You are on page 1of 21

RTFQ* Question Bank

Entrance Test- Airlines


(RTFQ= Read the F%$&# Question CAREFULLY)

1. When CG moves aft, what happens to the amount of available control deflection on
elevator?
a. Available control deflection increases
b. Available control deflection decreases
c. Does not get affected by CG movement
2. When the C.G. position is moved forward, the elevator deflection for a manoeuvre
with a load factor greater than 1 will be:
a) Unchanged
b) Smaller
c) Larger
d) Dependent on trim position
3. A cambered wing would achieve:
a. Lower CL at a higher AOA
b. Lower CL at a lower AOA
c. Higher CL at a lower AOA
4. Standard units of measurement for horizontal distance are:
a. Metre, Nautical mile, Kilometre
b. Metre, Statute mile, Nautical mile
c. Metre, feet, Nautical mile
5. Type of fog observed on a clear night, light winds is:
a. Advection fog
b. Radiation fog
c. Steam fog
6. Which of the following conditions are most favourable to the formation of mountain
waves?
a. Stable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across
the mountain ridge.
b. Unstable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across
the mountain ridge.
c. Either stable or unstable air at mountain top and a wind of at least 30 knots
blowing parallel to the mountain ridge.
d. Moist unstable air at mountain top and wind of less than 5 knots blowing across
the mountain ridge.

7. Annexure regarding the Rules of air:


a. Annexure 4
b. Annexure 3
c. Annexure 2
8. Annexure regarding the carriage of dangerous goods as laid down by amendments in
the Chicago convention of 1944:
a. Annexure 18
b. Annexure 17
c. Annexure 14
9. Which of these values are mentioned in the ISA?
1. Temperature
2. Density
3. Pressure
4. Humidity
a. 1,3
b. 1,2,3
c. 1,2,3,4
10. Range of VOR located at 190 amsl and aircraft flying @ 6000 amsl.
a. 116km
b. 141km
c. 116nm
11.Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a multi-engine aircraft are:
a. Centrifugal low pressure type pumps.
b. Low pressure variable swash plate pumps.
c. Centrifugal high pressure pumps.
d. High pressure variable swash plate pumps
12. The use of igniters is necessary on a turbo-jet:
1 - throughout the operating range of the engine
2 - for accelerations
3 - for ground starts
4 - for in-flight relights
5 - during turbulence in flight
6 - under heavy precipitation or in icing conditions
The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:
a) 2, 3, 4, 5

b) 3
c) 3, 4, 5, 6
d) 1
13.The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:
a. Taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways
b. Glider flying is performed outside the landing area
c. Landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only
d. This aerodrome is using parallel runways
14.Intruding Traffic Advisory is represented on the TCAS II by:
a. Full Yellow circle
b. Full Red square
c. Cyan hollow lozenges
15. The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates the following sound signal
or signals when the aircraft is sinking after a take-off or a go-around:
a. DON'T SINK repetitive only
b. WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP repetitive only
c. DON'T SINK always followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP
d. DON'T SINK followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP if the sink rate overshoots a
second level
16. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:
a. Standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states,
signatory to the Chicago convention.
b. Aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
c. Proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
d. Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member
states
17. The second freedom of the air is the:
a. Right to overfly without landing
b. Right to land for a technical stop
c. Right to ""Cabotage"" traffic, (trans-border traffic)
d. Right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board
between two states.
18. A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:
a. Dangerous airfield. Do not land
b. Come back and land
c. Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.

d. Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.

19. An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from
the rear on a line forming an angle of less than:
a. 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
b. 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
c. 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
d.. 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
20.Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in
conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?
a. Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600.
b. Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communication failure 7500.
c. Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.
d. Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.
21.The tanks of a hydraulic system are pressurized:
a. In flight only.
b. By bleed air coming from the turbine-engine.
c. By the air conditioning system.
d. By an auxiliary system.
22.The pressurization of the cabin is controlled by:
a. The cabin inlet airflow.
b. The cabin outflow valve.
c. The engine's RPM.
d. The engine's bleed valves.
23.A bus-bar is:
a. The stator of a moving coil instrument.
b. A device permitting operation of two or more switches together.
c. A distribution point for electrical power.
d. A device which may only be used in DC circuits.

