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Process Space Questions

1. Which among below are the focus areas under operations maturity?
(a) Metrics culture
(b) Strong interface with COE and PE
(c) Process definition, Implementation and Compliance
(d) Recording customer complaints
(e) Conducting meetings
Answer: a b and c
2. Which are the 3phases in the transition framework?
(a) Planning
(b) Knowledge transfer
(c) Pilot and guided support
(d) Service operations
(e) Business relationship management
Answer: a b and c
3. Which tool(s) is used for recording the audit findings?
(a) Prolite
(b) Qsmart
(c) Wiki
(d) Remedy
Answer : B
4. Which function administers the six monthly IT IS business CSAT process?
(a) Operations maturity
(b) DAG
(c) HR
(d) Finance

Answer : A

5. Objective of this phase is to ensure Proposal terms and conditions are clearly
understood by the delivery team and corresponding statement of work is agreed
upon by all stakeholders. Which phase is this?
(a) Proposal
(b) Transition
(c) Formalization and Due diligence
(d) Service delivery
Answer: C

6. Objective of this phase is to ensure effective transfer of all the information and
knowledge required from customer vendor to run offshore services independently
by Cognizant Team. Which phase is this?
(a) Service operations
(b) Transition
(C) Formalization and Due diligence
(d) Service delivery
Answer: B
7. Cognizant Team starts handling tickets and circulates daily dashboard in which
phase of transition?
(a) Planning
(b) Pilot and guided support
(c) Knowledge transfer
(d) None of above
Answer: B
8. Which of the following statements is true for a service management plan (SMP)?
(a) Once approved the SMP is not revised.
(b) SMP requires a review whenever there are major changes.
(c) It is necessary to update the Change Log on subsequent reviews and
approvals of SMP

(d) None of above

Answer: B and C

9. What is the frequency of the steady state phase Project management review
(PMR) for large engagements?
(a) Weekly
(b) Fortnightly
(c) Monthly
(d) Quarterly
Answer : C

10. The service capability of each engagement is evaluated and tracked using
(a) Six Sigma score
(b) CSAT score
(c) Delivery maturity index
(d) Compliant register
Answer : C

11. Why is it important to daily measure the SLA/KPI performance and publish daily
dashboard?
(a) OM Quality person requires it
(b) Daily measurement triggers real-time corrective actions
(c) Because it needs to be considered for daily practice level SEA compliance
score
(d) None of above

Answer : B and C
12. To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimizethe
adverse impact on business operations is the objective of which ITIL process?

(a) Request fulfillment


(b) Release management
(C) Capacity management
(d) Incident management
Answer : D

13. Which among the following is not an exit criterion for the Pilotand guided
support phase?
(a) Availability of signed off run books or technical SOPs
(b) Daily dash board implemented
(C) KT execution as per plan.
(d) Process documents reviewed and signed off

Answer : C

14 . Which of the following is not an objective of problem management?


(a) Minimize the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented
(b) Preventing problems and resulting incidents
(c) Eliminating recurring incidents
(d) Restoring normal service operations as quickly as possible and minimize
the adverse impact on
Answer: D

15. What is best description of a known error?


(a) Incident with causal analysis done
(b) A problem that has a documented root cause and a work around.
(c) Service request which has not been completed but scheduled
(d) Knowledge base with errors

Answer: B

16. The four stages of the Deming cycle are?


(a) Plan-Measure Monitor-Report
(b) Plan-check-React-Implement
(c) Plan-Do-Act-Audit
(d) Plan-Do-Check-Act

Answer: D

17.Which of the following is the correct sequence of activities for handling an


incident?
(a) Identification, logging, categorization. prioritization, Initial diagnosis,
Functional escalation, Investigation and diagnosis, Resolution and recovery,
closure.
(b) Identification, prioritization, logging. categorization, Initial diagnosis,
Functional escalation, Investigation and diagnosis, Resolution and recovery,
closure.
(c) Identification, logging. Initial diagnosis, categorization, prioritization,
Functional escalation, Investigation and diagnosis, Resolution and recovery,
closure.
(d) Identification, Investigation, logging, categorization, Functional escalation,
Prioritization, Initial diagnosis, Resolution and recovery, closure

Answer: A
18. The goal of configuration management is to?
(a) Account for all the financial assets of the organization
(b) Provide accurate information on configurations and their documentation
to support all the other Service Management processes
(c) Build service models to justify ITIL implementation

