# Classical Mechanics Problem 1: Central Potential

Solution
a)

Integrals of motion for a central potential V (r):
Angular Momentum
L = rv¡t = r2 φ˙ ¢
Energy per unit mass E = 12 r˙ 2 + vt2 + V (r) = 21 r˙ 2 + Veff (r)
where vt is the tangential velocity and Veff is defined as
Veff (r) = V (r) +

L2
2r2

If the orbit is circular, the distance of the test body from the origin is invariant: r˙ = 0,
which implies that the body is always at the equilibrium-distance:
dVeff
=0
dr

dV
L2
v2
= 3 = t = rφ˙ 2
dr
r
r

then
L
φ˙ = ωφ = 2 =
r

µ

1 dV
r dr

¶1/2

so for the period we get

Tφ =
b)

= 2π
ωφ

µ

1 dV
r dr

¶−1/2

Write the orbit as in the statement of the problem:
r(t) = r0 + ²(t)

with

dVeff
(r0 ) = 0
dr

and

²2 ¿ r02 .

The energy per unit mass is now E = 12 ²˙2 + Veff (r0 + ²), and since ² is small we may
Taylor-expand the potential as
Veff (r0 + ²) = Veff (r0 ) +

dVeff
1 d2 Veff
(r0 )² +
(r0 )²2 + O(²3 )
2
dr
2
dr
| {z }
=0

so then

1 2 1 d2 Veff
²˙ +
(r0 )²2 + O(²3 ) = const.
2
2 dr2
In the above equation we readily recognize the equation of the simple harmonic oscillator with
¶1/2
µ 2
d Veff
ωr =
dr2 r=r0
E − Veff (r0 ) =

1

and its general solution is
p

E − Veff (r0 )
cos [ωr (t − t0 )]
ωr

²(t) =
where t0 is an arbitrary constant.

d2 Veff
d2 V
3L2
d2 V
d2 V
3 dV
2
=
+
=
+

=
+
φ
dr2
dr2
r4
dr2
dr2
r dr
¶1/2
·
µ
¶¸1/2
µ 2
3 dV
1 d
d V
3 dV
ωr =
+
=
r
dr2
r dr r=r0
r3 dr
dr
r=r0

ωr2 =

Tr =
c)

ωr

Stability is determined by the sign of ωr2 . For stability: ωr2 > 0, so
1 d
r3 dr

µ

3 dV
r
>0
dr

for the Yukawa-potential
V (r) = −

GM −kr
e
r

so the condition is
µ

£
¤
£
¤
GM
1 d
3 dV
r
= 3 e−kr 1 + kr − (kr)2 > 0 ⇒
1 + kr − (kr)2 > 0
3
r dr
dr
r
Ã√
! Ã√
!
£
¤
5−1
5+1
2
1 + kr − (kr) =
+ kr
− kr > 0
2
2
which is satisfied only if

Ã√
kr <

Therefore circular orbits are unstable for
Ã√
kr >
¥

2

5+1
2

5+1
2

!

!

d) The outermost stable circular orbit is at Ã√ r0 = 5+1 2k ! its energy per unit mass is 1 1 E = V (r0 ) + (r0 ωφ )2 = V (r0 ) + 2 2 GM −kr0 1 GM −kr0 e (kr0 − 1) = e 2 r0 r0 µ ¶ dV r dr r=r0 Ã√ 5−1 4 ! >0 If r0 is decreased only slightly. E > 0 still and the orbit is absolutely stable ¥ The effective potential for the Yukawa-potential has the form shown in Figure 1. Veff r Figure 1: Effective potential against distance from the origin 3 .

