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Pinna is supplied by all, EXCEPT:
a. Greater auricular N
b. Auriculotemporal N
c. Jacobson's Nerve
d. Vagus Nerve
2. The area of middle ear cleft around the tympanic
orifice of the eustachian tube is also called as :
a. Epitympanum
b. Mesotympanum
c. Hypotympanum
d. Protympanum
3. Site of predilection for stapedial type of
otospongiosis is from:
a. Fissula Ante fenestram
b. Fissula Post fenestram
c. Foramen of Huschke
d. Fissures of Santorini
4. Suprameatal triangle is landmark for:
a. Middle ear
b. Facial nerve
c. Mastoid antrum
d. Mastoid tip
5. Narrowest part of middle ear is :
a. Hypotympanum
b. Epitympanum
c. Mesotympanum
d. Attic
6. The impedance matching mechanism of the
middle ear is accomplished by all, EXCEPT:
a. Curved membrane effect
b. Lever action of ossicles
c. Hydraulic action of tympanic membrane
d. Phase difference between oval & round
7. Tuning fork test used to detect malingering is:
a. Rinne
b. Weber
c. Modified schwabach's test
d. Chimani Moo's test
8. Oto acoustic em issions are :
a. Sounds generated by the cochlea
b. Due to activity of outer hair cells
c. Of two types
d. All of the above
9. Flat tympanogram is a feature of:
a. Otosclerosis
b. Serous otitis media
c. Eustachian tube dysfunction
d. Normal ear
10. Hematoma of the auricle can lead to :
a. Bat ear
b. Singapore ear










c. Cauliflower ear
d. Swiimmer's ear
Ram, a 50 year old male is admitted with right ear
discharge, lower cranial nerve palsies and
uncontrolled blood sugar, Most probable
a. Tropical ear
b. Unsafe CSOM
c. Malignant
d. Glomus jugulare tumour
Muscles related to eustachian tube are all,
a. Tensor veli palatini
b. Levator veli palatini
c. Cricopharyngeus
d. Salpingopharyngeus
Ostmann's pad of fat is related to:
a. Middle ear
b. Eustachian tube
c. Oropharynx
d. Maxillary sinus
Eustachian tube patency can be checked by:
a. Toynbee's manouvre
b. Apley's manouvre
c. Cottle's manouvre
d. Particle repositioning manouvre
The causative agent in acute necrotising otitis
media is:
a. Staph. aureus
- hemolytic streptococci
c. Pseudomonas
d. Candida
Tuberculous otitis media, all are true, EXCEPT:
a. Painless ear discharge
b. Multiple perforations
c. Severe hearing loss out of proportion to
d. Pink granulations
During mastoidectomy an ENT surgeon found a
cholesteatoma sac which was engulfing the
ossicles. Malleus & incus found to be necrosed
only stapes footplate along with superstructure
presnt. Which type of tympanoplasty can be
a. Type IV
b. Type III
c. Type VI
d. Type II
Which of the following is not a complication of
a. Citelli's abcess
b. Luc's abscess

22. Bondy d. Congenitally lax food plate of d. Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis d. Otitic hydrocephalus d. Loss of taste . Extradural abscess c. Meningitis Schwartze operation is : a. Hitselberger’s sign 2 28. Mastoiditis b. Endolymphatic sac d. 26. Stapedial reflex c. Tinnitus Otosclerosis best treatment is: a. 37. Antibiotic drops c. Steroid drops d. Facial paralysis b. Hearing loss c. Modified radical mastoidectomy d. Facial nerve b. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) b. Immediate mastoidectomy Reddish hue seen on promontory through the TM is seen in: a. Lip swelling d. Lempert A child comes with chronic foul smelling ear discharge & facial paresis since few days. EXCEPT: a. Antibiotic to dry ear & then mastoidectomy b. 32. Submandibular salivary flow test Frey's syndrome follows damage to: a. Radical mastoidectomy c. Lateral semicircular canal b. Solid triangle b. Lateral semicircular canal Not seen in Rosenthal Melkersson's synd¬rome is: a. Carcinoma of external ear b. 31. 27. Stapedotomy with piston d. 30. Acoustic neuroma c. Tumarkins otolithic crisis d. 29. Syphilis b. Glomus jugulare tumors b. Observation In mastoid surgery. Facial recess b. 25. Mac Ewen's triangle d. Facial palsy b. Treatment of choice is: a. Branchial fistula NOT an early sign of acoustic neuroma is: a. Fissured tongue Not a topodiagnostic tests for facial nerve is: a. Hyrtle's fistula d. Stapedectomy with piston c. 33. Paracusis willissii c. Glossopharyngeal Not a Variant of Meniere's disease: a. Petrous apex.ENT 19. CSOM c. Dysdiadochokinesia c. Facial pain Hennebert's sign is seen in all. 36. Vestibular hydrops c. 35. Trigeminal nerve d. Trautmann's triang c. Hearing loss b. Brown's sign is positive in : a. Otosclerosis d. ASOM b. d. Schwartz c. Glomus tumour c. Malignancy Phelp's sign is seen in : a. Processus cochleariform is d. Hypo aesthesia of posterior meatal wall b. 24. 