(d) Implement ITIL across the organization

Answer :B

19. Which among the following is not an aim of change management process?
(a) Minimize impact of change related incidents
(b) Standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt
handling of changes
(c) All changes are handled in a prompt manner.
(d) All budgets and expenditure are accounted for

Answer :D
20. Business, service and component based considerations are handled as a subprocess of which ITIL process?
(a) Capacity management
(b) Supplier management
(c) Incident management
(d) Change management

Answer : A

21. Determining the vital business functions and impact arising from IT component
failure is done in which ITIL process.
(a) Capacity management
(b) Supplier management
(c) Availability management
(d) Change management

Answer :C

22. Which is the team from CTS that reviews the project specific BCP requirements
and tests
the BCP at defined frequency?
(a) Operations maturity
(b) Global information security (GIS)
(c) Finance
(d)HR

Answer : B

23. An Incident occurs when:


(a) Auseris unable to access a service during service hours
(b) An authorized IT staff member is unable to access a service during service
hours
(c) A network segment fails and the user is not aware of any disruption to
service
(d) A user contacts the Service Desk about slow performance of an
application.

Answer :All the above

24. Determining vital business functions and designing greater level of resilience is
done by?
(a) Capacity management
(b) Supplier management
(c) Availability management
(d) Change management

Answer: C

25. The following is not a key activity of the IT service continuity proess?
(a) Business impact analysis
(b) Risk Assessment
(c) Testing strategy
(d) Monitoring service availability

Answer: D

26. Service level agreement is?

(a) The part of the contract that specifies responsibility of each party
(b) An agreement between service provider and an internal organization
(c) An agreement between service provider and an external organization
(d) An agreement between service provider and their customer

Answer: D
27. lmportant metric usedto actively manage and report on the process.
IT service or activity is called as?
(a) Critical success factor
(b) Key performance indicator
(c) Kano model
(d) Operational level agreement

Answer : B

28.A root cause analysis is to be done when?


(a) There are SLA breaches

(b) Customer escalations


(c) Customer satisfaction survey is not meeting the expectations
(d) There are non conformance reported in internal audit cycle
(e) None of above
(f) All of above

Answer : F

29 .ESA project creation is carried out in which phase?


(a) Proposal
(b) Formalization and due diligence
(c) Transition
(d) Delivery management

Answer : B

30. DMAlC are the phases of which methodology?


(a) Six Sigma
(b) SIPOC
(c) Service Transformation
(d) IT IS

Answer : A
31. The risk exposure value is a factor of which parameters listed below?
(a) Probability
(b) Impact
(C) Detectability
(d) Skills of delivery manager

(e) Customer location

Answer : B and C

32.The delivery maturity index for a project is a factor of which parameters listed
below?
(a) SLA performance
(b) Escalations
(c) Knowledge management
(d) Risk Assessment
(e) Monetary Awards from customer

Answer : a, b, c, and d

33. The technology maturity index for an engagement is assessed by which


function?
(a) Operations maturity
(b) COE (Committee of expertise)
(C) Production

engineering

(d) NSS

Answer : B

34. A formally negotiated agreement to identify expectations, clarify responsibilities


and facilitate communication between service provider and customer, to provide a
certain level of service is called as
(a) Operational level agreement
(b) Project plan
(c) Service level agreement

(d) Work Order

Answer :C

35. A document which explains the formulae details, exceptions. data source etc for
a metrics is called as
(a) SLA/KPI Operational definition document
(b) PMR
(c) Heat Map report
(d) Automation maturity index

Answer : A
36.Which report mentions the trending of DMI/AMI and TMI across verticals and
engagements?
(a) Risk and escalation report
(b) Transition status report
(c) Heat Map assessment report

Answer : C

37. Which are the mandated training(s)/certifications in IT IS practice?


(a) Qview
(b) Six Sigma yellow belt
(c) ITILCCP
(d) CSOA
(e) PMP

Answer: a,b,c

38.Which activity takes place immediately after recording and registering an


incident?
a. Analysis and diagnosis
b. Classification
c. Matching
d. Solving and restoring

Answer: B

39.Which ITIL process has the objective to monitor the IT services by maintaining a
logical model of the IT infrastructure and IT services?
a. Capacity mgt
b. Change Mgt
c. Configuration Mgt
d. Financial Mgt

Answer: C

40. Which statement best describes the role of a service desk


a. First point of contact for the customer
b. Primary deck of Service desk is to investigate problems
c. It ensures that the agreed IT service is available
d. It ensures that the telephone is always manned.