Classical Mechanics Problem 2: Planar Double Pendulum Solution q1 l q2 a) l L=T −V The moment of inertia for a uniform rod of length l and mass m is I= 1 2 ml 3 about one of the ends and 1 ml2 about the rod’s center 12 The kinetic energy term we can decompose into three parts: Ic = T = T1 + T2.trans = m x˙ 2c + y˙ c2 2 where xc and yc are the coordinates of the second rod’s center of mass.trans is the translational energy of the center of mass of the second rod and T2. so l sin θ2 2 l yc = −l cos θ1 − cos θ2 2 xc = l sin θ1 + from which ¸ · 1 x˙ 2c + y˙ c2 = l2 θ˙12 + θ˙22 + θ˙1 θ˙2 (sin θ1 sin θ2 + cos θ1 cos θ2 ) 4 4 . Then 1 T1 = ml2 θ˙12 6 1 T2.rot + T2.trans where T1 is the kinetic energy of the first rod.rot is its rotational energy about its center of mass.rot = ml2 θ˙22 24 and ¢ 1 ¡ T2. T2.

i are simply the coordinates of the centers. we immediately see that in the term θ˙1 θ˙2 cos (θ1 − θ2 ). because even the first θ-dependent term gives a fourth order correction. as mentioned.trans − V1 − V2 ¸ · · ¸ 1 3 2 1 = ml2 θ˙12 + θ˙22 + θ˙1 θ˙2 cos (θ1 − θ2 ) + mgl cos θ1 + cos θ2 3 6 2 2 b) Expand the Langrangian from part a) for small angles. µ ¶ l l V1 = −mg cos θ1 .rot + T2. where yc.i . yc.The potential energies are simply Vi = mgyc. 3 6 4 4 The Euler-Lagrange equations are ∂L d ∂L = ˙ dt ∂ θj ∂θj so in the specific case: 4¨ θ1 + 3 1¨ θ1 + 2 1¨ θ2 + 2 1¨ θ2 + 3 µ ¶ g 3 θ1 = 0 l 2 µ ¶ g 1 θ2 = 0 l 2 if we now look for normal modes. where the θˆj ¿ 1. Denoting ω 2 = λg/l. the above set of equations takes the form #" # " ¡ ¢ 4 2 3g 1 2 θˆ1 3ω − 2 l 2ω ¡1 2 1 g¢ =0 1 2 θˆ2 2ω 3ω − 2 l Non-trivial solutions exist if the determinant of the matrix on the left is zero. the θ-dependence in the cosine can be dropped. Then the approximate Lagrangian is · ¸ · ¸ 2 1 3 1 L = ml2 θ˙12 + θ˙22 + θ˙1 θ˙2 − mgl θ12 + θ22 + const. 3 2 3 2 4 5 . The only function we have to deal with is 1 cos θ = 1 − θ2 + O(θ4 ) 2 Since we are going to look for normal modes with θj = θˆj exp (iωt).i are the vertical coordinates of the rods’ centers of mass. Thus. we can write this condition as ¶µ ¶ µ 3 1 1 λ2 4 λ− λ− − = 0. Since both rods are uniform. V2 = −mg l cos θ1 + cos θ2 2 2 The full Lagrangian is then L = T1 + T2.

7 so finally ·µ ω± = c) 6 3± √ 7 ¶ ¸1/2 g l To sketch the eigenmodes. a b Figure 2: The low. • ω 2 = λ+ g/l (high-frequency mode) µ ¶ ´ 3 8 ˆ 1³ √ θˆ2 = − θ1 = −2 7 − 1 θˆ1 λ 3 3 √ (−2 7 − 1)/3 < 0 and real. 6 . • ω 2 = λ− g/l (low-frequency mode) µ ¶ ´ 3 8 ˆ 1³ √ ˆ θ2 = − θ1 = 2 7 − 1 θˆ1 λ 3 3 √ (2 7 − 1)/3 > 0 and real. therefore the two pendula are in phase.that is whose solutions are 7 2 7 3 λ − λ+ =0 36 6 4 6 λ± = 3 ± √ .(a) and high-frequency (b) normal modes of the planar double pendulum. therefore the two pendula are perfectly out of phase. find eigenvectors of the matrix in part b).

