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VSP-VR / 21-03-2009

PPART TEST – 5

LT-IIT (REG)

Time : 3 hours

Ma xi mum ma rk s : 24 6

Da te : 21 -0 3 -09

MATHS

SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which

ONLY ONE is correct.

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

**In a two player game there is always a winner. A,B and C are there players. The probabilities of A
**

beating B, B beating C and C beating A are equal and equal to 2/3. If two players play, the winner

will play with the third. If B and C play, then the probability of ‘A’ being the final winner is

a) 2/9

b) 5/9

c) 1/9

d) 4/9

abc

If 0 a, b, c 1 and a b c 2 , then the minimum value of

1 a 1 b 1 c is

a) 4

b) 6

c) 8

d) 12

3

If A and B are different square matrices of same order such that A B 3 and A2 B B 2 A then

2

2

2

2

a) det A B 0

b) det A B 0 c) det A B 0

d)det A B 0

a a a

a wher x is the greatest integer not

The number of real solutions ‘a’ such that

2 3 5

exceeding x is

a) 15

b) 25

c) 35

d) 30

2

If the quadratic equation ax bx 6 0 has no distinct real roots, then the minimum value of

3a b is

a) -2

b) -1

c) 4

d) 1

1 0 0

A 2 1 0

X 1 , X 2 and X3 are the column vectors such that

Let

and

3 2 1

1

AX 1 0 , AX 2

0

2

2

3 and AX 3

. B is the 3 3 matrix whose columns are X 1 , X 2 and X3.

3

0

1

Then det B is equal to

a) 3/2

b) 2

c) -3

d) 3

(C) and (D). b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A. out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. Z 3 are complex numbers such that Z1 Z 2 Z 3 1 and a) Z1 Z 2 Z 3 1 Z12 Z2 Z2 2 3 1 . 7. then G1G2 A A2 G1G2 5 2 a b 1 a) b) H1 H 2 H1 H 2 H1 H 2 9 9 b a H1 H 2 9ab c) A1 A2 2a b a 2b H1 H 2 2 5 a 2 b 2 d) A1 A2 9 9 a b SECTION – C Reasoning Type This section contains 4 reasoning type questions. out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Coefficient of x 50 in the expansion of 1 1 x 1 x . Then Z 2 Z 3 Z 3 Z1 Z1Z 2 b) Z1 Z 2 Z 3 2 c) Z1 Z 2 Z 3 1 or 2 d) The distance between the origin circumcentre and orthocenter of the triangle with vertices at Z1 . R is false. 100 C51 b) 99 C50 c) 100 C49 d) 99 is 99 C49 Let a and b be two positive real numbers. d) A is false. (C) and (D). 1 x 2 a) 10. Suppose A1 . Z1 . Z 2 and Z 3 is 2. A2 are two arithmetic means. (B). Each question has 4 choices (A). Z 2 . H 2 are two harmonic means t\between a and b. (B). 6 5 . then 7 6 6 5 a) adj A 7 6 If A 6 5 7 6 1 1 2 d) A 1 1 1 b) A c) A2 12 A I 0 8.CODE : GANESH VSP-VR / 21-03-2009 SECTION – B Multiple Correct Answer Type This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A). 9. R is true. . c) A is true.. G1 and G2 are two geometric means and H1 .. a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

.. x y z VSP-VR / 21-03-2009 If x. an ).c be positive reals and M a) 0 M a c) a b M a b c c) M 3 d) 3 M 4 a . then p divides m n .c and d are positive reals such that a b c d 2 . a2 . then 15. If a. If a1 . c) 2 M 3 In ABC whose side lengths are a. Assertion (A): 4 9 16 is 81. let M a) 0 M 3 17... out of which ONLY ONE is correct..16 and 17...d. Answer the questions numbered 15. 2 Assertion (A): Let an n 20 and d n is the greatest common divisor of an and an 1 .. Reason (R): Two faulty machines can be identified. Assertion (A): 0 0 k 45 sin k sin k 1 Reason (R): 1 sin k sin k 1 0 0 cos ec10 cot k 0 cot k 1 0 SECTION – D Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 3 paragraphs. if the first two tests yield the two good ones or faulty ones.. Then b c a d) 3 M 9 b2 c 2 c 2 a 2 a 2 b2 then bc ca ab b) a M a b d) a b c M 2 a b c ..b. Based upon each paragraph.. Paragraph for Questions Nos.. Then 81 is the least positive integer which is divisible by d n . a2 . 13. then M a b c d satisfies the relation: a) 0 M 1 16.. Then the probability that only two tests are needed is 1/6.CODE : GANESH 11.. (B). 133 1 cos ec10 . in a random order till both the faulty machines are identified. 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. 14.an n n (equality holds if and only if a1 a2 a3 .... 15 to 17 PASSAGE-I 1 a1 ... They are tested one by one.. (C) and (D).. x y z x y z Assertion (A): There are FOUR machines and it is known that exactly two of them are faulty.z are positive reals such that x y z 1 then the minimum value of 4 9 16 4 9 16 x y z ... Reason (R): If a non-zero integer p divides two integers m and n.. b) 1 M 2 b) 0 M 3 Let a...y.an a1a2 a3 . Reason (R): 12.b and c.an are positive real numbers.b. Each question has 4 choices (A).