34. On examination external auditory canal shows a polyp. Auriculotemporal nerve c. Endolymphatic Delta sign is seen in : a. Lermoyez syndrome Donaldson's line is landmark for: a. Cholesteatoma d. Meniere's disease NOT seen in otosclerosis: a. Aural discharge c. 20. Schirmer's test b. Diplopia d. I. Meniere's disease c.S c. Sodium fluoride b. Otosclerosis Cerebellar abscess develops as a direct extension through: a. Simple mastoidectomy b. 23. Chorda tympani c. Ossiculoplasty Cortical mastoidectomy was first described by: a. Parotid salivary flow test d. BPPV Not seen in Gradenigo's syndrome: a. the important landmark for lowering the facial ridge is: a. 21. Stake b. Superior semicircular canal c.

Temporomaxillary joint A 25 year old woman suffering from bilateral hearing loss for 6 years aggravated during pregnancy on tympanograph which of the following curve is obtained? a. BPPV In case of temporal bone fracture with facial palsy. 41. 43. 40. Tensor tympani b. Which of the cartilages of nose are unpaired? a. Jugular foramen 3 c. Treatment of choice is: a. 39. As c. exploratory surgery and facial nerve decompression is indicated if patient has: a. Hiatus semilunaris 53. Sudden onset complete facial palsy Costen's syndrome refers to neuralgia originating in: a. Meniere's disease c. Diamond droll over the bleeding area c.ENT 38. Acoustic neuroma d. Promontory in middle ear d. Myringotomy d. a 8 years old male child with otitis media. V & VIII nerves c. Left ear conductive H. Complete but delayed onset of facial palsy d. loss 50. Incomplete facial palsy c. Parietal bone # Which of the following is not the site for paraganglioma? a. Left ear SNHL d. Ossicular disruption with intact tympanic membrane b. Delayed onset of facial palsy b. Geniculate ganglion 46. Removal of middle ear mucosa & Tympanic membrane c. Middle meatus is not related to: a. Maintainance of patency of ET 48. Infundibulum c. Carotid bifurcation b. Palsy is commonly associated with which of the following? a. VII & VI nerves d.S d. Cutting drill over the bleeding area b. Sesamoid cartilage d. 44. I. Otosclerosis b. Since 2 years on testing with 512 Hz tuning fork the Rinne's test is positive on right ear & negative on left ear with Weber's test the tone is perceived louder in left ear. Onodi cells d. B d. Bipolar cautery over the bleeding area d. Mastoidectomy c. Stapedius Complete facial Nr. Levator veli palatine c. Temporomandibular joint d. Bone wax 47. Grommet insertion 49. A Which of the following conditions casues the maximum hearing loss? a. Anterior ethmoidal A b. Otitis media with effusion Hyperaccusis in Bell’s palsy is due to paralysis of following muscle: a. Right ear SNHL c. 45. Acoustic reflex is mediated by: a. Alar cartilage c. 42. Longitudinal # of temporal bone b. Ethmoid # d. Bulla ethmoidalis b. Kiesselbach's plexus is formed by all. Partial fixation of the stapes footplate d. V & VII nerves b. EXCEPT: a. Disruption of malleus & incus as well as tympanic membrane c. Posterior ethmoidal A c. Removal of incus & malleus d. Ad b. All of the following techniques are used to control bleeding from bone during mastoid surgery. VII & VIII nerves 51. Meatal foramen c. Lowering of facial ridge b. The most likely patient has: a. not responding to ampicillin presents with high grade fever & severe otalgia with bulging Tm. All of the following steps are done in radical mastoidectomy. Right ear conductive hearing loss b. EXCEPT: a. Quadrangular cartilage 52. Decreased lacrimation Gamma knife is used in treatment of: a. Transverse # of temporal bone c. Optic foramen b. Upper lateral cartilage b. EXCEPT: a. Shyam. Tensor veli palantini d. Sphenopalatine A . Ciprofloxacin b.