Since ~ k yˆ. z) = and σ(0. z) = −σ(x. the boundary conditions require we are told to pick the mode with E ~ t) = E0 yˆ sin πx sin πz cos ωt E(r. 0. a b The magnetic induction we can get from Faraday’s Law: ³ ´ ~ ∂B ∂Ey ∂Ey ~ =x = −c ∇ × E ˆc − zˆc ∂t ∂z ∂x ³ π πx πz π πx πz ´ = x ˆcE0 sin cos − zˆcE0 cos sin cos ωt b a b a a b µ ¶ ˆ πx πz zˆ πx πz ~ t) = − πcE0 x B(r. at the boundary of media the discontinuity of the tangential component of the magnetic field is given by the surface current ~κ ~ = n ˆ×B 7 4π ~κ c . z) = 4πσ E0 πx πz sin sin cos ωt 4π a b σ(x. 0) = σ(x.at wall = 0). the discontinuity in the normal component of the electric field is 4π times the surface charge density σ. 0. nz = 1 (note that ny = 0. y. z) = σ(x. y. y. z) σ(x. z) = σ(a. nz = 0 or ny = 0. nz = 0 does not satisfy the boundary condition Ek. sin cos − cos sin sin ωt ω b a b a a b where the frequency ω is (by the argument above) µ ω = πc b) 1 1 + 2 a2 b ¶1/2 At a boundary of media.Electromagnetism Problem 1 Solution a) Normal modes are products of harmonic standing waves in the x. y and z directions. b) ≡ 0 Similarly. ny . For their frequencies. nz ∈ Z+ Since a > b. 0. a b b nx . the lowest frequency has nx = 1 and either ny = 1. so Ey (x. we have ¸1/2 ·³ q πnx ´2 ³ πny ´2 ³ πnz ´2 ω = c kx2 + ky2 + kz2 = c + + . b. y.

b) = −~κ(x. z) ~κ(0. so µ ¶ c2 E0 zˆ πx πz x ˆ πx πz ~κ(x. 0. t) = − 0 2 yˆ 8ω Za dx 0 µ Zb dz 0 1 πx πz 1 πx πz cos2 sin2 + 2 sin2 cos2 2 a a b b a b ¶ ´2 1 µ b 1³ c a E0 sin ωt + = −ˆ y 2 2ω 4π a b To simplify this result further. 0) ~κ(x. y. z) πz c2 E0 yˆ sin sin ωt 4ω a b ~κ(a. The magnetic component of the force can be written as above E 2 c2 π F~mag (y = 0. z) = −~κ(x. the force there is purely magnetic and is given by Z ³ ´ 1 ~ ~ d2 x F (t) = ~κ × B 2c b×b E 2 c2 π F~ (x = 0. y. d) Start with the sides where y = const. y. t) The forces point outwards from the box on both sides (as is indicated by the sign in the equation above). t) = −ˆ y 4 2π 3 8 ¶ sin2 ωt . y. z) = −~κ(0. t) = −F~ (x = 0. 0) = − c) Since there is no charge on the b × b sides. y.where n ˆ is a unit vector normal to the surface. 0. b. z) = − c2 E0 yˆ πx sin sin ωt 4ω b a ~κ(x. z) = sin cos + cos sin sin ωt 4ω b a b a a b ~κ(x. y. use ω from part a) µ ¶−1 µ ¶−1 1 1 b a −2 ω −2 = (πc)−2 + = ab(πc) + a2 b2 a b Then ¶2 µ ab E0 ~ sin ωt Fmag (y = 0. t) = − 0 2 2 x ˆ 8ω a µ x = −ˆ Zb Zb dz sin2 dy 0 0 c b E0 sin ωt 4ω a πz sin2 ωt b ¶2 F~ (x = a.

t) = F~el (y = 0. t) There net force on the top and bottom sides oscillates between the inward and outward direction with half the period of the lowest frequency mode. calculate the force on the sides where z = const. 9 . e) From the Maxwell stress tensor. the force per unit surface area is 1 ~ ~ E2 B2 1 ~ ~ f~ = E(E · n ˆ) − n ˆ+ B(B · n ˆ) − n ˆ 4π 8π 4π 8π ~ = 0 and B ~ ·x On the x = const. so E 2 c2 π πz B2 ˆ = ∓ 02 2 x ˆ sin2 sin2 ωt f~(x = {0. E ˆ = 0. Next. therefore no electric component. t) + F~mag (y = 0. t) µ ¶2 ¢ E0 ab ¡ 2 cos ωt − sin2 ωt = yˆ 4 2π 3 µ ¶2 E0 ab = yˆ cos 2ωt 4 2π 3 and F~tot (y = b. therefore. a}. too (sign!). t) = ∓ x 8π 8ω a b which is exactly the integrand from part c). t) = −F~tot (y = 0. t) The magnetic force is pushing the a × b walls outwards. t) = = yˆ 1 ~ 2 E2 σ E d x = yˆ 0 cos2 ωt 2 8π 1 2 µ E0 cos ωt 4 ¶2 Za Zb dz sin2 dx 0 0 πx πz sin2 a b ab π3 F~tot (y = 0. walls n ˆ = ±ˆ x. Again. there is no charge. t) = −F~ (z = 0. the force is purely magnetic E 2 c2 π F~ (z = 0. In a time average. t) = − 0 2 2 zˆ 8ω b Zb Za dx sin2 dy 0 0 πx sin2 ωt a ´2 a³ c E0 sin ωt = −ˆ z b 4ω F~ (z = b. this force cancels.The electric component of the force can be written as Z F~el (y = 0.

