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Author: Santiago Salazar

Problems I: Mathematical Statements and Proofs
1.

By using truth tables prove that, for all statements 𝑃 and 𝑄, the statement
′𝑃 β†’ 𝑄′ and its contrapositive β€² π‘›π‘œπ‘‘ 𝑄 β†’ (π‘›π‘œπ‘‘ 𝑃)β€² are equivalent. In example
1.2.3 identify which statement is the contrapositive of statement (i) (𝑓 π‘Ž = 0 β†’ π‘Ž
> 0). Find another pair of statements in that list that are the contrapositives of
each other.
Truth table 𝑃 𝑄

~𝑃 ~𝑄 𝑃 β†’ 𝑄 ~𝑄 β†’ ~𝑃 𝑇 𝑇 𝐹 𝐹 𝑇 𝑇 𝑇 𝐹 𝐹 𝑇 𝐹 𝐹 𝐹 𝑇 𝑇 𝐹 𝑇 𝑇 𝐹 𝐹 𝑇 𝑇 𝑇 𝑇

Since the last two columns are identical, the statements ′𝑃 β†’ 𝑄′ and its
contrapositive β€²~𝑄 β†’ ~𝑃′ are logically equivalent.
The contrapositive of statement (i) (𝑓 π‘Ž = 0 β†’ π‘Ž > 0) is statement (vii)
(π‘Ž ≀ 0 β†’ 𝑓(π‘Ž) β‰  0). Similarly, the contrapositive of statement (iii) (𝑓 π‘Ž = 0 β†’ π‘Ž
≀ 0) is statement (vi) (π‘Ž > 0 β†’ 𝑓(π‘Ž) β‰  0).

2. By using truth tables prove that, for all statements 𝑃 and 𝑄, the three statements
(i) ′𝑃 β†’ 𝑄′, (ii) β€²(𝑃 π‘œπ‘Ÿ 𝑄) ↔ 𝑄′, and (iii) β€²(𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄) ↔ 𝑃′ are equivalent.
Truth table 𝑃
𝑄 𝑃 π‘œπ‘Ÿ 𝑄 𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄 𝑃 β†’ 𝑄 (𝑃 π‘œπ‘Ÿ 𝑄) ↔ 𝑄 (𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄) ↔ 𝑃 𝑇
𝑇 𝑇 𝑇 𝑇 𝑇 𝑇 𝑇

𝐹 𝑇 𝐹 𝐹 𝐹 𝐹 𝐹

𝑇 𝑇 𝐹 𝑇 𝑇 𝑇 𝐹

𝐹 𝐹 𝐹 𝑇 𝑇 𝑇

Since the last three columns are identical, the statements ′𝑃 β†’ 𝑄′, β€²(𝑃 π‘œπ‘Ÿ 𝑄) ↔ 𝑄
β€², and β€²(𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄) ↔ 𝑃′ are logically equivalent.
3. Prove that the three basic connectives β€˜or’, β€˜and’, and β€˜not’ can all be written in
terms of the single connective β€˜notand’ where ′𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄′ is interpreted as
β€²π‘›π‘œπ‘‘(𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄)β€². 𝑃 𝑃

π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑃 ~(𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑃) ~𝑃 𝑇 𝑇 𝐹 𝐹 𝐹 𝐹 𝑇 𝑇

Since the last two columns are identical, the statements ~𝑃 and β€²~(𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑃)β€² are
logically equivalent. Hence we can write ~𝑃 as ′𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑃′. 𝑃
𝑄 𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄 ~(𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄) ~[~ 𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄 ] 𝑇
𝑇 𝑇 𝐹 𝑇 𝑇

𝐹 𝐹 𝑇 𝐹 𝐹

𝑇 𝐹 𝑇 𝐹 𝐹

𝐹 𝐹 𝑇 𝐹

(iv) 𝑛 = 12. Thus 𝑏𝑐 = 𝑏 π‘Žπ‘ = π‘Ž 𝑏𝑝 = π‘Žπ‘ . Therefore π‘Ž divides 𝑏𝑐. β€²~ 𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄 β€² is written as ′𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄′. the statements ′𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄′ and β€²~ ~ 𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄 β€² are logically equivalent. Prove the following statements concerning the positive integers π‘Ž. the statements ′𝑃 π‘œπ‘Ÿ 𝑄′ and β€²~(~𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ ~𝑄)β€² are logically equivalent. by definition. (ii) 9 divides 𝑛. in either case. (ii) (π‘Ž divides 𝑏) or (π‘Ž divides 𝑐) β†’ π‘Ž divides 𝑏𝑐. 4. (vii) 2 divides 𝑛 or 3 divides 𝑛. 𝑏. Thus β€²~ ~ 𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄 β€² is logically equivalent to β€²~ 𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄 β€². where π‘˜ = π‘ž + 𝑝 is an integer. the negation of this last statement. (i) π‘Ž divides 𝑏 means 𝑏 = π‘Žπ‘ž for some integer π‘ž. Thus 𝑏𝑐 = π‘Žπ‘ž 𝑐 = π‘Ž π‘žπ‘ = π‘Žπ‘Ÿ. can be written as β€² 𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ (𝑄 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄)β€². by the first part of the problem.Since columns 3 and 5 are identical. Hence. Thus 𝑏 + 𝑐 = π‘Žπ‘ž + π‘Žπ‘ = π‘Ž π‘ž + 𝑝 = π‘Žπ‘˜. (iii) 12 divides 𝑛. β€²~ 𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄 β€² can be written as β€² 𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄 β€². case 2: π‘Ž divides 𝑐 means 𝑐 = π‘Žπ‘ for some integer 𝑝. namely β€²~(~𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ ~𝑄)β€². Hence we can write ′𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄′ as β€² 𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄 β€². But observe that. and π‘Ž divides 𝑐 means 𝑐 = π‘Žπ‘ for some integer 𝑝. (vi) 2 divides 𝑛 and 3 divides 𝑛. Therefore π‘Ž divides (𝑏 + 𝑐). Which of these conditions are sufficient? . where 𝑠 = 𝑏𝑝 is an integer. (i) (π‘Ž divides 𝑏) and (π‘Ž divides 𝑐) β†’ π‘Ž divides (𝑏 + 𝑐). 5. Therefore π‘Ž divides 𝑏𝑐. 𝑃 𝑄 𝑃 π‘œπ‘Ÿ 𝑄 ~𝑃 ~𝑄 ~𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ ~𝑄 ~(~𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ ~𝑄) 𝑇 𝑇 𝑇 𝐹 𝐹 𝐹 𝑇 𝑇 𝐹 𝑇 𝐹 𝑇 𝐹 𝑇 𝐹 𝑇 𝑇 𝑇 𝐹 𝐹 𝑇 𝐹 𝐹 𝐹 𝑇 𝑇 𝑇 𝐹 Since columns 3 and 7 are identical. by definition. But observe that. Which of the following conditions are necessary for the positive integer 𝑛 to be divisible by 6 (proofs not necessary)? (i) 3 divides 𝑛. (ii) case 1: π‘Ž divides 𝑏 means 𝑏 = π‘Žπ‘ž for some integer π‘ž. (v) 6 divides 𝑛2 . Now. where π‘Ÿ = π‘žπ‘ is an integer. and 𝑐. by the first part of the problem. Then. β€²~𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ ~𝑄′ is logically equivalent to β€² 𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑃 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ (𝑄 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄)β€². π‘Ž divides 𝑏𝑐. Thus we can write ′𝑃 π‘œπ‘Ÿ 𝑄′ as β€² 𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑃 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ (𝑄 π‘›π‘œπ‘‘π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ 𝑄)β€².