24.In the cabin, when the oxygen mask is pulled downwards, the passenger breathes:
a. Pure oxygen under pressure.
b. A mixture of oxygen and cabin air.
c. Pure oxygen at the ambient pressure.
d. Cabin air under pressure.
25.For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level flight, a fall in ambient
temperature will result in a:
a. Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to an decrease in air density
b. Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density
c. Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density
d. Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to a increase in air density
26. After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total
pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent
and finds that the indicated airspeed :
a. Increases steadily
b. Increases abruptly towards VNE
c. Decreases steadily
d. Decreases abruptly towards zero
27. The reading of a Mach indicator is independent of:
a. The total pressure
b. The static pressure
c. The outside temperature
d. The differential pressure measurement
28. The operating principle of the vertical speed indicator (VSI) is based on the
measurement of the rate of change of:
a. Pitot pressure
b. Dynamic pressure
c. Static pressure
d. Total pressure
29. A pilot wishes to turn right on to a northerly heading with 20 bank at a latitude of
40 north. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the
turn on to an approximate heading of:
a. 330
b. 350
c. 030
d. 010

30.A flux valve senses the changes in orientation of the horizontal component of the
earth's magnetic field.
1- The flux valve is made of a pair of soft iron bars
2- The primary coils are fed A.C. voltage (usually 487.5 Hz)
3- The information can be used by a ""flux gate"" compass or a directional gyro
4- The flux gate valve casing is dependent on the aircraft three inertial axis
5- The accuracy on the value of the magnetic field indication is less than 0,5%
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
a. 1, 3, 4, 5
b. 2, 3, 5
c. 3, 5
d. 1, 4, 5
31. For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed relates to the speed at which
the engine:
a. Will run without any external assistance.
b. Is designed to idle after starting.
c. Operates most efficiently in the cruise.
d. Will enable the generators to supply bus-bar voltage.
32. A "hung start" is the failure of an engine to accelerate to its normal idle speed. It
may be caused by:
a. The starter cutting out early in the starting sequence before the engine has
accelerated to the required rpm for ignition.
b. Compressor surging.
c. An attempt to ignite the fuel before the engine has been accelerated sufficiently
by the starter.
d. Failure of the fuel to ignite in the starting sequence after the engine has been
accelerated to the required rpm by the starter
33. In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor rpm is:
a. Independent of turbine rpm.
b. The same as turbine rpm
c. Greater than turbine rpm.
d. Less than turbine rpm.

34. For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level flight, a fall in ambient
temperature will result in a:
a. Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to an decrease in air density
b. Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density
c. Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density
d. Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density
35. Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind?
a. The obstacle limited take-off mass.
b. The field limited take-off mass.
c. The climb limited take-off mass.
d. The take-off run.
36. What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator?
a. 11,000m
b. 8000m
c. 16,000m
d. 10km
37. From which of the following pieces of information can the stability of the
atmosphere be derived?
a. Dry adiabatic lapse rate
b. Surface temperature
c. Environmental lapse rate
d. Pressure at the surface
38. What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude? a.
Inversion
b. Subsidence
c. Adiabatic
d. Advection
39. You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is -40C, and the pressure at sea
level is 1033 hPa. What is the true altitude?
a. 19340 feet
b. 20660 feet
c. 21740 feet
d. 18260 feet

40.What characteristics will the surface winds have in an area where the isobars on the
weather map are very close together?
a. Strong and parallel to the isobars.
b. Very weak but gusty and flowing across the isobars.
c. Strong and flowing across the isobars
d. Moderate and parallel to the isobars
41. What is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will reach an altitude of
90 above the horizon at some time during the year?
a. 0
b. 45
c. 66
d. 23
42. The duration of civil twilight is the time:
a. Agreed by the international aeronautical authorities which is 12 minutes
b. Between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 6 below the true horizon
c. Needed by the sun to move from the apparent height of 0 to the apparent height
of 6
d. Between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 12 below the true horizon
43. Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of
a. Turbulence at and below the cloud level
b. Poor visibility at surface
c. Smooth flying conditions below the cloud level
d. A high risk of thunderstorms
44. On a Lambert conformal conic chart the convergence of the meridians: a. Is zero
throughout the chart
b. Is the same as earth convergency at the parallel of origin
c. Varies as the secant of the latitude
d. Equals earth convergency at the standard parallels
45. Details about Instrument procedures can be found:
a. PANS ATM
b. Annexure 13
c. PANS OPS 8168
d. NOTAMS