walls n ˆ = ±ˆ z . t) = ∓ (E 2 − B 2 )ˆ y 8π · 2 E0 πx πz =± cos2 ωt sin2 sin2 8π a b µ ¶ ¸ πz 1 E02 c2 π 1 πx 2 2 πx 2 2 πz 2 sin + 2 sin cos − cos sin ωt yˆ 8ω 2 a2 a b b a b the sum of the first two integrands from part d). walls n ˆ = ±ˆ y . b}.~ E ~ · yˆ) = E 2 yˆ and B ~ · yˆ = 0. b}. 10 . E( 1 f~(y = {0. y b F(x) z s b F(z) k(x) k(y) k(z) a k(z) –s F(z) k(x) k(y) F(x) x Figure 3: Average total forces. ~ · zˆ) = 0 and B ~ · zˆ = 0. so we get On the z = const. surface charges and surface currents on the cavity. (E B2 E 2 c2 π πx f~(z = {0. t) = ∓ zˆ = ∓ 0 2 2 zˆ sin2 sin2 ωt 8π 8ω b a the last integrand from part d). so we get On the y = const.

according to the definition given. D = ²0 E + P = ²0 (1 + α)E for a single frequency ω. chapter 32) a) The EM wave is travelling in the x ˆ direction. ∇×E=− ∇ · B = 0. vol. Then the electron in the atom behaves classically as a damped. α(ω) = P 1 na q 2 = 2 ²0 E ω0 − ω 2 − iγω ²0 me (A quantum mechanical derivation would give this same expression multiplied by the oscillator strength f for the transition. c ∇ × B = +E ²0 ∂t ²0 11 . and B = µ0 H. This gives us the following wave-equation ∂2D 1 − ∇2 D = 0. it has a transverse electric field. Maxwell’s equations read ∂B ∂t ∂D ∇×H= ∂t ∇ · D = 0. driven harmonic oscillator ¡ ¢ me y¨ + γ y˙ + ω02 y = −qE0 e−iωt with the solution y(t) = ω2 1 qE(t) . II. so assume E×y ˆ = 0.) b) With no free charges or currents. Then k 2 = µ0 ²0 (1 + α)ω 2 = (1 + α) ⇒ n(ω) = p 1 + α(ω) ω2 c2 One can also get this result by using the microscopic E. B and P fields: µ ¶ 1 ∂ P 2 ∇ · E = − ∇ · P.Electromagnetism Problem 2: Waves in a Dilute Gas Solution (see Feynman Lectures on Physics. 2 ∂t µ0 ²0 (1 + α) Now let D be that of a plane wave: D ∝ ei(kx−ωt) . 2 − ω0 + iγω me For the dipole moment per unit volume: P = na (−q)y = ω02 1 na q 2 E − ω 2 − iγω me Therefore the volume polarizability is.