Use the properties of addition and multiplication of real numbers given in Properties 2. (i) Prove that π‘Ž Γ— 0 = 0 = 0 Γ— π‘Ž. (vi) 2 divides 𝑛 and 3 divides 𝑛. (v) 6 divides 𝑛2 . (ii) βˆ’π‘Ž 𝑏 = βˆ’π‘Žπ‘ = π‘Ž βˆ’π‘ . Additive identity (iv) Distributive property (iii) Additive inverse (vi) Commutative property (i) (ii) Prove that βˆ’π‘Ž 𝑏 = βˆ’π‘Žπ‘ = π‘Ž(βˆ’π‘). for all real numbers π‘Ž and 𝑐. 6. π‘Ž + βˆ’1 π‘Ž = 1π‘Ž + (βˆ’1)π‘Ž Multiplicative Identity (v) = (1 + (βˆ’1))π‘Ž Distributive property (iii) = 0π‘Ž Since βˆ’1 is the additive inverse of 1 =0 By part (i) of problem Thus π‘Ž + βˆ’1 π‘Ž = 0 β†’ βˆ’π‘Ž = (βˆ’1)π‘Ž. π‘Ž + βˆ’π‘Ž = 0 π‘Ž = βˆ’(βˆ’π‘Ž) π‘Žπ‘ = βˆ’ βˆ’π‘Ž 𝑏 = βˆ’ βˆ’π‘Žπ‘ = βˆ’ βˆ’π‘Ž 𝑏 = βˆ’ 𝑏 βˆ’π‘Ž = (βˆ’π‘)(βˆ’π‘Ž) = (βˆ’π‘Ž)(βˆ’π‘) Additive Identity (iv) Since π‘Ž = βˆ’(βˆ’π‘Ž) By part (ii) of problem By part (ii) of problem Commutative property (i) . 0+0=0 0 Γ— π‘Ž + (0 Γ— π‘Ž) = 0 Γ— π‘Ž 0Γ—π‘Ž =0 π‘ŽΓ—0=0 Thus π‘Ž Γ— 0 = 0 = 0 Γ— π‘Ž. (iii) Prove that βˆ’π‘Ž βˆ’π‘ = π‘Žπ‘. (v) 6 divides 𝑛2 .1 to deduce that. and (vii) 2 divides 𝑛 or 3 divides 𝑛. and (vi) 2 divides 𝑛 and 3 divides 𝑛. The following conditions are sufficient for the positive integer 𝑛 to be divisible by 6: (iii) 12 divides 𝑛. The following conditions are necessary for the positive integer 𝑛 to be divisible by 6: (i) 3 divides 𝑛. (iii) βˆ’π‘Ž βˆ’π‘ = π‘Žπ‘. (iv) 𝑛 = 12. (i) π‘Ž Γ— 0 = 0 = 0 Γ— π‘Ž.3. Then βˆ’π‘Žπ‘ = (βˆ’1)π‘Žπ‘ By the proof above = ((βˆ’1)π‘Ž)𝑏 Associative property (ii) = (βˆ’π‘Ž)𝑏 By the proof above βˆ’π‘Žπ‘ = (βˆ’1)π‘Žπ‘ By the proof above = ((βˆ’1)𝑏)π‘Ž Associative property (ii) = (βˆ’π‘)π‘Ž By the proof above = π‘Ž(βˆ’π‘) Commutative property (i) Thus βˆ’π‘Ž 𝑏 = βˆ’π‘Žπ‘ = π‘Ž(βˆ’π‘).6 divides 𝑛 means 𝑛 = 6π‘ž for some integer π‘ž. First we show that βˆ’π‘Ž = (βˆ’1)π‘Ž by showing that π‘Ž + βˆ’1 π‘Ž = 0.

7. It follows that π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ > 2π‘₯ βˆ’ π‘₯ = π‘₯ > 2 and so π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ > 2 β†’ π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 > 0 as required. Therefore. (i) β€² β†’ β€²: π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 = 0 β†’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 π‘₯ + 1 = 0 β†’ (π‘₯ βˆ’ 2) = 0 or (π‘₯ + 1) = 0 β†’ π‘₯ = 2 or π‘₯ = βˆ’1 Thus π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 = 0 β†’ π‘₯ = βˆ’1 or π‘₯ = 2. β€² ← β€²: case1: π‘₯ > 2 β†’ 2π‘₯ > 4 > 2 (multiply by 2 > 0) β†’ 2π‘₯ > 2 and π‘₯ > 2 β†’ π‘₯ 2 > 2π‘₯ > 2 (multiply by π‘₯ > 0) β†’ π‘₯ 2 > 2. Prove the following statements concerning a real number π‘₯. π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 = 0. It follows that our initial assumption. Prove by contradiction that there does not exist a largest integer. case2: π‘₯ < βˆ’1 β†’ 0 < βˆ’1 βˆ’ π‘₯ β†’ 0 < 2 < 1 βˆ’ π‘₯ (by adding 2) β†’ 0 < 1 βˆ’ π‘₯ and π‘₯ < βˆ’1 β†’ βˆ’π‘₯ > 1 (multiply by βˆ’1 < 0) and π‘₯ < βˆ’1 β†’ π‘₯ 2 > βˆ’π‘₯ > 1 (multiply by π‘₯ < 0) β†’ π‘₯ 2 > 1 β†’ π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ > 1 βˆ’ π‘₯ > 0 β†’ π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 > 1 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 = βˆ’1 βˆ’ π‘₯ > 0 β†’ π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 > 0 as required. Then 𝑛 is odd.By part (ii) of problem Commutative property (i) Thus βˆ’π‘Ž βˆ’π‘ = π‘Žπ‘. β€² ← β€²: If π‘₯ = 2. Hence 𝑛 is even as required. (i) π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 = 0 ↔ π‘₯ = βˆ’1 or π‘₯ = 2. This is proved later as Proposition 11. . Thus 𝑛2 is odd contradicting that 𝑛2 is even. (ii) π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 > 0 ↔ π‘₯ < βˆ’1 or π‘₯ > 2. 8. Prove by contradiction the following statement concerning an integer 𝑛. 𝑛2 is even β†’ 𝑛 is even. that is 𝑛 = 2π‘ž + 1 for some integer π‘ž. If π‘₯ = βˆ’1. is false. then π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 = (βˆ’1)2 βˆ’ βˆ’1 βˆ’ 2 = 0. then π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 = 22 βˆ’ 2 βˆ’ 2 = 0.4. (ii) β€² β†’ β€²: π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 > 0 β†’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 π‘₯ + 1 > 0 β†’ (π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 > 0 and π‘₯ + 1 > 0) or (π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 < 0 and π‘₯ + 1 < 0) β†’ (π‘₯ > 2 and π‘₯ > βˆ’1) or (π‘₯ < 2 and π‘₯ < βˆ’1) β†’ π‘₯ > 2 or π‘₯ < βˆ’1 2 Thus π‘₯ βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 > 0 β†’ π‘₯ < βˆ’1 or π‘₯ > 2. [You may suppose that an integer 𝑛 is odd if and only if 𝑛 = 2π‘ž + 1 for some integer π‘ž.3.] Suppose 𝑛 is not even. Thus (π‘₯ = βˆ’1 or = 2) β†’ π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 = 0. 𝑛2 is even β†’ 𝑛 is even. 9. in either case. So. Thus 𝑛2 = (2π‘ž + 1)2 = 4π‘ž 2 + 4π‘ž + 1 = 2 2π‘ž 2 + 2π‘ž + 1 = 2𝑝 + 1 where 𝑝 = 2π‘ž 2 + 2π‘ž is an integer. Hence π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 > 0 ↔ π‘₯ < βˆ’1 or π‘₯ > 2. Hence π‘₯ 2 βˆ’ π‘₯ βˆ’ 2 = 0 ↔ π‘₯ = βˆ’1 or π‘₯ = 2. that 𝑛 is odd.

Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that π‘˜! > 2π‘˜ for some positive integer π‘˜ β‰₯ 4. real. contradicting our initial assumption that 𝑛 was the smallest positive real number. say 𝑛 + 1. Let this larger integer be 𝑛. 11. Prove by induction on 𝑛 that. for some positive integer π‘˜. However all the implications that start with a false hypothesis are true. since 𝑛2 is also an integer we must have 𝑛2 ≀ 𝑛 from which it follows that 𝑛 ≀ 1. Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that. Thus 1 is the largest integer as claimed. Suppose for contradiction that 𝑛 is the smallest positive real number. We also know that the conclusion is false since 1 is not the largest integer. for all positive integers 𝑛. 3 divides 4𝑛 + 5 means 4𝑛 + 5 = 3π‘ž for some integer π‘ž. Then 4π‘˜+1 + 5 = 4 βˆ™ 4π‘˜ + 5 (by inductive definition) = 4 3π‘ž βˆ’ 5 + 5 (by inductive hypothesis) = 12π‘ž βˆ’ 15 = 3 4π‘ž βˆ’ 5 = 3𝑝.[Hint: Observe that for any integer 𝑛 there is a greater one. that is 4π‘˜ + 5 = 3π‘ž for some integer π‘ž. and less than 𝑛. Thus. Observe that 0 < 1 β†’ 𝑛 < 𝑛 + 1. that is 4π‘˜+1 + 5 = 3π‘ž for some integer π‘ž. where 𝑝 = 4π‘ž βˆ’ 5 is an integer. We need to show that π‘˜ + 1 ! > 2π‘˜+1 . this argument proves that if a largest integer existed. 𝑛! = 4! = 24 > 16 = 24 = 2𝑛 as required. 3 divides 4𝑛 + 5. Conclusion: Hence. In fact. since for all 𝑛. 3 divides 4𝑛 + 5 for all positive integers 𝑛. We need to show that 3 divides 4π‘˜+1 + 5. 13. On the other hand. What is wrong with the following proof that 1 is the largest integer? Let 𝑛 be the largest integer. What does this argument prove? The proof starts with a statement which is false (from problem 9). Then. Thus 𝑛 is not the largest integer. 𝑛 + 1 > 𝑛. Thus the number 𝑛 is positive. it would be 1. Base case: For 𝑛 = 1. 10. since 1 is an integer we must have 1 ≀ 𝑛. Thus 3 divides 4π‘˜+1 + 5 as required. Prove by induction on 𝑛 that 𝑛! > 2𝑛 for all integers 𝑛 such that 𝑛 β‰₯ 4. So begin your proof Suppose for contradiction that there is a largest integer. 12. Then 2π‘˜! > . Prove by contradiction that there does not exist a smallest positive real number. since 1 ≀ 𝑛 and 𝑛 ≀ 1 we must have 𝑛 = 1. Base case: For 𝑛 = 4. Observe 1 2 1 2 1 2 that 0 < < 1 β†’ 0 < 𝑛 < 𝑛. … Suppose for contradiction that there is a largest integer 𝑛. by induction on 𝑛. 3 divides 4π‘˜ + 5. 4𝑛 + 5 = 41 + 5 = 9 which is divisible by 3 as required. Hence there does not exist a smallest positive real number.

Then 3π‘˜! β‰₯ 3 βˆ™ 3π‘˜ = 3π‘˜+1 and π‘˜ + 1 ! = (π‘˜ + 1)π‘˜! (by inductive definition) β‰₯ 7 + 1 π‘˜! = 8π‘˜! (since π‘˜ β‰₯ 7)β‰₯ 3π‘˜! β‰₯ 3 βˆ™ 3π‘˜ = 3π‘˜+1 (by inductive hypothesis). 𝑛! β‰₯ 3𝑛 for all integers 𝑛 β‰₯ 7. Observe that π‘₯ > βˆ’1 β†’ 1 + π‘₯ > 0. Prove Bernoulli’s inequality (1 + π‘₯)𝑛 β‰₯ 1 + 𝑛π‘₯ for all non-negative integers 𝑛 and real numbers π‘₯ > βˆ’1. and so the equality holds. (1 + π‘₯)𝑛 β‰₯ 1 + 𝑛π‘₯ for all non-negative integers 𝑛 and real numbers π‘₯ > βˆ’1. 𝑛! = 0! = 1 by inductive definition. by induction on 𝑛. Base case: For 𝑛 = 7. Prove by induction on 𝑛 that 𝑛 𝑖=1 1 𝑛 = . 𝑛! = 7! = 5040 and 3𝑛 = 37 = 2187. 15. Conclusion: Hence. We need to show that (1 + π‘₯)π‘˜+1 β‰₯ 1 + (π‘˜ + 1)π‘₯. Now we show that the inequality is also true for all integers 𝑛 β‰₯ 7. Thus (1 + π‘₯)π‘˜+1 = (1 + π‘₯)(1 + π‘₯)π‘˜ (by inductive definition). Conclusion: Hence. by induction on 𝑛.2 βˆ™ 2π‘˜ = 2π‘˜+1 (by inductive hypothesis) and π‘˜ + 1 ! = (π‘˜ + 1)π‘˜! (by inductive definition) β‰₯ 4 + 1 π‘˜! = 5π‘˜! (since π‘˜ β‰₯ 4) > 2π‘˜! > 2 βˆ™ 2π‘˜ = 2π‘˜+1 (by inductive hypothesis). and that π‘˜ β‰₯ 0 and π‘₯ 2 β‰₯ 0 (since for any real number π‘Ž. Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that π‘˜! β‰₯ 3π‘˜ for some integer π‘˜ β‰₯ 7. . by induction on 𝑛. For which non-negative integer values of 𝑛 is 𝑛! β‰₯ 3𝑛 ? 𝑛! β‰₯ 3𝑛 is true for 𝑛 = 0 and all integers 𝑛 β‰₯ 7. π‘Ž2 β‰₯ 0) both imply that π‘˜π‘₯ 2 β‰₯ 0. 16. Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that (1 + π‘₯)π‘˜ β‰₯ 1 + π‘˜π‘₯ for some non-negative integer π‘˜ and real numbers π‘₯ > βˆ’1. Base case: For 𝑛 = 0. Thus π‘˜ + 1 ! > 2π‘˜+1 as required. Base case: For 𝑛 = 1. (1 + π‘₯)π‘˜ β‰₯ 1 + π‘˜π‘₯ β†’ 1 + π‘₯ 1 + π‘₯ π‘˜ = (1 + π‘₯)π‘˜+1 β‰₯ 1 + π‘˜π‘₯ (1 + π‘₯) = 1 + π‘₯ + π‘˜π‘₯ + π‘˜π‘₯ 2 = 1 + π‘˜ + 1 π‘₯ + π‘˜π‘₯ 2 (multiply by 1 + π‘₯ > 0) β‰₯ 1 + π‘˜ + 1 π‘₯ + 0 = 1 + π‘˜ + 1 π‘₯ (since π‘˜π‘₯ 2 β‰₯ 0). For 𝑛 = 0. Therefore (1 + π‘₯)π‘˜+1 β‰₯ 1 + (π‘˜ + 1)π‘₯ as required. 1 + π‘₯ 0 = 1 β‰₯ 1 = 1 + 0 βˆ™ π‘₯ and so the equality holds. Thus π‘˜ + 1 ! β‰₯ 3π‘˜+1 as required. 𝑛! > 2𝑛 for all integers 𝑛 β‰₯ 4. and 3𝑛 = 30 = 1. By inductive hypothesis. Conclusion: Hence. 𝑖(𝑖 + 1) 𝑛 + 1 for all positive integers 𝑛. 14. We need to show that π‘˜ + 1 ! β‰₯ 3π‘˜+1 . and so 𝑛! β‰₯ 3𝑛 .

