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SAIL Management TraineeRecruitment MT Syllabus and
ExampatternFor 2010
TIME:3:00 hrs NEGATIVE-MARK : 0.25(Consolidated)
The pattern for SAIL Paper for Technical Posts is given below. There is a written test and a personal interview. The written
test comprises of the following five sections:NEGATIVE-MARK: 0.25
Separate sectional cut-offs will be there and overall cut-off will be there.
1.

2.

3.

SAIL MT written test : The test is for 3:00 hrsThere are five sections in the paper which are as follows a. section I – The candidate will have to answer the questions based on Reasoning.The total marks will be 45.
b. section II – Here the questions are based on quantitative ability. All the questions will carry 35 marks in total.
c. section III – There will be General Awareness questions carrying 35 marks.
d. section IV – A candidate has to attempt questions of 35 marks on Vocabulary& English language.
e. section V – Lastly, there will be Technical paper of 100 marks which is specific to your stream.
Group Discussion ( GD ) & Interview : Those who gets selected in written exam are called for GD & interview.
In this, the capability of the candidate is checked. He should be up-to-date regarding the current affairs, what‘s all
in happening in the world etc. You should know about how to prepare for Job interview in details so that you
passed this stage also.for GD is similar as that for PSU.Hope this article will help you.
All the best for your exam.
INTERVIEW GUIDANCE will be provided by Sail employee at institute.

The number of questions in the exam is not fixed. It varies year to year. However the number of sections and the time
allotted is always the same. The time duration of the written test is 2 hours 30 minutes. Apart from the overall cut off there
will be sectional cut offs also.
1. If ‗JANTA‘ is coded as ‗26‘ and DEPOSIT as ‗52‘. How can be the code number for ‗JANTA DEPOSIT SCHEME‘?
1. 265276
2. 265213
3.265287
4. 2652104
2. If SALEM is coded as RZKDL, how can MADRAS be coded?
1. NZESZR
2. LZESZT
3.LZCQZR
4. NBESBT
3. WCYB : AZBX : : ? : CGFE
1. DGEF
2.EFGD
3.EGFD
4. GFDE
4. EXPLOSION : DEBRIS : : ?
1. Train : Car
2. Bruise : Fall
3. Television : Dial
4. Locusts : Holocaust
5. Madness is to brain as paralysis is to
1. arms
2. face
3. body
4. nerves
Directions (Q 6-8): Below are given four statements. On the basis of these statements, answer the following questions.
Statements:
1. Ram and Sham play chess and cards.
2. Sham and Pappu play cards and carom.
3. Pappu and Sudhir play carom and ludo.
4. Ram and Sudhir play ludo and chess.
6. Name the boy who plays chess, cards and carom
1. Ram
2.Sham
3.Pappu
4.Sudhir

7. Name the boy who plays cards, carom and ludo
1. Sudhir
2.Pappu
3.Sham
4. Ram
8. Name the boy who plays chess, cards and ludo
1. Ram
2.Sham
3.Pappu
4.Sudhir
9. Madhubala is taller than Mugdha but shorter than Geeta who is not as tall as Raveena. Sudha is shorter than Geeta but
not as short as Mugdha. Who among them is the shortest?
1. Sudha
2. Mugdha
3.Madhubala
4. Data inadequate
10. How many such symbols are there in the following series, which are immediately preceded by an even number and
immediately followed by an odd number?
8 4 * 3 5 6 $ 5 8 7 % 9 4 3 # 7 6 2? 3 4 6 ?3 8 9 4 $ 5 9
1.Three
2.Five
3.Four
4. Six
Directions (Q. 11-13): Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences, which can be drawn from the facts
stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its
degree of truth or falsity.
Mark answer as:
1. if the inference is definitely true i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
2. if the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts given.
3. if the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
4. if the inference is probably false though not definitely false in the light of the facts given.
5. if the inference is definitely false i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
In the overall economy of India, agriculture is the largest sector of economic activity. It plays a crucial role in the country‘s
economic development by providing food to its people and raw materials to industry. It accounts for the largest share to the
national income. The share of the various agricultural commodities, animal husbandry and ancillary activities has been more
than 40 percent of the fifties, it actually contributed about half of the national output.
11. Agriculture is the mainstay of Indian economy.
12. The contribution of agricultural sector has decreased in recent years.
13. Agriculture is the only source of income in India.
Directions (Q 14-16): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An
assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions
and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
(1) if only assumption I is implicit.
(2) if only assumption II is implicit.
(3) if either I or II is implicit.
(4) if neither I nor II is implicit.
(5) if both I and II are implicit.
14. STATEMENT:
―Use chlorine tablets for drinking water.‖ A notice by municipal authority.
ASSUMPTIONS:
I. To drink water without using chlorine tablets is hazardous.
II. Municipal authority is providing chlorine tablets.
15. STATEMENT:
If we provide primary education to children of poor families and arrange good attendance in primary schools, then it will be a
great achievement in the field of education
ASSUMPTIONS:
I. Children of poor families do not go to good schools.
II. Children of poor families do not go to school regularly.

16. STATEMENT:
Chief Minister has cancelled all his programmes in Allahabad and he has left for capital by air A news.
ASSUMPTIONS:
I. These types of news are always in headlines.
II. There is an air-route between Allahabad and capital.
17. In a class of 33, 20 play cricket, 25 play football and 18 play hockey. 15 play both cricket and football, 12 play football
and hockey and 10 play cricket and hockey. If each student plays at least one game, how many students play only cricket?
1. 8
2. 6
3.4
4.2
18.mn _ m _ nm _ nm _ n
1. mmmm
2. nnnn
3. mnmn
4. nmnm
Directions (Q 19-20): Given below are pairs of events ‗R‘ and ‗S‘. You have to read both the events ‗R‘ and ‗S‘ and decide
their nature of relationship. You have to assume that the information given in ‗R‘ and ‗S‘ are true and you will not assume
anything beyond the given information in deciding the answer.
Give answer as:
1. If ‗R‘ is the effect and ‗S‘ is its immediate principal cause.
2. If ‗R‘ is the immediate and principal cause and ‗S‘ is its effect.
3. If ‗R‘ is its effect but ‗S‘ is not its immediate and principal cause.
4. If ‗S‘ is an effect but ‗R‘ is not its immediate and principal cause.
5. None of these
19. Event (R): Private bus operators are making good money these days.
Event (S): Delhi Transport Corporation has increased the fare due to hike in diesel price.
20. Event (R): The price of Personal Computer (PCs) have fallen in recent months.
Event (S): Some school children are showing great interest in learning computer.
Directions (Q 21-22): In this category of questions, a pair of words is given, which is followed by four pairs of words as
alternatives. A candidate is required to select the pair in which the words bear the same relationship which each other as the
words of the given pair bear or, a third part is given, and you are required to select the fourth part.
21. ‗DCBA‘ is related to ‗ZYXW‘ in the same way as ‗HGFE‘ is related to
1. RSTU
2.VUTS
3.STVU
4. UVST
22. 25 : 37 : : 49 : ?
1. 41
2. 65
3.56
4. 60
23. CASSOCK is to PRIEST as GRADUATE is to
1. Gown
2.Cap
3. Tie
4. Coat
Directions (Q 24): Make a meaningful word. Use the 2nd, 4th, 6th, 7th letters of the Capitalised word. Indicate the second
letter of the so formed new word.
24. SPECULATION
1. A
2.D
3.L
4. P
25. Which does not cope with others in the following?
1. navigator
2. sailor
3. pilot