as before. (Note that we are neglecting dipole-dipole interactions in the dilute gas. t) = e d) ikc (x−vph t) e For the dilute gas. d log ω 1 + α ≈ 1 + α/2. Then 1 E(x. by definition. 0) = √ −∞ =e Z∞ 1 2 2πσ 2 dx e−i(k−kc )x−x /(2σ 2 ) −∞ −i(k−kc )2 σ 2 /2 Now Taylor-expand ω(k) about k = kc : µ ¶ dω ω(k) = ω(kc ) + (k − kc ) + O{(k − kc )2 } dk kc ≡ kc vph + vg (k − kc ) + O{(k − kc )2 } where. respectively. vph and vg are the phase. + γ + ω P = − 0 ∂t2 ∂t me Together these give us k 2 = (1 + α)ω 2 /c2 for a plane wave.) c) We start by noting that according to Fourier-analysis 1 E(x. σ) c n µ ¶−1 d log n 1+ . Now let K = k − kc .and group-velocities. t) = 2π E(x. which we will write as n = nr + ini (for α nr ≈ 1 + ni ≈ ω02 − ω 2 na q 2 2²0 me (ω02 − ω 2 )2 + γ 2 ω 2 na q 2 γω 2 2²0 me (ω0 − ω 2 )2 + γ 2 ω 2 12 . t) = 2π Z∞ ˆ dk ei(kx−ω(k)t) E(k) −∞ Z∞ ˆ E(k) = dx e −ikx E(x.∂2E 1 ∂P − c2 ∇2 E = − ∂t2 ²0 ∂t ⇒ also ∂2P ∂P na q 2 2 E. n = is complex) √ dK eikc (x−vph t)+iK(x−vg t)−K dω = dk √ µ 2 σ 2 /2 −∞ (x−vg t)2 /(2σ 2 ) From part c) vg = Z∞ 2πσ 2 dk dω ¶−1 = = eikc (x−vph t) N (x − vg t.

Here the real part nr of the index of refraction determines the dispersion. 13 . At ω = ω0 : nr = 1 vg = µ 1− d log nr na q 2 =− d log ω 2²0 me γ 2 and na q 2 2²0 me γ 2 ¶−1 c≈ µ 1+ na q 2 2²0 me γ 2 ¶ c Note that vg > c at ω = ω0 . the waves are damped by the electronic resonance maximally at ω = ω0 . This is called anomalous dispersion. and now vph = c (since nr = 1). and the imaginary part ni determines the absorption/gain coefficient. vg ). It does not violate causality because signals (information) cannot travel faster than the minimum of (vph . Also.

the LHS of the equation diverges at kmax . 4. Outside the well. so we can pick the even part of the general solution of the free Schr¨ odinger equation inside the well.Quantum Mechanics Problem 1 Solution 1. square-integrability demands the solutions to vanish at infinity. and introduce the following notation: √ 2mV0 π kc = and kmax = . ~ 2w Clearly. The ground state will have no nodes. For the energy we have E= 14 ~2 k ∗ 2 2m . The wave-function for the ground state is then |x| < w |x| > w ψ(x) = Ae−α|x| ψ(x) = cos kx Both the wave-function and its derivative has to be continuous at the boundaries of the well: cos kw = Ae−αw ψ: dψ : dx −k sin kw = −αAe−αw ⇒ k tan kw = α Directly from Schr¨odinger’s equation: |x| < w E= |x| > w ~2 k 2 2m E =− ~2 α2 + V0 2m ~2 k 2 ~2 α2 =− + V0 2m 2m From which we get the transcendental equation: ⇒ · 2mV0 k tan kw = − k2 ~2 ¸1/2 Let k ∗ denote the positive root of the equation above. and the RHS describes a circle with radius kc . as shown in Fig.

will be finite (for any E). therefore k → kmax and E→ 2 ~2 kmax ~2 π 2 = 2m 8mw2 3. ∆E = 0.–k2)1/2 k k* * kc kmax Figure 4: Graphical representation of the solution of the transcendental equation 2. Write the result of part 1 in the non-dimensional form: · ¸1/2 2mw2 V0 2 kw tan kw = − (kw) ~2 According to the condition given in the statement of the problem.k tankw kc H L * k* * tan k* w (kc2. 1 F = ~ Za dx p 2m(V (x) − B) w V (x) = V0 − eEx B = V0 − eEa 15 ⇒ a= V0 − B eE . 4) goes to infinity. because the perturbation is odd (and therefore its integral with the square of the ground-state wave-function vanishes). the radius of the circle on the RHS (that in Fig. 4. The potential barrier on the low-potential side of the well. 5. so the particle will eventually escape by the tunnel-effect. denoted a in the figure.

