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1.a volumetric pipette has an accuracy of:
a. 1:10
c. 1:500
b. 1:100
d. 1:1000
2.A pipette with a bulb to the delivery lip is used for viscous fluids and is called a:
a. Mohr pipette
c. Lewis-dahn pipette
b. Volumetric pipette
d. Ostwald- Follin pipette
3.The etched rings on the top of a pipette means:
a. The pipette should be allowed to drain and the last drop should remain in the pipette
b. The last drop is to be blown out after the pipettes drains
c. The pipette is color coded
d. The pipette is a volumetric pipette
4.Standard solution from which 99.95% of the chemical can be retrieved are referred to as:
a. Secondary standards
c. Lycphilized standards
b. Primary standards
d. Preset standards
5.When preparing solutions:
a. A percent solution can be prepared from a volumetric solution
b. A volumetric solution can be prepared from a percent solution
c. A triple beam balance and cylinder are necessary in the preparation of any type of solution
d. Only an analytical balance can be used in solution preparation
6.A solution in which the molecules of solute in solution are in equilibrium with excess undissolved molecules
referred to as:
a. c. Saturated
b. Concentrated
d. Supersaturated
7.Pure water has pH of:
a. 5.0
c. 7.4
b. 7.0
d. 9.0
8.A 1x10-6 N solution of hydrochloric acid (HCI) has a pH of:
a. 4
c. 8
b. 6
d. 12
9.The statistical term that most specifically describes annlytical precision is the:
a. Mode
c. Median
b. Mean
d. Coefficient of varation
10. Quality control should be used with ali procedures to determine:
a. Accuracy
c. Precision
b. Reliability
d. Coefficient of varation
11. 12. A procedure has a 2 SD variation from a mean value. How many values from a normal population will the
2.30 include:
a. 68.27%
c. 95.45%
b. 84.76%
d. 99.73%
13. Material with physical and chemical properties closely resembling the test specimen and containing
concentrations of the substances being measured in known as:
a. Control
c. Calibrator
b. Standard
d. Reference
14. Optical density according to Beer’s law, is:
a. Inversely proportional to the concentration
b. Directly proportional to the concentration
c. Proportional to the square of the concentration
d. Proportional to the square root of the concentration
15. The difference between serum and plasma is the serum does not contain:
a. Thrombin
c. Fibrinogen
b. Fibrin
d. Calcium



17. Two control sera are desirable for each general chemistry procedure. Which of these combinations would be
a. Mean of normal range and abnormal
c. Low normal range and abnormal (low)
d. Abnormal (low) and abnormal (high)
b. High normal range and abnormal (high)
18. Sodium fluoride is used in specimen collection to:
a. Prevent glycolysis
c. Chelate calcium
b. Prevent conversion of prothrombin to
d. Bind calcium
19. The concentration of oxalate recommended to be used as an anticoagulant, in mg/mL blood, is:
a. 1-2
c. 4-5
b. 2-4
d. 6-8
20. Ethylenediamine tetraacelic acid (EDTA) works as anticoagnant by:
a. Chelating calcium
b. Preventing conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
c. Forming an insoluble complex with calcium
d. Binding magnesium
21. The venipuncture site for a rouline puncture is commonly cleaned with:
a. 90% alcohol
c. 70% alcohol
b. BETADINE (Purdue-Frederick)
d. Quatemary ammonlum compounds
22. The one precaution to be followed with a specimen for billirubin determination is to:
a. Refrigerate
c. Project from light
b. Cap and refrigerate
d. Freeze immediately
23. Which of these substances cannot be preserved by freezing?
a. Blood urea nitrogen
c. Lactic dehydrogenase
b. Creatinine kinase isoenzyme
d. Prostatic acid phosphatase
24. Serum iron should be drawn at the same time on successive days to avoid
a. Diumal variation
c. Effect of medication
b. Chance of consumption of dietary iron
d. Gastrointestinal absorption of iron
25. Which of the proteins is soluble in water?
a. Albumin
c. Gamma globulins
b. Beta globulins
d. Histones
26. The alpha amino acids constitute the basic building blocks of proteins. The amino acids are joined together
to form a chainlike structure through:
a. Disulfide bonding
c. Covalent bonding
b. Hydrogen bonding
d. Peptide bonding
27. Which of the four elements in proteins differentiate this class of substances from carbohydrates and lipids?
a. Carbon
c. Nitrogen
b. Hydrogen
d. Oxygen
28. Which amino acids cannot rotate polarized light?
a. Cystine
c. Histidine
b. Glycine
d. Thionine
29. Proteins may become denatured when subjected to mechanical agitation , heat or extreme chemical
treatment. Denaturation of proteins refers to an
a. Alteration in primary structure
c. Alteration in tertiary structure
b. Alteration in secondary structure
d. Increase in solubility
30. The haemoglobin measurement technique employed for a blood donors is
a. Refractive index
c. Flotation technique of Philips
b. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
d. Falling drop technique
31. The ration of velocities of light in two different media refers to the:
a. Density gradient
b. Refractive index
c. Rotation of polarized light
d. Ultraviolet absorption



