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You are on page 1of 54

1. Time duration for this test is 180 minutes. This test consists of 90 questions. The

maximum marks are 360.

2. There are three parts in the question paper, namely, Part A: Physics, Part B: Chemistry

and Part C: Mathematics.

3. This test contains 90 Multiple Choice Questions with single correct answer. Each

Question has four choices (1), (2), (3) & (4), out of which Only One is Correct.

4.

5. One-fourth (1/4) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each

question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for

an item in the answer sheet. Filling up more than one response in any question will be

treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly

as per the instruction 5 above.

Part A Physics

Question 1: Figure (a) given below shows a circular disc that is uniformly charged. The central z-axis is

perpendicular to the disc. Figure (b) is the graph of the magnitude of the electric field along that axis in

terms of the maximum magnitude Em at the disc surface ( zS 16.0 cm).

(a)

What is the radius of the disc?

(1) 10.4 cm

(3) 13.9 cm

(b)

(2) 11.3 cm

(4) 14.1 cm

Solution: For the uniformly charged disc, the electric field along the z- axis is

z

E

1 2

2 0

z R2

Putting z 0 , we get

Em

2 0

0.5Em

8.0

1

2 0

(8.0)2 R 2

8.0

(8.0)2 R 2

0.5

(8.0)2 R 2 (16.0)2

Therefore,

Correct Option: (3)

Question 2: The amplitude of the electric field of a parallel beam of electromagnetic wave of intensity 8

Wm2 is

(1) 6.25 N C1

(2) 5.2 N C1

1

(3) 77.6 N C

(4) 91.3 N C1

Solution: Intensity of a plane electromagnetic wave is

1

I 0 E0 2 c

2

2I

0c

28

8.85 1012 3 108

77.6 N C1

Question 3: Two ideal p-n junction diodes are connected in an electrical circuit with resistances to a

battery of 12 V as shown in the figure. What will be the current flowing in the circuit?

(1) 0.2 A

(3) 2 A

(2) 1.7 A

(4) 2.4 A

Solution: Diodes are connected in such a way that the diode D1 is reverse biased and diode D2 is forward

biased.

So, the resistance of the diode D 1 is infinity and it can be replaced by a broken wire.

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And the resistance of the diode D 2 is zero and it can be replaced by a resistance- less wire.

The equivalent circuit would be

4

12 V

Correct Option: (3)

Question 4: A 0.50 kg object moves in a horizontal circular track with a radius of 2.5m . A continuous

external force of 3.0 N , always tangent to the track, causes the object to speed up as it goes around. The

work done by the external force as the mass makes one revolution is nearly

(1) 24 J

(2) 47 J

(3) 59J

(4) 94J

Solution: Since the force acts tangentially, it is always in the same direction as displacement. Hence,

work done in one revolution

W F dr

F (2 r )

(3.0)(2 2.5)

47.1 J 47 J

Question 5: Angular velocity of a body changes from 25 rad s1 to 4 rad s1 without applying a torque but

by changing its moment of inertia about a particular fixed axis. The ratio of radii of gyration about that

particular axis in the two cases is

(1) 2 : 5

(2) 4 : 25

(3) 5 : 2

(4) 25 : 4

Solution: Angular momentum remains conserved as the net external torque is zero.

I11 I 22

I1 2

I 2 1

mk12 2

mk22 1

2

k1

4

2:5

k2

1

25

Correct Option: (1)

Question 6: A spherical object of radius 1cm and density 4 103 kg m3 is dropped gently into a large

container containing viscous liquid of density 2 103 kg m3 and viscosity 0.1 Ns m2 . The distance

moved by the object in 9 s after it attains terminal velocity is (Take g = 10 m s)

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4

m

9

20

m

(3)

9

(1)

(2)

40

m

9

(4) 40m

vt =

2 r2

9

g downward

2 (1) 2

9 0.1

40

vt = m/s, downwards

9

Once the body acquires terminal velocity, it will have uniform motion. So distance travelled by the object

9 s after attaining terminal velocity is

vt =

d=

40

9

9 = 40 m

Question 7: Four square plates, each with edge length a, are arranged as shown in the figure below. The

equivalent capacitance between A and C is

3 0 a 2

5d

2 a 2

(3) 0

3d

(1)

3 0 a 2

2d

5 a 2

(4) 0

3d

(2)

Solution: Now we know that capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is given by relation

0 A

d

where A is the area of cross-section of the plates and d is the separation between the plates.

The given figure can be redrawn as below:

From the figure above, capacitors C2 and C3 are in parallel so their equivalent capacitance between points

D and point C is

C ' C2 C3

0a2

d

0a2

2d

3 0 a

2d

Now the equivalent capacitance between points A and point C will be

1

1

1

Ceq C ' C1

Ceq

C ' C1

C ' C1

3 0 a 2 0 a 2

d

2d 2

3 0 a

0a2

2d

d

2

3 a

0

5d

Question 8: An object on a vertical spring oscillates up and down at a frequency of 5.00 Hz. By how

much would this object, hanging from rest, stretch the spring at equilibrium?

(1) 0.10 m

(2) 0.05 m

(3) 0.01 m

(4) 0.50 m

Solution: Angular frequency

k

m

2

k (2 ) m

2

Hence,

When the object hangs from the spring,

kx mg

mg

x

k

mg

(2 ) 2 m

g

(2 ) 2

9.81

(2 3.14 5.00) 2

0.01m

Question 9: Two waveforms A and B are fed as input in a logic circuit shown in the diagram below.

What will be the correct output waveform?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Solution: Given circuit can be understood as two NOT circuits being fed into a NOR circuit.

For the first pulse of A and B,

Input

1

1

A

B

First Gate

0

0

Second Gate

1

Options

(1), (2), (4)

A

B

Input

0

0

First Gate

1

1

Second Gate

0

Options

(1), (2), (4)

A

B

Input

0

1

First Gate

1

0

Second Gate

0

Options

Second Gate

0

Options

(1), (4)

Input

A

1

B

0

Correct Option: (1)

First Gate

0

1

(1)

Question 10: A force of F 12.0 N is applied to a 8.00kg block at a downward angle of 30.0 , as shown

in the following figure.

The coefficient of static friction between the block and the floor is 0.700 and the coefficient of kinetic

friction is 0.400. What is the magnitude of the frictional force on the block?

(1) 19 N

(2) 59 N

(3) 12 3 N

(4) 6 3 N

Solution:

N mg F sin(30)

8.00 9.81 12(1 / 2)

84.48 N

Applying equilibrium of forces in horizontal direction

(1)

F cos(30) N ma

Now,

3

F cos(30) 12

6 3N

(2)

2

Maximum value of static friction, which needs to be overcome for motion to take place, is

f max s N

0.700(84.48)

59.13N

(3)

2

Since this force is greater than F cos(30 ) , there will be no motion, and a 0ms .

Substituting the values from Eq. (2) and Eq. (3) into Eq. (1) we get

6 3 fs m(0)

o

6 3 fs 0

fs 6 3 N

Question 11: A charged particle is moving perpendicular to a uniform, constant magnetic field. Which

one of the following statements is false?

(1) The magnetic force does no work on the particle.

(2) The magnetic force does not change the velocity of the particle.

(3) The magnetic force can act only on a charged particle in motion.

(4) The magnetic force does not change the kinetic energy of the particle.

Solution: All the given statements are true except (2). While the magnetic force does not change the

particles speed (being a central force), but it does change its velocity by changing its direction of motion.

However, this change does not change the kinetic energy

Correct Option: (2)

Question 12: A hollow lens is made of thin glass as shown in the figure below.

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It can be filled with air, water ( n 1.3 ), or CS2 ( n 1.6 ). The lens will diverge a beam of parallel light if

it is filled with

(1) air and immersed in air.

(2) air and immersed in water.

(3) water and immersed in CS2.

(4) CS2 and immersed in water.

Solution: From Lens makers equation:

1 1

1 n2

1

f n1

R1 R2

1 1

Using the Cartesian sign convention, R1 is negative and R2 is positive. Thus, is negative.