Write the energy of the particle as B= 1 mv 2 .V(x) V0 a 0 –w √ F = √ 2m ~ Za dx x w p (V0 − B) − eEx w ¯a µ ¶ 2m 2 1 3/2 ¯¯ = − (V0 − B − eEx) ¯ ~ 3 eE w √ 2m 2 1 3/2 (V0 − B − eEw) = ~ 3 eE 6. v so it hits the right wall with frequency ν= ⇒ v 4w v −2F Probability to escape = e unit time 4w ⇒ Lifetime ∼ 16 4w 2F e v . m The time it takes for the particle to bounce back and forth once is v2 = T = 4w . 2 Then 2B .

dt c− c− −~ω sin (θ/2) cos (θ/2) −B + ~ω cos2(θ/2) Now use the identities 1 (1 − cos θ) 2 1 cos2 (θ/2) = (1 + cos θ) 2 1 sin (θ/2) cos (θ/2) = sin θ 2 sin2 (θ/2) = 17 . sin θeiωt − cos θ and for the eigenvectors solve · cos θ sin θeiωt sin θe−iωt − cos θ ¸· x y ¸ · =± x y ¸ with the normalization condition |x|2 + |y|2 = 1.Quantum Mechanics Problem 2 Solution 1. |−i) basis " # " #" # d d c+ |+i −i~h+| dt |−i c+ B − i~h+| dt d i~ = d d dt c− c− −i~h−| dt |+i −B − i~h−| dt |−i which. with the given concrete form of the vectors. Drop the t-label for simplicity. we end up with ¸ · cos (θ/2) |+i = sin (θ/2)eiωt · |−i = sin (θ/2) − cos (θ/2)eiωt ¸ 2. Then we have · ¸ cos θ sin θe−iωt H=B . is " # " #" # c+ c+ B + ~ω sin2(θ/2) −~ω cos (θ/2) sin (θ/2) d i~ = . From the vector-equation y = eiωt sin θ x cos θ ± 1 and with the normalization. Decompose the state-vector as |ψi = c+ |+i + c− |−i and write Schr¨odinger’s equation in terms of these vectors: d |ψi = H|ψi dt · ¸ d d i~ c˙+ |+i + c+ |+i + c˙− |−i + c− |−i = B [c+ |+i − c− |−i] dt dt i~ or in the (|+i.

For B À ~ω. c+ . dt c− Dx −Dz c− with the solution " c+ # ( = exp c− Ã = cos −i ~ " ~ |D|t ~ Dz Dx Dx −Dz #) " ! # 1 0 Ã ˆ · ~σ sin − iD ~ |D|t ~ ! . Note that in the last equation we dropped the part of the Hamiltonian that was proportional to the identity. This we can rewrite in the form: " # " #" # c+ Dz Dx c+ d i~ = . Dz → D. so 2 ~ |D|t ~ ~ |D|t ~ ! ! Dz −i sin ~ |D| 18 ~ |D|t ~ ! ! Ã ~ Dz2 2 |D|t − i 2 sin D ~ |c+ |2 → 1 (Adiabatic theorem) Ã .to get d i~ dt " c+ c− # 1 = 2 " #" 2B − ~ω cos θ −~ω sin θ −~ω sin θ −2B + ~ω cos θ c+ c− # . since that gives only a time dependent phase that is identical for the coefficients c− . And so Ã c+ = cos Ã 2 |c+ | = cos 3.

but it then gives the number of non-condensed atoms. At exactly TBEC . So on an isotherm below Vcritical • Nnon-condensed is constant • T is constant ⇒ p is constant (think of the kinetic origin of pressure) p Classical Gas p µ 1/V Bose Gas Phase Transition Line –5/3 pBEC µ V V (2 points) 19 . there are no atoms in the condensate and V N= 2π~3 Z µ d3 p eβp2 /(2m) −3 −1 = (2π~) V 2m β ¶3/2 Z∞ 4π 0 | x2 dx −1 {z } ex 2 =I1 n= 1 2π 2 µ µ kTBEC = 2mkT ~2 2π 2 n I1 ¶3/2 ¶2/3 I1 ~2 2m (2 points) b) The above integral with µ = 0 also applies below TBEC .Statistical Mechanics and Thermodynamics Problem 1 Thermodynamics of a Non-Interacting Bose Gas Solution a) np = 1 Ep = eβ(Ep −µ) − 1 p2 2m At and below TBEC µ = 0.