Answer : A

41. Which activity is not a service desk activity?


a.Registering incidents
b.Solving a problem

c.Relating an incident to a known error


d.Applying temporary fixes

Answer : B

42. Which of the following are the objectives of release and deployment
management process?
a. To ensure there are clear release and deployment plans
b. To ensure that skills and knowledge are transferred to operations and
support staff
c. To ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production services,
operations and support
d. To provide cost justifiable IT capacity that is matched to the needs of the
business

Answer : a, b and c only

43. A service desk receives different type of calls. Which if the following is an
incident?
a. Information about roll-out of a specific application
b. A notification that a new toner cartridge has been installed
c. A system message that a printer is not working
d. A request to install a new book keeping package

Answer : C

44. Which process is responsible for discussing reports with the customer showing
weather services have met their targets?

a. Continual service improvement


b. Business relationship management

c. Service level management


d. Availability management

Answer : C

45.Service level agreement is


a. The part of contract which specifies responsibility of each party
b. An agreement between service provider and internal organization
c. An agreement between service provider and external supplier
d. An agreement between service provider and their customer

Answer : D

46.The priority of an incident refers to?


a. The relative importance of the incident based on impact and urgency
b. The speed with which the incident needs to be resolved
c. The number of staff that will be assigned to work on the incident so that
it is resolved in time
d. The escalation path that would be followed to ensure resolution of
incident

Answer : A

47.Which of the following is not an example of service request?


a. User calls to order a toner cartridge
b. User calls because they would like a change to application functionality

c. Manager submits a request for a new employee to be given access to a


new application
d. A user logs on to internal website to download a licensed copy of a
software from a list of approve options
Answer : B
48.Incident management has a value to the business by?
a. Helping control infrastructure cost of adding new technology
b. Enabling users to resolve problems
c. Helping to align people and process for a delivery of service
d. Contributing to the reduction of impact.
Answer : D
49.Which of the following best describes the purpose of event management?
a. The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine
appropriate control action
b. The ability to implement monitoring tools
c. The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff
d. The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking
the uptime of infrastructure services
Answer : A
50.An Incident or Problem for which the root cause is known and for which a
temporary Work- around or a permanent alternative has been identified is called
as
a. Change
b. Problem
c. Known error
d. Event
Answer : C
51.Which of the following is NOT an objective of problem management?
a. Minimize the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented
b. Preventing problems and resulting incidents from happening
c. Eliminating recurring incidents
d. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible and
minimizing adverse impact on business

Answer : D

52.Which of the following best describes a major incident?


a. A complex incident which requires a An incident that requires large root
cause analysis before any number of people to resolve workaround can
be found
b. An incident that is so complex that the service desk takes longer than
five times the normal time to log it.
c. The incident which has high impact on the business.

Answer : C

53.A measure of how long it will be until an incident, problem or change has a
significant impact on the business is a definition of
a. Urgency
b. Impact
c. Priority
d. MTTR

Answer : A

54.A process to notify all stakeholders. opening a dedicated bridge and updating
stakeholders on the progress, implementing decisions taken in the call,
contacting COEsISMEs if the issue is not resolved is defined in
a. Problem management process
b. Critical situation management process

c. Change management process


d. Service desk process

Answer : B

55.A problem management is an


a. Proactive process
b. Reactive process
c. Both reactive and proactive process
d. None of the above

Answer : C
56.Which of the following tasks is a part of proactive problem management?
a. Making a change to resolve a problem
b. Registering frequently occurring errors
c. Analyzing trends
d. Managing known errors
Answer : C
57.When
a.
b.
c.
d.

is a known error identified?


When the cause of problem is known
When the incident has been sent to problem management
When the problem is known
When the problem has been resolved.
Answer : A

58.What is the use of additional technical expertise in the incident management


process called?
a. Incident classification
b. Functional escalation
c. Resolution and recovery of incident
d. Problem analysis
Answer : B

59.Of which ITIL process are reliability, serviceability and maintainability


components?
a. IT service continuity management
b. Service level management
c. Problem management
d. Availability management
Answer : D
60.The ability of a Configuration Item or IT Service to resist Failure or to Recover
quickly following a Failure is called as
a. Resilience
b. Resistance
c. Repeatability
d. Toughness
Answer : A
61.Which ITIL process is responsible for determining the hardware necessary in
order to support an application?
a. Availability management
b. Capacity management
c. Change management
d. Configuration management