32. The most anodic protein on electrophoresis at pH 8.6 is

36. The macroglobulins belong to what sedimentation class?
a. 4.5 S
c. 12.0S
b. 7.0S
d. 19.0S
37. As urine in heated, a precipitate appears at 60 C and disappears at 100C. The substance present is a
a. Macroglobulin
b. Cryglobulin
c. Bence Jones protein
d. Protease
38. The process of separating albumin from globulins using sodium sulfate is known as
a. Flatation
c. Salting out
b. Protein precipitation
d. Ultracentrifugation
39. The conversion of protein nitrogen content depends on the factor
a. 6.25
c. 6.63
b. 6.54
d. 6.78
40. Which of the following is not true of the biuret reaction?
a. Follows Beer’s law for a reasonable range of protein
b. Depends on the presence of at least two peptide linkages
c. Is relatively free from int reference by lipids and haemoglobin
41. In acute renal failure which non protein nitrogen rises the fastest?
a. Uric acid
c. Creatinine
b. Blood urea nitrogen
d. Creatine
42. Why is bromcresol purple the preferred indicator of albumin dye binding technics?
a. It lends itself to amnual and automated procedures best
b. It never binds with alpha and bea globulins
c. It can be employed with heparinised plasma
d. There is less interference from pigment
43. Which reagent is employed in the serum protein determination?
a. Molyddenum blue
c. Resorcinol HCI
b. Ferrifarrocyanide
d. Biuret
44. Hemolyzed serum should not be used for total protein because
a. Haemoglobin is absorbed at the same wavelength as protein biuret reagent
b. Of elevated protein amounts in red blood cells as compared to serum
c. Haemoglobin reacts with biuret reagent
d. The value will be falsely lowered
45. Turbidity in serum is associated with the presence of
a. Cholesterol
c. Free fatty acids
b. Chylomicrons
d. Total lipids
46. Glycoproteins and mucoproteins are usually bound to
a. Lactose and sucrose
c. Galactose and mannose
b. Lactose and maltose
d. Glucose and sucrose
47. All of the following are glycoproteins, except
a. Ceruloplasmin
c. Fibrinogen
b. Follicle stimulating hormone
d. Cryoglobulin
48. Which of these statements is not application to mucoproteins?
a. They are proteins complexed with carbohydrates
b. They are related to glycoproteins
c. They are contain more than 4% hexosamine
d. Hormones and coagulation proteins are included in this class
49. How many immunoglobulin classes are currently recognized?
a. One
c. Four
b. Three
d. Five
50. When performing an immunoglobulin electrophoresis, there must be present:



a. Excess antigen
b. Excess antibody and constant trough distance between antibody and antigen
c. Acelate matrix
d. Direct current
51. A normal serum protein electrophoresis has approximately 60% albumin and 5-10% each of other 4
fractions. If an electrophoretic pattern shows 30% albumin 4-10% of other fractions except gamma which is
45%, you would expect what condition to exist in the patient?
a. Cirrhosis
c. Inflammation
b. Monoctonal gammapathy
d. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
54. Which of the following applies to cryoglobulins?
a. They are temperature sensitive proteins
b. The blood specimen should clot at room temperature
c. The sample unit must remain at room temperature so that precipitation can be observed
d. Only qualitative tests are available
55. Which of the following statements is true of albumin?
a. Compared to globulin , it makes up the lesser portion of total protein
b. Its size prevents its passage through even a damaged glomerular banier
c. It is produced in the liver
d. Clinical problems are usually related to high serum values
56. To measure urinary protein you can use
a. Biuret reagent
b. Biuret reagent with trichloroacetic acid pretreatment of urine
c. Bromcresol purple
d. Bromcresol green
57. An elevated creatinine value is most likely to be accompanied by which of these values?
a. Normal uric acid’
b. Elevated uric acid , 10x creatinine value
c. Normal blood area nitrogen
d. Elevated blood area nitrogen, 10x creatinine value
58. The conversation factor for blood urea nitrogen to urea is:
a. 1.10
c. 3.14
b. 2.14
d. 6.25
59. By the urease method , urea is enzymatically converted to:
a. Ammonia
c. Nitrogen
b. Carbon dioxide
d. Amino groups
60. Untreated urine can be used for the determination to urea by the diacetyl monoxide method because
a. Dialysis in an autoanalyzer removes interfering substances
b. The method is not measuring ammonia
c. The increased temperature destroys the ammonia
d. Zinc does not interfere
61. Urinary creatine may be elevated in which of the following?
a. Kidney failure
c. Muscle destruction
b. Cirrhosis of the liver
d. Intestinal blockage
62. The measurement of creatinine is based on the formation of yellow red color with:
a. Alkaline picrate
c. Phosphomolybdate
b. Ehrlich reagent
d. Titan yellow
63. The classic creatinine reaction is that of
a. Jaffe
c. Kjeldahl
b. Lloyd
d. Nessler
64. The specificity of the Jaffe reaction can be enhanced by:
a. Adsorption with Lloyd’s reagent
c. Prior treatment with urease
b. Boiling
d. Prior treatment with uricase
65. A disease state associated with an elevation of serum uric acid is
a. Atherosderosis
c. Diabetes
b. Arthritis
d. Gout
66. The most common reagent employed in uric acid methodology by alkaline oxidation is
a. Potassium permanganate
c. Potassium persulfate
b. Phosphotungstic acid
d. Hydrochloric acid (HCI)
67. The uricase method for uric acid assay depends on
a. Ultraviolet absorption peak at 290 nm before and after treatment with uricase
b. Collection of evolved gas after uricase treatment