We need to show that 6π‘Žπ‘˜ + 5 π‘Žπ‘˜+1 = > 0. (i) π‘Žπ‘› > 0 and (ii) π‘Žπ‘› < 5. Prove by induction on 𝑛 that.1 𝑖=1 1 1 1 = = 𝑖(𝑖 + 1) 1(1 + 1) 2 and 𝑛 1 1 = = 𝑛+1 1+1 2 as required. π‘Žπ‘˜ + 2 . π‘Žπ‘› = π‘Ž1 = 1 > 0 as required. Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that π‘˜ 𝑖=1 1 π‘˜ = 𝑖(𝑖 + 1) π‘˜ + 1 for some positive integer π‘˜. (i) Base case: For 𝑛 = 1. Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that π‘Žπ‘˜ > 0 for some positive integer π‘˜. 𝑖(𝑖 + 1) (π‘˜ + 1) + 1 π‘˜ + 2 But by inductive definition and inductive hypothesis π‘˜+1 𝑖=1 1 = 𝑖(𝑖 + 1) π‘˜ 𝑖=1 1 1 + 𝑖(𝑖 + 1) π‘˜ + 1 (π‘˜ + 2) π‘˜ 1 + π‘˜+1 π‘˜ + 1 (π‘˜ + 2) 2 π‘˜ + 2π‘˜ + 1 = π‘˜+1 π‘˜+2 π‘˜+1 2 = π‘˜+1 π‘˜+2 π‘˜+1 = π‘˜+2 = as required. by induction on 𝑛. For a positive integer 𝑛 the number π‘Žπ‘› is defined inductively by π‘Ž1 = 1. 𝑛 𝑖=1 1 𝑛 = 𝑖(𝑖 + 1) 𝑛 + 1 for all positive integers 𝑛. for all positive integers. 6π‘Žπ‘˜ + 5 π‘Žπ‘˜+1 = π‘Žπ‘˜ + 2 for π‘˜ a positive integer. 17. Conclusion: Hence. We need to show that π‘˜+1 𝑖=1 1 π‘˜+1 π‘˜+1 = = .

Given a sequence of numbers π‘Ž 1 . 𝑖=1 Prove that 𝑛 𝑛 1+π‘₯ 2 π‘–βˆ’1 𝑖=1 1 βˆ’ π‘₯2 = for π‘₯ β‰  1. π‘Žπ‘› > 0 for all positive integers 𝑛. the number inductively by 𝑛 𝑖=1 π‘Ž(𝑖) is defined 1 i a i = π‘Ž 1 . π‘Žπ‘› < 5 for all positive integers 𝑛. π‘Žπ‘˜ < 5 β†’ 6π‘Žπ‘˜ < 5π‘Žπ‘˜ + 5 β†’ 6π‘Žπ‘˜ + 5 < 5π‘Žπ‘˜ + 10 = 5(π‘Žπ‘˜ + 2) β†’ 6π‘Žπ‘˜ + 5 < 5(π‘Žπ‘˜ + 2). (ii) Base case: For 𝑛 = 1.….By inductive hypothesis. Conclusion: Hence. We need to show that 6π‘Žπ‘˜ + 5 π‘Žπ‘˜+1 = < 5. π‘Žπ‘˜ + 2 By inductive hypothesis. π‘Ž 2 . Conclusion: Hence. Thus 6π‘Žπ‘˜ + 5 <5 π‘Žπ‘˜ + 2 as required. and 𝑖=1 π‘˜+1 ii π‘˜ π‘Ž 𝑖 = 𝑖=1 π‘Ž 𝑖 π‘Ž π‘˜ + 1 for π‘˜ β‰₯ 1. We need to show that . Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that π‘Žπ‘˜ < 5 for some positive integer π‘˜. 18. by induction on 𝑛. 1βˆ’π‘₯ What happens if π‘₯ = 1? Base case: For 𝑛 = 1. by induction on 𝑛. π‘Žπ‘˜ > 0 β†’ π‘Žπ‘˜ + 2 > 0 and π‘Žπ‘˜ > 0 β†’ 2π‘Žπ‘˜ > π‘Žπ‘˜ β†’ 6π‘Žπ‘˜ > π‘Žπ‘˜ β†’ 6π‘Žπ‘˜ + 5 > π‘Žπ‘˜ + 2 > 0. Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that π‘˜ 1+π‘₯ 𝑖=1 2 π‘–βˆ’1 1 βˆ’ π‘₯2 = 1βˆ’π‘₯ π‘˜ for some integer π‘˜ β‰₯ 1 and for all real numbers π‘₯ β‰  1. 1 1 + π‘₯2 π‘–βˆ’1 = 1 + π‘₯2 1βˆ’1 0 = 1 + π‘₯2 = 1 + π‘₯ 𝑖=1 and 𝑛 1 1 βˆ’ π‘₯2 1 βˆ’ π‘₯2 (1 βˆ’ π‘₯)(1 + π‘₯) = = =1+π‘₯ 1βˆ’π‘₯ 1βˆ’π‘₯ 1βˆ’π‘₯ as required. π‘Žπ‘› = π‘Ž1 = 1 < 5 as required. Thus 6π‘Žπ‘˜ + 5 6π‘Žπ‘˜ + 5 >1>0β†’ >0 π‘Žπ‘˜ + 2 π‘Žπ‘˜ + 2 as required.

Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that π‘˜ 1βˆ’ 𝑖=2 1 π‘˜+1 = 2 𝑖 2π‘˜ for some integer π‘˜ β‰₯ 2. π‘˜+1 π‘˜ 1+π‘₯ 2 π‘–βˆ’1 1 + π‘₯2 = 𝑖=1 𝑖=1 as required. if π‘₯ = 1. π‘₯2 π‘–βˆ’1 = 1 for all 𝑖 β‰₯ 1 and so 𝑛 1 + π‘₯2 π‘–βˆ’1 = 2𝑛 . Moreover. Conclusion: Hence 𝑛 1+π‘₯ 2 π‘–βˆ’1 𝑖=1 π‘–βˆ’1 βˆ™ 1 + π‘₯2 π‘˜+1 βˆ’1 π‘˜ 1 βˆ’ π‘₯2 π‘˜ = 1 + π‘₯2 1βˆ’π‘₯ π‘˜+1 1 βˆ’ π‘₯2 = 1βˆ’π‘₯ 1 βˆ’ π‘₯2 = 1βˆ’π‘₯ 𝑛 for all integers 𝑛 β‰₯ 1 and for all real numbers π‘₯ β‰  1. 1βˆ’π‘₯ By inductive definition and inductive hypothesis. 𝑖=1 19.π‘˜+1 π‘˜+1 1+π‘₯ 2 π‘–βˆ’1 𝑖=1 1 βˆ’ π‘₯2 = . 2 1βˆ’ 𝑖=2 1 1 3 =1βˆ’ 2 = 2 𝑖 2 4 and 𝑛+1 2+1 3 = = 2𝑛 2(2) 4 as required. Prove that 𝑛 1βˆ’ 𝑖=2 1 𝑛+1 = 2 𝑖 2𝑛 for integers 𝑛 β‰₯ 2. However. 2 𝑖 2(π‘˜ + 1) 2π‘˜ + 2 By inductive definition and inductive hypothesis. then the formula does not work since 1 βˆ’ π‘₯ = 0 and we cannot divide by zero. We need to show that π‘˜+1 1βˆ’ 𝑖=2 1 (π‘˜ + 1) + 1 π‘˜+2 = = . . Base case: For 𝑛 = 2.