Answer : B

62.An analysis is made regarding the expansion of the customer information


database. The result indicates that the mainframe disk capacity must be
increased to accommodate the
expected growth of the database in the foreseeable future. Which process is
responsible for sharing this information on time, to make sure that the available
disk space is sufficient?
a. Availability management
b. Capacity management

c. Change management
d. Security management

Answer : B

63.How a change that must be made quickly is called?


a. Fast change
b. Urgent change
c. An unplanned change
d. Standard change

Answer : B

64.What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure called?


a. Replacement request
b. Request for change
c. Request for release
d. Service request

Answer : B

65.What is the term used for a fully described and approved change that does not
have to be
evaluated by change management each time?

a. Request for change


b. Service request
c. Standard change
d. Urgent change

Answer : C

66.Which ITIL process carries out a risk analysis on the possible threats to and
vulnerabilities of the IT infrastructure?
a. Configuration management
b. IT service continuity management
c. Problem management
d. Capacity management.

Answer : B

67.What does the term detail level mean in context of the configuration
management data base?
a. Relationship between the different configuration items
b. The depth of database structure
c. The quantity of stores configuration items
d. The location of the Configuration item

Answer : B

68.When is a back-out plan invoked?


a. When it is found that something went wrong when building a change
b. When it is found that something went wrong when implementing a
change
c. When it is found that something went wrong when scheduling resources
d. When it is found that something went wrong when testing a change.

Answer : B

69.What is the first activity when implementing a release?


a. Designing and building a release
b. Testing a release
c. Compiling the release schedule
d. Communicating and preparing the release.

Answer : C

70.Some of the invitees for the transition kick-off meeting are


a. VP-IT IS
b. VSL
c. DL
d. TCG and CM team

e. All of above

Answer : E

71.Contract review, Resource / infrastructure requirements review and set-up,


establishing transition governance are carried out in which stage of the
transition process?
a. Planning
b. Knowledge transfer
c. Pilot and guided support

Answer : A

72.Few activities carried out in the KT Phase of the transition area.


a. Organize Quiz / Tests to evaluate the effectiveness of knowledge
acquisition by the team
b. b. Transfer of knowledge between onshore and offshore teams
c. Obtain call/ticket history and baseline figures
d. Obtain information on interfaces and handoffs with third party vendors
e. Publish daily dashboard on ticket / call handling performance.

Answer : A,B,C,D

73.Which of the following statements about a standard change is IN CORRECT?

a. A standard change is one for which the approach is pre-authorized by


change management
b. Each standard change is granted by the nominated authority for that
change
c. Standard changes are usually low risk and well-understood
d. Standard changes are only raised using the request fulfillment process.

Answer : D

74.The three sub- processes of capacity management are:


a. Business. service and component capacity management
b. Supplier, service and component capacity management
c. Supplier. service and technology capacity management
d. Business. capacity, technology and component capacity management

Answer : A

75.Which of the following statement are correct?


a. Problem management can support service desk by providing known
errors to speed up the incident resolution.
b. Problem management provides information to service level management
about the
impact of changes.

Answer : A

76.The following options are considered within which process?


a. Big bang Vs phased b. Push and Pull
c. Automated Vs manual
a. Incident management
b. Release management
c. Service asset and configuration management

Answer : B

77.Which statement best describes a problem?


a. One or more known errors
b. A known cause of one or more disruptions
c. An unknown cause of one or more incidents
d. A known error with one or more incidents.

Answer : C

78.In which cases must a review take place after implementation of a change?
a. If another incident of the same type occurs again
b. Always
c. At the request of the person who submitted the change request
d. Randomly

Answer : B

79.It is important for the operation of a given application that the version of the
software installed on each of the computers on the network is the same. Which
process is responsible for this?
a. Change management
b. Configuration management
c. Network management
d. Release management

Answer : D

80.An issue resulting in a financial loss to the customer or a work stopper issue is a
a. Level 1 escalation
b. Level 2 escalation
c. Level 3 escalation.