0 b. Which of the clearance tests offers the best measure of tubular function? a. Haemoglobin A1 c.4 d. Tungstate precipitation d. accompanied by a positive urine glucose 78. P-aminohippurate (PAH) 74. Protein free filtrate 83. glucose must be excreted in the urine c. A high blood glucose must be associated with a positive urine glucose d. The hexokinase methodology for glucose determination is base on a. A creathine clearance tests is performed. Sulfuric acid b. 2 hour postprandial sugar d. Zinc barium precipitation b. Haemoglobin A1 C b. The creatinine clearance is based on the assumption that creatinine a. A 150 gram/day carbohydrate diet for 3 days prior to the test b. Increase in absorption after uricase treatment d. Dialysis c. Inulin tolerance test b. Rose pink color of oxygen o diansidine c. Tungstic acid c. Overall kidney function c. Inulin c. Electrolytes b. Proteins are precipitated by which of the following reagents in the Folin-Wu method? a. The renal threshold is 200-240 mg/dL b. 6. Inullin d. Color development with Berthelot b. Trionloroacetic acid d. 60. Which of the clearance tests offers the most accurate measure of glomerular filtration? a. Freezing point depression 77.0 mg/dL and urine creatinine is 240mg/dL. Postprandial sugar (PPS) c. 38. Heating 85. All of the above 81. Glomerular filtration 70. No undue stress before or during the test d. Contamination of the glucose reagent with catalase is a problem with which glucose method? a. Glucose oxidase (neocuproine) d. A fasting state before glucose is given c. Is retained in the blood tubule c. The interfering reducing substances in the Folin-Wu method? a. Creatinine d. Measurement of blue violet color 68. measurable color is developed through the formation of A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 5 . Is converted to creatine 73. Peroxidise acting upon H2O2 released from glucose d. Tubular reabsorption d. 3 hour glucose tolerance test 80. Urea b. Hexokinase b. pCO2 and pO2 c. What is the clearance expressed in mL plasma cleared per minute. one may be faced with a normal blood glucose. The 24 hour volume of urine is 770ml: serum creatinine is 2. Fasting blood sugar d. The usual determination of osmolality involves measurement of a. 72. Urea 75. Which of the following precautions is necessary to insure validity of the glucose tolerance tests? a. Hydrochloric acid 84. The most precise method for amino acid determination is a. In the glucose tolerance test (GTT). Which of the following is true of blood glucose? a. The urea clearance test is an indication of a. Isothermal distillation d. Once excreted in the glomerular filtrate. The test that gives a two or three (2-3) month picture of a diabetes glucose levels it a.c. 3 hour glucose tolerance test (GTT) 79. Creatinine c. Alkaline oxidation 69. Passes into the ultrafiltrate d. Is passively reabsorbed by the kidney b. In the copper reduction method for glucose. Gasometric ninhydrin reaction reagent c.0 76. 71. Tubular function b. P-aminohlppurate (PAH) b. Reduced coenzyme read at 340 nm b. 924. Alkaline ferric ion reduction (ferricyanide) 82. Alkaline cupric ion reduction c. Na+ and K+ d. Patients with borderline blood glucose levels are further investigated by performing a.0 c. assuming average body surface? a.

Billirubin 96. Glucose d. Inhibit competing enzymes occur A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 6 . Anticonvulsants b. Ketones c. Dextrose c. Lactate dehydrogenese d. Free bilirubin c. Bilirubin will develop a violet color after which of the following is added: a. Difference in UV absorption chloroform d. Albumin c. Copper cobalt complex b. Salkowski d. Regulate pH b. Nitrite 100. Urobilinogen b. Beta globulin b. Bloor 97. Phospholipid 94. Act as an activator of the enzyme c. Glucose d. Large molecule 101. Bilirubin bound to albumin d. Hepatitis d. An increase in indirect reacting bilirubin is suggestive of a. Lipid accumulation d. Xylose excretion is helpful in the determination of a. Lactose b. Prehepatic bilirubin has which of the following for a protein carrier? a. A urine specimen that exhibits yellow foam on being shaken should be suspected of having an increased concentration of a. Obstructive jaundice c. Hemolytic disorder 103. Hemolysis d. A high alkaline phosphatase level in the presence of other negative liver function tests is indicative of a. Blue c. Hemoglobin breakdown b.a. Melanin d. Bilirubin diglucuronide b. Liver failure 90. Reduction of alkaline ferricyanide to ferrocyanide 87. Renal clearance d. Saliwanoff’s test detects a. Differentiation can be obtained by a. Solubility of urobilinogen in chloroform b. Fructose 89. Inorganic catalyst d. An enzyme may be defined as a/an a. Reduction of alkaline cupric ion c. the application of anisaldehyde/sulfuric acid/ethyl alcohol spray will identify galactose as what color spot? a. Carcinoma of the liver b. Hemolysis will interfere with all of the following enzyme measurements except a. Bile acid build up c. Yellow 88. Direct reacting bilirubin is a. Solubility of urobillnogen in water 98. Grey d. Coupled enzyme system consisting of glucose oxidase and catalase b. Aldolase b. Alpha2 globulin d. Biological catalyst c. Gamma bound to red blood cells 92. Both porphobilinogen and urobilinogen form a red-colored compound with Ehrlich reagent. Drabkin b. Ehrlich reagent d. Aspartate aminotransferase 102. A metal ion is sometimes necessary in an enzymatic reaction to a. Bilirubin is converted in the intestines to which of the following a. The port wine color of some urines can be attributes to a. Intestinal malabsorption c. Ehrlich c. When sugars are separated by chromatography . Para dimethylaminobenzaldehyde is an constituent of which reagent? a. Alkaline phosphate c. Haemoglobin d. Porphyrins c. Metal catalyst b. Van den Beigh’s reagent 99. Bilirubin bound to red blood cells 93. Red blood cells b. Solubility of porphobilinogen in c. Porphobilinogen c. Permit the colorimetric reaction to d. Alcohol 95. Lipenia c. Pancreatic secretion b. Methyl alcohol b. Molybdenum blue d. Cooper sulfate c. Bilirubin b. Phosphomolybdenum 86. Which of the following interfere with the Evelyn and Malloy method for bilirubin? a. Addition of molybdenum blue d. Gamma globulin 91. Hydrochloric acid c. Green b. The most frequently employed automated method for glucose uses a.