R1 R2

Now, for the given lens to act as a diverging lens, the focal length f must be negative. This implies that

n2

1 must be positive. Note that n2 is the refractive index of the medium inside, and n1 is the

n1

n

refractive index outside the lens. 2 1 is positive only when n2 > n1 or lens is filled with CS2 and

n1

immersed in water.

Correct Option: (4)

Question 13: An input signal of 22 kHz and peak voltage 25 V is modulated with a carrier wave of

frequency 23 MHz and peak voltage 24 V. What will be the bandwidth of the modulated wave in the case

of amplitude modulation?

(1) 44 kHz

(2) 44 kHz + 46 MHz

(3) 46 MHz

(4) 22 kHz + 23 MHz

Solution: Bandwidth in the case of amplitude modulation = Twice the frequency of the modulating signal

Bandwidth 2 m

2 22

44 kHz

Correct Option: (1)

Question 14: The term coherence relates to

(1) the diffraction of two waves.

(2) the polarization state of two waves.

(3) the phase relationship between two waves.

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Solution: Two light waves are coherent if their phase difference is constant.

Correct Option: (3)

Question 15: The following question consists of two statements, 1 and 2. Of the four choices given,

choose the one that best describes the two statements.

Statement 1: When pressure in an ideal gas increases, speed of sound in the gas increases.

P

Statement 2: Speed of sound in an ideal gas is given by v

where is the adiabatic constant of the

gas, P is the pressure in the gas and is the density of the gas.

(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1

(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1

(3) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false

(4) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true

Solution: Though the speed of sound formula seems to suggest that v P , note that the other variable

in the denominator is not an independent variable but depends on pressure P. In fact, density is directly

proportional to P, given other independent parameters dont change, making v independent of P. So a

better formula to rely on is

RT

v

M0

Correct Option: (4)

Question 16: The pressure increases by 1.0 104 Nm2 for every meter of depth beneath the surface of

the ocean. At what depth does the volume of a Pyrex glass cube of edge length 1.0 102 m at the oceans

surface decrease by 1.0 1010 m3 ? Bulk modulus of Pyrex glass is 2.6 1010 Nm2 .

(1) 140 m

(2) 260 m

(3) 380 m

(4) 400 m

Solution: Increase in pressure

V

p B

V

1.0 1010

(2.6 1010 )

2 3

(1.0 10 )

2.6 106 Nm 2

Since the pressure increases by 1.0 104 Nm2 for every meter,

Depth below the surface =

2.6 102 m

4

2

1.0 10 (Nm ) / m

Question 17: An inductance L and a resistance R are connected in series to an ideal battery. A switch in

the circuit is closed at time t = 0, when the current is zero. The rate of increase of the energy stored in the

inductor is the maximum

(1) just after the switch is closed.

(2) at time t L / R after the switch is closed.

(3) at time t 2L / R after the switch is closed.

(4) at time t ( L / R) ln 2 after the switch is closed.

Solution: The transient current in an LR circuit is given by

V

t

i 1 exp

R

L / R

di V

t

exp

dt L

L/R

or

Energy stored in the inductor is given by

1

E Li 2

2

Rate of change of energy,

dE

di V 2

t

t

Li

exp

1 exp

dt

dt R

L / R

L / R

d2 E

V2

t

t

exp

1 2exp

2

dt

L

L / R

L / R

Now, for

dE

to be maximum,

dt

or

d2 E

0

dt 2

V2

t

t

exp

1 2exp

0

L

L / R

L / R

t 1

exp

L/R 2

t

ln 2

L/R

L

t ln 2

R

Correct Option: (4)

Question 18: The water in a glass kept on a table has a mass of 0.25 kg. It has the same temperature as

the room, which is 27C. A Carnot refrigerator is operating in this room. The water is put in the

refrigerator, the inside of which is maintained at 3C. How much work is done by the refrigerator in

cooling the water from 27C to 3C? Take the specific heat capacity of water to be 4.18 103 J kg 1K 1 .

(1) 2.2 kJ

(2) 6.7 kJ

(3) 8.3 kJ

(4) 5.9 kJ

Solution: For a refrigerator,

QC W QH

W QH QC

QC is the heat extracted from the cold reservoir; the water, in this case. So,

QC = mcT = (0.25kg)(4.18103 J kg1K 1 )(27 3) = 25103 J

Since its a Carnot refrigerator,

QH TH

QC TC

QH

TH

QC

TC

300

(25 103 )

276

27.2 103 J

Thus, work done by the refrigerator in cooling the water from 27C to 3C will be

W QH QC

2.2 103 J

2.2 kJ

Correct Option: (1)

Question 19: An ultraviolet lamp emits light of wavelength 400 nm at the rate of 400 W. An infrared

lamp emits light of wavelength 700 nm, also at the rate of 400 W. Which lamp emits photons at the

greater rate and by how much?

(1) UV, 8 1020 s 1

(2) UV, 6 1020 s 1

(4) IR, 6 1020 s 1

Solution: Since both lamps are emitting energy at the same rate (400 W), the energy emitted per second

by both is equal. The ultraviolet (UV) light has higher frequency, and hence its photons have higher

energy (since, E h ) than the photons of the infrared (IR) light. This means that the IR lamp emits

more number of photons per second.

Number of photons emitted per second by the UV lamp

N UV

400 4001

h 1

hc

400 400 2

h 2

hc

So, the IR lamp emits photons at a higher rate. The difference in number of photons emitted per second

by the IR lamp and UV lamp is

N IR

N N IR N UV

400 2

4001

hc

hc

400(700 400) 10 9

6.03 1020 s 1

Correct Option: (4)

Question 20: Seven 5 ohm resistors are connected in a circuit with a 10 volt battery and ammeter as

shown in the figure. The ammeter will read

(1) 5 A

(3) 3 A

(2) 0.5 A

(4) 0.3 A

Solution: Since five 5 ohm resistors between points A and B are connected in a Wheatstone bridge,

current through diagonal resistance of 5 ohm will be zero.

So, between points A and B, there are 3 sets of (5 + 5) ohm = 10 ohm resistors in parallel

combination.

So, equivalent resistance =10/3 ohm.

Current in the circuit

I

V

10

3 A

R (10 / 3)

Question 21: A particle moving with a velocity of (4i j ) ms1 strikes a fixed smooth wall and finally

moves with a velocity of (3i 2 j ) ms 1 . The coefficient of restitution between the wall and the particle

in the collision will be

3

7

(1)

(2)

7

3

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(3)

13

17

(4)

17

13

Impulse will act along the outward normal of the wall. As the wall is smooth so the unit vector along the

10 .

inward normal to the wall is i 3 j

Now we take dot product of initial and final velocities with unit vector to find the components of

velocites along unit vector. The coefficient of restitution will be

v2, n v1, n

u2, n u1, n

or

3i 2 j i 3 j

4i j i 3 j

36

43

3

7

10 0

10 0

Question 22: In an experiment to determine acceleration due to gravity g, the length of the pendulum is

measured as 95 cm by a scale of least count 1 cm. The time period of oscillation is measured by a stop

watch having a least count of 1 s. For 40 oscillations, the time was found to be 78 s. The value of g is best

expressed as

(1) (9.8 0.4) ms2

(2) (9.8 0.2) ms2

2

(3) (9.8 0.3) ms

(4) (9.8 0.1) ms2

Solution: For a simple pendulum, the time period is given by

l

g

Given that time period of an oscillation is T = 78 / 40 1.95s.