4. narrator
Directions (Q 26-28): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have
to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer as
1. if only conclusion I follows
2. if only conclusion II follows
3. if either I or II follows
4. if neither I nor II follows
5. if both I and II follow
26. STATEMENTS:
1. No table is chair.
2. Some chairs are stools.
CONCLUSIONS:
I. Some tables are not stools.
II. Some stools are not tables.
27. STATEMENTS:
1. All magazines are books.
2. No book is novel.
CONCLUSIONS:
I. No novel is book.
II. No magazine is novel.
28. STATEMENTS:
1. Some tulips are roses.
2. Some roses are daffodils.
CONCLUSIONS:
I. Some tulips are roses.
II. All roses are tulips.
Direction (Q 29-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below
it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the
statements and give answer as:
1. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient
to answer the question.
2. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient
to answer the question.
3. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4. if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5. if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
29. Four plays M, N, O and P have been staged on four consecutive days one by one. When play P was staged?
STATEMENT:
I. First play was staged on Friday and immediately after it ‗O‘ was staged.
II. There is a gap of one day between N and O.
30. In a certain code language ―Pit Lit Nit‖ means ―Red Paint Shirt‖. What is the code for ―Paint‖?
STATEMENT:
I. In that code language ―Nit Lit Rit Bit‖ means ―Wash Red Paint Now‖.
II. In that code language ―JitCit Pit‖ means ―Shirt is Dirty‖.
31. 23457 + 4236 + 79 = ?
1. 24732
2. 23782
3.27772
4.27872
5. None of these
32.
1.
2.
3.

2 : 3.10915 5. 55 years 5. The ratios of pure milk and water in two vessels are respectively 3 : 1 and 7 : If equal quantities of the mixtures of two vessels are mixed together.13 5.Rs. 50 years 4. 5 : 3 4. 2 : 25 2. 9 : 17 5. 145 x 55 + 84 x 35 = ? 1. 20% of 30% of 20% of Rs.99099 5. 14 : 5 4. 33. 10495 2. 1 : 2 2. The compound ratio of 3 : 4. 45 years 3. The ratio of 3. 8 : 15. and 9 : 17 is 1. 5 : 4 5. None of these 38. 28 : 3 5. 40 years 2.10685 4. The least among the ratios 5 : 6.576 4. 4 : 5 3. 325 2. 75 3.729 3.20 . then the ratio of pure milk and water in the new vessel is 1. 19.4 5. % of 1250 99 1.80 3. 1. The ratio of the present ages of father and son is 8 : After 10 years the ratio of their ages would be 2 : the present age of father is 1. 10725 34. 31 35. None of these 41. 841 36.5 kg to 280 gm is 1. None of these 39. 10. 3 : 28 2.676 5. 3 : 5 5. 7 : 8. Rs. 2 : 1 3. 7 : 8 3. 99999 2.Rs.65 4. 5 : 14 3.99990 3. The greatest 5-digit number which is divisible by 99 is 1. 784 2. 9. 2 : 3 4. None of these 37. None of these 40. 25 : 2 4. 10365 3. 25 : 28 is 1.40 2.99909 4. 850 is 1. 5 : 6 2. None of these 42.

145 cm 4. five newly admitted students increase the average height by 1 cm. Rs. Eight Part 36-40: 2. Nine men went to a hotel.5.50 3.3.2.4. 20 yrs 49. 4.50% 5. None of these 48.Rs.12% 4. The average height of the set of 5 new student is 1. 10. 292. increases by 4% 4.50 4.1. None of these Answer : First Part 1-5: 4. None of these 47.4. The age of teacher is 1. None of these 43.4. Due to this the umber of visitors was reduced by 10%. 30 each over their meals and the ninth spent Rs. The age of the new girl is 1.146 cm 5.10% 2. 262.4.3.4. To restore to its original.4. None of these 44. 20 more than the average expenditure or all the nine. A reduction of 20% in the price of sugar enables a purchaser to obtain 5 kg more sugar for Rs. Fourth Part 16-20: 5. 39 years 3. A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%. 16.1. The daily money receipts are then increased by 1. does not change 2. 2. None of these 45.4. the final value of the number 1. decreases by 2% 3.1.Rs.50 2. The average age of 30 boys in a class is 16 years.4 yrs 2.Ninth Part 41-45: 2.3.Rs.3.5. 5. 146.Rs.4.2. Seventh Part 31-35: 3.80 5. The price of sugar is decreased by 10%.4 years when a girl of age 6 years is replaced by another girl. 12 yrs 4.Second Part 6-10: 2. 290 4.1. 8% 2. 16 yrs 5.50 5. The average age of 10 students in a group increases by 0. The average of the ages of the boys and the teacher is 17 years.4. The total money spent by them was 1. The average height of 25 students in a class is 140 cm. 5 3.2.3. 15% 46. 8 5. 148 cm 50.1.4.4.2 cm 3. Eight of them spent Rs.3.4 Sixth Part 26-30: 2.Tenth Part 46-50: 2.Rs.5. 260 2.2.5. 33 years 4. 10 % 2.4 . Third Part 11-15: 1. 10 yrs 3. Rs.3. 11% 4.147 cm 3.2. 37 years 2.2.Rs. 5.2. 47 years 5. decreases by 4% 5.4. the new price must be increased by 1.2.4. Fifth Part 21-25: 2.Rs.1.4. The price of sugar per kilogram before reduction is 1. The entry ticket to a trade fair was increased by 20%.

His first failure did not…… him from making another attempt. since his son joined service. (a) river (b) garden (c) path (d) machine 2. (a) gone (b) disappeared (c) faded (d) paled 3. No one will ……….between the Election Commission and the Union Government is related to the powers of the former in respect of the deployment of central police forces at places where an election isheld. (a) conflict (b) pain (c) irritant (d) culprit 4... (a) exclaim . (a) lifted (b) increased (c) risen (d) heightened 6. you for having been rude to your teacher. away. The bright colour of this shirt has………. (a) instructed (b) advised (c) promised (d) assured 7. (a) interfere (b) forbid (c) frighten (d) deter 8. The passengers were afraid but the captain ……. One major ………. of life oiled and running smoothly.SAIL English paper for MT Exam Fill in the Blanks with appropriate Words 1.Even a ………glance will reveal the mystery (a)crude (b)cursory (c) critical (d) curious 5.them that there was no danger. His standard of living has……. ‘Please’ and ‘Thank you’ are the little courtesies by which we keep the…….

(a) banned (b) prohibited (c) prescribed (d) proscribed 10.The doctor ……. (a) smallest (b)finest (c) faintest (d) feeblest 12. the patient from taking certain medicines.I have often ………why he went to live abroad..I …….The news of the secret deal soon despite official silence. (a) discovered (b) disclosed (c)leaked out (d) divulged 14. (a) think (b)regard (c) consider (d) agree 11. or a higher respect for it. (a) puzzled (b) wondered (c) thought (d) surprised .(b) admire (c) advise (d) recommend 9. idea of villager’s problems. No man had a more ……….a car to be absolutely necessary these days. He didn’t have the……….love for literature.. than Samuel Johnson. (a) verbatim (b)verbal (c) literal (d) literary 13.. This is a………… translation of the speech.. (a)arduous (b) ardent (c) animated (d) adroit 15.

