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GATE 2014 QUESTION PAPERS

**CE: Civil Engineering - 2nd February 2014 (Morning)
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graph sheets.GATE 2014 Examination CE: Civil Engineering Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100 Read the following instructions carefully. For numerical answer type questions. B. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. and mathematical tables are NOT allowed in the Examination Hall. The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions. each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be any choices. Charts. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes. the same can be viewed by clicking on the Useful Common Data button that appears at the top. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer type. 12. my candidature is liable to be cancelled. 6. there may be useful common data that may be required for answering the questions. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination. General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject specific GATE paper for 85 marks. This question paper consists of 2 sections. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble (⃝) placed before the choice. If the paper has such useful data. while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each. right hand side of the screen. I have also read and understood clearly the instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. C. 9. 7. The GA section consists of 10 questions. For all MCQ questions a wrong answer will result in deduction of⅓ marks for a 1-mark question and ⅔ marks for a 2-mark question. out of which question numbers 1 to 25 are of 1-mark each. out of which only ONE is the correct answer. enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. 8. while question numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A. For these questions. Kindly go through the various symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE. wrong answers for multiple choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the examination. D. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. 2. Declaration by the candidate: “I have read and understood all the above instructions. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination centre for all your rough work. 10. . 11. by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each. I also understand that in case I am found to violate any of these instructions. To login. Once you login and after the start of the examination. Depending upon the GATE paper. Both these sections are compulsory. 5. 4. 3. I also confirm that at the start of the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition”. the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that appears on the monitor and the mouse. 13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. you can view all the questions in the question paper. However. 1.

On observing his unhappiness. (B) Rajan and Sajan were formed into a group against their wishes. Q. Q. and so on). Dilip does not live on floor number 2. EPVZB. Sajan explained to Rajan that he preferred to work independently. Dilip. where Q is the daily production in tonnes.1 A student is required to demonstrate a high level of comprehension of the subject. Chandan does not live on any of the floors below Faisal’s floor. Chandan. y = 3 (A) passes through x = 0. 1 – Q. Bhola does not live on an odd numbered floor.GATE 2014 SET. then the tangent at x = 0. OYEIK (A) ALRVX Q. Q. Eswar does not live on a floor immediately above or immediately below Bhola. Which one of the statements below is logically valid and can be inferred from the above sentences? (A) Rajan has decided to work only in a group. 5 carry one mark each. Bhola. especially in the social sciences. ITZDF.3 (B) virtues (C) choices (D) strength 20 14 (A) vice Rajan was not happy that Sajan decided to do the project on his own.6 Find the odd one in the following group: ALRVX. (C) Sajan had decided to give in to Rajan’s request to work with him. Which of the following floor-person combinations is correct? (A) (B) (C) (D) GA (B) EPVZB Anuj 6 2 4 2 Bhola 2 6 2 4 Chandan 5 5 6 6 Dilip 1 1 3 1 Eswar 3 3 1 3 Faisal 4 4 5 5 1/2 . 6 – Q. What is the cost of production in Rs per tonne for a daily production of 100 tonnes? G AT Q. The word closest in meaning to comprehension is (A) understanding Q.7 (C) ITZDF (D) OYEIK Anuj. the floor above it 2. Faisal lives three floors above Dilip. 10 carry two marks each.2 (B) meaning (C) concentration (D) stability Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence. Q.5 (B) has a slope of +1 (D) has a slope of −1 Q.1 General Aptitude -GA Q. y = 0 (C) is parallel to the x-axis E A foundry has a fixed daily cost of Rs 50. Eswar and Faisal live on different floors in a six-storeyed building (the ground floor is numbered 1. One of his biggest ______ was his ability to forgive. (D) Rajan had believed that Sajan and he would be working together.000 whenever it operates and a variable cost of Rs 800Q.4 If y = 5x2 + 3. Anuj lives on an even-numbered floor.

the amount of rainfall in August is more than that in January (iii) July rainfall can be estimated with better confidence than February rainfall (iv) In August.25 The monthly rainfall chart based on 50 years of rainfall in Agra is shown in the following figure.10 (B) 2.5 (D) 1. what is the percentage of people taller than 6 ft? (A) 3.GATE 2014 SET. The largest angle of the triangle is twice its smallest angle. What is the sum. there is at least 500 mm of rainfall (A) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (B) (i) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv) END OF THE QUESTION PAPER GA 2/2 .8 The smallest angle of a triangle is equal to two thirds of the smallest angle of a quadrilateral. in degrees. Two percent of the people of country Y are taller than 6 ft. Which of the following are true? (k percentile is the value such that k percent of the data fall below that value) E 20 14 Q. Taking both countries together. it rains more in July than in December (ii) Every year.1 General Aptitude -GA Q.9 One percent of the people of country X are taller than 6 ft.0 (C) 1. The ratio between the angles of the quadrilateral is 3:4:5:6. of the second largest angle of the triangle and the largest angle of the quadrilateral? Q. There are thrice as many people in country X as in country Y.5 G AT (i) On average.