aspartate aminotransferase. Lipase catalyzes the hydrolysis of a. The electrophoretic property is different for each isoenzyme d. the clinically significant enzymes are a. pH and substrate concentration d. Substrate concentration and rate dissociation of enzyme substrate complex c. 108. Pancrease c. Serum creatine kinase is clinically significant in diseases of the a. Copper c. Starch’ c. During a suspected myocardial infarction you should perform creatine phosphokinase isoenzyme and lactate dehydrogenase isoenzymes to demonstrate the: a. The Michaelis. Ceruloplasmin is an alpha. Temperature pH 109. Any of a group of isoenzymes will react the same to heat denaturation 105. Creatine kinase. In a zero order reaction. Liver d. Alkaline phosphatase b. alanine aminotransferase d. Lactate + NAD +pyruvate+NADH. Alanine aminotransferase ALT 113. Which of the following is true of an isoenzyme a. Alanine aminotransferase. Alanine aminotransferase A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 7 . Is tripled b. aspartate aminotransferase.104. The temperature is 35C d. Duchenna muscular dystrophy c. Creatine kinase. The slowest moving of the lactate dehydrogenese LD isoenzymes electrophoresis b. The substrate is different from each isoenzyme b.Menten constant in the rate of conversion of substrate to product is determined by a. lactate dehydrogenase c. BB fraction of creatine kinase and LD-1 118. aspartate aminotransferase. There is no excess substrate c. particularly in obstructive jaundice is. Creatine kinase is frequently elevated in disorders such as acute myocardial infarction MI and a. Possibly the most sensitive enzyme indicator of liver function. 107. alanine aminotransferase. Aldolase aspartate aminotransferase . Glycerides b. Cobalt d. MB fraction of creatine kinase and the LD 1-2 flip c. aldolase. lactate dehydrogenase c. Iron b. In muscular dystrophy . As the temperature is increases from 25C to 37C is the aspartate aminotransferase reaction. Acute hepatitis d. alanine aminotransferase 119. Which of the following is true of the isoenzyme LD-1 it is a. aldolase 117. Aldolase d. there will be no further increase velocity because a. Muscle b. The catalyst in the reaction is a. Ceric ion is change to cerous 116. Lactate dehydrogenase. aspartate aminotransferase b. Gonads 114. There is excess enzyme 110. a. Creatine kinase. The kinetic or rate enzymatic methodologies optical density decreases as a. Triphosphopyridine mucleatide TPN is changed to triphosphopyridine nucleotide reduced form TPNH b. alnine aminotransferase b. Aldolase. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide NADP is changed to nicotinamide adenine dinuclectide NAD d. A heat labile fraction d. aldolase . Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) b. aspartate aminotransferase . Gelatine d. Sugar 111. Substrate concentration b. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide NAD is changed to nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide reduced form NADP c. LD-5 and LD-3 d. the activity of the reaction a. In myocardial infarction. globulin that binds a. aspirate amino transferaase. Temperature . Manganese 120. Infections 115. alamine aminotransferase d. Aspirate aminotransferase AST c. The rate of reaction is the same for each enzyme with its own substate c. Is halvec d. Present in the greatest amount in normal heart issue 112. Cirrhosis b. the clinically significant enzymes are a. All enzyme is bound to substrate b. Is reduced to zero 106. MB fraction of creatine kinase and LD-5 b. The most positively charged fraction c. Almost doubles c. Creatine kinase.