Answer : C

81.An up-to date database containing carefully written articles of tickets which
have been resolved overtime by technical specialists and which has an
excellent information retrieval system (search engine), and a well designed
content format and classification structure is
a. Solution database

b. Change database
c. Configuration database
d. Capacity management database

Answer : A

82.The Automation Maturity index for an engagement is assessed by which


function?
a. NSS
b. COE
c. Production engineering
d. Operations maturity

Answer : C

83. IT IS Projects reports the SLA compliance, Customer Complaints & any project
issues, if any on a daily basis in the form of a
a.PMR
b.MetSook
c.Daily Dashboard

d.SLA Assessment Report

Answer : C
84. A customer-based Service Level Agreement structure includes:
a. An SLA covering all Customer groups and all the services they use
b. SLAs for each service that are Customer-focused and written in business
language
c. An SLA for each service type, covering all those Customer groups that use
that Service
d. An SLA with each individual Customer group, covering all of the services
they use

Answer : D

85. Does Problem Management depend ENTIRELY on having a mature Incident


Management process in place?
a. Yes, because without a mature Incident Management process in place there
is no reliable information available
b. No, because the quality of Incident Management information is of little
importance to proactive Problem Management
c. No, because progress can still be made on solving long-standing Problems
d. Yes, because trend analysis cannot be undertaken without a lot of accurate
Incident Management information

Answer :C

86. Which of the following metrics is most relevant in determining the value added
by Problem
Management to the Service Desk?
a. The number of Problems raised
b .The number of Known Errors identified
c. The number of Problems correctly categorized
d. The number of RFCs raised
Answer : B
87. Within a CMDB, which relationships are most likely to exist between Incidents
and
Problems?
(1) One Incident to one Problem
(2) One Incident to many Problems
(3) Many Incidents to one Problem
Answer : 1 & 3 only
88. The process to implement SLAs comprises of the following activities in
sequence:
a. Draft SLAs, catalogue services, review underpinning contracts and OLAs,
draft SLRs, negotiate. agree SLAs
b. Draft SLAs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate, catalogue
services,
c. Review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLAs, catalogue services,
negotiate, agree SEAs
d. Catalogue services, establish SLRs. review underpinning contracts and OLAs,
negotiate service levels, agree SLAs

Answer : D
89. At what point does an Incident turn into a Problem?
a. When it is urgent

b. When it is a Major Incident


c. If the person reporting the incident is very senior
d. Never
Answer :D

90. The wording of SLAs and OLAs should be:


a. Technically focused, so that they may be understood by IT professionals
b. A mixture of business, technical and legal language. so that they can be
understood by everyone
c. Clear and concise, leaving no room for ambiguity.
d. Legally worded as they must be contractually binding

Answer : C

91. Which of the following represents the four stages of the Deming cycle in the
correct order
a. Check, Plan, Do, Act
b. Act, Plan, Do, Check
c. Plan, Do, Check, Act
d. Act, Check. Do, Plan 3

Answer : C

92. The suggestion RCA 2 techniques for any SLA Diagram deviation is/are

a. Pareto Analysis ONLY


b. Pareto Analysis & Fishbone
c. Fish Bone Diagram ONLY
d.

SIP

Answer : B

93. One of the key objectives of Metrics group(SMG) is to


a. Define KPIs that reflect efficiency and effectiveness of the operations
b. Identify opportunities for Service Improvement
c. Drive Six Sigma & Lean Projects
d. Define & Maintain

Answer :A

94. Combination of two or more measures used to compare processes. projects,


products. E.g. Productivity. Seat Utilization etc is defined as

a. Baseline
b. Metrics
c. Request

d. Measure

Answer : B

95. PMR stands for


a. Peer Management Review
b. Performance Management Review
c. Project Management Review
d. Project Metrics Review

Answer :C

96. Establishing Governance is a part of which Transition Phase


a. Knowledge Transfer
b. Steady State
c. Planning
d. Pilot & Guided Phase

Answer : 3

97. The group that is involved in defining & maintaining the Technical procedures to
run day to day
activities required to support the service at an operations or procedural level is
a. PE
b. CM

c. TCG
d. PE, OM&TCG

Answer : C

98. CM facilitates productivity and automation initiatives in various deliveries along


with COE and PE teams.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Answer : A

99. lTlS QView is aligned to lTILV3 LifeCycle

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Answer : A

100. What is the RACI model used for?

a. Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or


activity.
b. Defining requirements for a new service or process

c. Analyzing the business impact of an incident


d. Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of Service
Management.

Answer : A

101. Which are the missing Service Operation processes from the
following?
1. Incident Management
2. Problem Management
3. Access Management
4? 5?
a. Event management and Request Fulfillment
b. Event Management and Service Desk
c. Facilities Management and Event Management
d. Change Management and Service Level Management.