[M] is (B) 1355 (C) 1640 (D) 2180 E1 (A) 915 (G 215 650 795 where [M ] = 655 150 835 485 355 550 With reference to the conventional Cartesian (x.1 x + sin x Lim equals to x →∞ x (A) − ∞ (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) ∞ 3 2 1 1 Given the matrices J = 2 4 2 and K = 2 . y) coordinate system.2 Q. 3). y3) = (4. the product K T JK is ___________ 1 2 6 − 1 Q. 0). y2) = (2. the vertices of a triangle have the following coordinates: (x1. 25 carry one mark each.3 The probability density function of evaporation E on any day during a year in a watershed is given by 1 f (E) = 5 0 0 ≤ E ≤ 5 mm/day otherwise 20 14 ) Q. 1 – Q. The area of the triangle is equal to C Q. Q.GATE 2014 SET-1 CIVIL – CE Q. y1) = (1. and (x3. 2). (x2.4 AT E The probability that E lies in between 2 and 4 mm/day in a day in the watershed is (in decimal) _____________ The sum of Eigen values of the matrix.5 (A) CE 3 2 (B) 3 4 (C) 4 5 (D) 5 2 1/13 .

Q .8 20 14 (A) P .1 (D) P . R .4.4.4.9 CE 2M p L (B) P = 4M p L (C) P = 6M p L (D) P = 8M p L While designing. S .7 Group – II ) Q. is R S P Q (B) Q (C) R (D) S (G (A) P The ultimate collapse load (P) in terms of plastic moment Mp by kinematic approach for a propped cantilever of length L with P acting at its mid-span as shown in the figure.2.II.GATE 2014 CIVIL – CE Match the information given in Group – I with those in Group .2.3 (C) P .1. Q . R . S .4 AT E Q.6 SET-1 (A) P = Q.2. S .1 The possible location of shear centre of the channel section. S . a base plate resting on a concrete pedestal of M20 grade.3. R .1.2. shown below.3. Q . Q .3. R . would be P X L 2 L 2 Y C E1 Q. the bearing strength of concrete (in N/mm2) in limit state method of design as per IS:456-2000 is ________________ 2/13 . for a steel column of Fe250 grade. Group – I P Factor to decrease ultimate strength to design strength 1 Upper bound on ultimate load Q Factor to increase working load to ultimate load for design 2 Lower bound on ultimate load R Statical method of ultimate load analysis 3 Material partial safety factor S Kinematical mechanism method of ultimate load analysis 4 Load factor (B) P .

R and S) are shown below. The correct 4 influence line diagram is (G Q.0 0.13 Q (B) Q 3L 4 R (C) R 3L 4 L 4 S (D) S The degree of disturbance of the sample collected by the sampler is expressed by a term called the "area ratio".6 0.6Vs Q. four possible influence line diagrams for shear force at a section located at a L distance of from the left end support (marked as P.11 CIVIL – CE (B) V > 0. the area ratio is given by (A) CE L 4 𝐷𝐷𝑜𝑜2 −𝐷𝐷𝑖𝑖2 𝐷𝐷𝑖𝑖2 (B) 𝐷𝐷𝑖𝑖2 −𝐷𝐷𝑜𝑜2 𝐷𝐷𝑖𝑖2 (C) 𝐷𝐷𝑜𝑜2 −𝐷𝐷𝑖𝑖2 𝐷𝐷𝑜𝑜2 (D) 𝐷𝐷𝑖𝑖2 −𝐷𝐷𝑜𝑜2 𝐷𝐷𝑜𝑜2 3/13 .75 1. high shear force (as per IS:8002007) is defined as (A) V > 0.9Vs The degree of static indeterminacy of a rigid jointed frame PQR supported as shown in the figure is y 20 14 ) S Cable 45° R EI 90° P AT E (A) zero (B) one (C) two (D) unstable In a beam of length L.8Vs (D) V > 0. The applied shear force is V and the shear capacity of the section is Vs.7Vs (C) V > 0.10 SET-1 A steel section is subjected to a combination of shear and bending actions.25 L 4 L 4 3L 4 C 3L 4 P (A) P Q.6 0. For such a section. If the outer diameter and inner diameter of the sampler are Do and Di respectively. Q.GATE 2014 Q.5 0.5 0.12 x EI Q E1 0.