To nobody else did the story seem ……… (a) contingent (b) credible (c) credulous (d) creditable 18.16. (a) piece (b) length (c) stretch (d) section 17. (a) dykes (b) barrages (c) barricades (d) barracks 20. the children gleefully…….the findings of the Commission.Anticipating renewed rioting.. the books they had been reading.He lives near ……………a lonely of countryside.When their examinations were over. (a) objected (b) questioned (c)rejected (d) disputed 19. The transfer of territories could not take place because one state ……………. the authorities erected ……………. (a) despised (b) neglected (c) shelve (d)overthrow Answers 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 D C A B C D D .to block off the streets.

2. 2. The Nanda Dynasty The Maurya Dynasty The Kanva Dynasty The Sunga Dynasty 90. Which one of the following dynasties was ruling the time of Alexander‘s invasion? 1. Lord Cornwallis . 4. Aristotle Rosseau Plato Laski 89. 3. 3. Who said.‖ 1. Who was the last Guru of the Sikhs? 1. The Census was introduced for the first time in India during the tenure of 1. Bhavbhuti Vishnu Sharma Kalidasa Shri Harsha 87. 3. 3. 3. ―Man is a social animal. 2. Guru Govind Singh Guru Tegh Bahadur Guru Nanak Dev Guru Harkishan 88. 2. 4. 4. Who wrote Panchtantra? 1.8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 B B c c c c b b c b d c b SECTION –II GENERAL AWARENESS 85. 4. Samveda Yaju veda Atharva veda Rig veda 86. 4. 2. Which of the following Vedas is the oldest? 1.

2. Andhra Pradesh Karnataka Kerala Tamil Nadu 95. Soil Molten Rock Water . Ganges Narmada Mandavi Mahanadi 96. The weight of an object will be minimum when it is placed at: 1. 1. 2. 3. 4. Nagaland Mizoram Meghalaya Manipur 94. 2. which one of the following states recorded the lowest growth rates of population during the period of 1991 to 2001. The North Pole The South Pole The Equator The Center of the Earth 97. 3. 2. 3. Which among the following is the smallest state area-wise? 1. 4. 4. As per Census 2001. Pingly Venkaiyya Vallabh Bhai Patel B. 3. 2. Who designed the National Flag of India? 1. 4. 2. 2. Cambodia Thailand Vietnam Laos 98. Ambedkar Aurobindo Ghosh 92. 4. From which of the following state does the Tropic of cancer not pass? 1. Lord William Bentinck Lord Rippon Lord Clive 91. 4. 3. Earthquake travels fastest in1. Rajasthan Jharkhand Tripura Manipur 93. Which of the following rivers does not form a delta? 1.2. Which one of the following is a land-locked country? 1. 4.R. 4. 3. 3. 3. 2. 3.

Centre-State financial distribution takes place following the recommendations made by the 1. Development means economic growth plus – 1. 2. 2. 2. 3. 4. 3. 3. 4. To who is the Council of Ministers collectively responsible? 1. 4. 3. Which of the following ports of India has a free trade zone? 1. 4. 4. The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of: 1. 3. 2. Dual pricing implies – 1. Commodities are available at competitive rates Demand exceeds supply Supply exceeds demand Supply and demand are equal 104. 3. 3. The President of India The Speaker of Lok Sabha The Chairman of Rajya Sabha The Prime Minister 100. Inter-State Council Finance Commission Planning Commission Parliament 103. 2. Wholesale price and Retail price Pricing of agents and Pricing of retailer Price fixed by Government and Price in the open market Daily prices and Weekly prices . Joint sitting of both the houses of Indian Parliament is presided over by 1. Inflation Deflation Price Stability Social change 105. 2. 3. 4. Flexible Rock 99. 4. 2. The President The Prime Minister The Lok Sabha The Rajya Sabha 101.4. Sellers market denotes a situation where – 1. 4. 2. only the elected members of both Houses of Parliament only Rajya Sabha members all members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies all members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha 102. Cochin Mumbai Kandla Diu 106.

2. Tip Back Sides Middle 115. The instrument that measures and record the purity of milk is called: 1. The Principle on which a Jet Engine is base is: 1. 4. Wrestling Hockey Water Polo Football 108. Galvanised Iron sheets have a coating of – 1. Theory of Angular Momentum Newton‘s third Law Theory of Friction Theory of Kinetic Energy 110. 3. 4. At which part of the tongue are the taste buds for sweet taste located? 1. Australian Open French Open Wimbledon U. 2. 4. ‗Sudden Death‘ rule is associated with: 1. The different colours of different stars are due to the variations in 1. Stem cuttings are commonly used for re-growing – . 4.S. 3. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through 1. 2. 4. 3. 3. 2. 3. Tin Lead Zinc Chromium 109. 2. 2. glass vacuum air water 112. 4. 2. 3. open 113. 2. Which of the following tennis tournaments is played on Clay court? 1. 4. Hydrometer Hygrometer Lactometer Barometer 114.107. 3. 3. temperature pressure density radiation from them 111. 4.

pray deliver request mumble 1. Which one of the following human nutrients plays an important role in the coagulation of blood? 1. RESILIENT 123. the word which is opposite in meaning to the word given on the top is: 120. 2. ENUNCIATE 122. 3. Which of the following cell organelles is the site for Protein synthesis? o o o o Ribosome Mitochondria Chloroplast Golgi Complex VERBAL ABILTY In questions 120-123. 4. 2. Which of the following is known as first line defense for the body? 1. SPURIOUS 1. 4. Fertilisation takes place inside the test tube Development of the baby takes place inside the test tube Fertilization takes place outside the mother‘s body Unfertilized egg develops inside the test tube 119. pungent worthy unyielding insolent 1. Calcium Iron Potassium Sodium 117. 4. 2. The social learning acquired through upbringing often needs to the extended because it does not provided for the national need in many countries for trained personnel like clerical workers technician. 4. explore obstruct prompt disburse 121. civil servants . 3. 4. 2. 3. 2. 3. 4.1. 2. 4. 2. 3. 3. EXPEDITE Instructions for Questions 124-128: Read the following passage and answer the questions after it. Cotton Banana Jute Sugar Cane 116. 2. In the case of a test tube baby 1. 3. Antibodies WBC Nails Skin 118. Differentiation of the two kinds of socialization is to some extent explained by reference to the complex manpower requirements of the modern state. 3. genuine angry glorious antique 1. 4.

matter 3. ―But the philosopher was apt to reduce it usually to ……‘. some of them…. acquiring power in a complex process 4. availed through complex manpower requirements 4. integrate with his community 128. The modern would be materialist. define his role in his social group 4. What we can really say on the basis of Physics itself is that what we have hitherto called out body is really as elaborate scientific construction. In Short. The physicists disagree as matter in motion which in motion which used to seem so unquestionable turns out to be a concept quite inadequate for the needs of physics. man requires complex powers 2. defining individual‘s role in a small social group 2. out of which both can spring. A plain man thinks that material objects exist because1.. on the other hand provides for the individual‘s role in society as a whole and enables him to identify himself as a citizen of the state. a large social environment 4. identifying oneself with one‘s family 3. they are real in his through process 3. not corresponding to any physical reality. The former. take one specialized employment 2. Physicist‘s assure us that there is no such thing as matter and psychologists assure us that there is no such thing as mind. and to oversimplify. Nowadays the fine old simplicities are lost. To begin with the latter some of them attempt to reduce everything that seems to the mental activity to an activity of the body. Which of the following is NOT possible through primary socialization? 1. In the sentence ―To begin with the latter. identify oneself with one‘s family 3. Complex manpower requirements means – 1. The common man however thinks that material objects must certainly exist since they are evident to the senses. 124. thus finds himself in a curious conceptual dilemma. we might say. whereas the second provides opportunity and the possibility of social mobility. The opportunity to go up in one‘s profession and society is: 1. availed by identifying oneself with one‘s state 127. derived form secondary socialization 3. Evidently we have to look for something that is neither body nor mind. he can perceive them . This is an unprecedented occurrence. power of man is required to be complex Instructions for questions 129-133: Read the following passage and answer the questions after it. identifying oneself as a citizen of the state 4.‖ latter refers to : 1. In this respect secondary socialization can be regarded as complementary to primary socialization. Thus we might argue that primary socialization defined the individual‘s role in a small social group and enables him to identify himself as a member of his family and his local community. 129. provides the individual with skills which allow him to take on specialist employment and to have a role in a larger social environment. The modern state very much requires: 1. whereas the latter allows him to be integrated into the particular social group into which he is born. physicists 2. specialist manpower 126. psychologists 4. Secondary socialization is important in one‘s life because it helps one to: 1. certain electrons and protons form them 4.and so on. mind 130. we might say that the first kind of socialization provides a sense of security and social interaction. There are however various difficulties in the way of reducing mental activity to physical activity. derived from one‘s upbringing 2. Secondary socialization. Here ‗it‘ refers to : o his analysis of man o the human body o the mind of the man o idea in the mind 131. integrating into the local community 125. primary socialization of its citizens 2. many unskilled workers 3. highly trained personnel are required 3. they constitute the metaphysics 2.