Rearranging and substituting in the equation:

4 2 l

T 2

T2

4 (3.14)2 0.95

1.95 1.95

9.85 m s 2 9.8 m s 2

g l 2T

g

l

T

1 2 1

g 9.8

95 78

9.8(0.01 0.03)

9.8(0.04)

0.4 m s 2

g (9.8 0.4) ms 2

Therefore,

Correct Option: (1)

Question 23: A solid spherical region of radius R having a spherical cavity with diameter R, as shown in

the figure given below, has a total charge Q. The potential at a point P is

(1)

(3)

Q 7 x 4R

(2)

14 0 x 2 x R

4Q 7 x 4 R

(4)

21 0 x 2 x R

Q 7 x 4R

21 0 x 2 x R

2Q 7 x 4 R

7 0 x 2 x R

Q

6Q

3

7

R3

4

R

3

R

3

2

3

4 3 4 R

R

3

3

2

R

1

1

V

R 3 0 x

R

4 0 x

4 0 x

8 x

2

2

R3 4 2 x R x

R3 1

1

3 0 x 4 2 x R 3 0 4 x 2 x R

R3 7 x 4 R

R3 1

1

3 0 x 4 2 x R 3 0 4 x 2 x R

(1)

R3 7 x 4R

V

12 0 x 2 x R

or

(2)

3

Q 7 x 4R

6Q R 7 x 4 R

3

7 R 12 0 x 2 x R 14 0 x 2 x R

Question 24: A heated body emits radiation which has maximum intensity at frequency 700 THz . Which

of the following is true for the maximum intensity of the emitted radiation to be at 450 THz ?

(1) The temperature of the body must be increased by 50%

(2) The temperature of the body must be lowered by 36%

(3) The temperature of the body must be increased by 28%

(4) The temperature of the body must be lowered by 45%

Solution: According to Wiens displacement law,

T = constant

or

1T1 2T2

Therefore,

T2 T1 1

2

T1 2

1

450

T1

700

0.64 T1

Thus, T2 is 36% lower than T1 .

Correct Option: (2)

Question 25: A hollow cylindrical conductor (inner radius = a, outer radius = b) carries a current i

uniformly spread over its cross-section. Then which of the graphs given below correctly represents B as a

function of the distance r from the center of the cylinder?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

For r a , we have B 0.

For a r b , we have

B(2 r ) 0 J ( r 2 a 2 )

B

For r b , we have

0 J ( r 2 a 2 )

2r

B(2 r ) 0 J ( b 2 a 2 )

B

0 J (b 2 a 2 )

2r

It is given that the current density J is constant. Thus, the correct graphical representation is given in

option (3).

Question 26: A canon fires a projectile, as shown in the figure below. The dashed line shows its

trajectory in the absence of gravity.

Points N, O and P correspond to the position of the projectile at one second intervals. If g 10ms2 , the

lengths X, Y, Z are

(1) 5 m, 10 m, 15 m

(2) 5 m, 20 m, 45 m

(3) 10 m, 40 m, 90 m

(4) 10 m, 20 m, 30 m

Solution: It is implicitly stated in the question that the reason why the projectile follows a parabolic path

and not the path along the dashed line is because of the presence of gravity. So, at any instant, the

difference between a point on the dashed line and the corresponding point on the parabolic trajectory is

the height fallen by the projectile due to gravity, which is given by

1

h gt 2 .

2

Thus, the three lengths are

1

X g (1)2 5m

2

1

Y g (2)2 20m

2

and

1

Z g (3)2 45m

2

Correct Option: (2)

Question 27: The binding energies per nucleon for a deuteron and an -particle are x1 and x2,

respectively. What will be the energy Q released in the following reaction?

2

2

42 He Q

1 H 1 H

(1) 4(x1 + x2)

(2) 4(x2 x1)

(3) 2(x1 + x2)

(4) 2(x2 xl)

Solution: Binding energy of reacting nuclei is

2 2 x1 4 x1

Binding energy of product nucleus is 4x2 .

We have to find the energy released (Q) which can be calculated as

Q = Binding energy of product nucleus Binding energy of reacting nuclei

That is,

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Q 4 x2 4 x1 4( x2 x1 )

Question 28: An artificial Earth satellite is moved from a circular orbit having radius R to another

circular orbit having radius 2R . During this movement, which of the following is true?

(1) The gravitational force does negative work, the kinetic energy of the satellite decreases, and the

potential energy of the Earthsatellite system increases.

(2) The gravitational force does positive work, the kinetic energy of the satellite increases, and the

potential energy of the Earthsatellite system increases.

(3) The gravitational force does positive work, the kinetic energy of the satellite increases, and the

potential energy of the Earthsatellite system decreases.

(4) The gravitational force does negative work, the kinetic energy of the satellite increases, and the

potential energy of the Earthsatellite system decreases.

Solution: In the orbit of radius R , the kinetic energy of the satellite is

GMm

KR

2R

Potential energy of the Earthsatellite system is

GMm

UR

R

and total energy will be

TER K R U R

GMm GMm

2R

R

GMm

2R

In an orbit of radius 2R , the potential energy of Earthsatellite system is

GMm

U2R

2R

Kinetic energy of the satellite is

GMm

K2 R

4R

Total energy is

TE2 R K 2 R U 2 R

GMm GMm

4R

2R

GMm

4R

So, when an artificial Earth satellite is moved from a circular orbit having radius R to another circular

orbit having radius 2R :

The total energy increases. This means that positive work has been done by an external agent,

which in turn means that negative work has been done by the gravitational force.

Correct Option: (1)

Question 29: At which point is the potential the highest in the circuit shown in the figure given below.

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(1) A

(3) C

(2) B

(4) D

Solution: Battery creates potential difference, therefore to write down potentials of different points, we

have to start by assuming potential at some point to be zero. Let us say that the potential at point C is

zero. So,

VC 0V

The potential at point B will be

VB VC 3E

VB 3E VC

3E 0

3E

The potential at point A will be

VA VB 2 E

VA 2 E VB

2 E 3E

5E

The potential at point D will be

VD VA E

VD E VA

E 5E

4E

Clearly, the potential is highest at point A.

Correct Option: (1)

Question 30: Three light waves travel through a certain point P along the x-axis. They are polarized

parallel to the y-axis, with the following variations in their amplitudes.

E1 (10.0 Vm1 ) sin[(2.0 1014 rads1 ) t ]

What will be the amplitude and phase angle of their resultant at P?

(1) Amplitude = 20.0 Vm1 ; phase angle = 45.0

(3) Amplitude = 10.0 Vm1 ; phase angle = 45.0

(4) Amplitude = 20.0 Vm1 ; phase angle = 0

Solution:

Since the light wave is polarized, we can add the three light waves using phasors.

The resultant will be directed along the x-axis. Its phase angle, 0.

The resultant amplitude

E 10.0 5.00cos45 5.00cos45 17.1 Vm1

Correct Option: (2)

Part B Chemistry

Question 1: Which of following compounds is a reducing sugar?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Solution: Monosaccharides with hemiacetal (or hemiketal) linkages are in equilibrium with the openchain structures in aqueous solution and are therefore, reducing sugars. Monosaccharides with acetal (or

ketal) linkages are not in equilibrium with the open-chain aldehyde (or ketone) in neutral or basic aqueous

solutions, and hence are non-reducing.

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Compound in option (3) contains OHCOR structure (hemiketal linkage), so, it is a reducing sugar.

Question 2: Which one of the following compounds is non-polar?

(1) CHCl3

(2) SiCl4

(3) SnCl2

(4) NH3

Solution: Molecules with either non-polar bonds or symmetric polar bonds are non-polar.

Cl

Si

Cl

Cl

Cl

. .

..

Sn

H

Cl

(net moment = 0)

Cl

H

H

In SiCl4, the bond moments are cancelled out completely so the net dipole moment is zero and the

molecule is non-polar.

Correct Option: (2)

o

32 mm Hg and

Question 3: Benzene and toluene form nearly ideal solutions. At 300 K, ptoluene

o

pbenzene

103 mm Hg. A liquid mixture is composed of 3 mol of toluene and 2 mol of benzene. On

reducing pressure isothermally over the mixture at 300 K, the mixture vaporizes in a certain range of

pressure. The mole fraction of benzene in the last drop of liquid left is

(1) 0.17

(2) 0.4

(3) 0.6

(4) 0.68

Solution: On decreasing pressure over the liquid mixture, the first vapor occurs at 60.4 mm Hg. Further

decrease in pressure increases the vapor content of the mixture. Finally, when the last drop of liquid is

left, its vapor phase contains almost the same composition as it was for liquid phase in the beginning.

2

The initial mole fractions for benzene 0.4; and for toluene 0.6.