If the velocity at a section at the 15 cm diameter portion of the pipe is 2. respectively. The conducted test is (A) Consolidated Drained (CD) test (B) Consolidated Undrained (CU) test (C) Unconfined Compression (UC) test (D) Unconsolidated Undrained (UU) test The action of negative skin friction on the pile is to (A) increase the ultimate load on the pile (D) reduce the settlement of the pile A long slope is formed in a soil with shear strength parameters: c' = 0 and φ' = 34°. a triaxial test yields the angle of internal friction (φ) as zero. Use γsat = 18 kN/m3 and γw = 10 kN/m3.18 A conventional flow duration curve is a plot between (G Q.5.GATE 2014 Q. the velocity of the fluid (in m/s) at a section falling in 5 cm portion of the pipe is ___________ Q. assuming a potential failure surface parallel to the slope.5 m/s.17 E1 (A) Flow and percentage time flow is exceeded (B) Duration of flooding and ground level elevation (C) Duration of water supply in a city and proportion of area receiving supply exceeding this duration C (D) Flow rate and duration of time taken to empty a reservoir at that flow rate Q.16 20 14 (C) maintain the working load on the pile ) (B) reduce the allowable load on the pile (B) 44. would be (A) 45.19 In reservoirs with an uncontrolled spillway. the peak of the plotted outflow hydrograph (A) lies outside the plotted inflow hydrograph (B) lies on the recession limb of the plotted inflow hydrograph (C) lies on the peak of the inflow hydrograph (D) is higher than the peak of the plotted inflow hydrograph CE 4/13 . with seepage taking place parallel to the slope.3 AT E Q.7 (C) 12.14 Q.3 An incompressible homogeneous fluid is flowing steadily in a variable diameter pipe having the large and small diameters as 15 cm and 5 cm.3 (D) 11.15 SET-1 CIVIL – CE For a saturated cohesive soil. The maximum slope angle (in degrees) to ensure a factor of safety of 1. A firm stratum lies below the slope and it is assumed that the water table may occasionally rise to the surface.

20 CIVIL – CE The dimension for kinematic viscosity is (A) L MT (B) L T2 (C) L2 T (D) ML T Some of the nontoxic metals normally found in natural water are (A) arsenic. sodium and silver (C) cadmium.GATE 2014 Q.10 (C) 0.27 5/13 . The distance (in m from P) at which the +51. The temperature stresses will be compressive at the bottom of the slab during night time if the self-weight of the pavement slab is considered R. lead and mercury (B) calcium. chromium and copper (D) iron.33 (C) 3. The temperature stresses will be zero during both day and night times if the pavement slab is considered weightless Q.25 (D) 0.52 (D) 2.22 The amount of CO2 generated (in kg) while completely oxidizing one kg of CH4 to the end products is ____________ Q.33 AT E The following statements are related to temperature stresses developed in concrete pavement slabs with free edges (without any restraint): P.23 The minimum value of 15 minute peak hour factor on a section of a road is (A) 0.25 The Reduced Levels (RLs) of the points P and Q are +49.24 (B) 0.870 m respectively. The temperature stresses will be compressive at the bottom of the slab during day time if the self-weight of the pavement slab is considered (G Q. manganese and magnesium 20 14 ) Q.00 CE (B) 12.000 m contour cuts the line PQ is (A) 15. Distance PQ is 20 m.21 SET-1 Q.600 m and +51.20 E1 The TRUE statement(s) is(are) (B) Q only (C) P and Q only (D) P and R only C (A) P only Q.