CODE : GANESH VSP-VR / 21-03-2009 PASSAGE-II The system of equation a1 x b1 y c1 z 0. Consider the system of equation a3 b3 c3 x k 4 y 4k 2 z 0 . 22. y t . y t . Answer the 21. 19. y 4t . . z 4t PASSAGE-III 2 Let f x ax bx c 0 be a quadratic equation and be real roots. The system has no no-zero solution if a) k 2 b) k 0 The system has non-zero solution if a) k = 0 b) k 2 when k = -2. f x and ‘a’ have same sign. z t d) x t . 20. then 3 3 3 3 b) m c) m d) m 0 4 4 4 4 2 Suppose one root of a 5 x 2ax a 4 0 is les then unity and the other is greater then 2. a2 x b2 y c2 z 0 and a3 x b3 y c3 z 0 a1 b1 c1 has common non-zero solution if and only if a2 b2 c2 0 . x 2 k 1 y 3k 4 z 0 answer the questions numbered 18. .19 and 20. y 2t . 18. z t c) x t . then a) x 4t . 2 x 3ky 3k 4 z 0. f x and ‘a’ will have the same sign. Then for all x . f x and ‘a’ have opposite signs and for all x or x . questions numbered 21. If both roots of x 2 mx 1 0 are less than unity then a) m 2 b) 0 m 2 c) m 2 d) m 2 If 6 lies between the roots of the equation x 2 m 3 x 9 0 . z 3t c) k 2 c) k 1 d) k is any real d) no real value for k b) x 2t .22 and 23. If f x 0 has no real roots. then A) m 23. then for all x R .

Each question has 4 choices (A). (B). the measurement of a) l1 becomes more sharp b) l2 becomes more sharp c) both l1 and l2 remain equally sharp d) none of these Plane wavefronts are incident on a spherical concave mirror as shown in the figure. out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 25. when the air-column is vibrated with a tuning fork.CODE : GANESH 29 a) a 4 VSP-VR / 21-03-2009 29 c) 5 a 4 b) a 5 d) 5 a 24 PHYSICS SECTION – A Straight Objective Type This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. the first and the second resonating lengths are measured as l1 and l2 . 24. Which of the following figures best represents the reflected wavefrant ? a) b) c) d) . When a tuning fork of relatively high frequency is used. In a resonating air column experiment. (C) and (D).

1 V In the figure shown.9298 amu and 63. The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photo electrons is . the ammeter is accurate but the voltmeter has zero-error.2 V 28. the voltmeter reads 14.4 V c) 0.4 V but when the ammeter reads 2.75 A. VSP-VR / 21-03-2009 64 Masses of two isobars 29 Cu and data. the voltmeter reading changes to 22. Respectively from this a) Zn decays to Cu through . 27. The zero error of the voltmeter is R V A a) 0.decay d) nothing can be concluded. b) 0. In the circuit shown in the figure. b) d/2 S2 D c) d/3 d) d/6 15 1 15 1 Light described at a place by the equation E 100 v m sin 5 10 s t sin 8 10 s t falls on a metal surface having work function 2 eV.decay b) Cu decays to Zn through decay c) Cu decays to Zn through .CODE : GANESH 26.4V.75 A. if a parallel bean of white light is incident on the plane of the slits then the nearest white spot on the screen form O is at a distance of (assume d << D and d ) S1 2d/3 O d/3 a) 0 29.3 V d) 0. When the ammeter reads 1. is can be concluded that 64 30 Zn are 63.9292 amu.