Due to blows from front b. Caused by Staph. Subcutaneous pulsatile swelling in the midline at the roof of nose c. Only internal carotid artery c. 66. Starts from above the anterior nasal spine of maxilla & runs horizontally backwards just above the junction of septal cartilage with vomer d. Ground lamella d. 61. EXCEPT: a. Aggar nasi b. Injection of placental b. what is false: a. 62. Tumour due to hypertrophy of sebaceous glands 4 b. Runs vertically from anterior nasal spine upwards to junction of bony & cartilaginous dorsum of nose. Coffee c. 25% glucose in glycerin c. Schuller's view c. Haller cells c. Lateral view Nasal mucosa is supplied by : a. Hypertrophied inferior turbinates d. 57. Rhinitis medicamentosa b. EXCEPT: a. Submucous resection b. Can cause cavernous sinus thrombophlebitis d. Acne rosacea Malignant Treatment is debu!king followlnq by reepithelialization or complete excision with skin grafting Jarjaway fracture of nasal septum: all are true. EXCEPT: a. Granulomatous diseases of nose About meningoencephalocele. I. 68. EXCEPT: a. Water's view with open mouth b. 60. Cough impulse present d. EXCEPT: a. Young's surgery b. Inspiration b. 8 years Septal hematoma: all are true. 55. 70. None Best view for evaluating sphenoid sinus is: a. Lupus b. Frisch bacillus d. Treatment is aspiration occasionally d. 56. Due to trauma from plucking the nasal vibrissae c.ENT 54. 17 years c. Cottle's test is used to detect obstruction due to: a. Septal abscess d. Causes deviation of nose c.S d. Kemicetine d. Mainly external carotid artery d. Treatment is antibiotics only Perforation in cartilaginous part is not caused by: a. 59. 63. c. Leprosy Atrophic rhinitis is caused by all. Oestradlol lnjections Atrophic rhinitis: surgical management includes all. Irreducible About "potato tumour" what is false? a. Whit Mack's surgery c. It is herniation of brain tissue with meninges throught a congenital bony defect b. Aureus b. Fluctuation test positive c. Mainly internal carotid artery Structure that divides ethmoidal air cells into the anterior & posterior ethmiodal air cells is: a. 65. Towne's view d. Syphilis d. Onodi cells A patient with complete anosmia on smell testing would respond to: a. Ragav Saran's surgery . Tuberculosis c. Treatment is wait & watch Saddle nose is not seen after: a. 58. Ammonia d. Diphtheroids c. Only external carotid artery b. 67. Both d. d. 22 years d. Septoplasty c. Deviated nasal septum c. Klebsiella ozaenae b. Expiration c. Caused by nasal trauma or septal surgery b. Staphylococci Medical management for atrophic rhinitis includes all. 69. Soap b. 12 years b. Tobacco NOT True for furuncle of nasal vestibule is: a. Rhinosporidiosis The preferred age for doing septal surgery is: a. Greater palatine A Eddie air currents in the nose are seen during which phase of respiration? a. 64.