389 kN and θ = −28. 26 – Q.055 kN and θ = −1.28 A particle moves along a curve whose parametric equations are: x = t 3 + 2t . y = −3e −2t and z = 2 sin (5t ). If all forces are coplanar.26 If the following equation establishes equilibrium in slightly bent position. where x.055 kN and θ = 1.29 A traffic office imposes on an average 5 number of penalties daily on traffic violators. Assume that the number of penalties on different days is independent and follows a Poisson distribution. Q.27 (B) y = nπx L 1 2πx 1 − a sin P L (D) y = a cos nπx L AT E (C) y = a sin x ) P A box of weight 100 kN shown in the figure is to be lifted without swinging.414° C (A) F = 56.GATE 2014 SET-1 CIVIL – CE Q. 55 carry two marks each. The magnitude of the acceleration of the particle (in cm/s2) at t = 0 is ________ Q. y and z show variations of the distance covered by the particle (in cm) with time t (in s).28° Q. the mid-span deflection of a member shown in the figure is d2y P + y=0 dx 2 EI y EI y M P N 20 14 L If a is amplitude constant for y.28° (C) F = 9. The probability that there will be less than 4 penalties in a day is ___________ CE 6/13 .389 kN and θ = 28. then (A) y = 1 2πx 1 − a cos P L Q.414° (D) F = −9. the magnitude and direction (θ) of the force (F) with respect to x-axis should be (G y 40 kN 90 kN θ 30° E1 F 45° x 100 kN (B) F = −56.

GATE 2014 Q. a concentrated load of 20 kN applied at the free end causes a vertical displacement of 2 mm at a section located at a distance of 1 m from the fixed end. The force in the member QR. 0) Q (1.32 R 3m P Q 4m CE 4m 7/13 . The coordinates of the vertices are given in parentheses.31 20 14 ) y 2 mm 1m 20 kN E1 2m For the truss shown below. the member PQ is short by 3 mm.84° x 104. 4) 80 kN 22.03° 53. If a concentrated vertically downward load of 10 kN is applied at the section located at a distance of 1 m from the fixed end (with no other load on the beam). the maximum vertical displacement in the same beam (in mm) is __________ (G Q.30 SET-1 CIVIL – CE Mathematical idealization of a crane has three bars with their vertices arranged as shown in the figure with a load of 80 kN hanging vertically.13° R (3. FQR will be P (0. 0) (B) 30 kN Tensile (C) 50 kN Compressive (D) 50 kN Tensile AT E (A) 30 kN Compressive For the cantilever beam of span 3 m (shown below). The magnitude of vertical displacement of joint R (in mm) is _______________ C Q.

36 N/mm2 for steel percentage.0×10−6 C (A) 2.25. Given that for M20 grade of concrete the ultimate shear strength. as shown below.0×10−6 (C) 4.33 and 25. the stress at the extreme fibre in compression is 5.0×10−6 (D) 5. respectively are 4 3 Pu = 250 kN AT E 5 20 14 ) Q. τuc = 0. width = 230 mm and effective depth = 500 mm.00 (C) 33. Assuming linear elastic behavior of the concrete.33 and 20.00 (B) 30.GATE 2014 Q. p = 0.50. the diameter (in mm) of Fe500 steel two legged stirrups to be used at spacing of 375 mm.80 MPa. The depth of neutral axis in the section is 58 mm and the grade of concrete is M25.00 (D) 33.35 (B) 3.34 CIVIL – CE (A) 30.33 and 25.0×10−6 CE 8/13 .48 N/mm2 for p = 0.00 For a beam of cross-section. the number of rebars of 12 mm diameter required to satisfy minimum tension reinforcement requirement specified by IS:456-2000 (assuming grade of steel reinforcement as Fe500) is _____________ Q. should be (A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 16 The tension and shear force (both in kN) in each bolt of the joint. and τuc = 0.33 and 20. For a factored shear force of 45 kN.36 In a reinforced concrete section. The grade of concrete is M20 and grade of steel is Fe500.33 SET-1 A rectangular beam of width (b) 230 mm and effective depth (d) 450 mm is reinforced with four bars of 12 mm diameter. the effective curvature of the section (in per mm) is E1 (G Q.

No apparent heaving of soil around the footing Q. σo' + Δσo' = 300 kPa . R . Curve L Well defined slip surface extends to ground surface (A) P .37 SET-1 CIVIL – CE Group I contains representative load-settlement curves for different modes of bearing capacity failures of sandy soil. In the field.3.1.25 (C) 62.1 (C) P . R .1.2.85 and emin = 0. Match the load-settlement curves with the corresponding failure characteristics. R . Curve K 2.38 20 14 Group I ) Settlement The following data are given for the laboratory sample.71 (G (A) 56. Take the mass density of water as 1000 kg/m3 and Gs as 2. eo = 1.3. e = 0.87 (D) 65. Group II enlists the various failure characteristics. Load J K L Group II P. the soil is compacted to a mass density of 1800 kg/m3 at a water content of 8%. The relative density (in %) of the soil is (B) 60.39 3.3.1. Q . Q .3 A given cohesionless soil has emax = 0. Rankine’s passive zone develops imperfectly R. R .GATE 2014 Q. Q .7.1 . AT E Q.9 C If thickness of the clay specimen is 25 mm.2 (B) P . Q . Curve J 1.43 Q.2 (D) P .2. the value of coefficient of volume compressibility is ___________ ×10˗4 m2/kN CE 9/13 .50. E1 σo' = 175 kPa .