Then. Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that a 2π‘˜ Γ— 2π‘˜ square grid with any one square removed can be covered by L-shaped tiles. a 21 Γ— 21 square with one square removed can be covered by a single L-shaped tile. Since the 2π‘˜+1 Γ— 2π‘˜+1 square grid has one square removed. a 2𝑛 Γ— 2𝑛 square grid with any one square removed can be covered using L-shaped tiles such as the one shown below. for a positive integer 𝑛. we obtain four 2π‘˜ Γ— 2π‘˜ square grids (observe that 2π‘˜+1 2 = 2π‘˜ ). By induction hypothesis.π‘˜+1 𝑖=2 1 1βˆ’ 2 𝑖 π‘˜ = 1βˆ’ 𝑖=2 1 𝑖2 βˆ™ 1βˆ’ 1 (π‘˜ + 1)2 π‘˜+1 1 = βˆ™ 1βˆ’ 2π‘˜ (π‘˜ + 1)2 π‘˜+1 π‘˜+1 2βˆ’1 = 2π‘˜ π‘˜ + 1 2 π‘˜+1 2 βˆ’1 = 2π‘˜ π‘˜ + 1 π‘˜ 2 + 2π‘˜ + 1 βˆ’ 1 = 2π‘˜ π‘˜ + 1 π‘˜ π‘˜+2 = 2π‘˜ π‘˜ + 1 π‘˜+2 = 2π‘˜ + 2 as required. 20. remove the square that touches the center of the original 2π‘˜+1 Γ— 2π‘˜+1 square grid (as shown in the figure below). The other three 2π‘˜ Γ— 2π‘˜ square grid are complete. we can cover the three squares touching the center of the original 2π‘˜+1 Γ— 2π‘˜+1 square grid. If we divide the 2π‘˜+1 Γ— 2π‘˜+1 square grid in four equal square grids (as shown in the figure below). We need to deduce that a 2π‘˜+1 Γ— 2π‘˜+1 square grid with any one square removed can be covered using L-shaped tiles. all four of the 2π‘˜ Γ— 2π‘˜ square grids with one square removed can be covered using L-shaped tiles. with one more L-shaped tile. this removed square must lie in one of the four 2π‘˜ Γ— 2π‘˜ square grids (as shown by the shaded square in the corner of the figure below). . Base case: For 𝑛 = 1. Conclusion: Hence 𝑛 1βˆ’ 𝑖=2 1 𝑛+1 = 2 𝑖 2𝑛 for all integers 𝑛 β‰₯ 2. Now from each of the complete 2π‘˜ Γ— 2π‘˜ square grids. Prove that.

Prove by induction on 𝑛 that π‘₯ 𝑛 + 1 π‘₯ 𝑛 is an integer for all positive integers 𝑛. a 2𝑛 Γ— 2𝑛 square grid with any one square removed can be covered using L-shaped tiles. The general result now follows by proving the converse of the usual inductive step: if the result holds for 𝑛 = π‘˜ + 1. π‘₯ 𝑛 + 1 π‘₯ 𝑛 is an integer for all positive integers 𝑛. [it does not seem to be possible to give a direct proof of this result using induction on 𝑛. Conclusion: Hence. π‘₯ 𝑛 + 1 π‘₯ 𝑛 = π‘₯ + 1 π‘₯ is an integer as required. Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that π‘₯ π‘˜ + 1 π‘₯ π‘˜ is an integer for all positive integers 𝑛 ≀ π‘˜ for some integer π‘˜ β‰₯ 2.Thus we can cover the original 2π‘˜+1 Γ— 2π‘˜+1 square grid with one square removed using L-shaped tiles as required. then it holds for 𝑛 = π‘˜. However it can be proved for 𝑛 = 2π‘š for π‘š β‰₯ 0 by induction on π‘š. We need to show that π‘₯ π‘˜+1 + 1 π‘₯ π‘˜+1 is an integer. π‘₯ +1 π‘₯ is an integer. By inductive hypothesis. Thus π‘₯ π‘˜+1 + 1 π‘₯ π‘˜+1 must be an integer as required. 2π‘˜+1 2π‘˜ 2π‘˜+1 2π‘˜ 2π‘˜ 2π‘˜ 21.] . by inductive hypothesis. Now π‘₯ 𝑛 + 1 π‘₯ 𝑛 2 = π‘₯ 2 + 1 π‘₯ 2 + 2 is an integer since the square of an integer is an integer and thus π‘₯ 2 + 1 π‘₯ 2 is an integer (since for any integer π‘Ž. for a positive integer 𝑛.] Strong induction is used. Prove that 1 𝑛 𝑛 π‘₯𝑖 β‰₯ 𝑖=1 1/𝑛 𝑛 π‘₯𝑖 𝑖=1 for positive integers 𝑛 and positive real numbers π‘₯𝑖 . Suppose that π‘₯ is a real number such that π‘₯ + 1 π‘₯ is an integer. [For the inductive step consider π‘₯ π‘˜ + 1 π‘₯ π‘˜ π‘₯ + 1 π‘₯ . Base case: For 𝑛 = 1. where π‘˜ is a positive integer. by induction on 𝑛. But 1 1 1 1 π‘₯+ π‘₯ π‘˜ + π‘˜ = π‘₯ π‘˜+1 + π‘˜+1 + π‘₯ π‘˜βˆ’1 + π‘˜βˆ’1 π‘₯ π‘₯ π‘₯ π‘₯ π‘˜βˆ’1 π‘˜βˆ’1 and. π‘₯ + 1 π‘₯ π‘₯ π‘˜ + 1 π‘₯ π‘˜ is an integer since the product of two integers is an integer. Conclusion: Hence. 22. π‘Ž βˆ’ 2 is an integer) proving the result for 𝑛 = 2.

for some positive integer π‘š. using this result. then 1 𝑛 𝑛 𝑖=1 1 π‘₯𝑖 = 𝑛π‘₯1 = π‘₯1 = π‘₯1 𝑛 𝑛 1/𝑛 𝑛 1 𝑛 = π‘₯𝑖 𝑖=1 which implies that 1 𝑛 𝑛 1/𝑛 𝑛 π‘₯𝑖 β‰₯ 𝑖=1 π‘₯𝑖 𝑖=1 as required. and it is proved by induction. Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that 1 𝑛 𝑛 1/𝑛 𝑛 π‘₯𝑖 β‰₯ 𝑖=1 π‘₯𝑖 𝑖=1 where 𝑛 = 2π‘š . we have π‘₯1 β‰  π‘₯2 π‘₯1 βˆ’ π‘₯2 β‰  0 π‘₯1 βˆ’ π‘₯2 2 > 0 π‘₯1 2 βˆ’ 2π‘₯1 π‘₯2 + π‘₯2 2 > 0 π‘₯1 2 + 2π‘₯1 π‘₯2 + π‘₯2 2 > 4π‘₯1 π‘₯2 π‘₯1 + π‘₯2 2 > 4π‘₯1 π‘₯2 π‘₯1 + π‘₯2 2 > π‘₯1 π‘₯2 2 π‘₯1 + π‘₯2 > π‘₯1 π‘₯2 2 and so 1 2 2 1/2 2 π‘₯𝑖 β‰₯ 𝑖=1 π‘₯𝑖 𝑖=1 as required. and since they are not equal.case 1: If all the terms of the sequence π‘₯𝑖 are equal. 𝑖=1 Then by inductive hypothesis 1 2π‘š +1 2π‘š +1 π‘₯𝑖 = 𝑖=1 π‘₯1 + π‘₯2 + β‹― + π‘₯2π‘š +1 2π‘š +1 . π‘₯1 and π‘₯2 . Clearly this case is only possible when 𝑛 > 1. case 2: If not all the terms of the sequence π‘₯𝑖 are equal. we deduce that the inequality is true for all positive integers 𝑛. that is π‘₯1 = π‘₯2 = β‹― = π‘₯𝑛 . First we prove the inequality when 𝑛 = 2π‘š for π‘š β‰₯ 1 and then. So we have two terms. We need to show that 1 2π‘š +1 2π‘š +1 1/2π‘š +1 2π‘š +1 π‘₯𝑖 β‰₯ 𝑖=1 π‘₯𝑖 . 𝑛 = 2π‘š = 21 = 2. Base case: For π‘š = 1.