46. An accumulator in a hydraulic system will:


a. Increase pressure surges within the system.
b. Store fluid under pressure.
c. Reduce fluid temperature and pressure.
d. Reduce fluid temperature only.
47. An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9 000 feet MSL outside
controlled airspace under VFR, must remain on principle at least:
a. 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility.
b. 1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility.c. Clear of
clouds and in sight of the surface, 8 km visibility.
d. 2 000 feet horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility.
48. Visibility from the cockpit is called:
a. Slant visibility
b. Flight visibility
c. RVR
d. Met visibility
49. The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of a pitot tube is the :
a. Dynamic pressure.
b. Static pressure.
c. Total pressure plus static pressure.
d. Total pressure
50. In case of accidental closing of an aircraft's left static pressure port (rain, birds), the
altimeter:
a. Over reads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and displays the correct
information during symmetric flight.
b. Over reads the altitude in case of a side-slip to the right and displays the correct
information during symmetric flight
c. Keeps on providing reliable reading in all situations
d. Under reads the altitude
51. Which statement is correct at the speed for minimum drag (subsonic)?
a. The gliding angle is minimum.
b. The CL/CD ratio is minimum.
c. Induced drag is greater than the parasite drag.
d. Propeller aeroplanes fly at that speed at max. Endurance.

52. Runway 30, W/v 240/35. What is the crosswind component?


a. 24KT
b. 45KT
c. 30KT
d. 10KT
53. During a low level flight two parallel roads that are crossed at right angles by an
aircraft. The time between these roads can be used to check the aircraft:
a. Position
b. Groundspeed
c. Track
d. Drift
54. Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an
aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be
for an IFR flight:
a. At least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
b. At least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
c. At least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
d. At least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
55. A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:
a. Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways.
b. An area unit for the movement of aircraft.
c. The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being
performed.
d. Need special precautions while approaching for landing.
56. Which of the following phenomenon can cause both fog and clouds?
a. Convection
b. Radiation
c. Advection
d. Subsidence
57. Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed
a. By states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
b. By states but not on the basis of regional air agreements
c. By ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
d. By regional air navigation agreements

58. The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on:
a. Pulse modulation of the carrier wave.
b. Amplitude modulation of the carrier wave.
c. Frequency modulation of the carrier wave.
d. A combination of frequency modulation and pulse modulation.
59. Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of :
a. Large super-cooled water drops
b. Water vapour
c. Small super-cooled water drops
d. Snow
60. An aircraft flies the following rhumb line tracks and distances from position 0400'N
03000'W :600 NM South, then 600 NM East, then 600 NM North, then 600 NM
West. The final position of the aircraft is:
a. 0358'N 03002'W
b. 0400'N 03002'W
c. 0400'N 03000'W
d. 0400'N 02958'W
61. How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude?
a. VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude.
b. VMCA is not affected by pressure altitude.
c. VMCA increases with increasing pressure altitude. (AS PER QB)
d. VMCA increases with pressure altitude higher than 4000 ft.
62. Which of the following statements about the difference between Krueger flaps and
slats is correct?
a. Deploying a slat will form a slot, deploying a Krueger flap does not.
b. Deploying a Krueger flap will form a slot, deploying a slat does not.
c. Deploying a slat will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a Krueger flap does
not.
d. Deploying a Krueger flap will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a slat does
not.
63.When turning right from 330(C) to 040(C) in the northern hemisphere, the reading
of a direct reading magnetic compass will:
a. Under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect
b. Over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect
c. Under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect
d. Over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect

64.An outside air temperature of -35C is measured while cruising at FL 200. What is the
temperature deviation from the ISA at this level?
a) 10C warmer than ISA.
b) 10C colder than ISA.
c) 5C warmer than ISA.
d) 5C colder than ISA.
65. An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25 and 35.If a pilot chooses 25
instead of 35, the aircraft will have:
a. An increased landing distance and better go-around performance
b. A reduced landing distance and better go-around performance
c. An increased landing distance and degraded go-around performanced. A reduced
landing distance and degraded go-around performance
66. Using compressor bleed air to power systems:
a. Increases aircraft performance
b. Has no influence on aircraft performance
c. Decreases aircraft performance
d. Is limited to the phases of take-off and landing
67. Which of these factors would increase the Take-off distance the most?
a. Low elevation in summer
b. Low elevation in winter
c. High elevation in summer
d. High elevation in winter
68. Airfield pressure is called:
a. QNH
b. QNE
c. QFE
d. QFF