c. Acid phosphatase
d. Lactate dehydrogenase
121. In acute viral hepatitis which of the following would not be suspected?
a. Alkaline phosphatase increase greater than aspartate aminotransferase
b. Lactate dehydrogenase -5 increase
c. Gamma glutamyl transferase increase mild
d. Aspartate aminotransferase and alamine minotransferase increae 10 to 200 –fold
122. What is the optimum pH for acid phosphatase?
a. 3.0
b. 5.0
c. 7.0
d. 9.0
123. The clinical significance of an elevated acid phosphatase is
a. Renal disease
c. Bone disease
b. Pancreatic disease
d. Prostatic disease
124. If an acid phosphatase test cannot be performed immediately after collection , how should the serum be
a. Acidity to pH of 2
c. Cap and freeze
b. Freeze
d. Either acidity or freeze
125. Tests for acid phosphatase detect levels of the enzyme for tissues such as
a. Bone, liver, spleen, kidney, erythrocytes and platelets
b. Bone, liver and kidney
c. Muscle, spleen and platelets
d. Liver, spleen, prostate, and platelets
126. The substrate for the cherry-crandall lipase method is
a. Glyceride
c. Olive oil
b. Nitrophenyl acetate
d. Starch
127. Because ionized calcium can be changed without affecting the total calcium level, what other parameters
must be known to property evaluate calcium?
a. pH
c. Magnesium
b. Phosphorous
d. pH and protein
128. The classic clark-collip method for calcium is based on the assumption that calcium will be
a. Precipitated as calcium carbonate
b. Precipitated as an oxalate and converted to an oxide
c. Chelated with EDTA
d. Precipitated as an oxalate and converted to oxalic acid
129. In the titration of calcium oxalate with potassium permanganate, the temperature must be maintained at
a. 1-4 C
c. 60-80C
b. 37C
d. 100C
130. A low parathyroid hormone level will cause a
a. Low serum phosphorous
c. Low serum calcium
b. High urine calcium level
d. High serum calcium level
131. In the compleximetric titration (EDTA) method for calcium the pH must be adjusted to prevents
a. Incomplete precipitation of calcium
c. A reversible color change
b. Interference by magnesium
d. Co binding of phosphorous
132. What is the purpose of lanthanium in the atomic absorption determination of calcium? Lanthanium:
a. In involved in starting up the instrument
c. Will bind calcium
b. Is part of the hollow cathode discharge
d. Will bind phosphate
133. All of the following can cause low chloride levels , EXCEPT
a. Diabetic acidosis
c. Prolonged vomiting
b. Renal failure
d. Dehydration
134. Inorganic phosphate can be determined from a combination of trichloroscetic acid filtrate and
a. Stannous chloride
c. Tungstate
b. Glacial acetic-sulfuric acid
d. Molybdate
135. Al o pH of 7.4 most of the inorganic phosphate in the plasma is in which form?
a. HPO4
c. H2PO4
b. PO4
d. P2O5
136. A phosphorous value of 2.5 mEq/L would be how many mg/dL (At. W P=31)?
a. 4.3
c. 8.5
b. 5.2
d. 2.5
137. The colometric method for magnesium employs which reagent?
a. Molybdate
c. Titan yellow
b. Calcium oxalate
d. 8-hydroxy-5-quinoline
138. The first step in the serum iron method involves
a. Breakup of the iron – protein complex
b. Reaction of iron with a chromogen



c. Addition of excess iron for protein to absorb
d. Measurement of amount of free serum iron
139. The major extracellular cation is
a. Chloride
c. Potassium
b. Manganese
d. Sodium
140. The major intracellular cation is
a. Chloride
c. Potassium
b. Manganese
d. Sodium
141. Which of these potassium values would be termed hypokalemia
a. 3.0mmol/L
c. 4.7 mmol/L
b. 4.0 mmol/L
d. 1.5 mmol/L
142. What is the internal standard when sodium and potassium are measured by flame photometry?
a. Calcium
c. Magnesium
b. Lithium
d. Copper
143. In the classic schales and schales (mercurimetric utration) method for chloride, what substrate reacts with
the indicator to form a violet color?
a. HgCI2
c. Excess Hg
b. HNO3
d. Br
144. In the coulometric amperometric method for chloride the amount of chloride is measured by AgCI produced
a. Time needed to reach the titration endpoint
b. Amount of current needed to generate Ag
c. Rate of generation of current
d. Time needed to reach the titration endpoint
145. In gasometric analysis of CO2 the liberated gas is absorbed with
a. Lactic acid
c. Sulphuric acid
b. Hydrochloric acid
d. Sodium hydroxide
146. What is the purpose of caprylic alcohol in the gasometric method for CO 2? To :
a. Prevent foaming
b. Release CO2
c. Absorb CO2
d. Maintain the atmospheric pressure at a constant value
147. The normal pH of blood is
a. 6.50-7.50
c. 7.35-7.45
b. 7.05-7.35
d. 7.45-7.65
148. Which of the following is the Henderson –Hasseld which equation?
a. pK3=pH+log

dissoclated salt
undissociated salt

dissoclated salt

c. pH=pK4+log undissociated salt

e. pH= pKa +



salt ¿
g. pH=pKa+log
log ¿

149. The ratio of bicarbonate : carbonic acid in normal plasma is
a. 1:20
c. 10:1
b. 5:1
d. 20:1
150. Most of the CO2 in the blood present in which form?
a. Dissolved CO2
c. Calcium carbonate
b. Bicarbonate ion
d. Ammonium carbonate
151. What will happen if blood is exposed to air during collection for pH and blood gas studies?
a. CO2 content increases
c. PO2 decreases
b. pH decreases
d. pCO2 decreases
152. if the glass electrode of the pH instrument is a coated with protein , the pH value will be
a. too high
c. unchanged
b. too low
d. variable
153. Which of the following is true of the pco2 electrode/
a. Only charged particles can cross the membrane
b. Both charged and uncharged particles can cross the membrane
c. The actual pH of the sample has no effect
d. There is no calibration available for the electrode because gases are involved