the result is true for all positive integers π‘š. … is unbounded above.8. by induction on π‘š. Hence. If 𝑛 is not equal to some natural power of 2. Then π‘₯1 + π‘₯2 + β‹― + π‘₯𝑛 𝛼= 𝑛 π‘š π‘₯ + π‘₯ 1 2 + β‹― + π‘₯𝑛 =𝑛 π‘š π‘š +1βˆ’1 π‘₯1 + π‘₯2 + β‹― + π‘₯𝑛 = 𝑛 π‘š π‘₯1 + π‘₯2 + β‹― + π‘₯𝑛 + π‘šπ‘›βˆ’π‘› π‘₯1 + π‘₯2 + β‹― + π‘₯𝑛 = π‘š π‘₯1 + π‘₯2 + β‹― + π‘₯𝑛 + π‘š βˆ’ 𝑛 𝛼 = π‘š π‘₯1 + π‘₯2 + β‹― + π‘₯𝑛 + π‘₯𝑛+1 + β‹― + π‘₯π‘š = π‘š β‰₯ π‘š π‘₯1 βˆ™ π‘₯2 β‹― π‘₯𝑛 βˆ™ π‘₯𝑛+1 β‹― π‘₯π‘š = and so π‘š π‘₯1 βˆ™ π‘₯2 β‹― π‘₯𝑛 βˆ™ 𝛼 π‘š βˆ’π‘› .4. Also let 1 𝑛 𝑛 π‘₯𝑖 = 𝛼 𝑖=1 and expand our list of terms such that π‘₯𝑛+1 = π‘₯𝑛+2 = β‹― = π‘₯π‘š = 𝛼.16. Therefore let π‘š be some natural power of 2 that is greater than 𝑛. 2π‘š . since the sequence 2. … Now we proceed to prove the inequality for all positive integers 𝑛.4.16. that is for 𝑛 = 2. … .1 π‘₯1 + π‘₯2 + β‹― + π‘₯2π‘š +1 2 2π‘š 1 π‘₯1 + π‘₯2 + β‹― + π‘₯2π‘š 1 π‘₯2π‘š +1 + π‘₯2π‘š +2 + β‹― + π‘₯2π‘š +1 = + 2 2π‘š 2 2π‘š 1 π‘₯1 + π‘₯2 + β‹― + π‘₯2π‘š π‘₯2π‘š +1 + π‘₯2π‘š +2 + β‹― + π‘₯2π‘š +1 = + 2 2π‘š 2π‘š π‘š π‘š 2 π‘₯1 βˆ™ π‘₯2 β‹― π‘₯2π‘š + 2 π‘₯2π‘š +1 βˆ™ π‘₯2π‘š +2 β‹― π‘₯2π‘š +1 β‰₯ 2 = β‰₯ 2π‘š π‘₯1 βˆ™ π‘₯2 β‹― π‘₯2π‘š Γ— 2 = 2π‘š π‘₯1 βˆ™ π‘₯2 β‹― π‘₯2π‘š +1 = 2 π‘š +1 π‘₯1 βˆ™ π‘₯2 β‹― π‘₯2π‘š +1 π‘₯2π‘š +1 βˆ™ π‘₯2π‘š +2 β‹― π‘₯2π‘š +1 1/2π‘š +1 2π‘š +1 = π‘š π‘₯𝑖 𝑖=1 as required. then it is certainly less than some natural power of 2.8. Thus the inequality is true for the natural powers of 2.

we prove the result for the non-negative integers. Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that 1 1 1 βˆ™ = π‘₯π‘˜ π‘¦π‘˜ π‘₯𝑦 π‘˜ for some non-negative integer π‘˜. by inductive definition and inductive hypothesis.7. 1 1 1 1 1 1 βˆ™ = βˆ™ = = π‘₯ π‘˜+1 𝑦 π‘˜+1 π‘₯ βˆ™ π‘₯ π‘˜ 𝑦 βˆ™ 𝑦 π‘˜ π‘₯𝑦 π‘₯𝑦 π‘˜ π‘₯𝑦 π‘˜+1 . [Hint: Start from exercise 5. by the definition of π‘₯ βˆ’π‘š . Conclusion: Hence.3. Base case: For 𝑛 = 0. π‘₯ 𝑛 𝑦 𝑛 = π‘₯𝑦 𝑛 for any non-zero real numbers π‘₯ and 𝑦 and non-negative integers 𝑛. Then.3 to a definition of powers π‘₯ 𝑛 for all integers 𝑛 by defining π‘₯ βˆ’π‘š = 1 π‘₯ π‘š for integers π‘š > 0. 1 1 1 βˆ™ 𝑛 =1= 𝑛 π‘₯ 𝑦 π‘₯𝑦 𝑛 as required. π‘₯ 𝑛 𝑦 𝑛 = 1 = π‘₯𝑦 𝑛 as required. the inequality is true for all positive integers 𝑛 and all positive real numbers π‘₯𝑖 . 23. π‘₯ π‘˜+1 𝑦 π‘˜+1 π‘₯𝑦 π‘˜+1 Then. We need to show that 1 1 1 βˆ™ = . With these definitions prove the laws of exponents for any non-zero real numbers π‘₯ and 𝑦 and integers π‘š and 𝑛: (i) π‘₯ 𝑛 𝑦 𝑛 = π‘₯𝑦 𝑛 . by induction on 𝑛. by induction on 𝑛.𝛼 π‘š β‰₯ π‘₯1 βˆ™ π‘₯2 β‹― π‘₯𝑛 βˆ™ 𝛼 π‘š βˆ’π‘› 𝛼 𝑛 β‰₯ π‘₯1 βˆ™ π‘₯2 β‹― π‘₯𝑛 𝛼 β‰₯ 𝑛 π‘₯1 βˆ™ π‘₯2 β‹― π‘₯𝑛 1 𝑛 𝑛 π‘₯𝑖 β‰₯ 𝑖=1 1/𝑛 𝑛 π‘₯𝑖 𝑖=1 as required. we can conclude that the result is true for all the non-positive integers. π‘₯ π‘˜+1 𝑦 π‘˜+1 = π‘₯ βˆ™ π‘₯ π‘˜ 𝑦 βˆ™ 𝑦 π‘˜ = π‘₯𝑦 π‘₯𝑦 π‘˜ = π‘₯𝑦 π‘˜+1 as required to prove the result for 𝑛 = π‘˜ + 1.] (i) First. Base case: For 𝑛 = 0. For non-zero real numbers π‘₯ we may extend Definition 5. by inductive definition and inductive hypothesis. (iii) π‘₯ π‘š 𝑛 = π‘₯ π‘šπ‘› . Hence. (ii) π‘₯ π‘š +𝑛 = π‘₯ π‘š π‘₯ 𝑛 . We need to show that π‘₯ π‘˜+1 𝑦 π‘˜+1 = π‘₯𝑦 π‘˜+1 . Now we prove the result for the non-positive integers by proving that 1 1 1 βˆ™ = π‘₯𝑛 𝑦𝑛 π‘₯𝑦 𝑛 for all non-negative integers 𝑛. Then. Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that π‘₯ π‘˜ 𝑦 π‘˜ = π‘₯𝑦 π‘˜ for some non-negative integer π‘˜.