People try to avoid tax by setting up a cover to donate money to charity. Mind and Soul do not exist as an entity In questions 134-138. the opening of the novel is by far its best part 1. sociable showy gourmet talkative 1. 4. 2. Metaphysical division of events 3. believe that mental activities get manifested in abnormal physical activities 2. 2. reaction resistance repetition repulsion 1. Psychologists mentioned in the passage– 1. She pushed through the crowd saying that she was a doctor. 139. do not accept the distinction between body and soul 4. The discovery of equally important mind and matter 4. support the physicist‘s perception of a body 133. 1. SYCOPHANT In questions 139-143. try to equate mental activity to physical activity 3. COVER 1. The manufacturers are really pushing this new shampoo. FLASH 142. 2. ATROCITY 1. GARRULOUS 137. The problem came to a successful issue. The light was so bright that I had to cover my eyes. 3. 140. Which of the following does the modern science support according to the passage? 1. the key word is used in four different ways. 3. ISSUE . enthusiasm bravery cleverness excitement 1. 2. 3. Did you see the cover of the college magazine this year? We took cover from the rain in a bus shelter. 4. then word which is nearest in meaning to the word given on the top is: 134. 4. A strange through flashed through her mind. 1. 3. 4. 2. Mind the matter are necessary to organize events 2. Camera bulbs flashed as the Prime Minister appeared on the podium. The audience could hardly hear the opening remarks. The films opening night was a huge success. OPENING 143. 2. 3. 3. The news on Tsunami flashed around the world within minutes. I like to get out in the opening air on weekends. 4. We should be able to move this table if we push it together. RESPERCUSSION 138. 4. 4. 2. fun-loving self-controlled benevolent flatterer 135. 4. Choose the options in which the usage of the word is NOT correct. endurance hatred brutality aversion 1.132. 2. Violence flashed in many areas of the town last night. 1. 4. PUSH 141. 2. 3. 3. FORTITUDE 136. He has difficulty pushing his feelings into words. 3.

C is also opened. 1.accentuate 148. quite such enormous an impact like inventing 4.000 o Rs. First A and B are opened. fashionable clichés is the one 3. How much did he invest at the rate of 10%? o Rs.camouflage 3. 1.mask 2. fashionable of the clichés is the one 2. 40. the tank will be full. His total income after a year was Rs. the gain would have been 3/4th of the former loss. quite such an enormous impact like invention 145. 70 o Rs. Of the many technological advances that took place during the 19th Century none was to have _____________ of the steam engine. Had it been sold for Rs. A number of journalist and cameramen were ______ questioned by the police when they went to cover the ___________ drive of the state government. 50. 1. for as each new chemical pesticides is introduced. 144. wantonly. deliberately….... a sentence with two blanks is given.. 12.. 4. and very often pomp and ceremony serve to _________ sharp differences. the insects gradually become __________ to it. sleep disturbance among children are more common 4. One of the most ___________ which holds that America is a highly materialistic nation. each statement has a part missing. 81 o Rs. There were problems of property as he died without any issue. important. ____________who watch a great deal of television and also among children. 81.000 o Rs.000 . 147. quite such enormous impact as inventing 2. loud…. select the words of which best completes the given sentence.. Pipe C can empty the tank in 30 minutes. quite such an enormous impact as the invention 3. Quantitative Aptitude 150. fashionable of the cliché is that 146..discover 3. sharp…. Among children more common sleep disturbances are 2. 30. 6000.. 72 152.. In how much total time. In questions 144-146.…create 149. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 36 minutes and 45 minutes respectively. After 7 minutes. More common sleep disturbances among children are 3.hide 4. Vijay invested Rs. 1. 1. It is _________ to try to destroy pests completely with chemical poisons. The cost of the toy is o Rs. inadvertently…. o 36 minutes o 42 minutes o 46 minutes o 45 minutes 151. A toy was sold at a loss for Rs.install 4. Choose the best option to complete the statement..2.constitute 2. 65 o Rs. State hospitality extended to a visiting foreign dignitary is often used symbolically to convey ________ messages.. sleep disturbance are more common among children In questions 147-149. The government issued a special stamp on World Health Day. a nation which exalts the money-grubber and has a minimum of respect for things of the mind and spirit. 3. fashionable cliché is the one 4. 60. subtle…. My article appeared in the August issue of the magazine. who view television shortly before bed time. mistakenly…. From the alternative pairs.000 partly at 10% and partly at 20%.

125 o Rs. The current of a stream runs at 1 km. Two alloys A and B contain iron in the ration 7:3. x+z=7 and y+z=12. He ascends 3 metres in first minute and descends 1 metre in second minute. Kripal had Rs. Kripal. 50 o Rs. 36 160.8 kg o 8. is 20 years now. The speed of motorboat in still water is: o 6 km/hr o 7 km/hr o 8 km/hr o 8. 120 o Rs.7 kg o 18. The average age of a couple (a husband and wife) was 23 years when they were married 5 years ago. Vinay and Apoorva went for lunch to a restaurant. 100 with him. 60 o Rs. 2500 o Rs. are running in opposite directions at speeds of 40 km/hr and 32 kg/hr respectively. Two trains 121 m and 99 m long. 4000 156.hr. He again ascends 3 meters in third minute and descends 1 metre in fourth minute and so on. In how much time will he reach to top? o 36 minutes o 33 minutes o minutes o minutes 157. The average age of the husband. What is the greatest value of a positive integer ‗n‘ such that 3n is a factor of 1818? o 15 o 18 o 30 o 33 162. then the value of x+y+z=? o 12 o 2 o 5 . If x+y=5. 1500 o Rs. they end up making profits of 25% respectively. 6% per annum for the next 4 years and 8% per annum for the period beyond 6 year. 66. 200 o Rs.67 o Rs. 200 161.5 km/hr 158. They further decided to share to total expenses in the ratio of the amounts of money each carried.000 153. In what time will they completely clear each other form the moment they meet? o 7 seconds o 9 seconds o 10 seconds o 11 seconds 155. A motor boat goes 35km upstream and is back again to the starting point in 12 hours. 20. 16.2 kg 154.o Rs. while merchant B computes his profit on selling price. o 15 kg o 7. the wife and a child. what is the sum? o Rs. The amount of money which Kripal paid more than what Apporva paid is o Rs. Vinay had Rs. If merchants A computes his profit on cost price. Two merchants each sell an article for Rs. What is the present age of the child? 159. 104 and decided to give a tip of Rs. 1120. By how much is the profit made by merchant B greater than that of merchant A? o Rs. who was born during the interim period. 2000 o Rs. The rate of interest on a sum of money is 4% per annum for the first two years. 1000. If the simple interest accrued by the sum for a total period of 9 years is Rs. A soldier ascends a greased pole 36 meters high. IF 25 kg of alloy A and 25 kg of alloy B are mixed to form a new alloy which contains 35% of iron. find the amount of iron in alloy B.