Open reduction & internal fixation is treatment for all zygomatic fractures "Office headache" is seen in: a. EXCEPT: a. d. 81. Hemangiopericytoma . It is fungal in origin c. Most common fracture of face b. EXCEPT: a. Fluticasone c. 72. CT angiography c. EXCEPT: a. Le Fort II maxillary fracture c. Schneiderian tumour c. Vasomotor rhinitis c. Azathioprine Chronic foul smelling & occasionally blood stained unilateral nasal discharge in a child is highly suspicious of: a. Transnasal correction CSF rhinorrhoea is seen in which of the following types of fractures? a. Kartagener's syndrome False for Antrochoanal polyp is: a. 88. 87. Periorbital ecchymosis may be pre¬sent c. 85. Maxillary sinusitis Nerve not involved in “superior orbital fissure" are all. Cottle's manoeuvre b. Solitary d. NARES d. Asthma False for nasal bone fracture is: a. Radiotherapy c. Schwartz surgery False regarding rhinoscleroma is: a. 86. VI b. It is second most commonly fractured bone b. MRI b. Cyclophosphamide d. CSF examination Steroids sprays used in treatment of allergic rhinitis are all. Tripod fracture d. 75. EXCEPT: a. Allergic rhinitis b. 84. Hypertension d. Crepitus present d. Adenoids b. Trauma b. 74. Mometasone Vidian neurectomy is done for treatment of : a. Common is adult b. Sphenoid sinusitis d. III c. Trotter's triad c. Dexamethasone d. Dapsone b. Mukulicz cells are seen on biopsy d. Apley's manoeuvre d. 79. Infection c. I. Treatment is closed or open reduction Oro-antral fistula can be caused by all. V2 Synonymous with inverted papilloma are all. Surgical excision with base cauterization Treatment for Wegener's granulomatosis is all. Frontal sinusitis b. 77. DNS c. EXCEPT: a. Beclomethasone b. Rhinitis caseosa Symptoms associated with nasal polypi are all. Sampter's triad b. Young's surgery d. Dental extraction b. McGovern's technique c. Both Le Fort II & III Best modality to detect site of CSF rhinorrhoea is: a. Unilateral Most common cause of epistaxis in an adult is: a.ENT 71. Ethmoid sinusitis c. Step deformity helps in clinical diagnosis c. Infection c. Le Fort I maxillary fracture b. Systemic steroids b. It is a granulomatous disease b. IV d. Starts in the nose Best line of treatment for patients suffering from rhinosporidiosis is: a. Caldwell Luc operation c. Transitional cell papilloma b. Antrochoanal polyp d. Foreign body Emergency treatment for bilateral choanal atresia is: a. 78. CT cisternography d. 83. Avulsion of the polypi c.S d. Ca maxilla All are true regarding fracture zygoma (tripod fracture). Trismus is seen d. Meningocele d. 82. Rhinitis sicca 5 80. 76. EXCEPT: a. EXCEPT: a. Ringertz tumour d. 73.