CODE : GANESH a) 1.29 eV VSP-VR / 21-03-2009 b) 2.27 eV d) 6.010 0. The possible values of n1 and n2 are a) n1 4. In these systems t et . out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. whatever be the line of motion 32.020 1/v 0.025 0.040 0. In the experiment for the determination of the focal length of a concave mirror. and F2 F1 where e and t are constants.025 0. The time period of the electron in the initial state is eight times that in the final state.032 Which of the following is correct? a) 31. n2 2 33. (C) and (D). The electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition n1 n2 where n1 and n2 are the principal quantum numbers of the two states. n2 2 c) n1 8. How many maxima will it register? a) when it moves along a line parallel to the slits.023 0. 1/v 0. n2 3 In two system of units. b) n1 8. It registers 9 maxima b) when it moves along a line perpendicular to the line joining the slits and passing through one of the slits it registers 9 maxima c) when it moves along the perpendicular bisector to the line joining the two slits then it registers 9 maxima d) it will not register any maxima. Each question has 4 choices (A). (u = object distance and v = image distance) 1/u 0. a2 a1 e.028 0.017 0. Assume Bohr’s model to be valid.029 0.56 eV SECTION – B Multiple Correct Answer Type This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions.022 0.05 cm-1 1/u c) the radius of curvature of the mirror is 40 cm A 450 u marked as 40 cm then (a) would be correct d) In the option 20 (a) cm if A and B were Two point coherent sources are d 4 apart. the following reading were noted.05 eV c) 3. acceleration and force is given by 2 v2 v1 e .t. 30. (B). n2 1 d) n1 6.05 cm-1 v 20 cm b) B 0.034 0. A detector is moved to register maxima. the relation between velocity.

(C) and (D). a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A. 36. observable interference is obtained Reason(R) : The sources are not coherent due to unequal amplitudes 37. He should find the volue of resistance upto 3 significant digits. (B). part of kinetic energy is converted into X – ray. S1 l2 d C S2 D . Assertion (A): In the experiment of the verification of Ohm’s law. l2 40 m light of In young’s double slit experiment shown in the figure. 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Reason (R): Reliability in the computed value canot be greater than that of the measured values. the wvelengths of the characteristic X-rays donot change Reason (R) : When an electron beam strikes the target in an X-ray tube. When they superpose. R is true. the daughter nucleus recoils as -particle is emitted to conserve the momentum.15 V and 1. d) A is false. out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Each question has 4 choices (A).CODE : GANESH VSP-VR / 21-03-2009 a) m2 e t m1 b) m1 e t m2 2 2 2 2 c) l1e l2t 3 3 d) l2 e3 l1t 3 SECTION – C Reasoning Type This section contains 4 reasoning type questions. the kinetic energy of the emitted -particle is never equal to the disintegration energy of the reaction. R is false. a screen is placed at a distance D l1 = 2 m away from the slits. Assertion (A) : Two sources of same frequency but of different amplitudes. (C) and (D). PASSAGE-I P l1 20 m.60 A. 34. 35. c) A is true. b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A. wavelength S 500nm is incident on the slits separated by a distance of d 10 m . Also have phase difference between the waves is time independent. (B). using voltmeter-ammeter method. Assertion (A) : If the accelerating potential in an X-ray tube is increased. Based upon each paragraph. SECTION – D Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 3 paragraphs. Each question has 4 choices (A). Reason (R) : In -decay. out of which ONLY ONE is correct. an experimenter noted the readings of voltmeter and the ammeter as 2. Assertion (A) : In -decay.