The circumference of the front wheel of a cart is 30 ft long and that of the back wheel is 36 ft long. customers can choose from among five different ice cream flavors and can choose either a sugar cone or a waffle cone. On the xy-coordinate plane.1) and the (x.o 24 163. the equation of the circle circumscribing the square is : o x2+y2 = (x+y) o x2+y2 = 2(x+y) o x2+y2 = 4 o x2+y2 = 16 170. what are the (x.3) 166. If ABCD is a quadrilateral such that its diagonals AC and BC intersect at O to form four triangles equal in area . ABCD is a square. when the front wheel has done five more revolutions than the rear wheel? o 200 ft o 250 ft . -1) o o o (-1.0).y) coordinates of B are (4.y) coordinates of O are (2. If ‗a‘ is the length of the base and ‗b‘ the height of a right angled triangle hypotenuse of which is h and if the values of a and b are positive integers. which of the following cannot be a value of the square of the hypotenuse? o 13 o 23 o 37 o 41 171. Then ABCD must be a: o parallelogram o Rectangle o Square o All of the above 167. If the (x. then the area of the smaller sector POQ is : o 24 p cm2 o 21 p cm2 o 15 p cm2 o 12 p cm2 168. Taking AB and AD as axes. and the length of AB equals the circle‘s diameter. What is the remainder when 3x2–2x2y-13xy2+10y3 is divided by (x-2y)? o 0 o y o x+y o x+2y 164. At a certain ice cream parlor.3) (3. The chords AP and AQ of a circle of radius 6 cm are at a distance 3cm and respectively from the centre O of the circle. points A and B both lie on the circumference of a circle whose center is O. Considering both ice cream flavor and cone types.1) and (-1. then ordered pair (a. how many distinct triplescoop cones with three different ice cream flavors are available? o 12 o 16 o 20 o 24 165. each of side of which is 2 cm. What is the distance travelled by the cart.b) is: o (3.y) coordinates of A? o o o o 169.6). If a straight line y = ax+b passes through (2.

The are of the space enclosed by the four pieces is: o 21 cm2 o 42 cm2 o 84 cm2 o 168 cm2 173. two from Box 1 and remaining from Box 2.ÐBAC o 180o + ÐBAC o 180o .11 o 18. The angle of elevation of the top of a 30 m high tower. A spherical lead ball of radius 10 cm is melted and small lead balls of radius 5mm are made. What is the perimeter and area of the smaller rectangle? o 24 cm.96 179. The total number of possible small lead balls is: o 800 o 125 o 400 o 8000 175. What is the distance between the two points? o 30 o 51. it will travel P m before reaching the bird. 32 cm2 o 12 cm.76 174. What is the probability of getting four different colour chalks? o o .2ÐBAC o 180o + 2ÐBAC 177. 32 cm2 o 12 cm. If x = sin0+cos0 and y = sin 20.o o 750 ft 900 ft 172. The edge of square is the same as one of the edges of the smaller rectangle. In a triangle ABC. A person aims at a bird on top of a 5m high pole with the elevation of 30 degree. A rectangle. Of the two boxes. from two points on the level ground on its opposite sides are 45 degrees and 60 degrees. having a 72 cm perimeter. If a bullet is fired. The a value of P (in m) is : o o 10 o o 180. Four circular card-board pieces. the sum of the exterior angles at B and C is equal to: o 180o .21 o 19. The circumcircle of an equilateral triangle of side 6 cm is drawn.32 o 81. each of radius 7 cm are placed in such a way that each piece touches two other pieces. Find the area that is inside the circle but outside the triangle? o 22. 36 cm2 o 24 cm. 36 cm2 176. is divided into 9 congruent rectangles and two congruent squares. then which of the following is true? o x2-y=1 o x2 =1-y o y=x2+1 o y2=x+1 178.78 o 22. Four chalks are taken out.96 o 47. Box 1 contains 2 Pink and 5 White chalks while Box 2 contains 4 Blue and 3 Green chalks.

Which one of the number or letter-number clusters in the given series is wrong. a series is given with a blank shown by a question mark. 143.33. 9. M 20 P. 2. a series is given. ……. 13K10.z whose chances of solving the problem are What is the probability that the problem will be solved? and respectively.75. 24. 5. 11N13. o 54 o 60 o 66 o 72 185. A problem is given to three students x.…….y. o 33 o 47 o 75 o 101 In questions 183 to 185. 3. P 43 N.104. a number-series is given.47. o o o o In questions 182-183. 12. 7T19. J 10 R. Which one of the alternatives will ensure the sequential continuity of the series? 184. 182. Which one of the alternatives can correctly fill-in the question mark? 186. 0. 6. 3. S 90 L o G4T o J 10 R o M 20 P o P 43 N 183.. G 4 T. 14. (?). 8. 20. 221 o 63 o 77 o 90 o 56 187. 42. 9Q16. o 34 o 35 o 36 o 42 In question 186-187. 7. 6. (?) o 17 E 4 . 15. 5.19.o o 181. 15H7.

in which some letters are missing. Some wrestler are labourers. 2.45 a. Bangalore defeated Mumbai twice. 3. Some labourers are grocers. a letter series is given. Signet 2. Calf 4. Identify the correct deduction. All conclusions are correct . Which of the teams lost the largest number of matches? o Mumbai o Hyderabad o Bangalore o Kolkata 194.m. Find the correct alternative. In a certain code ‗MANISH‘ is written as 415918. All grocers are wrestlers Some wrestlers are grocers. The missing letters are given in the proper sequence as one of the alternatives. 4. Conclusions: 1. 1.m. aa _ ab _ aaa _ a o aaab o aabb o abab o baaa 189. The arrangement of letters of which of the given clusters is different from the rest? o GTSH o BYXC o ETUF o LONM 191. mnonopqopqrs _ _ _ _ _ _ o mnopq o oqrst o pqrst o qrstu 190. 195. 3. A bus for Bombay leaves after every forty minutes from a bus stand.m. If in an cricket season. At what time did the enquiry clerk give this information to the passenger? 1. 10:05 a. Statements: All labourers are wrestlers.m. a ‗Camel‘ is to: 1. Mumbai defeated Kolkata twice and Bangalore defeated Kolkata twice. An enquiry clerk told a passenger that the bus had already left ten minutes ago and the next bus will leave at 10. Hyderabad defeated Bangalore twice. How will ‗PRASHANT‘ be written in the same code? o 79181152 o 79181125 o 79118125 o 79118152 193.m. 9:55 a. The arrangement of letters of which of the given clusters is different from the rest? o BD o CI o EY o AC 192. 188. 4. Stag 3.o o o 18 F 5 17 E 3 18 D 4 In questions 188-189. 2. Foal 196. As a ‗Lion‘ is to ‗Cub‘. All grocers are labourers. 10:35 a. Mumbai defeated Hyderabad twice. 10:15 a.

c. 1. 3.d given below it would continue the series 1-2-3-4-5. 3. All sweets are chocolates. 3.2. 2. In the question.2. Only conclusion 1 is correct 2. . 3. 1. Which among the figures marked a. 4.b. 4. 5. Identify the correct deduction. 2.4 and 5 are given on the top. No chocolate is sweet. All sweets are fruits. 2. 4. 1. 4. All conclusions are correct 3. Only 1 and 4 conclusions are correct Only 4 conclusion is correct Only 2 and 3 conclusions are correct 197. Conclusions: 1. Only conclusion 2 and 3 are correct 4.3. five figures marked 1. All fruits are chocolates Some chocolates are sweets. Statements: All fruits are sweets. Only conclusion 3 and 4 are correct 198.

c. Which figure from among the figures marked a. 3. o o o o Answer the Question: 1.3. 3. .d given below them would accurately fill-in the place marked with the questions mark.4 and 5 continuous a continuous series with a gap marked (?) are given. 199. 4.In each of the questions 199 to 200.b. 5. 2. five figures marked 1.2. 2. Answer the Question: 1.