is installed in a horizontal pipeline of 15 cm diameter. The pipe carries an incompressible fluid at a steady rate of 30 litres per second. having a diameter of 7.8×10−6 m/s.8 m. After impact the jet splits symmetrically in a plane parallel to the plane of the plate. The minimum width of a throat (in m) that is possible at a given section.41 A horizontal jet of water with its cross-sectional area of 0. The difference of pressure head measured in terms of the moving fluid in between the enlarged and the throat of the venturimeter is observed to be 2.24 10/13 .40 A rectangular channel having a bed slope of 0.0028 m2 hits a fixed vertical plate with a velocity of 5 m/s. Taking the acceleration due to gravity as 9.81 m/s2.43 (A) 0.84 (C) 1. width 3. the quantity of flow (in cm3/s) under the dam per meter of dam is ______________ Q.45 m. is approximately equal to (assume negligible losses) C Q. Taking the coefficient of permeability as 3.015.04 (D) 1.64 CE (B) 0.5 cm at the throat and 15 cm at the enlarged end.0 m and Manning’s coefficient ‘n’ 0. The force of impact (in N) of the jet on the plate is (A) 90 (B) 80 (C) 70 (D) 60 A venturimeter.42 AT E 20 14 ) Q.GATE 2014 SET-1 CIVIL – CE The flow net constructed for the dam is shown in the figure below.0001. Given that the normal depth of flow ranges between 0.76 m and 0. carries a discharge of 1.0 m3/s. while ensuring that the prevailing normal depth is not exceeded along the reach upstream of the contraction. the coefficient of discharge of the venturimeter (correct up to two places of decimal) is ______________ E1 (G Q.

50 Q. From a section. W2.46 16 MLD of water is flowing through a 2. The velocity ratio between the bigger and the smaller branched pipes is _________ Q. F2. n = 1. The option giving an accurate description of the system physics is (1) (A) W2 = W1 = W3 and F2 > F1 > F3 (B) W2 > W1 > W3 and F2 > F1 > F3 (C) W2 = W1 = W3 and F1 = F2 = F3 (2) 20 14 ) Q. the pipe divides into two horizontal parallel pipes of diameters d1 and d2 (where d1 = 4d2) that run for a distance of L each and then again join back to a pipe of the original size. Assume the dilution coefficient.45 (B) 44.27 C (A) 60. and F3 respectively. For both the parallel pipes.47 The potable water is prepared from turbid surface water by adopting the following treatment sequence. (A) Turbid surface water → Coagulation → Flocculation → Sedimentation → Filtration → Disinfection → Storage & Supply (B) Turbid surface water → Disinfection → Flocculation → Sedimentation → Filtration → Coagulation → Storage & Supply (C) Turbid surface water → Filtration → Sedimentation → Disinfection → Flocculation → Coagulation → Storage & Supply (D) Turbid surface water → Sedimentation → Flocculation → Coagulation → Disinfection → Filtration → Storage & Supply CE 11/13 . (2) and (3).00 (C) 38. let the force of water on the base of the bucket be denoted as F1. The minimum amount of chlorine (in kg per day) to be applied to achieve the same degree of disinfection for the enhanced flow is E1 (G Q.44 SET-1 (3) AT E (D) W2 > W1 > W3 and F1 = F2 = F3 An incompressible fluid is flowing at a steady rate in a horizontal pipe. are of identical heights and base areas.GATE 2014 CIVIL – CE Three rigid buckets. shown as in the figures (1).5 km long pipe of diameter 45 cm. The chlorine at the rate of 32 kg/d is applied at the entry of this pipe so that disinfected water is obtained at the exit. Also.00 (D) 23. assume the head loss due to friction only and the Darcy-Weisbach friction factor to be the same. The weights of water in these buckets are denoted as W1. There is a proposal to increase the flow through this pipe to 22 MLD from 16 MLD. Further. and W3 respectively. assume that each of these buckets have negligible mass and are full of water.