4 ms 1 d) 814 ms 1 PASSAGE-III + In the circuit shown.CODE : GANESH 38. The kinetic energy of the fastest photo electrons emitted from sodium is 0. The distance of the jockey from left hand end of the wire is l.14 ms 1 c) 81. the adjoining graph shows the variation 6V of current I with length l of the slide wise. c) n1 1. n2 1 The change in the angular momentum of the hydrogen atom in the above transition is a) 2h 43.814 ms 1 b) 8. The quantum numbers of the two levels involved in the emission of these photons are a) n1 2. 41. n2 4 42. VSP-VR / 21-03-2009 b) 61 c) 31 d) 21 What should be minimum thickness of a slab of refractive index 1. n2 2 b) 4h c) h d) 3h The recoil speed of the emitting atom assuming it to be at rest before the transition. a) 0.82 eV.5 to be placed in the path of one of the ray so that minima occurs at C? a) 200 nm b) 100 nm c) 400 cm PASSAGE-II d) 500 nm Light from a discharge tube containing hydrogen atoms falls on the surface of a piece of sodium. The work function for sodium is 1. 1 n 1 b) sin 40 n 1 1 c) sin 2 60 1 n 1 d) sin 60 How many maxima can occur on the screen ? a) 41 40. n2 3 d) n1 3. 100 cm l G R + Cell . the internal resistance of the cell is negligible. b) n1 4. The values of relative to the central line where maxima appears on the screen are given by ( n is an integer) n 1 1 a) sin 2 40 39.73 eV.

c) 100 cm d) 60 cm b) 40 c) 38 d) 45 c) 1. For balancing condition of the instrument value of l = a) 40 cm 45.02 M KMnO4 solution.98 V b) 1. (B). by extraction and excess of OH - . b) 20 cm The value of emf of the cell is a) 0.75 c) 90. requiring 45mL of 0. 48.CODE : GANESH VSP-VR / 21-03-2009 i(in mA) 50 40 0 100 20 l( in cm) -125 44.. the point is overrun. out of which ONLY ONE is correct.2 V d) 3 V The value of R = a) 30 46.and BrO3 -.86 V CHEMISTRY SECTION – A Straight Objective Type This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A). (C) and (D). excess of NaOH is added so that all Br2 is disproportional to Br . An impure sample of sodium oxalate Na2C2O4 weighing 0. 47.1 M oxalic acid solution. the resulting solution is free from Br . Find the % purity of Na2C2O4 in simple: a) 75 b) 83.20 g is dissolved in aqueous solution of H 2 SO4 and solution is titrated at 700 C.25 d) None of these To a 10 ml. and back titration in carried out with 10 ml of 0. 1 M aqueous solution of Br2 .

3% b) 12.2 105 3) 6. the % purity of oxalate sample is : 49. 51. a) 85.4 105 Meo COOH 5) 30. 52. Me COOH Cl COOH 4) 6.5% Match Ka values with suitable acid : Ka 1) 3.3 105 50. can be separated by a) NaHCO3 b) NaOH sol c) FeCl3 sol d) all of these Match list -I with list – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List – I List – II A) van arkel method 1) Manufacture of caustic soda B) Solvay process 2) Purification of titanium C) Cupellation 3) Manufacture of Na2Co3 D) poling 4) Refining of silver 5) purification of Cu .CODE : GANESH VSP-VR / 21-03-2009 neutralised by acidifying the solution.6 105 O2N COOH I II a) a b b) d b c) d b d) d c Identity the correct statements(s) III c c a b IV d e c e V e a e a I II III IV a) I & II are antiaromatic b) III & IV are non-aromatic c) II alone is aromatic d) II & IV are non-aromatic Phenol & benzoic acid.3 105 c) 90% d) 64% Acid COOH 2) 4. the resulting solution is sufficient to react with 2 g of impure CaC2O4 M 128 g / mol sample.

(C) and (D). (B). 55. 53. 54. ring ‘Q’ will take part in ESR Compoind ‘B’ is more reactive than compound A. b) It corresponds to pH at with the concentration of the zwitter ion is at a maximum c) It is the average of pKa1 & pKa2 values d) Isoelectric point may have pH 27 or close to 7 to < 7 depending on nature of amino acids Which of the following reacts with three moles of phenyl hydrazine to given same osazone a) glucose b) fructose c) mannose d) galactose The E will attack which ring in the following compounds & which is the rate of ESR in this O Y O C X (A) O C a) b) c) d) NH Q P (B) In A. Each question has 4 choices (A). . out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. ring ‘X’ will take part in electrophilic substitution reaction In A. ring ‘Y’ will take part in electophilic substitute an reaction (ESR) In B. 56.CODE : GANESH VSP-VR / 21-03-2009 Codes a) b) c) d) A 2 4 2 2 B 1 3 3 1 C 3 2 4 3 D 4 1 5 4 SECTION – B Multiple Correct Answer Type This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Which of the following are non-ideal solutions & form azeotzopes a) cyclohezane + cycloheptane b) cyclohexane + CH3OH c) CH3OH + C2H5OH d) C2H5OH +H2O Which of the following statements is correct with reference to isoelectric point ? a) The isoelectric point is the pH at which the aminoacid bears no net charge.