3. 3. 2. b. . 4. 4. and d would accurately complete the given figure? 1. c. Which of the figures marked as a. 2. 5. In each of the questions 201 to 203. 1.4. the figure marked as X is incomplete.

Which (from among the given four figures given on the right hand side marked as abcd) will this figure take if its is folded along the dotted lines. 3. 2.1. . a figure drawn on a transparent paper is given on the left hand side. In each of the questions 204 to 206. 4. 4. 1. 3. 2.

4. 3.1. 2. 1. 3. 4. . 2.

3. From among the given figures a. 207. 2. . would establish the same relationship. 4. 1. 2. figure 1 and 2 as also 3 and 4 (?) have a certain relationship. when placed at the position of the question mark. b. c and d which one. 3. 1.In each of the questions 207 to 209.

2. 209. 2. 3. 4. 3. 208. 1. . 4. 1. 1.4.

1 joule is equal to .2. 4. 1. Mechanical-Engineering MT 2009 A definite area or space where some thermodynamic process takes place is known as A thermodynamic system B thermodynamic cycle C thermodynamic process D thermodynamic law 2. 2. 3. 3. Which of the following is an intensive property of a thermodynamic system? A volume B Temperature C mass D energy 3. 4. The unit of energy in SI units is A joule B joule metre C watt D joule/metre 5. Temperature at which the volume of the gas becomes 0 is called A absolute scale of temperature B absolute 0 temperature C absolute temperature D none of these 4.

I engines increases with A decrease of compression ratio B increase of compression ratio C increasing the temperature of inlet air D increasing cooling water temperature 18 The air standard otto cycle comprises A two constant pressure processes and two constant volume processes B two constant pressure and two constant entropy processes C two constant volume processes and two constant entropy processes D none of the above 19 The thermal efficiency of theoretical otto cycle A increases with increase in compression ratio B increases with increase in isentropic index gamma . Compression ratio of diesel engines may have a range A 8 to 10 B 10 to 15 C 16 to 20 D none of the above 11 The thermal efficiency of good I. In a 4 stroke cycle petrol engine during suction stroke A only air is sucked in B only petrol is sucked in C mixture of petrol and air is sucked in D none of the above 9. The thermal efficiency of petrol engine as compared to diesel engine is A lower B higher C same for same power output D same for same speed 10.A 1 Nm B kNm C 10 Nm/s D 10 kNm/s 6. In an irreversible process there is a A loss of heat B no loss of heat C gain of heat D no gain of heat 7. The following is an SI engine A diesel engine B petrol engine C gas engine D none of the above 8.C engine at the rated load is in the range of A 80 to 90% B 60 to 70% C 30 to 35% D 10 to 20% 12 Carburettor is used for A SI engines B gas engines C CI engines D none of the above 13 In SI engine to develop high voltage for spark plug A battery is installed B distributor is installed C carburetor is installed D ignition coil is installed 14 In a four cylinder petrol engine the standard firing order is A 1-2-3-4 B 1-4-3-2 C 1-3-2-4 D 1-3-4-2 15 The knocking is SI engines increases with A increase in inlet air temperature B increase in compression ratio C increase in cooling water temperature D all of the above 16 Petrol commercially available in India for Indian passenger cars has octane number in the range A 40 to 50 B 60 to 70 C 80 to 85 D 95 to 100 17 The knocking tendency in C.

1.choose the lower pair A ball bearings B tooth gears in mesh C camm and follower D crank shaft and bearing 28The relation between the number of pairs forming a kinematic chain and the Number of links is A l=2p-2 B l=2p-3 C l=2P-4 D l=2p-5 29In a reciprocating engine A crankshaft and flywheel form 2 kinematic links B crankshaft and flywheel form 1 kinematics links C crankshaft and flywheel do not form kinematic links D flywheel and crankshaft separately form kinematic links 30A kinematic chain is known as a mechanism when A none of the link is fixed B one of the links is fixed C two of the links are fixed D all of the links are fixed 31 Which of the following is an inversion of single slider crank chain? A beam engine B watt‘s indicator mechanism C elliptical trammels D whitworth quick return motion mechanism 32 control volumes refer to A a fixed region in space B a specified mass C an isolated system D a closed system . ideally the compressor work and turbine work are A equal B unequal C not related to each other D unpredictable 27 Various kinematic pairs are given below. reheating after first stage A increases work ratio B decreases work ratio C does not affect work ratio D none of the above 26For a jet propulsion unit . C does not depend upon the pressure ratio D follows of the above 20 Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine plant has compared to diesel engine plant is A higher B lower C same D may be higher or lower 21 Mechanical efficiency of a gas turbine as compared to internal combustion Reciprocating engine is A higher B lower C same D unpredictable 22 For a gas turbine the pressure ratio may be in the range A 2 to 3 B 3 to 5 C 16 to 18 D 18 to 22 23 Thermal efficiency of a closed cycle gas turbine plant increases by A reheating B intercooling C regenerator D all of the above 24With the increase in pressure ratio thermal efficiency of a simple gas turbine Plant with fixed turbine inlet temperature A decreases B increases C first increases and then decreases D first decreases and then increases 25In two stage turbine plant.

6 Nm (b) 20 Nm (c) 40 Nm (d) 60 Nm 38.Poisson‘s ratio (v) the ratio of Young‘s Modulus (E) to Shear Modulus (G) of elastic materials is ? (a)2(1 + v) (b) 2(1 — v) (c)(1 + v)/2 (d)(1 — v)/2 37. The torque transmitted by the gear is (a) 6. The pinion rotates at 1200 rpm and transmits a torque of 2O N.33An isentropic process is always A irreversible and adiabatic B reversible and isothermal C friction less and irreversible D reversible and adiabatic 34Work done in a free expansion process is A0 B minimum C maximum D positive 35. m. The magnitudes of normal stresses in the x and y direction are 100 MPa and 20 MPa respectively.In terms of. The member LN of the truss is subjected to a load of? (a) 0 Newton (b)490 Newtons in compression (c)981 Newtons in compression (d) 981 Newtons in tension 36. Two mating spur gears have 40 and 120 teeth respectively. The figure shows the state of stress at a certain point in a stressed body. The radius of Mohr‘s stress circle representing this state of stress is .The figure shows a pin-jointed plane truss loaded at the point M by hanging a mass of 100 kg.