5

For the vapor phase in equilibrium with the last liquid drop, mole fractions: yB 0.4; yT 0.6

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From Raoults law and Daltons law for liquid-vapour equilibria, the mole fraction of benzene in liquid

and vapor phases are related by

po po 1

1

1

32 32 1

1 To To

1

xB 0.17

yB

pB pB xB

0.4 103 103 xB

Correct Option: (1)

Question 4: Which of the following cations will have the same color in aqueous solution with the color

of aqueous solution of Pm3+ (atomic number = 61)?

(1) Eu3+ (63)

(2) Tb3+ (65)

(3) Yb3+ (70)

(4) Ho3+ (67)

Solution:

The ions having nf n and nf14n configuration will have similar color (expected) because they have the

same number of unpaired electrons.

Pm3+: [Xe] 4f 4, that is,

four unpaired electrons.

The electronic configurations of other ions are as follows:

Ho3+: [Xe] 4f 10, that is, four unpaired electrons.

Eu3+: [Xe] 4f 6, that is,

Tb3+: [Xe] 4f 8, that is,

Correct Option: (4)

Question 5: Which of the following compounds contains the maximum number of lone pairs at the

central atom in its best Lewis structure?

(1) XeO3

(2) ClO2

(3) SOCl2

(4) IO 4

Solution: After sharing three electrons with three oxygen atoms, two electrons are left as non-bonding

electrons on Xe in XeO3, so only one lone pair exists on the central atom.

..

Xe

:O

..

:O

..

:O

..

In ClO 2 , chlorine shares three electrons with two oxygen atoms, four electrons are left as non-bonding

electrons on Cl, so two lone pairs exist on the central atom.

..

: Cl

:O

.. :

O..:

In SOCl2 sulphur shares two electrons with oxygen and one with each chlorine atom, two electrons are

left as non-bonding, so only one lone pair exists on the central atom.

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..

S

:O

..

: Cl

.. :

:Cl

.. :

In IO 4 , iodine shares two electrons each with three oxygen atoms and one electron with one oxygen

atom, so no electron is left as non-bonding and zero lone pairs exist on the central atom.

..

O:

I

:O

.. :

:O:

O:

..

Question 6: Hydrogen peroxide solution can be purchased in drug stores for use as an antiseptic. A

sample of such a solution weighing 1.0 g was acidified with H 2SO4 and titrated with a 0.2 M solution of

KMnO4. The ionic equation for the reaction is H MnO4 H2O2 Mn 2 O2 H2O .

The titration required 17.6 ml of KMnO 4 solution. The percentage of H2O2 in the sample is

(1) 30%

(2) 12%

(3) 24%

(4) 60%

Solution: The balanced equation for the redox reaction is

6H 2MnO4 5H2O2 2Mn 2 5O2 8H2O

Moles of KMnO4 used 17.6 0.2 3.52 mmol

So, from balanced chemical equation,

5

2

5

2

Therefore, mass of H2O2 in 1 g sample = 8.8 34 = 299.2 mg

The percentage of H2O2 in the sample =

299.2

100 29.92% 30%

1000

gm equivalents of H2O2 = gm equivalents of KMnO4

Moles of H 2O2 2 Moles of KMnO4 5

17.6 0.2

5

1000

Therefore,

Correct Option: (1)

Percentage 0.299 100 30%

can be increased by

(III) increasing volume of container.

(1) I and II only

(3) I, II and III only

(IV) adding inert gas by keeping volume constant.

(2) II and III only

(4) I, II, III and IV

In this reaction, gaseous moles are increasing and sign of heat is indicating that reaction is endothermic.

So, the production of hydrogen gas can be increased by changing any factor which will shift the

equilibrium to the right hand side. This equilibrium will shift to the right hand side if pressure is

decreased or volume of the container is increased.

Since reaction is endothermic, increasing the temperature will increase the production of hydrogen gas.

Adding inert gas at constant volume will not affect the partial pressure of gases inside the container, so no

change is observed.

Correct Option: (2)

Question 8: Which of the following complexes will cause the lowest depression in freezing point?

(1) CoCl33NH3

(2) CoCl34NH3

(3) CoCl36NH3

(4) CoCl35NH3

Solution: The coordination number of Co3+ is 6, and no NH3 molecule can be present outside the

coordination sphere as solvent of crystallization. Hence,

CoCl3 3NH3 [Co(NH3 )3 Cl3 ] Number of particles produced in solution = 1

CoCl3 4NH3 [Co(NH3 )4 Cl2 ]Cl Number of particles produced in solution = 2

CoCl3 5NH3 [Co(NH3 )5 Cl]Cl2 Number of particles produced in solution = 3

CoCl3 6NH3 [Co(NH3 )6 ]Cl3 Number of particles produced in solution = 4

Any colligative property Number of particles in solution

Correct Option: (1)

Question 9: Out of the following, which element is not paramagnetic in its ground state? [Given: atomic

number of Cu = 29, Cd = 48, Se = 34, Au = 79]

(1) Cu

(2) Se

(3) Cd

(4) Au

Solution: Copper: The electronic configuration is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s1. It contains one unpaired

electron, so it is paramagnetic.

Selenium: The electronic configuration is [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p4, so it contains two unpaired electrons and will

show paramagnetism.

Cadmium: The electronic configuration is [Kr] 4d10 5s2, so no unpaired electrons exist; hence, it will not

be paramagnetic.

Gold: It belongs to the copper family, so the electronic configuration is [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s1. This one

unpaired electron will show paramagnetism.

Correct Option: (3)

Question 10: Consider the reaction given below:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Solution: The reactant involved in the reaction contains highly deactivating nitro groups, so electrophilic

substitution is not possible at benzene ring in this case. Since it contains a good leaving group (Cl)

nucleophilic substitution reaction will take place.

The nucleophile in this reaction is hydroxide ion, so HO will substitute the chlorine atom from the

benzene ring.

Question 11: For a reaction A Pr oduct ; [A] is plotted against time as shown in the figure given

below:

(1) 1.2 103 Mmin 1

Solution: Since the graph is not linear, so, average rate and instantaneous rates are different.

Here we need to calculate instantaneous rate after 15 min.

For the given reaction,

d[A]

Rate

dt

which is indicated by the slope of the graph at point P. The slope can be calculated by drawing tangent

line at point P. We need two points on this tangent line to find the slope.

The two points are (0, 0.03) and (15, 0.01). Therefore,

0.01 0.03

Rate

1.33 103 M min 1

15 0

Correct Option: (4)

Question 12: Choose the correct options from the following orders:

(1) Basicity order: NH3 > NH2NH2 > NH2OH > NF3

(2) Melting point order: NH3 < SbH3 < AsH3 < PH3

(3) Boiling point order: NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3

(4)Thermal stability: NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3

Solution: Option (1) is correct as all the three bond pairs are attracted towards N-atom and increase the

electron density on N-atom in the case of NH3. While in the case of NH2NH2, bond pair is not attracted

towards any N-atom; for NH2OH oxygen withdraws the bond pair towards itself; and finally in NF3, three

F-atom having I effect decrease the electron density on N-atom.

Option (2) is incorrect as due to H-bonding in NH3, the effective molecular mass increases, and

overcomes all other molecular masses. Thus, the melting point is highest in NH 3.

Option (3) is incorrect as at the boiling point temperature, the extent of H-bonding is less and cannot

overcome the molecular weight of SbH3.

Option (4) is incorrect as the thermal stability depends upon bond energy of MH bond, which is the

highest (shortest bond length) for NH3 and thus it has the highest stability.

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Question 13: The structure of metals can be explained by close packing of metal atoms. In structure of an

unknown metal (M), atoms are found to be packed in fcc lattice. Also, the effective radius of atoms is

1.414 . If its density is found to be 5.8 g cm3, the atomic mass of metal is

(1) 55.8

(2) 111.6

(3) 37.2

(4) 30.1

Solution: Since metal atoms are packed in fcc,

2a 4 R a

4R

2

4 1.414

2

In fcc lattice, the number of atoms per unit cell (z) = 4,

So, atomic mass of metal is found as

d a3 N A

zM

d 3

M

a NA

z

M

55.8 g mol1

4

Question 14: Which of the following products is not possible when cyclohexene reacts with bromine in

the presence of brine?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Solution: Brine is 10% aqueous solution of NaCl, so the reaction mixture contains Br2, Cl and H2O, out

of which Br2 can initiate the reaction since the first step of addition is electrophilic in nature. For the

second step, a nucleophile is required for which Br, Cl and H2O are available and lead to the following

products.