Each question has 4 choices (A). 60.00C 500 1000 1500 2000 . 57. 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A). c) A is true.P is a colligative property Assertion (A): Benzene on heating with concH 2 SO4 gives benzene sulphoric acid (used in forming detergends) which when heated with super heated steam under pressure gives benzene. 59. (C) and (D). Reason (R): An organic compound is aromatic amino compound which forms diazonium salts & undergo coupling reaction to form azo dye. Hg+S 2 1 Bi S Bi2 S3 3 3 H 2 S H 2S 1 1 C S CS 2 2 2 -0 -50 G 0 kj / mol 1 PASSAGE-I HgS -100 Pb S PbS -150 t. b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A. Based upon each paragraph. with fehlings solution & show mutarotation Reason (R): During mutarotaton. 58. (B). a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A. (C) and (D). out of which ONLY ONE is correct.P will be high if the molar elevation constant of the liquid is high Reason (R): Elevation in B. one pure ananer is converted in to mixture of two anamers SECTION – D Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 3 paragraphs. out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (B). R is true.CODE : GANESH VSP-VR / 21-03-2009 SECTION – C Reasoning Type This section contains 4 reasoning type questions.naphthol gives orange dye. d) A is false. Assertion (A): Elevation in B. Reason (R): Sulphonaton is a reversible process Assertion (A): Reducing sugar gives brick red ppt. Assertion (A): An organic compound on diazotization followed by reaction with alkaline solution of . R is false.

For example. when 100g sample of oleum is diluted with desired weight of H2O then the total mass of H2SO4 obtained after dilution is known as % labeling in oleum. VSP-VR / 21-03-2009 The Ellingham diagram for a number of metallic sulphides is shown below formation of which of the sulphides is most spontaneous? a) HgS b) Bi2S3 c) PbS d) CS2 which occurs to minimum extent in nature? a) HgS b) H2S c) Bi2S3 d) CS2 which of the following sulphides can not be reduced to metal by H2 at about 100C a) HgS b) PbS c) Bi2S3 d) all of these PASSAGE-II Oleum is considered as a solution of SO3 in H2SO4.93l at STP b) 7. what is the % of free SO3 in an oleum that is labeled as ‘ 104.23 L d) 12.5% H2SO4’? a) 10 b) 20 c) 40 d) none of these 9. 62. then find the volume of CO 2 evolved at 1 atm pressure and 300 k temperature after the completion of the reaction: a) 2. 2X ƒ X 2 67.t .3 g Na2CO3. 63.37L at STP d) 11. a oleum bottle labeled as ‘ 109% H 2SO4’ means the 109 g total mass of pure H 2SO4 will be formed when 100g of oleum is diluted by 9g of H 2O which combines with all the free SO3 present in oleum to from H2SO4 as SO3 H 2O H 2 SO4 .3 L PASSAGE-III A dilute solution contains ‘t’ moles of solute ‘X’ in 1 kg of solvent with molal elevation constant Kb.6 L c) 1. The solute dimerises in the solution according to the following equation. 68.2L at STP if excess water is added into a bottle sample labeled as “112% H 2SO4” and is reacted with 5. 65. which is obtained by passing SO3 in solution of H2SO4.0g water is added into oleum sample labeled as “112 %” H 2SO4 then the amount of free SO 3 remaining in the solution is a) 14. 66.CODE : GANESH 61.46 L b) 24. The degree of association is . 64. the van’t hoff factor will be (if we start with one mole of ‘X’) a) i 1 2 b) i 1 c) i 1 d) i 1 2 2 the degree of association is equal to Kb 2 Kbt Tb a) b) Tb Kb.46L at STP c) 3.

S N MURTHY Sri B S R MURTHY Sri K.t the mole cular weight observed will be a) greater than actual molecular wt c) equal to the actual molecular wt MATHS PHYSICS CHEMISTRY VSP-VR / 21-03-2009 d) Tb 2 Kb. 2Tb c) 2 Kb. MOHANA RAO 9849127144 9848175057 9912343665 .t b) lesser than actual molecular wt d) cannot be predicted by the data given Paper Setter: VSP-VR Sri G.CODE : GANESH 69.

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