5 (c)1. The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic nearly at (a)10 3 cycles (b) 10 4 cycles .5 rad (b) 1.0 (d)Infinity 40.For a mechanism shown below. A torque of 10 Nm is transmitted through a stepped shaft as shown in figure.5. NO and OP are 20 Nm/rad 30 Nm/rad and 60 Nm respectively. The torsional stiffnesses of individual sections of lengths MN. 43.0 rad 42. If the ratio of excitation frequency of vibration of machine to the natural frequency of the isolation system is equal to 0. The angular deflection between the ends M and P of the shaft is? (a) 0. the mechanical advantage for the given configuration is? (a)0 (b) 0. the transmissibility of ratio of isolation is (a)1/2 (b)3/4 (c)4/3 (d)2 41.0 rad (d) 10.A vibrating machine is isolated from the floor using springs.0 rad (c) 5.(a)120 (b)80 (c)60 (d)40 39.

Environment friendly refrigerant R134a is used in the new generation domestic refrigerators. In the window air conditioner.651 x 10 -3 (b) 0.51 (d) 0.5 rn/s while the bottom one is held stationary. the work required for compression being 5000 kJ.An incompressible fluid (kinematic viscosity. Its chemical formula is ? (a)CH ClF2 (b) C2 Cl 3F3 (c)C2 Cl 2F4 (d) C2 H2F4 48.The compression ratio of a gas power plant cycle corresponding to maximum work output for the given temperature limits of Tmin and Tmax will be . the expansion device used is (a)capillary tube (b) thermostatic expansion valve (c)automatic expansion valve (d) float valve 45. (a)x—2y=0 (b) 2x+y=0 (c)2x—y=0 (d) x+2y=0 49.(c)10 6 cycles (d) 10 9 cycles 44.651 (c)6. If the top. the shear stress in Pascals on the surface of top plate is ? (a)0. specific gravity.plate is moved with a velocity of 0. heat interaction of 2000 kJ causes the surroundings to the heated. During the process. During chemical de-humidification process of air (a) dry bulb temperature and specific humidity decrease (b) dry bulb temperature increases and specific humidity decreases (c) dry bulb temperature decreases and specific humidity increases (d) dry bulb temperature and specific humidity increase 46.651 x 103 47. the fluid attains a linear velocity profile in the gap of 0.4 x 10-7 m2 /s.88) is held between two parallel plates. The change in internal energy of the gas during the process is (a)—7000kJ (b) —3000kJ (c)+ 3000 kJ (d) + 7000 kJ 50. 7. A gas contained in a cylinder is compressed.5 mm between these plates. 0.

2. Assuming. the forecast sales for January 2003 would be ? (a)21 (b)23 (c)24 (d) 27 56. The mechanism of material removal in EDM process is (a) Melting and Evaporation (b) Melting and Corrosion (c) Erosion and Cavitation (d) Cavitation and Evaporation 53. Link 2 rotates at a constant speed of 120 rpm.75 percent (b) 1. (a) circular Interpolation — clockwise (b) circular Interpolation — counterclockwise (c) linear Interpolation (d) rapid feed 52.2 second. If the exponential smoothing constant (a) is taken as 0. Misrun is a casting defect which occurs due to (a) very high pouring temperature of the metal (b) insufficient fluidity of the molten metal (c) absorption of gases by the liquid metal (d) improper alignment of the mould flasks 57. Two 1 mm thick steel sheets are to be spot welded at a current of 5000 A.25 to 1. In PERT analysis a critical activity has (a)maximum Float (b) zero Float (c)maximum Cost (d) minimum Cost 55.2 Joule (b) 1 Joule (c)5 Joule (d) 1000 Joules 54. effective resistance to be 200 micro-ohms and current flow time of 0. For a product.25 to 0.51. heat generated during the process will be (a)0. (a)10 microns (b) 20 microns (c)30 microns (d) 60 microns 51. the forecast and the actual sales for December 2002 were 25 and 20 respectively. The magnitude of Coriolis component of aceeleration of link 1 is (a)302 m/s2 .75 percent (c)3 to 4 percent (d) 8 to 10 percent 58.In the figure shown. The percentage of carbon in gray cast iron is in the range of (a)0. the relative velocity of link1 with respect to link 2 is 12 m/sec.

But Keep time factor in mind and increase your speed.(b)604 m/s2 (c)906 m/s2 (d) 1208 m/s2 59.A uniform stiff rod of length 200 mm and having a weight of 300 N is pivoted at one end and connected to a spring at the other end. If the bolt used has metric threads of 4 mm pitch.0 Nm (c)1. the torque required for achieving the tightening force is? (a)0.4 Nm (d) 2. There are 120 questions like this!! English: --.Fill in the blanks with appropriate words(5 questions) --.8 Nm BHEL Previous Paper 240 questions. (Quantitative Aptitude. The instant center 24 for the given configuration is located at a position ? (a) L (b) M (c) N (d)Infinity 60.Two reading comprehensions were given(10 questions) --. Reasoning Ability. In a bolted joint two members are connected with an axial tightening force of 2200 N. Logical thinking. English usage) The questions were mainly asked in Thermodynamics Engineering Mechanics Theory of machines Production tech General Apptitude: All the sections were very easy. Basic knowledge is sufficient to attend all the questions.Detect the words with wrong spellings (5 questions) --. For keeping the rod vertical in a stable position the minimum value of spring constant K needed is ? (a) 300 N/m (b) 400 N/m (c) 500 N/m (d) 1000 N/m 61.General Apptitude questions.Find the error in the sentence (8 questions) Reasoning: .Technical questions in Mechanical Engineering 120. 120. The figure below shows a planar mechanism with single degree of freedom.7Nm (b)1.

(cupola process) 11)What percentage of carbon is preset in pig iron. What is the resistance force given by sand. But as there is a total 120 questions you have to be really quick. (1. 3)Ratio of specific heats of air.5 kg. 5)Two cars travell in same direction at 40 km/hr at a regular distance. --. 1/5th for wrong answer. Five choices were given] 1)Unit of Entropy (J/kg K or kJ/kg K) 2)A mass of 100kg is falling from a height of 1 m and penetrates the sand into for 1 m.I=1000/250=4 amps. Therefore R=250/4=62.Remaining were very general and easy. V=IR. It meets each car in a gap of 8 seconds. p=98100N/m2) 13)What will happen if the speed of the centrifugal pump doubles. What is the specific gravity of the liquid.41) 4)A body weighs 3 kg in air. Current=Power/Voltage.5 ohms) 17)Why DC current is not used in transformer. What is the distance between them? 6)A simple problem involing in hoops stress. 18)On what principle the sonar/ radar works? 19)Bending moment diagram for the UDL is in what shape? 20)Function of the distributor in petrol vehicles? (Spark timing) 21)Which is not present in CI engines? (carburrettor) 22)What will happen if one cylinder recieves more amount of fuel spray from injectors than other injectors? 23)Purpose of draft tube in hydraulic turbines? (The purpose of a draft tube is toconvert some of the kinetic energy of the flow from the runner (the rotating part of the turbine) intopressure energy and thereby increase the efficiency ofthe hydro power turbine.) . For sphere: M= [3/2]*p*V*[density of pressure vessel material/Maximum working stress it can tolerate] For Thin walled pressure walls: Hoops stress or stress in the radial direction =p*r/2t 7)A problem in force calculation in a body moving in a inclined surface. p=1000*9. 8)Composition of bronze.--.(iron+chromium+nickel+carbon) 10)CI is manifactured in which process. If it is submerged in a liquid. (4. What is the resistance in the device? (Power= Voltage*current. [One Mark for correct answer. Current. (Copper+zinc) 9)Compostion of stainless steel.81*10.Find the relation between them Quantitative ability: All the questions were very easy. it weighs 2.50% of the questions are from basic geometry.5 to 6%) 12)Water is available at 10m height. when the diameter of the conductor is doubled? 16)The power comsumed by a electrical device is 1000W at 250V. 14)The unit eV is widely used in ? (Nuclear and atomic physics) 15)What will happen to the resistance. --. What is the pressure available? (pressure=density*g*height. A car comes in a opposite direction in 60km/hr.Seating arrangement problems --.

