial period of A. Slander C. Legal Ethics D. the body has been in water for sometime B. in an emergency. D. Dr. Diagnosis C. The most prominent sign of death is A progressive fall of the body temperature B. Medical Jurisprudence B. Dr. Treatment B.66. When is patient’s consent necessary? A. the body died for drowning D. precipitated skin proteins B. absence of blood 68. This kind of damage is referred to as: A. Faith healing is allowed as an norm of treatment modality in the Philippines. Moderate C. Ty demands P1 million pesos as payment would be: A. When the body surface of corpse is pressed it leaves a flattened area due to A. freedom of sexual expression 75. insensibility of body loss of power to move 72. Exemplary D. Mr. freedom of the press B. smell and touch A. regulatory laws and physician-patient relationship. A physician may perform a diagnostic or therapeutic procedure without the consent of the patient or his relatives. Regional Trial Court C. the plaintiff may recover what type of damage? A. All of the above 77. cessation of heart action and circulation C. 4 years B. all of the above 78. no change in color of the finger B. civil C. Department of health B. 6 years D. criminal D. documentary evidence D. ethical 76. any of the above 80. administrative B. actual damage C. Analysis 74. absence of edema C. The colon was perforated during simoidoscopy and the surgeon decides on laparotomy to undertake repair 82. taste. exemplary damages B. actual damages D. a would be: A. the body died for syphilis 69. loss of elasticity of the skin D. change in the temperature of the torniqueted finger 67. in a women diagnosed with ectopic pregnancy. A maybe guilty of: A. The nature of liability against Dr. Libel B. the surgeon discovers and abnormal ovary and desiced to remove it. 5 years C. 7 years 70. When a surgeon operates on a patient without consent. Operation D. when the patient is merely being stubborn C. Cutis Galina or Washer woman’s hands and feet on the corpse signifies that: A. moral damages C. this constitutes an assault and even without proof of injury resulting. attorney’s fees 79. it turns out be a case of acute appendicitis and the surgeon decides to remove the appendix C. when the physician believes the procedure is necessary B. Professional Regulation commission D. autoptic or real evidence B. cessation of respiration D. A uttered vexing words against Dr. The cost of the procedure to re-attach of Mr. is known in medical school curriculum as: A. Medical Ethics 73. A mental process whereby one or more persons appraise a situation and make a decision based on their judgement that may or may not lead to action is called: A. This is a medical evidence made known or addressed to the senses of the court no limited to the sense of vision. Ty suffered sleepless nights and wounded feelings as well as besmirched reputation. but is intended to the sense of hearing. in an acute emergency when there in no time to discuss the situation in order to seek consent . A. The principle used in the Magnus test for determining somatic death is A. Legal Medicine C. when the patient is unconscious D. Ty that was incided would be in nature of: A. patient need tracheostomy B. B defaming his personality and dignity. moral damage D. The venue with which to file the case in case Mr. the body is that of a laundry woman C. corpus evidence 71. Nominal B. experimental evidence C. freedom of expression D. no change in the temperature of the finger C. Liquidated 81. During an appendectomy. change in the color of the finger D. freedom of origin C.

Which provision specifically mention the physician as the wrong-doer? A. he can show that he applied his knowledge and skill with diligence and care B. simple seduction C. washerwoman’s skin B. The laceration involving more than half of the hymenal height but does not reach the hymenal based is called: A. she can accuse him for adultery D.83. the doctrine of res ipsa loquitor is applicable C. and the imagination of the skin. Deep C. Immorality C. Complicated 100. Flame B. qualified seduction 95. incompetence 89. cutis anserina C. consultation by appointment only 91. all produce the: A. Complete D. “Disease of Women and Children” C. defamation B. its rough surface. forcible abduction D. The spinning motion of the bullet. qualified seduction B. Pharmacy Law 94. Adultery D. macerated and wrinkled in: A. she has no right to complain B. immoral or dishonorable conduct B. captain of the ship 86. the procedure is necessary for the good of the patient C. white slave trade 99. smoke D. violation of the Dangerous Drug Act D. The testimony of an expert witness is NOT needed to prove a negligent act when which doctrine is applicable? A. the procedure is by its nature risky 88. A physician who gives an overdose of a drug may be charged for A. Abduction B. Which is unethical? A. A balikbayan physician puts up a sign board at his clinic. bullet REFFERENCE BOOK: SOLIS . borrowed servant D. The following are provisions of Penal Law wherein a physician may be hold criminally liable. gross negligence B. gunpowder residue C. she can charge him of abandonment 92. He may be charged before the Board of medicine for A. One of the grounds for the suspension or revocation of the certificate of registration of a physician on account of a criminal act is A. refusal to render treatment in emergency cases 85. Seduction B. violation of the Code of ethics C. forcible obduction C. the patient contributed to the ill-effects D. “Trained at Mayo Clinic” D. Virginity is a requirement in this crime: A. Adultery D. Immorality C. smudging 96. simple seduction B. The mistress of a married physician sought redress from the Board of Medicine when the physician left her for another woman. A physician may apply a procedure even it is against the wishes of the patient if A. extravagant or unethical advertisement 90. Tattooing B. Revised Administrative Code D. failure to arrange for a substitute during the attending physician’s absence 87. Superficial B. reckless imprudence 93. The element of deceit is required in case of: A. Which statement is VALID? A. failure to provide follow-up attention C. Contusion collar D. A physician cannot be held liable for the ill effect of his management procedure if A. Seduction C. the procedure is required by law D. conviction by court of an offense involving moral turpitude D. consultation hours 9-11 a. Rifling C. Instances when a physician may NOT be held liable for abandonment. contact flattening 97. criminal negligence and imprudence C. A. false. Medical Act 1959 as amended C. Revised Penal Code B. An unmarried physician was discovered having sex with an unmarried nurse. ostensible agent B. Sexual intercourse is NOT necessary in this crime: A. she can charge the physician for immorality C. B. the procedure is known to be safe B. Concubinage 98.m. consented obduction D. The prohibition and imposition of penalty on physicians who sell medical samples gratuitously given to them by drug promoters is embodied in A. refusal to attend a case for which he has assumed responsibility D. saponification D. there is implied consent by he patient’s spouse 84. res ipsa loquitor C. Stippling is caused by: A. The skin is whitened. Dishonorable conduct D. failure to visit the patient sufficiently after believing that the patient needed no further treatment B.