Formation of 1,2-dichlorocyclohexane is not possible in this reaction since the first step in the addition to

double bond involves an electrophilic attack and chlorine is not available as Cl+ (electrophile) in the

reaction mixture.

Correct Option: (4)

Question 15: Which one of the following represents the order of the decreasing sizes in the given four

isoelectronic species?

(1) F > N3 > O2 > C4

(2) C4 > N3 > O2 > F

(3) N3 > C4 > F > O2

(4) O2 > N3 > C 4 > F

Solution: We have

Element

C

N

O

F

Nuclear Charge

(Number of Protons)

6

7

8

9

Number of

Electrons

10

10

10

10

The order of ionic sizes is C4 > N3 > O2 > F . For the isoelectronic species, greater the nuclear charge

(number of protons), lesser is the ionic or atomic size.

Correct Option: (2)

Question 16: Phenol gives broad spectrum of reactions because OH group makes benzene ring very

reactive towards electrophilic substitution reaction. It reacts even with neutral electrophiles. Which of the

following reaction involves carbenes as electrophile?

(1) Gattermann reaction

(2) Reaction of phenol with HCHO in presence of acid

(3) Kolbe-Schmidt reaction

(4) Reimer-Tiemann reaction

Solution: Carbenes are electron-deficient neutral species due to which they act as electrophiles. Carbene

is formed during Reimer-Tiemann reaction. The electrophiles involved in Kolbe-Schmidt, Gattermann

and chloromethylation of phenols are CO 2 (neutral), HCNH+ and H2C=OH+, respectively. The detailed

mechanism is as follows:

Question 17: Which of the following reaction(s) can be used for the complete conversion of K2MnO4 to

KMnO4?

2KMnO4 MnO2 4KOH

(1) 3K2 MnO4 2H2O

(2) 2K2 MnO4 +Cl2 2KMnO4 +2KCl

(3) 2K2 MnO4 +O3 +H2O 2KMnO4 +2KOH+ O2

Solution: Option (1) is incorrect because from three moles of KMnO4 only two moles K MnO4 are

formed, that is, conversion ratio is 66% , when the reaction is irreversible. Since the reaction is

reversible, the conversion ratio is even less than 66%. About one-third of Mn is lost as MnO2.

In options (2) and (3), the conversion ratio is almost 100%.

Correct Option: (4)

Question 18: Which of the following amines is least basic?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Solution: The basicity of amines depends on the lone pair available on nitrogen atom. In benzyl amine,

lone pair is easily available since this lone pair is not delocalized over benzene ring. Also the nitrogen

atom is in sp3 hybridized state, so it is the most basic, even more basic than pyridine in which nitrogen

atom is sp2 hybridized. Increasing s-character in hybridization decreases basicity.

From the given options, however, p-nitroaniline is a weak base because nitrogens lone pair is delocalized

in the benzene ring. In pyrrole, nitrogens lone pair is involved in aromaticity and least available for

protonation. This effect makes it least basic among the given compounds.

Correct Option: (2)

Question 19: Select the correct product formed when cyclohexanone reacts with aqueous sodium

hydroxide at 100C?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Question 20: A real gas obeys the equation of state p(V nb) = nRT where b is van der Waals constant

and R is the gas constant. If the pressure and temperature are such that the molar volume of the gas is 10b,

what is the value of compressibility factor?

(1) 10/9

(2) 8/9

(3) 12/11

(4) 10/11

Solution: We know that

(where Vm = V/n)

p(V nb) nRT p(Vm b) RT

The compressibility factor is given by

pV

pb

Z m 1

RT

RT

Suppose pressure and temperature are p and T when its molar volume is 10b, then

p

1

1

p(Vm b) RT

RT 10b b 9b

pb

1 10

Z 1

1

or

RT

9 9

Correct Option: (1)

Question 21: Find the ligand having the highest denticity from the following options:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Solution

Denticity is the number of donor groups from a given ligand attached to the same central atom. The

denticity of compound (1) = 2; (2) = 3; (3) = 4; (4) = 2.

Correct Option: (3)

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Question 22: Which of the following pair of alcohols can be distinguished by Victor-Meyer test?

(1) Methanol and ethanol

(2) Ethanol and 1-propanol

(3) 2-Pentanol and 3-pentanol

(4) 1-Propanol and 2-propanol

Solution: Victor-Meyer test is used to distinguish between 1, 2 and 3 alcohols.

Methanol, ethanol and 1-propanol are 1 alcohols and 2-pentanol, 2-butanol and 3-pentanol are 2

alcohols. So, 1-propanol and 2-propanol can be distinguished by Victor-Meyer test since these alcohols

have different degrees.

Correct Option: (4)

Question 23: For the reaction: NH3 N2 H5+

correct?

(1) N 2 H5+ is acting as base and ammonia is acting as acid.

(2) NH +4 is the conjugate base of N 2 H5+ .

(3) N2H4 is the conjugate base of NH3.

(4) N 2 H5+ is the conjugate acid of N2H4.

Solution: According to Brnsted, any compound which can furnish H+ ions is an acid and the compound

which can accept H+ ions is a base. So, acid and base actions are just opposite to each other. Also,

removal of one H+ from any compound produces its conjugate base and addition of H + produces its

conjugate acid.

N2 H4 NH4+ , ammonia is gaining protons, and hence acting as a

In the equilibrium, NH3 N2 H5+

base. Similarly, N 2 H5 is losing protons, so it is acting as an acid. In this way, conjugate acid of ammonia

is NH 4 and conjugate base of N 2 H5 is N2H4. So, N 2 H5+ is the conjugate acid of N2H4.

Correct Option: (4)

Question 24: Which one of the following is classified as a copolymer?

(1) Dacron

(2) Polyacrylonitrile

(3) Teflon

(4) Polyvinylacetate

Solution: Copolymers are the polymers which are formed by polymerization of two or more than two

different monomers. Polymers formed by single type of monomers are called homopolymers.

Out of the given options, only Dacron is formed by two monomers, ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid,

so, it is a copolymer.

Correct Option: (1)

Question 25: Calculate the number of photons of green light with wavelength 560 nm that can be

observed by human eye. Note that 2.5 107 J of light energy is required by the interior part of human

eye.

(1) 7 109

(2) 7 1013

(3) 7 1011

(4) 7 106

Solution: Energy of one photon, E h

hc

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560 109 m

Number of photons

2.5 107 J

7.03 1011

Energy of one photon 6.636 1034 J s 3 108 m s 1

560 109 m

Question 26: Under the right conditions, ammonia can be converted to nitrogen monoxide, NO, by the

following reaction: NH3 O2 NO H2O

How many grams of H2O could be formed from a mixture of 51 g of NH 3 and 48 g of O2?

(1) 32.4 g

(2) 81 g

(3) 27 g

(4) 54 g

Solution: First of all we need balanced chemical equation for these type of calculations.

4NH3

5O2 4NO 6H 2O

51

48

Moles

3 mol

1.5 mol

17

32

The limiting reagent in the reaction is O 2, since it will be consumed completely in the reaction. Therefore,

Mass of water produced

6

1.5 18 32.4 g

5

Question 27: What current would be required to deposit 1.00 m2 of chrome plate having a thickness of

0.052 mm in 4.5 h from a solution of H2CrO4? The current efficiency is 74% and density of chromium is

7.19 g cm3. [At. wt. of Cr = 52 u.]