We need to show that π‘₯ π‘š +π‘˜+1 = π‘₯ π‘š π‘₯ π‘˜+1 . Base case: For 𝑛 = 0. . Base case: For 𝑛 = 0. 1 1 1 1 = π‘š = π‘š 0= π‘š 𝑛 π‘š +𝑛 π‘₯ π‘₯ π‘₯ π‘₯ π‘₯ π‘₯ as required. (ii) First. Conclusion: Hence. by inductive definition and inductive hypothesis. by inductive definition and inductive hypothesis. We need to show that 1 1 = π‘š π‘˜+1 . Base case: For 𝑛 = 0. Therefore π‘₯ 𝑛 𝑦 𝑛 = π‘₯𝑦 𝑛 for any non-zero real numbers π‘₯ and 𝑦 and any integer 𝑛. π‘₯ π‘š +π‘˜+1 = π‘₯π‘₯ π‘š +π‘˜ = π‘₯π‘₯ π‘š π‘₯ π‘˜ = π‘₯ π‘š π‘₯π‘₯ π‘˜ = π‘₯ π‘š π‘₯ π‘˜+1 as required to prove the result for 𝑛 = π‘˜ + 1. Now we prove the result for the non-positive integers by proving that 1 1 = π‘š 𝑛 π‘š +𝑛 π‘₯ π‘₯ π‘₯ for all non-negative integers π‘š and 𝑛.as required to prove the result for 𝑛 = π‘˜ + 1. by induction on 𝑛. π‘š +π‘˜+1 π‘₯ π‘₯ π‘₯ Then. (iii) First. Then. Conclusion: Hence. we prove the result for the non-negative integers. π‘₯ π‘š +𝑛 = π‘₯ π‘š π‘₯ 𝑛 for any non-zero real number π‘₯ and non-negative integers π‘š and 𝑛. by the definition of π‘₯ βˆ’π‘š . π‘₯ π‘š +𝑛 = π‘₯ π‘š = π‘₯ π‘š π‘₯ 0 = π‘₯ π‘š π‘₯ 𝑛 as required. by induction on 𝑛. Conclusion: Hence. 1 1 1 1 1 = π‘š +π‘˜ = π‘š π‘˜ = π‘š π‘˜ = π‘š π‘˜+1 π‘š +π‘˜+1 π‘₯ π‘₯π‘₯ π‘₯π‘₯ π‘₯ π‘₯ π‘₯π‘₯ π‘₯ π‘₯ as required to prove the result for 𝑛 = π‘˜ + 1. by induction on 𝑛. 1 1 = π‘š 𝑛 π‘š +𝑛 π‘₯ π‘₯ π‘₯ for any non-zero real number π‘₯ and non-negative integers π‘š and 𝑛. Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that π‘₯ π‘š +π‘˜ = π‘₯ π‘š π‘₯ π‘˜ for some non-negative integer π‘˜. Therefore π‘₯ π‘š +𝑛 = π‘₯ π‘š π‘₯ 𝑛 for any non-zero real number π‘₯ and any integers π‘š and 𝑛. Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that 1 1 = π‘š π‘˜ π‘š +π‘˜ π‘₯ π‘₯ π‘₯ for some non-negative integer π‘˜. we prove the result for the non-negative integers. 1 1 1 βˆ™ 𝑛= 𝑛 π‘₯ 𝑦 π‘₯𝑦 𝑛 for any non-zero real numbers π‘₯ and 𝑦 and non-negative integers 𝑛. Then. we can conclude that the result is true for all the non-positive integers. π‘₯ π‘š 𝑛 = 1 = π‘₯ 0 = π‘₯ π‘šπ‘› as required.

by induction on 𝑛. if in every month each pair bears a new pair which become productive from the second month on? Assuming that no rabbits die. by inductive definition and inductive hypothesis. 1 1 1 = 1 = 0 = π‘šπ‘› π‘₯π‘š 𝑛 π‘₯ π‘₯ as required. by induction on 𝑛. 1 1 = π‘šπ‘› π‘š 𝑛 π‘₯ π‘₯ for any non-zero real number π‘₯ and non-negative integers π‘š and 𝑛. inductive hypothesis. we can conclude that the result is true for all the non-positive integers. π‘š π‘˜+1 π‘₯ π‘₯ Then. π‘₯ π‘š 𝑛 = π‘₯ π‘šπ‘› for any non-zero real number π‘₯ and non-negative integers π‘š and 𝑛. Using a calculator and the Binnet formula (Proposition 5. Therefore π‘₯ π‘š 𝑛 = π‘₯ π‘šπ‘› for any non-zero real number π‘₯ and any integers π‘š and 𝑛. Conclusion: Hence. express the number after 𝑛 months as a Fibonacci number and hence answer the problem. π‘₯ π‘š π‘˜+1 = π‘₯ π‘š π‘₯ π‘š π‘˜ = π‘₯ π‘š π‘₯ π‘šπ‘˜ = π‘₯ π‘š +π‘šπ‘˜ (by part (ii) of the problem) = π‘₯ π‘š π‘˜+1 as required to prove the result for 𝑛 = π‘˜ + 1. Then. by inductive definition. Base case: For 𝑛 = 0. and part (ii) of the problem 1 1 1 1 1 = π‘š = π‘š π‘šπ‘˜ = π‘š +π‘šπ‘˜ = π‘š π‘˜+1 π‘š π‘˜+1 π‘š π‘˜ π‘₯ π‘₯ π‘₯ π‘₯ π‘₯ π‘₯ π‘₯ as required to prove the result for 𝑛 = π‘˜ + 1. We need to show that 1 1 = π‘š π‘˜+1 . 24. beginning with a single pair.3) find the number after three years. We need to show that π‘₯ π‘š π‘˜+1 = π‘₯ π‘š π‘˜+1 . The 𝑛th Fibonacci number is given by the following formula: 𝛼 𝑛 βˆ’ 𝛽𝑛 𝑒𝑛 = 5 . by the definition of π‘₯ βˆ’π‘š . Then. Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that 1 1 = π‘šπ‘˜ π‘š π‘˜ π‘₯ π‘₯ for some non-negative integer π‘˜.Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that π‘₯ π‘š π‘˜ = π‘₯ π‘šπ‘˜ for some non-negative integer π‘˜.4. Fibonacci’s rabbit problem may be stated as follows: How many pairs of rabbits will be produced in a year. Conclusion: Hence. Now we prove the result for the non-positive integers by proving that 1 1 = π‘šπ‘› π‘š 𝑛 π‘₯ π‘₯ for all non-negative integers 𝑛.