respectively are: meq/l 0 4 5 Mg2+ Ca2+ HCO3– meq/l 0 7 Na+ SO42– 3.7 k . The required flow through this water main is 0.52 The speed-density (u−k) relationship on a single lane road with unidirectional flow is u = 70 − 0. Assume f = 0. given the coefficient of longitudinal friction of 0.81 m/s2).21 m3/s. Allowable velocity through the main is 0. The axle load distribution on the same road is given in the following table: AT E Q. is _____________ seconds.01. The minimum gradient (in cm/100 m length) to be given to this gravity main so that the required amount of water flows without any difficulty is ___________ Q. where u is in km/hr and k is in veh/km.5 7 (B) 175 and 75 (C) 75 and 175 (D) 50 and 200 20 14 (A) 200 and 50 ) Q.5% and the load safety factor (LSF) is 1. If the vehicle damage factor (VDF) is calculated from the above data. the design traffic (in million standard axle load. Q. The capacity of the road (in veh/hr) is ___________ CE 12/13 . the yearly traffic growth rate is 7.50 A traffic survey conducted on a road yields an average daily traffic count of 5000 vehicles.51 The perception-reaction time for a vehicle travelling at 90 km/h.35 and the stopping sight distance of 170 m (assume g = 9.GATE 2014 CIVIL – CE For a sample of water with the ionic composition shown in the figure below.48 SET-1 A straight 100 m long raw water gravity main is to carry water from an intake structure to the jack well of a water treatment plant. MSA) is ____________ Q. g = 9.81 m/s2. the carbonate and noncarbonate hardness concentrations (in mg/l as CaCO3).49 Frequency of traffic (%) 18 10 E1 (G Axle load (tonnes) 14 20 10 35 8 15 6 20 C The design period of the road is 15 years.3.75 m/s.

Group II (B) P – 2.30.000 m. The staff readings taken are given below.355 RL ) BS 20 14 Staff Station Group I lists tool/instrument while Group II lists the method of surveying.54 A levelling is carried out to establish the Reduced Levels (RL) of point R with respect to the Bench Mark (BM) at P. Plain table surveying 4.750 m If RL of P is +100. P 1. and 0. The optimum cycle length (in seconds) is ___________ Q. S – 3 (D) P – 3.455 (D) 100. Chain surveying 2. Q – 4. R – 3.000 m -1. Q – 2. S – 4 E1 (A) P – 3. The critical flow ratios for three phases are 0. R.655 m Q -0. R – 1. Q. R – 2. Group I Alidade Arrow Bubble tube Stadia hair 1. and lost time per phase is 4 seconds.155 ? (C) 101. S – 4 C END OF THE QUESTION PAPER CE 13/13 . Match the tool/instrument with the corresponding method of surveying. Levelling 3.950 m IS FS 100. S – 1 (C) P – 1. Theodolite surveying (G P. S.55 (B) 103. then RL (in m) of R is Q.25 respectively.355 AT E (A) 103.53 An isolated three-phase traffic signal is designed by Webster's method.500 m R 0.GATE 2014 SET-1 CIVIL – CE Q. R – 4. Q – 2. Q – 1.20. 0.

1 to 3. GA GA GA GA GA GA GA GA GA GA CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 SESSION ‐ 1 Key / Range Marks A 1 B 1 D 1 C 1 1300 to 1300 1 D 2 B 2 180 to 180 2 D 2 B 2 C 1 23 to 23 1 0.4 to 0.0 to 2.9 2 307 to 310 2 3.26 to 0. No. CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE CE 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 SESSION ‐ 1 Key / Range Marks C 1 B 1 C 2 A 2 12 to 12 2 0.GATE 2014 Answer Keys for CE ‐ Civil Engineering Section Q.6 to 8.4 1 A 1 A 1 C 1 A 1 C 1 9 to 9 1 A 1 A 1 A 1 A 1 D 1 B 1 D 1 22 to 23 1 A 1 B 1 C 1 D 1 2.93 to 0.7 to 2. No.7 to 4.85 2 C 2 0.0 2 7.96 2 B 2 D 2 2 to 2 2 A 2 A 2 B 2 4.8 1 C 1 Section Q.2 2 1750 to 1750 2 90 to 95 2 C 2 D 2 .10 to 7.5 2 A 2 D 2 2 to 2 2 C 2 A 2 D 2 7.27 2 A 2 1 to 1 2 1.

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