(1) 347 A

(2) 185 A

(3) 125 A

(4) 0.25 A

Solution: We know that

Mass of Cr deposited Volume Density (1104 cm2 0.052 101 cm) 7.19 g cm3 52 7.19 g

Oxidation state of Cr in H2CrO4 = +6 Cr 6 6e Cr

Therefore, 1 mol or 52 g of Cr is reduced by 6 mol electrons or 6F charge. Hence,

6F

52 7.19 C

52

(6 F / 52) 52 7.19

or

Q it i

256.9 A 257 A

4.5 60 60

257

Current efficiency is 74%, so the actual current required is

347.3 A 347 A .

0.74

52 7.19 g would deposit by

Question 28: Consider the structures given below, the pair which represents the resonance structures of

each other is

(1)

and

(2)

and

(3)

and

(4)

and

Solution: For two structures to be in resonance only movement of electrons takes place but there should

be no change in the skeleton of the molecule.

The structures given in option (3) are resonance hybrids of each other since they satisfy both the

conditions.

However, in structures given in options (1),(2) and (4), the position of hydrogen atom changes, so the

molecule undergoes a change in the skeleton of the structure. Hence, these pairs do not represent

resonance structures. In option (3), there is only delocalization of electrons in both structures, and no

change in the skeleton of structure is observed; so both represent the resonance structures.

Correct Option: (3)

Question 29: Calculate the maximum work that could be obtained at 25C and 1 atm by burning 1 mol of

C2H5OH.

[Given: Gfo (C2 H5OH(l)) 174.8 kJ mol1 ; Gfo (CO2 (g)) 137.3 kJ mol1 ;

(1) 785.6 kJ

(2) 200 kJ

(3) 549.3 kJ

(4) 811.4 kJ

Solution: The combustion equation: C2 H5OH(l) 3O2 (g) 2CO2 (g) 3H2O(l)

o

Grxn

2 Gfo (CO2 (g)) 3 Gfo (H 2O(l)) Gfo (C2 H5OH(l))

The maximum work which can be obtained by this combustion is equal to the negative of its free energy

change (Wmax = G). So, the work obtained from it is 811.4 kJ.

Correct Option: (4)

Question 30: Which of the following compounds can be prepared by free radical halogenation without

complication by formation of isomeric by-products?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Solution: Option (3): In cyclopentane, all hydrogen atoms are equivalent, so only one product is

produced on chlorination.

Option (1): Although bromination is more selective than chlorination for substitution of particular

hydrogen atom, but 1,4-dimethylcyclohexane contains 1, 2 and 3 hydrogen atoms out of which 2 and

3 hydrogen atom would participate in the reaction and mixture of isomers is produced.

Option (4): n-pentane also contains two types of 2 hydrogen atoms, so, a mixture of at least two isomeric

forms is produced. Option (2): In the case of bromination of 2-methylhexane, mixture of structural as well

as optical isomers is produced since it contains 2 and 3 hydrogen atoms for bromination.

Correct Option: (3)

Part C Mathematics

Question 1: The condition ( p q) p is

(1) a contradiction

(2) a tautology

(4) equivalent to (~ p ~ q)

p

T

T

F

F

q

T

F

T

F

pq

T

F

F

F

( p q) p

T

T

T

T

Hence, ( p q) p is a tautology.

Correct Option: (2)

Question 2: Consider a set of 25 observations: x1, x2, , x25 whose mean and standard deviation are 20

and 5, respectively. Later on, it is noticed that x25 is taken as 25 instead of 50, the actual standard

deviation is

(1) 6

(2) 59

(3) 26

(4) 69

2

1

1

1

xi 20,

xi2 xi 25

25

25

25

2

xi 500,

xi 25(25 400) 10625

However, the actual variance is

2

1

1

25

25

500 441

59

Correct option: (2)

2

2

Question 3: The area enclosed between the curve y x (1 x) and x-axis is

1

1

(1) 30

(2) 15

8

(3) 15

(4)

1

15

Solution: The power of x is even, which implies that the power of (1x) is also even. Therefore,

2

2

y f ( x) touches x axis at x =0 or x =1 . Therefore, the graph of y x (1 x) is as shown in the following

figure:

So the area enclosed by the curve and the x-axis is given as,

1

x

0

(1 x) dx x 2 (1 x 2 2 x)dx

2

( x 2 x 4 2 x3 )dx

0

x3 x5 x 4

5

2 0

3

1 1 1

3 5 2

10 6 15 1

30

30

1 z

1 z

1 z

1 z

1

(1) 2

(2)

2

(3)1

(4) 4

n

(if z 1 ).

1 z

1 ei

1 z

1 ei

n

1 ei i

e ei 1

1 ei

Therefore,

1 z

1 z

11 2

1 z

1 z

n

Question 5: Two numbers are selected at random from the naturals 1, 2, 3, ..., 100 and are multiplied

together. The probability that the product thus obtained is divisible by 3 (up to two places of decimals) is

(1) 0.65

(2) 0.55

(3) 0.45

(4) 0.35

100

C2 99 50 ways. A product of two positive

Solution: Two numbers can be selected from 100 in

integers is divisible if and only if at least one of them is divisible by 3 (since 3 is a prime).

Let E be the event that the product is divisible by 3. Let a and b be the selected numbers. Therefore, 3

divides ab if and only if either 3 divides a or 3 divides b. Among the numbers 1, 2, 3, , 100, there are

33 multiples of 3.

Therefore,

67

C2 favourable cases to E.

P( E )

67

C2

100

C2

67 33

99 50

67

150

Hence,

P( E ) 1 P( E )

83

0.55

150

Question 6: Let n be a positive integer and R (a, b)

R is

(1) reflexive on

(2) symmetric

(3) transitive

and m 0

(b, a) R

R is not transitive, since (2, n 2) R and (n 2, 2) R, but (2, 2) .

Correct Option: (2)

Question 7: If the ellipse

a b

2

the value of

c2

x2

a

y2

b

(1) 1

(3) 3

Solution: It is given that

(2) 2

(4) 4

x2

a2

y2

b2

2x

a

2 y dy

0

b 2 dx

dy

x b2

2

dx

a y

dy

dx

b2 x

2 1

a y1

where we assume that the two curves intersect at point A(x1, y1).

Again, consider the curve x2 y2 = c. Differentiating with respect to x, we get

dy

0

dx

dy x1

(at point A( x1 , y1 )

dx y1

Since the two curves intersect orthogonally, the product of the slopes of the tangents drawn at the point

A(x1, y1) to both the curves must be 1.

So we get,

b x x

b2 x 2

(1)

2 1 1 2 12 1

a y1

a y1 y1

Since point of intersection of the two given curves is (x1, y1), we have

x12 y12

a 2 b2

x2 y 2 x2 y 2

12 12 1 2 1

a

b

c

2

(x / y )

1 ( x / y )2 1

(dividing throughout by y12 )

1 21 2 1 21 2

a

b

c

c

2x 2 y

x1 / y1 2

a

x

1

y1

( x1 / y1 )2

c a

2 2

a c

2

c

2

1

1

2 2

c

b

b2 c2

2 2

b c

x

(b2 c 2 )a 2 a 2 (b2 c 2 )

1 2 2

b (c a 2 ) b 2 ( a 2 c 2 )

y1

a 2 a 2 (b 2 c 2 ) b 2 a 2 b 2 c 2

2

2

2

1

b 2 b 2 (a 2 c 2 ) a 2

b a c

b2 c2 a 2 c2

b 2 a 2 2c 2

a 2 b 2 2c 2

Question 8: If 4sin 27 5 5 3 k , then find the value of k.

(1) 1

(2) 3

(3) 5

(4) 7

2

Solution : We know that (cos sin ) 1 sin 2 . Therefore,

(2)

1 cos 36

5 1

1

4

5 5

2

(1)

2

We also know that (cos sin ) 1 sin 2 . Therefore,

1 cos 36

5 1

1

4

3 5

2

(2)

4sin 27 5 5 3 5

Correct Option: (3)

Question 9: If a, b and c are chosen from the domain of f ( x) =

x 2 4x 2

distinct, then the probability that 0 (where is complex cube root of unity) is

1

2

(1)

(2)

6

9

1

2

(3)

(4)

3

9

a

Solution: We have

x 2 4x 2

C 2 x2 2 x 1

2

0 2x2 + 2x 1 x2 + 4x + 2

x 2x 3 0

(x 3) (x + 1) 0

1 x 3

2

x + 4x + 2 0 x ( , 2 2 ] [ 2 2, )

2

2x2 + 2x 1 0 x ( ,

3 1

, 3

x

2

x {1, 2, 3}

a, b, c {1, 2, 3}

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3 1

1 3

] [

, )

2

2

( 1 2 0 )

For a b c 0 , a, b and c must be distinct, that is, six cases.