Maxillectomy b. Maxillectomy with radiotherapy c. Maxillectomy with eyeball exentration d. Palatopharyngeus 103. A 35 year old woman comes with nasal discharge. Atrophy of turbinate c. Glomus Jugulare c. Prolonged DNS c. AC polyp d. Recurrent sinusitis 95. a 50 year old male has carcinoma of maxilla involving the orbital periosteum. DNS with right maxillary sinusitis b. Endoscopic sinus surgery d. the diagnosis is: a. Proof puncture c. EXCEPT: a. Passavant's ridge is formed by: a. Septal spur with epistaxis b. Nickel refining leads to anaplastic & squamous cell carcinoma d. Rhinosporidiosis b. Salpingopharyngeus b. It communicates with nasal cavity through hiatus semilunaris c. 50% 96. Ethmoidal polyps 93. Most definitive diagnosis of sinusitis is : a. Percentage of newborns with deviation of nasal septum : a. Maxillary sinus c. Stylopharyngeus c. Rhinoscleroma c. Foreign body 97. X-ray DNS b. Extends from pharyngeal mucosa to periosteum of basi-occiput c. Sinoscopy d. Workers of furniture industry develop adenocarcinoma of ethmoids & nasal cavity c. It is situated medial to uncinate process b. May cause persistent post nasal discharge d. It cannot be localized even CT scan 92. The current treatment of choice for large AC polyp in 30 year old man is: a. 20% are squamous cell variety 91. Recurrent sinusitis 94.S 89. Frontal sinus b. Salpingopharyngeus d. crusting & woody nose. osteoma commonly involves: a. Transillumination test 101. A 4 year old child presents with bleeding from right side of nose. Maxillectomy with eyeball exentration and radiotherapy 90. Pharyngeal wall does not consists of: a. Intranasal polypectomy b. Acoustic Neuroma b. Atrophic rhinitis d. For DNS. Hypertrophy of turbinate d. Caldwell-Luc operation c. Unilateral choanal atresia c. EXCEPT: a. 10% c. Sinus of His b. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma d. The external layer of the muscular coat of pharynx consists of: a. The likely diagnosis is: 6 a. Antral (Holman-Miller) sign is a feature of: a.ENT I. which of the following statements are true? a. Epistaxis b. Epithelial lined median recess found in tonsil mass b. Features associated with DNS includes all of the following. Killian dehiscence c. Raghu. Sphenoid sinus 98. Lateral rhinotomy & excision 100. Can lead to Thornwald's disease 104. Superior constrictor b. In paranasal sinuses. Coalescent mastoiditis 99. surgery is required for all. Buccopharyngeal fascia 102. Adventitia d. Persistent rhinorrhoea d. Regarding ethmoid infundibulum situated in lateral wall of nose. Paranasal sinus malignancy: all are true EXCEPT: a. He also gets purulent discharge from the same side. Sphenopalatine foramen d. Stylopharyngeus . Palatopharyngeus c. Sinus of Morgagni 105. 20% d. Mucous membrane b. (best) line of treatment would be: a. Not true for nasopharyngeal bursa is : a. Levator palati and eustachian tube pass through: a. Predisposing factors are leather work and mustard gas b. Pharyngobasilar fascia c. 2% b. Ethmoid sinus d. Opening of sphenoid is situated near its floor d.

Choanal atresia . Facial nerve b. Phonation d. Anterior belly of digastric 108. Blood supply to tonsil is not given by : a. It is more common in females b. Most important function of larynx is: a. EXCEPT: a. Cuboidal 116. Rima glottidis d. Serum amylase is raised 114. EXCEPT: a. It is invariably benign tumour c. Dry mouth is a predisposing factor c. Mucous glands are absent in : a. Mostly affects adults b. What is true regarding Warth in's Tumour: a. Marsupialisation is the treatment of choice 117. Epiglottis d. Superior constrictor b. Epiglottis b. Post cricoid region c. Hot tonsillectomy is treatment of choice 123. Parapharyngeal abscess is a complication d. Auriculotemporal nerve c. Acute suppurative parotitis-false statement is: a. Structures seen lateral to tonsil are all. 90% of stones are seen in submandibular glands b. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar d. It occurs in early childhood 119. ESR b.ENT I. pancreatitis. Stenson's duct is swollen 115. Glossopharyngeal 120. Formed by deposition of calcium phosphate c. Respiration c. Exits between thyropharyngeus & cricopharyngeus c. Thyro arytenoids 110. High grade fever d. Lateral crico arytenoids c. Posterior crico arytenoids b. Protection of lower airways b. Trigeminal nerve d. Causes bilateral SN loss d. Posterior pharyngeal wall 107. Molar infection leads to submaxillary space infection d. Styloglossus c. Called as "gateway of tears" d. EX¬CEPT: a. True for quinsy are all. Inter arytenoids d. Premolar infection leads to sublingual space infection c. Can cause Quinke's edema c.S d. Non-keratinising stratified squamous c. Keratinising stratified squamous 7 b. Ludwig’s angina false statement is: a. Descending pharyngeal artery d. Pyriform fossa b. Killian’s dehiscence-false statement is: a. Exists between thyropharyngeus & salpingopharyngeus b. influenza & E. Vocal folds 111. Labial biopsy 118. Dorsal lingual artery b. Frey's syndrome follows damage to: a. Site for pharyngeal pouch 113. coli are the causative organism b. Can cause epididymo-orchitis. Type of epithelium lining the vocal cord is: a. Membrane over tonsil which separates with difficulty and bleeds on removal 122. Ascending pharyngeal artery c. The only abductors of vocal cords are: a. Viral parotitis (mumps) all are true. EXCEPT: a. Investigation of choice for diagnosis of Sjogren's syndrome is : a. Hypopharynx does not consist of: a. Rheumatoid factor c. Medial pterygoid d. ANA d. Descending palatine artery 109. Toxemia b. Commonly seen in elderly. Uvula 106. H. In Diphtheria tonsillitis patient presents with all these symptoms. Gives life long immunity b. It occurs commonly in minor salivary glands d. Can cause laryngeal edema 121. Fixation of chest 112. Regarding sialoliths false is: a. and thyroiditis c. Persistent bucconasal membrane results in : a. debi¬litated & dehydrated patients b. Aryepiglottic fold c. Cleft lip b. Submandibular stones are radiolucent d. Pseudomonas is the causative organism d. Markedly enlarged lymph nodes (bull neck) c.

Respiration is normal 134. Due to elongated styloid process b. Barrets esophagus is premalignant c. Pretracheal nodes b. Genital ulcerations d. Most common is adenocarcinoma . Upper deep cervical nodes c. Which of the following statements is incorrect? a. O. Interferon therapy is used to prevent recurrence. Aphthous ulcer b. Thyroplasty 135. Junction of anterior 1/3rd & posterior c. Voice is good d. Commonest congenital abnormality of larynx 8 b. Risk factors are smoking & alcohol b. Frenulum 127. Voice abuse is common cause b. Ca tonsil c. Treatment of choice for Ca glottis T1NoMo is: a. Marked trismus mandates trache¬ostomy d. Ca lip 128. Submandibular gland d. Uveitis c. Lateral border b. Tip & undersurface c. EXCEPT: a. Ca esophagus 126. Laryngeal crepitus is lost 132. Surgery + Radiotherapy d. H. Parapharyngeal abscess produces lateral pharyngeal swelling b. Surgery b. Commando operation is done for: a. Junction of anterior 2/3rd & posterior 1/3rd of vocal cord d. True for bilateral abductor paralysis are all. Due to calcification of stylohyoid ligament c. Radiotherapy + chemotherapy 138. EXCEPT: a. Dorsum d. Ca gingiva d. True about styloid are all. Supraglottic larynx drains into: a. Towne's view on XR preferred d. Pharyngeal pouch c. True for epiglottitis are all. About vocal Nodules. EXCEPT: a. is the commonest causative organism b. Lower deep cervical nodes d. Excision by laryngo fissure d. fistula 124. EXCEPT: a. Viral origin b. EXCEPT: a. Radiotherapy c. false is: a. Internal jugular vein c. All are true for Laryngomalacia. Lymph nodes b. Patient presents with hoarseness & stridor c. EXCEPT: a. 137. Treatment is conservative 131. Spastic dysphonia 129. All of the following about Ca esophagus are true. Neuritis or surgical traumas are the most important cause b. Dohlman's surgery is done for: a. Commonest site for Ca tongue is: a. Thumb sign seen on XR neck (lateral view) d. Laryngocele b. Vocal cords are in median/Paramedian position c. EXCEPT: a. Prelaryngeal nodes 139. Omega shaped epiglottis d. Treatment for bilateral abductor paralysis are all. Treatment is tracheostomy 130. True for Paterson Brown Kelly syndrome are all. Fat injection d. Ca tongue b. Phrenic nerve 140. Puberphonia d. Hypochromic microcytic anemia b. Stridor increases on crying & decreases in prone position c. Long standing cases require surgery 136.S c. Common in males c. EXCEPT: a. Treatment is tracheostomy 133. T. Parapharyngeal abscess is drained transorally c. EXCEPT: a. Arytenoidectomy b. Behcet's syndrome does not consist of : a. Juvenile laryngeal papillomas. influenza B. Associated with post cricoid Ca d. Structures removed in radical neck dissection are all. Dyspnoea / stridor is the presenting symptom c.ENT I. Cleft palate d.all are true. Cordectomy c. Acute laryngeal oedema is a compli¬cation of para pharyngeal abscess 125.