c) V U= 2π~3 I2 = Nc I1 cv = Z µ p2 d3 p −3 = (2π~) V 2 2m eβp /(2m) − 1 2m β ¶ µ 2m β ¶5/2 4π 2m Z∞ x4 dx ex2 − 1 0 | {z } =I2 1 I2 = Nc kT ∝ T 5/2 2m I1 5 I2 V Nc k = 2 I1 2π 2 µ 2mkT ~2 ¶3/2 µ ¶ 5 k I2 ∝ T 3/2 2 (2 points) d) From the reversibility of the Carnot-cycle: dS1 = −dS2 for 1 cycle ∆S1 = −∆S2 for the entire process ¯ ¯ ∂S ¯¯ ∂U ¯¯ 3/2 dU = T dS − pdV ⇒ T = = cv = aT | {z } |{z} ∂T ¯V ∂T ¯V from c) =0 cv dS = dT T Therefore the entropy transfer in the entire process is ⇒ ZT0 ∆Si = cv dT = a T Ti ∆S1 + ∆S2 = 0 ZT0 T 1/2 dT = ´ 2 ³ 3/2 3/2 a T0 − Ti 3 Ti ⇒ 3/2 T0 = ´ 1 ³ 3/2 3/2 T1 + T2 2 ZT0 Heat transferred to F1 : Q1 = T dS = ´ 2 ³ 5/2 5/2 a T0 − T1 . 5 T dS = ´ 2 ³ 5/2 5/2 a T2 − T0 . 5 T1 ZT2 Heat transferred from F2 : Q2 = T0 Therefore the total work done by the Carnot-machine is W = Q2 − Q1 = ´ 2 ³ 5/2 5/2 5/2 a T1 + T2 − 2T0 5 (4 points) 20 .

the latent heat equals zero. that is. The thermodynamic function whose variables are T and H is the Gibbs-potential: dG = −SdT − M dH Gsuper = Gnormal at every point on HC (T ). The transition is second order where SN − SS = 0. Therefore dHC → 0 as dT T → 0. dT MS V HC (T ) line (3 points) c) By the third law S → 0 as T → 0. But the figure shows HC (T = 0) is finite. Then ¯ ¯ ∂S ¯¯ ∂Q ¯¯ cH = T = ≡ cM ∂T ¯M ∂T ¯M (2 points) b) The transition takes place at constant T and H. so dGS = dGN which we then write as −SS dT − MS dH = −SN dT − MN dH |{z} =0 ¯ 4π SN − SS dH ¯¯ dHC = = − (SN − SS ) = ¯ dT trans. SN − SS = − 21 V dHC HC (T ) 4π dT .Statistical Mechanics and Thermodynamics Problem 2 Phase Transition in a Superconductor Solution a) ¯ ¯ ∂S ¯¯ ∂Q ¯¯ = T ∂T ¯H ∂T ¯H ¯ ¯ ∂S ¯¯ ∂S ¯¯ dS = dT + dM ∂T ¯M ∂M ¯T ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ∂S ¯¯ ∂S ¯¯ ∂M ¯¯ ∂S ¯¯ = + ∂T ¯H ∂T ¯M ∂M ¯T ∂T ¯H | {z } cH ≡ =0 where the last term is zero because M is independent of T .

• At T = 0 the transition is second order because both entropies go to zero. (2 points) d) Use H and T as variables dS(H. • At all other temperatures the transition is first order since both HC (T ) and dHC /dT are finite. T ) = ¯ ¯ ∂S ¯¯ ∂S ¯¯ dH + dT ∂H ¯T ∂T ¯H ¯ ∂S ¯¯ cH = ¯ ∂H T T ¯ ∂S ¯¯ ∂T ¯H = ↑ Maxwell relation ¯ ∂M ¯¯ − =0 ∂T ¯H Z S= cH a dT = T 3 V T 3 b = T 3 V + γT V 3 µ ¶ b−a SN − SS = T 3 V + γT V 3 T < TC T > TC T = TC (H = 0) µ ¶ b−a TC2 3 µ ¶1/2 3γ TC (H = 0) = b−a γ= (3 points) 22 . • At T = TC (H = 0) the transition is second order since HC (T ) = 0 and dHC /dT is finite.