6

2

=

Probability =

27 9

Correct Option: (2)

Question 10: Let a1 , a2 , a3 , be an arithmetic progression of positive real numbers. Then

1

1

1

a1 a2

a2 a3

an 1 an

(1)

n 1

a1 an

(2)

n 1

a1 an

(3)

n

a1 an

(4)

n

an a1

Solution:

a2 a1

a2 a1

a3 a2

a3 a2

a4 a3

a4 a3

an a n 1

an a n 1

a a1

an a1

n

(n 1)

an a1

n 1

an a1

Question 11: Sum of all four digit numbers whose all four digits are prime and non-repeated is

(1) 112233

(2) 113322

(3) 479952

(4) 119988

Solution: Only prime digits are 2, 3, 5, 7

Each digit at any place occurs 6 times hence sum of each column is

(2 +3 + 5 + 7) 3! = 17 6 = 102

Hence, the sum is given by 102 103 + 102 102 + 102 10 + 102

= 102 1111 = 113322

Correct Option: (2)

Question 12: Let A = [aij]33 , B = [bij]33 where bij = 3ijaij and C = [cij]33 where cij = 4ijbij be any three

matrices. If A 4, find B C .

(Note: X denotes determinant of matrix X.)

(1) 8

(2) 48

(3) 192

(4) 4

Solution: From the given data, we can write

a11

A a21

a

31

a13

a23 , A 4

a33

a12

a22

a32

a11

a11 31 a12 32 a13

B 3a21

a22

31 a23 3a21

32 a31 3a32

a

33

9a31

1

1

a12

a13

a11

12

144

1

C 12a21

a22

a23

12

a33

144a31 12a32

1

a12

3

a22

3a32

1

a13

9

1

a23

3

a33

Note that

|B| = |C| = |A|

Therefore,

|B| + |C| = 4 + 4 = 8

Correct Option: (1)

Question13: The equation of a plane which lies mid-way

( x 1) 2( y 2) 3( z 3) 0 and 2(x 2) 4( y 4) 6( z 6) 0 is

(1) 3x 6 y 9 z 70 0

(2) 3x 6 y 9 z 35 0

(3) x 2 y 3z 21 0

between

(4) x 2 y 3z 21 0

x 2 y 3z 14 0

and 2 x 4 y 6 z 56 0 or

x 2 y 3z 28 0

(1)

(2)

14 28

x 2 y 3z

0

2

x 2 y 3z 21 0

(3)

Note

Any point on plane given in Eq. (3) is (0, 0, 7). Its distance from plane given in Eq. (1) is

0 0 21 14

1 2 3

2

7

14

14

0 0 21 28

1 2 3

2

the

planes

Question 14: For non-zero a, b and c which are real and distinct, the equation (a2 + b2)x2 2b(a + c)x +

b2 + c2 = 0 has non-zero real roots. Then, one of these roots is also the roots of the equation

(1) a 2 x2 a(b c) x bc 0

(2) a 2 x2 a(c b) x bc 0

(3) (b2 c2 ) x2 2a(b c) x a 2 0

Solution:

(a 2 b 2 ) x 2 2b(a c) x b 2 c 2 0

a 2 x 2 2abx b 2 b 2 x 2 2bcx c 2 0

(ax b) 2 (bx c) 2 0

ax b 0

bx c 0

b c

x

a b

That is,

b2 ac

Hence, both roots are equal to

b

c

b

or . Moreover, also satisfies option (2), that is,

a

b

a

a2 x2 a(c b) x bc 0

Correct Option: (2)

x

x 0

(1) 0

(3) 1

(2) 1

(4) Does not exist

x

Solution: Let f lim x . Therefore,

x 0

ln f lim ln x x

x 0

ln f lim x ln x

x 0

(0 form)

ln x

form

x 0 1 / x

1/ x

lim

lim ( x) 0

x 0 (1 / x 2 )

x 0

lim

f e0 1

lim x y ,

x 0

1

(0 )

Correct Option: (1)

2014 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd.

y 1 as x 0

15

f ( x) dx

table:

x

f(x)

0

50

3

48

6

44

9

36

(1) 543

(3) 143

12

24

15

8

(2) 343

(4) 43

15

0

approximate area under the curve y = f(x) and x-axis. Using the data provided in the table, we can write as

f (0) f (3)

f (3) f (6)

f (6) f (9)

f (9) f (12)

f (12) f (15)

3

3

3

3

3

2

2

2

2

2

50 48 48 44 44 36 36 24 24 8

3

2

2

2

2

2

3 (49 46 40 30 16)

3 181 543

Correct Option: (1)

a 2 b2 c2

Question 17: In ABC, if R 2 R 2 cos A cos B cos C

, find the value of n.

(1) 1

(2) 2

(3) 4

(4) 8

Solution: We have

R2

(2cos A cos B)[cos ( ( A B))]

2

R2

R2

[cos( A B ) cos( A B )] [( cos( A B )]

2

R2

R2

[cos 2 ( A B) cos( A B) cos( A B )]

2

R2

R2

[cos 2 ( c) cos 2 A sin 2 B]

2

R2

R2

(cos 2 c cos 2 A sin 2 B)

2

R2

R2

[(1 sin 2 c) (1 sin 2 A) sin 2 B]

2

R2

R2 R2

(sin 2 A sin 2 B sin 2 C )

2

2

2

R

a

b2

c2

2 4R

4 R 2 4 R 2

1

(a 2 b 2 c 2 )

8

Question 18: The sum of first 10 terms of an AP is 155, and the sum of the first 2 terms of a GP is 9. If

the first term of the AP is equal to the common ratio of GP and the first term of the GP is equal to the

common difference of AP, then the sum of the common difference of AP and the common ratio of GP is

(1) 8

(2) 5

(3) 4

(4) 16

Solution: Let the first term of AP = Common ratio of GP = r and

the first term of GP = Common difference of AP = d

SGP

Now,

d (1 r 2 )

9

1 r

2r 9d 31 and d (1 r ) 9

99

2r

31

(1 r )

2r 2r 2 81 31(1 r )

2r 2 29r 50 0

Therefore,

(1)

(2)

29 841 400

4

29 21

12.5 or 2

4

9

9

or 3

13.5

3

Therefore, the sum of the common difference of AP and the common ratio of GP is 3 + 2 = 5.

Correct Option: (2)

d

Question 19: Let a, b and c be non-coplanar vectors. Suppose A, B, C and D are four points with

position

vectors

a 4b 3c, 3a 2b 5c, 3a 8b 5c

(1) x 1, y 1

(3) x 1, y 1

and

3a 2b c respectively.

If

(2) x 1, y 1

(4) x 1, y 1

Solution: We have

AB x AC y AD

4a 2b 2c x(2a 4b 2c) y (2a 2b 4c)

Equating the corresponding coefficients of both sides, we get

2 x 2 y 4

(1)

4 x 2 y 2

(2)

2 x 4 y 2

(3)

Solving Eqs. (1) and (2), we get that x 1 and y 1 which also satisfy Eq. (3).

Correct Option: (4)

Question 20: Let f be differentiable on R and f ' ( x) 3 x . If x, y ; which of the following is

always correct?

(1) f ( x) f ( y) 9 x y

(2) f ( x) f ( y) 6 x y

(3) f ( x) f ( y) 3 x y

(4) 3 x y f ( x) f ( y) 9 x y

Solution: According to mean value theorem on f, we can say that there is at least one number c in (x, y)

such that

f ( x) f ( y )

f ' (c )

x y

Given that f '(c) 3 . This implies that

f ( x) f ( y )

3

x y

f ( x) f ( y ) 3 x y

Correct Option: (3)

Question 21: Find the transformed form of the equation x 10 xy 3 y 0 if the origin is shifted to the point

(3, 5).