154. The wavelength at which oxyhemoglobin and reduce haemoglobin have the same absorbance is referred to
as the:
a. Differential point
c. Equivalence point
b. Isoelectric point
d. Equilibration point
155. Which of these statements is appropriate for the plotting of a concentration curve? On
a. Semi log paper, plot % units on y axis and standard concentration on x axis
b. Semi log paper, plot standard concentration on y axis and absorbance on x axis
c. Linear graph paper, plot absorbance on x axis and standard concentration on y axis
d. Linear graph paper plot, plot absorbance on y axis and % on T on x axis
156. When performing spectrophotometer quality control checks, the holmium oxide glass filter is used to
a. Stray light
c. Absorbance accuracy
b. Linearity
d. Wavelength accuracy
157. For the ultraviolet range, which of these must be employed in the spectrophotombler?
a. Diffraction grating
c. Quartz cuvette
b. Glass prism
d. Tungsten lamo
159. Measurement by flame photometry involves
a. Absorption of energy when an element is ionized
b. Electrometric titration
c. Colorimetricanalysis
d. Emission of a color when an element is burned
160. Atomic absorption spectroscopy is based on the measurement of
a. Light given off by excited atoms
b. Light absorbed at wavelength of resonance line by unexcited atoms
c. Energy emitted by ultraviolet treated atoms
d. Energy emitted by infrared treated atoms
161. What is the light source in atomic absorption instrumentation?
a. Cathode lamp
c. Grating
b. Flame
d. Prism
162. Quenching is a disadvantage encountered in
a. Fluorometry
c. Flame photometry
b. Atomic adsorption
d. Nephelometry
163. To achieve the best levels of sensitivity and specificity , a type of detector system that a gas
chromotograph may be coupled to is a/an
a. Fluorescence detector
c. Bichromatic spectrophotometer
b. Ultraviolet spectrophotometer
d. Mass spectrophotometer
164. Automated chemistry systems. Whether discrete or continuous flow, must include
a. Unknown, reagent, mixing of the previous two mentioned ingredients, reaction analysis, calculation
and reporting of results
b. Unknown, mixing, incubation, calculation, and reporting of results
c. Standards, mixing, incubation, and reporting of results
d. Unknown , mixing , incubation and reporting of results
165. Is an isotope has a haft life of 12 hours and an activity of 24 millicuries (mCi), what will be its activity in 36
a. 3 mCi
c. 9mCi
b. 6mCi
d. 12mCi
166. Concentrated sulphuric acid has normality of
a. 12
c. 18
b. 16
d. 36
167. Match the following types of instruments with the description
1. Mixtures can be separated into individual compounds to be measured on the basis of differences in
their physical characteristics
2. Analyses are measured in a sample by means of tubing diameter and flow rate
3. Samples and reagents are pipette into curvettes read in photometer and results are calculated
4. Light absorbed by an element as it falls from a high energy state to a low energy state is converted into
the concentration of the element
5. The light emitted by an element as it falls from a high energy state to alow energy state in converted
into the concentration of the element
a. Atomic absorption
d. Continues flow analysis
b. Discrete processing system
e. Chromatography
c. Flame photometry
168. The major binding protein T-4 is:



a. Albumin
c. Thyroid binding prealbumin (TBPA)
b. Thyroid binding globulin (TBG)
d. None, T-4 is free in plasma
169. What purpose does iodine serve in the protein bound iodine (PBI) methodology?
a. Holds organic iodine in the protein bound state
b. Acts as a catalyst in the ceric arsenite reaction
c. Compensates for loss of inorganic iodine in the washing stage
d. Keeps mercury from suppressing the color reaction
170. A T-4 measured as iodine is 1.8 mcg/dL. To what thyroxine value is if equivalent?
a. 1.10
c. 3.60
b. 2.75
d. 5.40
171. In T-4 by radioimmunoassay (RIA), the more hyroxine present in the patient serum
a. The more the amount of radioactive labelled thyroxine bound to antibody
b. The less the amountof radioactive labelled thyroxine bound to antibody
c. The less free radioactive labelled thyroxine to be absorbed
d. A and C
174. T-3 uptake is actually a measurement of
a. T-3
c. TBG
b. T-4
d. Free thyroxine
175. The following tests are good indications of hypothyroidism except
a. T-3 uptake
c. Total T-4 by radioimmunoassay (RlA)
b. Free t-4 by radioimmunoassay (RlA)
d. T-3 by radioimmunoassay (RlA)
176. Which of the steroids is identified as an 18 carbon compound that possesses a phenolic “A” ring?
a. Adrenocortical steroids
c. Estrogens
b. Androgens
d. Progesterone
177. The estrogen with the greatest concentration in urine is
a. Estriol
c. Estrone
b. Estradiol
d. Progesterone
178. The standard for 17 ketosteroid determinations is
a. Testosterone
c. Dehydroplandrosterone
b. Progesterone
d. Aldosterone
179. Which of the following is true regarding pregnanediol? It is
a. A C-19 compound
c. Manufactured in the adrenal medulla
b. The excretion product of progesterone
d. Altered in the adrenal medulla
180. Which of the following is true of steroids
a. They are excreted as hormones rather than metabolise
b. There is no different value for male and female
c. They are lipids
d. They contain the 21 carbon atoms of the cyclopentanoperthydrophenanthrene ring
181. What is the hormone that controls the reabsorption of sodium in the kidney?
a. Aldosterone
c. Estrogen
b. Alcohol dehydrogenase
d. Growth hormone
182. The kober reaction refers to the pink color resulting from the combination of hot concentrated sulphuric acid
and extracted
a. Estrogens
c. Cortiocosteroids
b. Androgens
d. 17-ketosteroids
183. The litrich extraction for estrogens involves the reagent
a. Phenythydrazone
c. M-dinitrobenzene
b. P-nitrophenol
d. Sodium bismuthate
184. The porler silber reactions employs phenylhdrazine to detect
a. Estrogens
c. 17-ketosteroids
b. Corticosteroids
d. Catecholamines
185. The Zimmerman determination of 17 ketosteroids based on reaction with
a. Acetic anhydride
c. Meta dinitrobenzene
b. Ehrich reagent
d. Potassium ferricyanide
186. For the measurement of 17 ketogenic steroids (17 hydroxycorticosteroids), prior treatment with what
reagent is required?
a. M dinitrobenzene
c. Sodium bismuthate
b. Hot sulphuric acid
d. Chloroform
187. Catecholamines are secreted by the
a. Kidney
c. Adrenal cortex
b. Pituitary
d. Adrenal medulla



LDL cholesterol =TC – (TG=triglycerids. 6-8 hour fasting d. Human chorionic gonadotropin 198. Provides for color development in the cholesterol methods b. Estrogen c. Is composed of ethanol and either in a ratio of 31 c. Convert esters to free cholesterol so that all measured cholesterol so that all measured cholesterol is the same type d. beta subunit d. Only first morning urine specimen is suitable b. Urethra d. Gamma b. Color developer b. PL=phospholipids ) a. Ovaries 195. 193. Progesterone 190. LDL cholesterol = TC-(TG +PL) c. Precipitation of free cholesterol c. LDL cholesterol = TC. Fallopian tubes b. Ferric chloridetethanol 201. PL=phospholipids) b. Follicle stimulating hormone d. Sulphuric acid c. 17 of ketosteroids the following is a metabolite of epinephrine c. 2-4 hours lasting c. NOTA 197. Beta d.188. The purpose of the saponification step in some cholesterol methods is to a. Precipitate the protein c. An ectopic pregnancy is one that occurs in the a. Drugs do not present a problem with interference d. The purpose of the digitonin in cholesterol methodology is the a. Remove the error of nonspecific chromogen interference 203. Which a. Thyrus gland c. With the agglutination inhibition method. Reagent for extraction 204. Which of these statements is true of an immunological tests for pregnancy? a. Ureter 196. Vanillymandelic acid b. Nonoclonal antibodies c. Acetic anhydride/sulphuric acid d. Some commercial kits now available for pregnancy tests incorporate which of the following? a. First trimester c. Third trimester b. 8-10 hour fasting b. A two hour pregnancy test can measure a. To produce reliable results at which time should blood specimens for lipid studies be drawn? a. Glacial acetic acid/sulphuric acid b. Chorionic gonadotropins. A glycoprotein consisting of two nonidentical noncovalently bound subunits is a. Hypothyroidism c. Heterophile antibodies b. TG=triglycerides. Which of the following is the Friedewald formula by which low density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol can be estimated? (TC=total cholesterol. Pancreatic cancer 205. Alpha c. Urine b. Precipitation of esterified cholesterol d. Androgen b.½ HDL cholesterol A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 12 . B and C 194. Estrogens b. Progesterone d. Cerebrospinal fluid c. Compensates for possible water contamination of the reagents 202. Thyroid stimulating hormone 189. Ovary b. In which of these clinical conditions may blood cholesterol be increased? a. Forssman antibodies d. Blood d. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is secreted by the a. Seconds trimester d. Break the protein lipid bond b. Lupus erythematosus b. The reagent for color development in the Liebemann-burchard reaction for cholesterol is a. Placenta d. Compensates for the otherwise unequal colon measurement resulting from free and esterified cholesterol d. The hormone level in the urine detectable by this method steadily increases the first two weeks of gestation 191. 12-15 hour fasting 200. Which of the following specimens is/are used for pregnancy tests? a. Androgens c. Malnutrition d. the presence of agglutination means a negative test c. Which sub unit of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) will given a very specific radioimmunoassay test for the measurement of hCG? a. Which of the statements applies to Bloor’s reagent ? it: a. Apsonins 199. Stomach c. Della 192. The highest level of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) occurs in which trimester of pregnancy? a.