I. the tubes at the back of the refrigerator are: a) evaporator b) condenser c) capillary tubes d)……… 16. The unit of entropy is = J/kg 0K 7. 27)Which is the example of non parallel power transmission (Universal coupling) 28)For perpendicular shafts worm gear is used. = 6500K 4.6mm 11. = indication of amount of moisture in air 18. A perfect gas at 270C is heated at constant pressure till its volume is double. dry bulb temperature lines are. A distributor in spark ignition engines performs the function of : = Providing the correct firing order in engine 12. Both are connected using a arm.41 2. For both to do equal work. Work done in compressing 1kg of gas adiabatically from p1. Which of the following does not relate to C. then for that cylinder the: a) exhaust will be smoky b) piston rings would stick into piston grooves c) exhaust temperature will be high d) engine starts overheating e) all of the above. EDM) BHEL PLACEMENT PAPER . Break even analysis. Internal energy of a substance depends on = Temperature 5. Which of the following is not an internal combustion engine : a) 2 stroke petrol engine b) 4 stroke petrol engine c) Diesel engine d) steam engine e) Gas turbine. The spark plug gap is normally maintained at: = 0.? 15.T1 to p2. The final temperature is = 3270C 3. = 1. What is the value of Prandtl No. engine:: a) fuel pump b) fuel injector c) governor d) carburetor e) flywheel = (d) 13. Wet bulb temperature is. Process planning.45 to 0.V1. 32) 5 questions were asked in PERT. T2 is equal to = Cv(T2-T1) 6.24)What is the effect or reheater in the gas turbine? (The advantage of reheater is significantly increased thrust. On psychometric chart. Product planning. value of T2 will be. Which refrigerants has the highest critical point temperature. The ratio of two specific heats of air is equal to. = Freon-11 17. = Vertical . 26)Factor of safety = Yeild stress/Working stress.11 FEB 2007 . If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the others. = (e) 10. 29)A planet gear with 25 teeth is meshed with a sun gear of 100 teeth. 33)How are tungsten and sintered composite materials are machined? (Electro Discharge Machining. V2. An engine operates between temperature of 9000K and T2 and another engine between T2 and 8000K. Indicated power of a 4-stroke engine is equal to = pLAN/2 8. In domestic refrigerator. the disadvantage is it has very high fuel consumption and inefficiency) 25)Problems involving with fricition coefficient. = (d) 9. How many rotations are needed for planet gear to complete one rotation around the sun gear? 30)What is equivalent spring constant for spring in parallel? 31) Some questions was asked related to boundry layer and vortex flow.NEW DELHI 1. Air fuel ratio in a jet engine is = 60:1 14.

=3000kg. Two identical leaf springs of spring constant k are arranged like cantilevers in parallel and attached at free end by a spring of spring constant k. 42.p. The tension in the supporting cables will be = 1200kg. 43. Flow-1200l. =Cvv2gH 24. of a circular area about an axis perpendicular to the area is: = pr4/2 30. A 13m ladder is placed against a smooth vertical wall with its lower end 5m from the wall. An elevator weighing 1000kg attains an upward velocity of 4m/sec in two seconds with uniform acceleration. Its specific gravity is. A beam of length l. 39. =450 31. To transmit power from one rotation shaft to another whose axes are neither parallel nor intersecting.p. = 6 25.m. In a free vortex motion: = each particle moves in a circular path with a speed varying inversely as the distance from the center.I.: = 1800l. 34. If its speed is increased to 1500rpm. 36. = newtons/m 20. 41.5MN/m2. 10m of water column is equal to = 100kN/m2 29.5k.m 27. For a submerged body to be in stable equilibrium. = 0. Power-5H. A is turning at 250rpm and B at 300rpm. 45. A projectile is fired at an angle ? to the vertical. .: = B 38. = Centroid of the displaced volume of fluid 21. use: = Spiral gear. Runaway speed of a hydraulic turbine is: = the speed if the turbine runner is allowed to revolve freely without load and with the wicket gates wide open. the centre lines of both gears being joined by an arm. Its horizontal range will be maximum when ? is .5cm is subjected to internal pressure of 1. the center of gravity should be. = 1. = Universal coupling. M. A centrifugal pump has speed-1000rpm. The moments at mid span will be: = wl2/8. = 100N/m2 37. A car is moving with a velocity of 60km/hr and possesses energy of 5x105 joules. new flow will be. A body weighing 2kg in air weights 2. having uniform load w kg/unit length is supported freely at the ends.19. The mass of the car will be. The equivalent spring constant of combination is. Brittle coating technique is used for: = experimental stress analysis. The type of coupling used to join two shafts whose axes are neither in same straight line nor parallel. then the hoop stress will be. Surface tension has the units. 32. Which shaft must have greater diameter. If l is the span of a light suspension bridge whose each cable carries total weight (w) and the central diop is y. The actual velocity at vena contracta for flow through an orifice from a reservoir of height H=?. 40. 44. The secondary critical speed of a shaft occurs at: = twice the speed of primary critical speed. the horizontal pull at each support is: = wl/y OR 35. = 5 rev. What should be the co-efficient of friction between ladder and floor so that it remains in equilibrium. How many revolutions will be made by gear of 25 teeth for one revolution of arm. 23. Head-20m. 100KW is to be transmitted by each of two separate shafts. A boiler shell 200cm dia and plate thickness 1. Factor of safety is the ratio of: = yield stress/working stress.P. A gear having 100 teeth is fixed and another gear having 25 teeth revolves around it. 26. 28. Automobile steering gear is an example of: = lower pair. A pressure of 25m of head of water is equal to. =245kN/m2 22.21 33. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the. =Below the center of buoyancy.5kg when submerged in water. but intersect is.

What is the purpose of draft tube in hydraulic turbines: = to convert the kinetic energy into pressure energy. Sintered and tungsten carbides can be machined by: = EDM 51. on a PERT/CPM chart represents: = a significant event representing some mile-stone 57. A mass of 100kg is falling from a height of 1m and penetrates the sand to 1m. In break-even analysis. A car comes in the opposite direction at 60km/hr. Bar charts are suitable for: = minor works. PERT is: = event oriented technique 55. What is the distance between the two cars? . 53.46. What kind of abrasive cut off wheel should be used to cut concrete. Reheating in gas turbine results in: = increase of work ratio and decrease of thermal efficiency. 62. stone and masonry? =Diamond grit. It meets each car in a gap of 8 seconds. Type of gear used for non-intersection perpendicular shafts: = Hypoid gears. Why DC current is not used in transformer? 61. 54. Seamless tubes are made by? 59. 58. total cost consists of: = Fixed cost + Variable cost. Electron volt is the unit of : = Energy. Two cars travel in the same direction at 40km/hr at a regular distance. The amount deducted from the salary of workers towards employees provident fund is : =deposited in the account of worker with Provident Fund Commissioner. Brinell tester uses a hardness steel ball of size: = 10mm 50. 52. 56. The product of Cupola is called: = cast iron 49. what is the resistance force of the sand? 63. 47. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by adding: = Chromium & Nickel 48. 60.