2

2

(1) X 3Y 10 XY 50 X 60Y 234 0

(2) X 2 3Y 2 10 XY 56 X 30Y 234 0

2

2

2

(3) X 3Y 10 XY 56 X 60Y 225 0

2

2

(4) X 3Y 10 XY 56 X 60Y 234 0

Solution: Substituting x 3 X and y 5 Y where ( x, y) represents the old coordinate system and

( X , Y ) represents the new coordinate system (see the following figures).

2

2

Now, x 10 xy 3 y 0 becomes

9 X 2 6 X 10 15 XY 5 X 3Y 3(25 Y 2 10Y ) 0

X 2 3Y 2 56 X 60Y 10 XY 234 0

X 2 3Y 2 10 XY 56 X 60Y 234 0

Correct Option: (4)

(1) 0

(3) 3

A 3

B

C 3

x (ln x)2 x3 (ln x)

x constant , then find A + B + C

3

9

27

(2) 1

(4) 5

Solution: We have

( x ln x)

t

dx

2

2t 2 t

( x ln x) dx e t e dt

e3t t 2 dt

Note: (et)2 = e2t, e2tet = e2t + t = e3t

Integration by parts gives

e3t

e3t

2t

dt

3

3

t 2 e3t 2 e3t

e3t

dt

3

3 3

3

I t 2 e3t dt t 2

I

II

t 2 e3t 2 3t 2 1 3t

te e c

3

9

9 3

x3 (ln x)2 2 3

2

x (ln x) ( x3 ) c

3

9

27

Therefore,

A + B + C = 1 2 + 2 = 1.

Correct Option: (2)

1 3 1 2

x x x 1 ; x 0

Question 23: If f ( x) 6

2

ex

; x0

(1) f (x) is continuous at x = 0 but it is not differentiable at x = 0.

(2) f (x) is neither continuous nor differentiable for x = 0.

(3) f' (x) is not continuous at x = 0.

(4) f" (x) is continuous at x = 0.

1 3 1 2

x x x 1 ; x 0

Solution: f ( x) 6

2

ex

; x0

lim f ( x) 1

x 0

lim f ( x) lim e x 1

x 0

x 0

Let us consider

1 2

x x 1 ; x 0

= g(x)

f ( x) 2

x

e

; x0

f (0 h) f (0)

,h 0

h0

h

(h3 / 6) (h2 / 2) h 1 1

lim

h0

h

2

h

h

lim

1 1

h 0 6

2

Let us consider

f (0 ) lim

f (0 ) lim

h0

f (0 h) f (0)

,h 0

h

f (h) f (0)

h 0

h

3

(h / 6) (h2 / 2) h 1 1

lim

h 0

h

h2 h

lim 1 1

h 0 6

2

1 2

x x 1 ; x 0

g ( x) 2

ex

; x0

lim

Let us consider

x 1 ; x 0

g ( x) h( x) x

; x0

e

Therefore,

f (0) 1

g (0 h) g (0)

;h 0

h0

h

[(1 / 2)(h)2 ] h 1 1

lim

h0

h

h

lim

1 1

h 0 2

lim

g (0 h) g (0)

;h 0

h0

h

(h2 / 2) h 1 1

h

= lim

lim 1 1

h

0

h 0

h

2

Therefore, g (0) 1 , that is, g'(0) exists. Thus,

g (0 ) lim

x 1 ; x 0

g ( x) x

; x0

e

= h(x)

(say)

1

(1) T6

(2) T7

(3) T8

(4) T9

1

20

is

20

as follows:

(20 1) 1 / 3

1 1/ 3

p 1.

Therefore

p

(20 1)(1 / 3)

1 (1 / 3)

21

3 1

7.686

Correct Option: (3)

Question 25: If a, b and c are real and satisfy the equation a 2 9c2 6ac 4b2 0, then az by c 0

represents two family of concurrent lines. The distance between their points of concurrence is

2

4

(1)

(2)

3

3

3

7

(3)

(4)

4

3 3

Solution: Given that

a2 9c2 6ac 4b2 0

(a 3c)2 (2b)2 0

(a 3c 2b)(a 3c 2b) 0

a 2b 3c 0 or a 2b 3c 0

1

2

1

2

a bc0

a bc0

3

3

3

or 3

Point of concurrency is 1 , 2 or 1 , 2

3 3

3 3

4

.

3

1 1

n

Question 26: If matrix A

, satisfies A = 5I 8A, then find the value of n.

1

(1) 4

(2) 5

(3) 6

(4) 7

Solution: We have

1 1

A

1 2

Therefore,

1 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1

A2

I A

1 2 1 2 1 3 0 1 1 2

Thus,

A3 = A A2 = A ( I A) = 2A I

A4 = 2A2 A = 2 (I A) A = 2I 3A

A5 = 2A 3A2 = 2A 3(I A ) = 5A 3I

2014 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd.

A6 = 5A2 3A = 5(I A) 3A = 5I 8A

n6

Question 27: The angle between the tangents drawn from the point (1, 3) to the parabola y2 = 6x is

4 3

12

(1) tan 1

(2) tan 1

5

5

6

(3) tan 1

5

2 3

(4) tan 1

5

y2 = 6x

3

4 x

2

Therefore,

a

3

2

(3 / 2)

touches the parabola y2 = 6x for all real values of m (m 0) . This tangent line

m

passes through the point (1, 3), which implies that

3

3m

2m

2m 2 6m 3 0

Let the roots of this equation be m1 and m2, then m1 + m2 = 3 and,

3

m1 m2 =

2

Let be the acute angle between the tangents, then

The line y mx

m m2

tan 1

1 m1m2

(m1 m2 )2 4m1m2

1 m1m2

96 2 3

3

5

1

2

2 3

tan 1

Question 28: The equation of the circle that touches y-axis at (0, 5) and passes through the point (5, 5) is

2

2

(1) x y 5x 10 y 25 0

2

2

(2) x y 5x 10 y 25 0

2

2

(3) x y 5x 10 y 25 0

2

2

(4) x y 10 x 5 y 25 0

Solution: Theorem: The equation of circle having diameter extremities as (x1, y1) and (x2, y2) is

( x x1 )( x x2 ) ( y y1 )( y y2 ) 0

Since (0, 5) and (5, 5) are extremities of a diameter of the circle, the equation is expressed as

( x 0)( x 5) ( y 5)( y 5) 0

or

x2 y 2 5x 10 y 25 0

Note: If a circle touches y-axis at (0, 5), then the centre of the circle must lie on y = 5. Therefore, (0, 5)

and (5, 5) must be the extremities of its diameter.

Correct Option: (3)

Question 29: The equation of the line represented by x 3 y 5 and z 7 x 9 in symmetrical form is

(1) z 7(3 y 5) 9

(2) z 7(3 y 5) 9

(3) x 21y 35 z 9

(4) z 5 7 x 4 21y 31

Solution: If x 3 y 5 represents one plane and z 7 x 9 represents another plane. Let , and be the

points common to both of these planes. This implies that

3 5 and 7 9

9

3 5

7

z 9

x 3y 5

(The line of intersection of the two given plane)

7

7 x 21y 35 z 9

7 x 4 21y 31 z 5

Question 30: The differential equation representing all circles in the xy-plane having centre on x = 1 and

radius 3 is given by

2

x 1 yy'

(1) x 1 y

9

y'

x 1 yy '

(2) x 1 y

9

y'

1 x yy '

2

x 1 yy '

(3) x 1 y

9

9 (4) x 1 y

y'

y'

x xc 2 y yc 2 r 2

2014 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd.

x 12 y yc 2 32

(1)

where yc is a parameter (or variable). Since the number of parameter is one, we need to differentiate only

once. That is,

2 x 1 2 y yc

dy

0

dx

x 1 yy ' yc y ' 0

yc y ' x 1 yy '

x 1 yy '

yc

y'

2

x 1 yy '

x 1 y

9

y'

which is the required differential equation; which we obtained by eliminating the parameter yc .

Correct Option: (3)

2

(2)

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