Does not contain crypt 145. Covered by ciliated epithelium c. Along X nerve b. Bounded by capsule d. Syphilis c. Present at birth b. Radiotherapy b. Medical treatment d. H. EXCEPT: a. All following are true about adenoids. Along XII nerve d. Chemotherapy 146. Treatment of choice for nasopharyngeal carcinoma is : a. Pharyngeal diverticula occur through: a. ear & fauces 144. Peritonsillar abscess 147. Diabetic neuropathy d. Fibers of stylopharyngeus c. Areas of pain are base of tongue. Treatment of Laryngocele is : a. influenza c. Para influenza virus 9 b. Excision b. Otitis media d. None of above 142. Laryngo tracheo bronchitis is most often due to: a. Herpes virus d. Asphyxia b. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia is characterized by all EXCEPT: a. A hard swelling in tonsillar bed after tonsillectomy suggest: a. Carbamazepine is of help b. Surgery c. Plummer Vinson syndrome is predisposing factor 141. Mastery inactivity . Radiation of pain to ear in tonsillitis is : a. Tonsillar Tag c.S d. Laryngoplasty c. Pain is bilateral c. Along XI nerve c. On examination. Fatal complication of epiglottitis is : a. Oblique & transverse fibres of inferior constrictor d. Myasthenia gravis 149. Intermittent paroxysms of pain d. Tonsillitis c.ENT I. Functional aphonia b. Oblique & transverse fibres of superior constrictor b. Coxsackie virus 150. Elongated styloid process b. Haemorrhage 148. Tonsillolith d. vocal cords do not approximate on phonation but comes together when patient coughs Diagnosis is: a. Immunotherapy d. Along IX nerve 143.

11. 31. 34. 44. 20. 13. 3. 37. 6. 12. 30. 46. 3 4 1 3 3 4 4 4 2 3 3 3 2 1 2 4 2 4 1 4 2 3 1 2 4 3 3 3 4 2 3 2 1 3 1 10 36. 16. 9. 18. 47. 19. 10. 3. 15. 21. 22. 43. 38. 27. 21. 2. 33. 16. 4. 20. 26. 48. 22.S Ans ENT 1 1. 12. 28. 14. 39. 50. 29. 23. 13. 5. 8. 40. 41. 15. 9. 14. 2 2 3 4 3 2 1 4 2 4 1 4 3 4 4 Ans ENT 2 1. 18. 4. 10. 2. 49. 4 3 2 2 1 3 3 3 4 2 4 3 4 2 2 4 3 3 4 4 2 4 . 24. 11.ENT I. 35. 17. 42. 25. 45. 8. 17. 7. 5. 7. 6. 32. 19.

35. 5. 11. 1 3 3 2 3 4 2 2 1 3 4 2 2 4 1 2 2 4 4 2 4 4 3 3 3 2 2 4 3 3 4 2 3 1 1 1 1 1 1 . 29. 48. 33. 13. 41. 45. 37. 31. 16.S 23. 24. 26. 20. 40. 27. 32. 28. 34. 4. 42. 7. 27. 40. 25. 34. 23. 24. 46. 2. 37.ENT I. 44. 46. 39. 2 4 2 4 3 3 2 2 1 3 4 3 4 1 4 4 4 4 2 2 2 2 3 4 1 3 3 3 Ans ENT 3 1. 21. 50. 32. 26. 50. 3. 19. 49. 30. 8. 41. 3 1 1 4 2 3 4 3 1 4 1 11 12. 25. 30. 15. 17. 38. 48. 29. 22. 43. 31. 44. 33. 47. 14. 28. 10. 49. 36. 18. 9. 39. 38. 43. 47. 35. 36. 42. 45. 6.