Answer: A

102. Infrastructure Readiness is a part of Pilot& Guided Phase


a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Answer : B

103. The Agreement containing terms and conditions and description of services
which may be used in absence of Master Agreement to serve as contractual
documents
a. Master Business Agreement
b. Master Service Agreement
c. Statement of Work
d. Letter of Intent

Answer : D

104. SMP stands for


a. Service Management Plan
b. Service Management Process
c. Software Management Process
d. Service Management Project

Answer : A

105. Effectiveness of Transition is measured as part of


a. Dashboard
b. Met Book
c. Transition Workbook
d. D&E Scorecard

Answer : D

106. Resource Identification is a part of which Transition Phase


a. Knowledge Transfer
b. Steady State
c. Planning
d. Pilot & Guided Phase

Answer : C

107. It is equally important to understand the Customer Infrastructure during the KT


Phase
a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Answer : A

108. Transition CSAT survey is administered to Customer to obtain feedback on


Transition by
a. OM
b. Transition Manager
c. PE

d. CoE

Answer : B

109. A business agreement between organization and the customer.


Forming the basis for project execution.
a. Statement
b. Contract
c. Clause
d. Letter

Answer : B

110. Contract/SoW Should are reviewed by technical, finance and legal groups
before submitting to
customer.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Answer : A

111. During the Transition Phase. Risk updation is a part of


(a) Transition Score Card
(b) Deployment& Effectiveness Score Card
(c) Transition PMR
(d) Transition Workbook

Answer : All the above

112. The objective of the Change Management process is most accurately


described as

a. Ensuring that all changes are recorded, managed, tested implemented in a


controlled manner
b. Ensuring that changes to IT and infrastructure are managed efficiently and
effectively
c.

Ensuring that all changes have appropriate back-out plans in the event of
failure

d. Protecting services by not allowing changes to be made.


Answer : A

113. The Information Security Policy should be available to which groups of people?

a. Senior business managers and all IT staff executives and the Security
b. Senior business managers. IT Manager
c. All customers, users and IT staff Management staff only.
d. Information Security

Answer : C

114. The spell check module of a word-processing software package contains a


number of errors; The Development department has corrected these errors in a new
version. Which process is responsible for ensuring this updated version is tested?

a. Configuration Management
b. Incident Management
c. Problem Management
d. Release Management.

Answer : D

115. Of which ITIL process are Reliability. Serviceability and Maintainability


components?
a. IT Service Continuity Management
b. Service Level Management
c. Problem Management
d. Availability Management

Answer : D

116. The ISO standard for IT service management is


a. ISO 20000

b. ISO 9000
c. ISO 14000
d. ISO 9004

Answer : A

117. The cumulative effect of the chances of uncertain occurrences adversely


affecting
project objectives is a
a. Risk
b. Issue
c. Problems
d. Concerns

Answer : A

118. First call resolution % is a typical metrics for a


a. Problem management
b. Service desk
c. Change management
d. Access management

Answer : B

119. Mean time to resolve/repair is a typical metrics for a


a. Incident management
b. Change management
c. Capacity management
d. Availability management

Answer : A

120. Configuration items discrepancy % is a typical metrics for a

a. Change management
b. Configuration management
c. Availability management
d. Incident management

Answer : B

121. Which of the following is NOT an agenda item in the PMR


a. Project metrics
b. Profitability
c. Service Improvements
d. Organization BES survey compliance

Answe r: D

122. Which among the following is not a KPI for service level management ?
a. Number of services covered by SLAs
b. Number of SLAs where the agreed service levels are fulfilled
c. Number of Services where SLA5 are backed up by corresponding OLA5I UCs
d. Number of resources which have cleared lTlL v3.

Answer : D

123. The total time elapsed. from the time of disaster until IT infrastructure and
data is recovered
and project can resume operations is the

a. Recovery time objective


b.

Recovery point objective

c. BCP Objective

Answer : A

124. Which among the


following a NOT a parameter in the delivery maturity
index?
a. SLA performance
b. Knowledge management
c. Ticket creation automation
d. Risk management
Answer : C

125. A collection of one or more changes that includes new and/or changed
configuration items that are tested and then introduced into the live environment is
a

a. Change
b. Release
c. Incident
d. Request

Answer :B

126. Ticket review is done because


a. It is mandated by OM QR
b. It is a template in Qview
c. To verify if the incident classification/resolution process is followed as per
guidelines.

Answer : C

127. Term used to describe a secure compound in which the definitive authorized
versions of all software CIs are stored and protected is
a. Definitive software library
b. Definitive hardware stores
c. CMDB
d. SKMS (Service knowledge management system).
Answer: A

128. What is Qview?


a. QMS
b. A template
c.