69. On-board electrical systems are protected against faults of the following type:
1. AC generator over-voltage
2. AC generator under-voltage
3. Over-current
4. over- speed
5. Under-frequency
6. Undue vibration of AC generators
The combination of correct statements is:
a. 1, 2, 4, 6
b. 1, 2, 4, 5
c. 1, 3, 5, 6
d. 2, 3,4,5,6
70. When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: ""fly heading 030"", the
pilot must fly heading:
a. 030 true
b. 030 magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the magnetic track)
c. 030 magnetic
d. 030 true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track)
71. Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates
from the track?
a. Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable
b. Inform the ATC unit immediately
c. If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions
d. Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions
72. How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere?
a. TAS is constant.
b. TAS increases.
c. TAS decreases.
d. TAS is not related to Mach number.
73. Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the maximum
operational speed (VMO), the captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent
from a high flight level. In order to meet his scheduled time of arrival, he decides to
use the maximum ground speed at any time of the descent. He will be limited :
a. By the MMO
b. initially by the VMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight level
c. Initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level
d. By the VMO in still air

74. Relationship of dip is:


a. Decreases towards poles and inversely proportional to H
b. Decreases towards poles and directly proportional to H
c. Increases towards poles and inversely proportional to H
d. Increases towards poles and directly proportional to H
75. Rate of turn of an aircraft depends on
a. TAS
b. Weight
c. Load factor
d. Angle of bank
76. Isobars are represented by lines:
a. In upper level charts for determining upper winds
b. In the core of the jet streams
c. On surface weather charts
d. To determine thermal winds
77. What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an
accurate independent 3-D position fix?
a. 24
b. 5
c. 6
d. 4
78. With which of the following types of cloud is ""+RA"" precipitation most commonly
associated?
a. SC
b. AC
c. NS
d. ST
79. Term used for air mass over ocean:
a. Continental
b. Maritime
c. Tropical
d. Equatorial

80. True track= 358 Variation= 3E, Deviation =2W. Which FL do u select from the
following options?
a. F80
b. F75
c. F65
d. F90
81. In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be
supplemented:
a. By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways ""L"" and ""R"" - for 3 ""L"", ""C""
and ""R"".
b. By a number like ""0"" and ""01"" for 2 parallel runways.
c. By a letter for 2 parallel runways.
d. By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways ""L"" and ""R"" and the central has no
letter.
82. Condensation is:
a. Water changes to ice
b. Vapour changes to water
c. Water changes to vapour
d. Vapour changes to ice
83. The wind indicator for a weather observation receives the measured value from an
anemometer. Where is this instrument placed?
a. 1 m above the runway.
b. On a mast 8-10 m above the ground.
c. Close to the station about 2 m above the ground.
d. On the roof of the weather station.
84. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent
for landing are made is called:
a. Arrival segment.
b. Initial approach segment.
c. Intermediate approach segment.
d. Final approach segment.
85. A Constant Speed Drive aims at ensuring
a. That the CSD remains at a constant RPM notwithstanding the generator RPM
b. That the starter-motor maintains a constant RPM notwithstanding the acceleration
of the engine.
c. That the electric generator produces a constant frequency.
d. Equal AC voltage from all generators.

86. Angle between Magnetic and Compass North is:


a. Variation
b. Deviation
c. Convergence
d. True heading
87. Given: True Heading = 180 TAS = 500 kt W/V 225 / 100 calculate the GS?
a. 435 kt
b. 600 kt
c. 535 kt
d. 450 kt
88. The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by
a. Selecting a lower VR
b. Selecting a lower V1.
c. Selecting a lower V2.
d. A lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2.
89. In a remote indicating compass system the amount of deviation caused by aircraft
magnetism and electrical circuits may be minimised by:
a. Mounting the detector unit where magnetic interference is minimum
b. The use of repeater cards
c. Positioning the master unit in the centre of the aircraft
d. Using a vertically mounted gyroscope
90. If you are subjected to an illusion during night flying you should:
a. Scan the surroundings
b. Dim the cockpit lighting
c. Continue on instruments
d. Use your oxygen mask
91. While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC
clearance. What action must be taken?
a. Squawk 7700
b. Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan
c. Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours
d. The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as
circumstances permit