Observe that all the Fibonacci numbers are integers since every number is the sum of the previous two numbers.4. π‘’π‘š divides π‘’π‘šπ‘› means that π‘’π‘šπ‘› = π‘’π‘š π‘ž for some integer π‘ž. Conclusion: Hence. Strong induction is used. that π‘’π‘š +𝑛 = π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 𝑒𝑛 + π‘’π‘š 𝑒𝑛+1 for all positive integers π‘š and 𝑛. π‘’π‘š +𝑛 = π‘’π‘š +1 = π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 𝑒1 + π‘’π‘š 𝑒2 = π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 + π‘’π‘š (since.4. π‘’π‘š +π‘˜+1 = π‘’π‘š +π‘˜ + π‘’π‘š +π‘˜βˆ’1 and by inductive hypothesis π‘’π‘š +π‘˜+1 = π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 π‘’π‘˜ + π‘’π‘š π‘’π‘˜+1 + π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 π‘’π‘˜βˆ’1 + π‘’π‘š π‘’π‘˜ = π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 π‘’π‘˜ + π‘’π‘˜βˆ’1 + π‘’π‘š π‘’π‘˜+1 + π‘’π‘˜ = π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 π‘’π‘˜+1 + π‘’π‘š π‘’π‘˜+2 = π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 π‘’π‘˜+1 + π‘’π‘š π‘’π‘˜+2 as required.2).3). Base case: For 𝑛 = 1. Thus after one year (12 months) there are 𝛼 12 βˆ’ 𝛽12 𝑒12 = = 144 rabbits 5 and after three years (36 months) there are 𝛼 36 βˆ’ 𝛽 36 𝑒36 = = 14930352 rabbits 5 25. π‘’π‘šπ‘› = π‘’π‘š and so π‘’π‘š divides π‘’π‘šπ‘› as required. again using induction on 𝑛.where 𝛼 = 1 + 5 2 and 𝛽 = 1 βˆ’ 5 2 and 𝑛 is the number of months. Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that π‘’π‘š +π‘˜ = π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 π‘’π‘˜ + π‘’π‘š π‘’π‘˜+1 for all positive integers 𝑛 ≀ π‘˜ for some positive integer π‘˜ β‰₯ 2. Then. Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that there exists some integer π‘ž such that π‘’π‘šπ‘˜ = π‘’π‘š π‘ž for some positive integers π‘š and π‘˜. We need to show that π‘’π‘š +π‘˜+1 = π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 π‘’π‘˜+1 + π‘’π‘š π‘’π‘˜+2 . Deduce. Then. by induction on 𝑛. which in turn are integers. by the inductive definition of the Fibonacci sequence. Then π‘’π‘š +2 = π‘’π‘š +1 βˆ’ π‘’π‘š + 2π‘’π‘š = π‘’π‘š +1 + π‘’π‘š as required. by induction on 𝑛 (Without using the Binnet formula Proposition 5. π‘’π‘š +𝑛 = π‘’π‘š +2 = π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 𝑒2 + π‘’π‘š 𝑒3 = π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 + 2π‘’π‘š (since 𝑒3 = 𝑒1 + 𝑒2 = 1 + 1 = 2). π‘’π‘š +𝑛 = π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 𝑒𝑛 + π‘’π‘š 𝑒𝑛+1 for all positive integers π‘š and 𝑛. by the inductive definition of the Fibonacci sequence. Base case: For 𝑛 = 1. Prove. For 𝑛 = 2. that π‘’π‘š divides π‘’π‘šπ‘› . by the first part of the problem and by inductive hypothesis. Let 𝑒𝑛 be the 𝑛th Fibonacci number (Definition 5. π‘’π‘š π‘˜+1 = π‘’π‘šπ‘˜ +π‘š = π‘’π‘šπ‘˜ βˆ’1 π‘’π‘š + π‘’π‘šπ‘˜ π‘’π‘š +1 = π‘’π‘šπ‘˜ βˆ’1 π‘’π‘š + π‘’π‘š π‘žπ‘’π‘š +1 . We need to show that π‘’π‘š π‘˜+1 = π‘’π‘š 𝑝 for some integer 𝑝. 𝑒1 = 𝑒2 = 1). Note that by the first case π‘’π‘š βˆ’1 = π‘’π‘š +1 βˆ’ π‘’π‘š .

26. by induction on 𝑛. π‘Ž5 . we can see that the interior of the circle is divided into one region and π‘Žπ‘› = 𝑛 + 𝐢 𝑛 βˆ’ 1. Base case: For 𝑛 = 1. Suppose that 𝑛 points on a circle are all joined in pairs. Draw diagrams to find π‘Žπ‘› for 𝑛 ≀ 6. π‘Ž4 .3 + 𝐢 𝑛 βˆ’ 1. π‘Ž2 . π‘’π‘š divides π‘’π‘šπ‘› for all positive integers π‘š and 𝑛. However note that the points on the circle do not form a regular hexagon circumscribed about a circle for otherwise we would obtain three lines concurrent at the center of the circle. π‘Žπ‘› = 𝑛 + 𝐢 𝑛 βˆ’ 1. Let π‘Žπ‘› be the number of regions into which the interior of the circle is divided. 3 + 𝐢 π‘˜. 4 π‘˜! π‘˜! π‘˜! =π‘˜+1+ + + 2! π‘˜ βˆ’ 2 ! 3! π‘˜ βˆ’ 3 ! 4! π‘˜ βˆ’ 4 ! 1 1 1 = π‘˜+1+ π‘˜ π‘˜βˆ’1 + π‘˜ π‘˜βˆ’1 π‘˜βˆ’2 + π‘˜ π‘˜βˆ’1 π‘˜βˆ’2 π‘˜βˆ’3 2 6 24 7 11 2 1 3 1 4 =1+ π‘˜+ π‘˜ βˆ’ π‘˜ + π‘˜ 12 24 12 24 2 3 π‘˜ 14 + 11π‘˜ βˆ’ 2π‘˜ + π‘˜ =1+ 24 π‘˜ π‘˜ + 1 π‘˜ 2 βˆ’ 3π‘˜ + 14 =1+ 24 π‘˜ π‘˜ + 1 π‘˜ + 1 2 βˆ’ 5 π‘˜ + 1 + 18 =1+ 24 as required to prove the result for 𝑛 = π‘˜ + 1. The points are positioned so that no three joining lines are concurrent in the interior of the circle. Prove that π‘Žπ‘› is given by the following formula. The following are the drawings corresponding to π‘Ž1 . Then by definition. 2 + 𝐢 π‘˜. Conclusion: Hence.= π‘’π‘š π‘’π‘šπ‘˜ βˆ’1 + π‘žπ‘’π‘š +1 = π‘’π‘š 𝑝 where 𝑝 = π‘’π‘šπ‘˜ βˆ’1 + π‘žπ‘’π‘š +1 is an integer and so π‘’π‘š divides π‘’π‘š π‘˜+1 as required. π‘Žπ‘˜+1 = π‘˜ + 1 + 𝐢 π‘˜.4 = 1 + 𝑛 𝑛 βˆ’ 1 𝑛2 βˆ’ 5𝑛 + 18 24.4 = 1 = 1 + 𝑛 𝑛 βˆ’ 1 𝑛2 βˆ’ 5𝑛 + 18 24 as required. We need to show that π‘Žπ‘˜+1 = 1 + π‘˜ π‘˜ + 1 π‘˜ + 1 2 βˆ’ 5 π‘˜ + 1 + 18 24.2 + 𝐢 𝑛 βˆ’ 1. Thus there is another region (not visible in such diagram) at the center of the figure. Inductive step: Suppose now as inductive hypothesis that π‘Žπ‘˜ = 1 + π‘˜ π‘˜ βˆ’ 1 π‘˜ 2 βˆ’ 5π‘˜ + 18 24 for some positive integer π‘˜. and π‘Ž6 .3 + 𝐢 𝑛 βˆ’ 1.2 + 𝐢 𝑛 βˆ’ 1. For π‘Ž6 . . π‘Ž3 . it is not feasible to show that the center is not the intersection of three lines since we are working with small diagrams.

by induction on 𝑛. π‘Žπ‘› = 1 + 𝑛 𝑛 βˆ’ 1 𝑛2 βˆ’ 5𝑛 + 18 24 for all positive integers 𝑛. .Conclusion: Hence.