Process

d. A document

Answer : A

129. Quality and productivity organization structure includes?


a. IT IS SEG
b. IT IS SAG
c. IT IS SMG
d. All of the above
Answer: D
130. Which of the following is correct with regards to organization quality
objectives?
a. Exceed customer expectation
b. Meet specific product quality requirements.
c. Delivered within the budgeted cost.
d. All of the above
Answer : D
131. Qview process are compliant to :
a. ISO 20000 and ITIL Framework
b. ISO 9001 : 2000
c. CMMI Level 5 ver 1.2 and ISO 27001(Security processes)
d. All of the above
Answer: D
132. Operations maturity group has a strong interface with:
a. TCG and PE team
b. Vertical and horizontals
c. Third party vendors
Answer: A
133. Resource identification is a part of which phase of Transition lifecycle
a. Planning Phase

b. KT
c. Pilot& Guided Support Phase
d. All of the above

Answer : A

134. Proposal phase of the IT IS Process framework belongs to which ITIL process
areas?
a. Service strategy & Service design.
b. Service design and Service Transition
c. Service Transition & Service operations
d. Service strategy & Service Operation

Answer: A

135. Formalization and Due diligence phase of IT IS Process framework belongs to


which ITIL
process areas
a. Service strategy
b. Service design
c. Service transition
d. Service Operations

Answer: B

136. Knowledge transfer of IT IS Process framework belongs to which ITIL process


areas?
a. Service strategy
b. Service design
c. Service transition
d. Service Operations

Answer: C

137. Pilot end guided support of IT IS Process framework belongs to which ITIL
process area?
a. Service strategy
b. Service design
c. Service transition
d. Service Operations

Answer: C

138. Project Planning is done during which phase of Transition lifecycle


a. Planning Phase
b. KT
c. Pilot& Guided Support Phase
d.

All of the above

Answer : A

139. CSAT is done during which phase of Transition lifecycle ?


a. Planning Phase
b. KT
c. Pilot& Guided Support Phase
d.

All of the above

Answer : C

140. CSAT is administered during the KT phase of the Transition TRUE or FALSE
Answer : False

141. How is the transition progress tracked in an engagement


a. D&E Scorecard
b. Weekly report
c. Transition PMR
d. Transition Governance

Answer : A

142. Daily Dashboards are initiated during


a. Steady State

b. KT phase
c. Project planning phase
d. Pilot & Guided Support

Answer : D

143. Audits are conducted only during steady state TRUE or FALSE
Answer : False

144. RFP stands for


a. Response For proposal
b. Request for Proposal
c. Request for policy
d. Request for project

Answer : B

145. Deployment parameters in the D&E scorecard are


(i) Governance
(ii) Customer reports
(iii) Process Documentation
(iv) CritSit Management

Answer : 1 and 3

146. Preparing Transition Plan in line with SoW and obtain customer sign off is
responsibility of
a. Quality Representative
b. Delivery Lead
c.

Transition Manager

d. Operations Manager

Answer : C

147. Effectiveness parameters in the D&E scorecard are:


(i) Governance
(ii) Customer reports
(iii) Process Documentation
(iv) CritSit Management

Answer : 2 and 4

148. PMR is conducted only during steady state : TRUE or FALSE


Answer : FALSE

149. TCG leads are not a part of Transition Governance meetings : TRUE or FALSE

Answer : TRUE

150. - MSA stands for

a. Major Supplier Agreement


b. Master Service Agreement
c. Management Supplier Agreement
d. Master Supplier Agreement

Answer :B

151. Non-disclosure agreement signed at the start of interaction with the


customer : TRUE or
FALSE

Answer : TRUE

152. LOl stands for


a. Level Of Investigation
b. Letter Of Intent.
c. Line Of Initiation
d. Letter Of Investigation

Answer : B

153. CRITSIT Management is done during which phase


a. Deployment
b. Effectiveness

Answer : B

154. Business impact Understanding presentation is done during ?

a. Planning Phase
b. KT
c. Pilot& Guided Support Phase
d.

All of the above

Answer : A

155. Transition Planning activities?


a. Obtain sales handover
b. Contract review
c. Resource and transition planning
d. All of the above

Answer : D

156. Input for Knowledge Transfer phase is


a. Project plan
b. Transition Plan

c. SOW
d. All of the above

Answer : B

157. Qview is hosted on?

Answer: https://cognizant20ecosystem.cognizant.com/

158. Process &Technical SOP documentation are done during?


a. Planning Phase
b. KT
c. Pilot& Guided Support Phase
d.