92. The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different duration, is
due to the:
a. Earth's rotation
b. Inclination of the ecliptic to the equator
c. Relative speed of the sun along the ecliptic
d. Gravitational effect of the sun and moon on the speed of rotation of the earth.
93.On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give
way to:
a. Other converging aircraft
b. Other vehicles and pedestrians
c. Aircraft taking off or about to take off
d. All vehicles moving on the apron except the ""follow me"" vehicle
94.Following a stall the CP movement in (i) straight wing, (ii) swept wing:
a. (i) forward, (ii) aft
b. (i) aft, (ii) forward
c. (i) does not shift, (ii) forward
d. (i) aft, (ii) does not shift
95.Reduced take-off thrust
a. Can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least 10kt
b. Can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the performance limited
take-off mass.
c. Is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT).
d. Has the benefit of improving engine life.
96.In a turbo-jet, the purpose of the turbine is to ...
a. Drive the compressor by using part of the energy from the exhaust gases
b. Clear the burnt gases, the expansion of which provide the thrust
c. Compress the air in order to provide a better charge of the combustion chamber
d. Drive devices like pumps, regulator and generator.

Aptitude and General aviation knowledge


97.When two resistors are connected in series:
a. Voltage is constant
b. Current is constant
c. Current increases across the circuit
d. Current decreases across the circuit
98.1lbs is equal to
a. 3.45kg
b. 2.54kg
c. 0.45kg
d. 4.50kg
99.Supersonic aircraft flying and crossing the sonic boom is:
a. Flying faster than the speed of sound
b. Pulling out of a dive
c. All of them fly faster than d speed of sound
d. Crosses the sound barrier
100.
14 workers finish a work in 16 days. 8 workers are working for 12 days, 8 more
join after 12 days. How long will they take to finish the remainder of the work?
a. 12
b. 7
c. 8
d. 9
101.
Dropping a ball vertically down accelerates at 9.8 m/s2. Throwing a ball
vertically down will accelerate at (no air resistance):
a. At 9.8 m/s2
b. Less than 9.8 m/s2
c. More than 9.8 m/s2
d. Zero
102.
Two different balls are to be drawn from a bag containing 5 white and 7 black
balls. What is the probability?
103.
Illusions of interpretation (cognitive illusions) are :
a. Associated with the task of mental construction of the environment
b. Due mainly to a conflict between the various sensory systems
c. Due mainly to a poor interpretation of instrumental data
d. Solely induced in the absence of external reference points

104.
A little water evaporates from a 6 litre sugar solution containing 4% sugar,
what will be the % of sugar left? (Insufficient information)
a. 3.5%
b. 4%
c. 19/4%
d. 5%
105.
Two balls are in a gravitational field. If the mass of one ball is doubled, the
gravitational force between them:
a. Remains same
b. Doubled
c. Tripled
d. Quadrupled
106.
Average of 7, x, 10, 14, 16 is 8. What is the missing number? ( Not an exact
question)
Ans: 13
107.
S (distance) given by an equation, with respect to t(time). If a(acceleration) is
zero what will be the velocity of a body?
108.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Speed of Sound at Sea level is:


540m/s
450m/s
340m/s
661m/s

109.
Two bodies start from a point, one heading west at 40 km/hr., other heading
north at 50 km/hr. respectively. What will be the rate of change of distance between
them at the end of 3 hours?
a. 41
b. 1041
c. 10
d. 41
110.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Out of these which is not an EM wave?


Radio
Seismic
Light
X-ray

111.
a.
b.
c.
d.

AC is converted to DC by:
Transformer Rectifier Unit
Inverter
Transformer
APU

112.
a.
b.
c.
d.

For HF communications to be effective over an extended time:


Frequency is increased over a month
Frequency is doubled at night
Frequency is halved at night
Different frequency is used in winters

113.
How would pendulum oscillations change with altitude?
a. Remain same
b. Increases
c. Decrease
114.
Hyperventilation is:
a. A decreased lung ventilation
b. A too high percentage of nitrogen in the blood
c. An increased lung ventilation
d. A too high percentage of oxygen in the blood
115.
What could be symptoms of hypoxia (when flying without oxygen) above
12,000 ft.?
a. Euphoria, headache, improvement in judgement, loss of consciousness
b. Headache, thirst, somnolence, collapse
c. Headache, fatigue, dizziness, lack of coordination
d. Trembling, increase in body temperature, convulsions, slowing of the rate of
breathing
116.
A train crosses a platform in 20 seconds. To determine the velocity of the train
the following variables are required. (i) length of train, (ii) length of platform:
a. Only (ii)
b. Only (i)
c. Both (i) and (ii)
d. No values will yield in the result