All of the above

Answer : C

159. During Knowledge Transfer first draft of SMP is prepared : TRUE or FALSE

Answer : TRUE

160. Objective of Pilot & Guided Support phase is?

a. start shadowing
b. ram up providing supportto customer
c. Measuring, tracking & reporting of SLAs & KPIs
d. All of the above

Answer : D

161. What is purpose of Cognizants Policy ?


a. Provides Vision and approach
b. Tells us what to do
c. Tells us how to do
d. Provides tools format
e. All the above

Answer : A

162. Which group administers the Business C-sat survey


a. PM/ PL
b. Service Desk
c. OM
d. Third - Party
e. None of the above

Answer: C

163. What are the challenges related to Business and IT alignment


a. Large teams and people issues
b. Convergence of strategy. governance and management
c. Changing architectures
d. Weak Tool support

Answer : B

164. What are the challenges in Insufficient Collaboration?

a. Compliance and control


b. Measuring IT in business value outcomes
c. Large teams and people issues
d. Compliance and control
e. None of the above

Answer: D

165. In which stage is the Start up audit conducted


a. Transition phase
b. Service Initiation phase

c. Steady state Operation Phase


d. Continuous Improvement Phase
e. None of the above

Answer: B

166. What are the3 phases of Transition Phase ?


a. Transition Planning
b.

Knowledge Transfer

c. Pilot & guided Support


d. Option 1 and 2 above
e. All of the above

Answer : D

167. RACI Stands for

a. Responsible. Accountable. Consulted . Informed


b. Responsible. Auditable. Consulted Informed
c. Review. Accountable. Consulted Informed
d. Review. auditable. Consulted . Informed

Answer : A

168. What does DMI stand for?


a. Delivery Maturity Index
b. Delivery Monthly Index
c. Delivery Monitory Index
d. Delivery Monthly Indicator

Answer: A

169. Run books contain information about:


a. Technical Procedures
b. BCP Guidelines
c. Transition Process
d. Ticket Status

Answer : A

170. Transition C-Sat is conducted at the end of which phase


a. Due-Deligence
b. Pilot and guided Support
c. Steady State operations

d. After 1st Audit

Answer : B

171. Q-View is a :
a. Reporting Tool
b. Feedback Tool
c. Process Document Repository
d. Audit Tracker

Answer : C

172. The ISO standard applicable for IT IS is


a. ISO 20000
b. ISO 9000
c. ISO 14000
d. ISO 9004

Answer : A

173. SAG team key objective is?


a. Assurance
b. Audit

c. Accountable

Answer : A

174. SEG team key objective is?


a. Engineering
b. Effectiveness
c. Enabling

Answer : A

175. Qview Process are compliant to:


a. ISO 20000 and ITIL Framework
b. ISO 9001 :2000
c. CMMI Level 5 ver 1.2
d. ISO 27001
e. All of the above

Answer : D.

176. Which one is people and Process challenge ?


a. Multi-location support
b. Faster time to resolve incidents

c. balancing stability responsiveness


d. Multi-location support

Answer : A

177. Which are the Short cycle Time IT service management Challenges?

a. Changing architectures
b. Balancing stability v. responsiveness
c. Communication
d. Option 1 and 2 above
e. All of the above

Answer: C

178. Why do we need Qview?


a. Helps control costs and risks that can potentially damage customer
relationships
b. Set of industry best practices to increase the likelihood of achieving
service excellence
c. Based on ITIL Framework and ISO 20000
d. Option 1 and 3 above
e. All of the above

Answer : D

179. The objective of Daily Dashboard is to?


a. SLA Compliance
b. Customer Complaints
c. SIPs
d. Option 1 and 2 above
e. Option 1 and 3 above

Answer : D

180. Which phase has the Objective to ensure Proposal terms and conditions are
clearly understood by the delivery team and corresponding statement of work is
agreed upon by all stakeholders ?
a. Proposal
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.

Due Diligence
Transition
Knowledge
Transfer
Pilot and Guided support
Answer : B

181. Practice level Daily dashboard is


a. Internal Report
b. Customer Report
c. None of the above
Answer :A

182. Audit Findings are logged in ?


a. Q-view
b. Q-smart
c. Audit Tracker
d. Daily Dashboard
Answer : B
183. Six Sigma Initiatives are a part of:
a. Pilot and Guided support
b. Continuous Improvement Process
c. Steady State operations
d. Customer relationship management
Answer : B
184. In IT IS Process framework which are the ITIL activities?
a. Proposal
b. Service Support
c. Service Delivery
d. Business Relationship management
e. Option 2 and 3 above
Answer : E