Aldolase b.d. When a kidney stone is tested with sodium cyanide and sodium nitroprusside . Uric acid 221. alpha. Lipoprotein b. Cardiovascular d. Most triglyceride procedures involve measurement of a. Lactate dehydrogenase c. pre-bella. Any of the above 225. Triglycerides d. Gastrointestinal b. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria 222. chylomicrons b. Which of these lipids has the lowest density? a. Low density lipoprotein cholesterol 207. Which of the following therapeutic drugs is not an anticonvulsant? a. Visible spectrophotometry b. Tricyclic antidepressants include a. The migration sequence . Cystine d. 212. 40 c. Steady state b. Alpha lipoprotein c. LDL cholesterol =HDL-TC 206. Lithium is measured by: a. The point of equilibrium between drug dosage intake and drug elimination is referred to as: a. 50 d. Trough concentration d. 60 b. A major disadvantage of drug detection by immunoassay is a. Drug action occurs most rapidly when taken orally b. beta. Protein c. The oral route compensates for drug solubility problems d. Drug half life 217. Connective tissue 214. Patient compliance is not always reliable 215. Diazepam c. When evaluating a coronary risk index for a patient you should know the total cholesterol and a. Peak concentration c. alpha d. The average blood volume for human beings. Speed of performance b. 211. Total lipids c. pre-bella . 80 e. Pre-beta lipoprotein 209. Fatty acids c. CHEMISTRY /URINALYSIS 224. Sugar d. Chylomicrons. beta. urine may acquire a reddish color due to A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 13 . f. Red cell mass d. Plasma volume c. Chylomicrons. Simultaneous assay of multiple drugs in one specimen is not feasible 218. beta. Lipase d. The use of radioisotope 51 Cr provides a direct measurement of which of the following? a. Lithium b. Gas chromatography c. The oral route of administration is most reliable c. Digoxin c. White blood cells b. Dilantin d. Doxepin 220. Cloudiness in a freshly voided urine could indicate the presence of a. Carbonate c. The enzymatic hydrolysis of triglycerides may be accomplished by what enzyme? a. Technical difficulty of procedure d. Dehydration c. High pressure liquid chromatography 219. Hematocrit b. Glycerol d. The sweat chloride test is useful in the diagnosis of a. Chylomicrons b. Hyperkalemia b. The more current kinetic methods for the quantilation of serum triglycerides employ enzymatic hydrolysis. Phenobarbital 216. Total blood volume 223. Carbomazepine b. Calcium b. alpha c. pre-bella . Phospholipids 208. Alpha. Which statement is true for the oral route of drug administration? a. Chylomicrons. Stability of reagents c. Diseases of which system are associated with elevated beta lipoprotein values? a. Flame photometry d. Cystic fibrosis d. Dilantin d. Beta lipoprotein d. Amylase 210. Low density lipoprotein cholesterol b. expressed in ml/kg body weight is a. from the origin of lipoproteins is a. pre-beta. In acute febrile disease. the appearance of a magenta color identifies what substance? a. Pulmonary c. beta 213.

1. A urine that turns brown-black upon standing may contain a. The same osmolality that of the plasma c. 150 mg b. The normal excretion of small amounts of protein in urine is considered to be less than what daily amount? a. Will display the phenomenon of alkaline b. The enzyme dipstick test for glucose in urine has a sensitivity of a. 50 mg d. Dipstick d. 1. Urcerythrin 226. 100mg/dl b. Most of the indicator is in nonionized form b. 5 mg c. Ketones d. The color change on the stick is due to the pH change 240. False positive glucose b. When urine specimen is allowed to stand at room temperature . Contained most firmed elements d. Homogentisic acid c. Glucose c. Porphyrin d. Urea 237.050 232. except a.22 c. Disappearance of formed elements c. All of the following systems may be used to determine the specific gravity of urine EXCEPT a. Reagent test strip 233. Spectrophotometer c. 50 mg/dl d. Lactose A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 14 . 231. The copper reduction method is specific for glucose c. Which of these plasma substances is not normally filtered through the glomerulus in significant amount? a. Elevation in pH d. Haemoglobin d. based on the protein error of indicators . 1. 1. 200 mg/dl 243. Glucose cannot appear in the urine of the absence of an elevated plasma glucose d. Sulfosalicytic acid b. Glucose d. Bilirubin 235. if temperature correction is employed.030 d. Protein b. 500 mOsm/Kg 236. The protein will combine with the nonionized form of the indicator c. Red blood cells 228. Which of the following may give false positive reaction on the glucose dipstick? a. If the plasma osmolality is normal (185mCsm/ kg water).a. The first morning specimen of urine is often tested because this specimen a.030 d.040 b. Ketonuria may produce a false negative dipstick test for glucose 242. What is the highest specific gravity to which the kidney is able to concentrate urina? a. Urobilinogen b. Protein combination with indicator changes the ratio ionized and nonionized forms d. Urobilinogen 227. Highly alkaline buffered urine can cause a false positive test c. Which of the following is true of the detection of urinary glucose? a. The test is more sensitive to albumin than the globulin 241. 300 mg 239. the urine osmolality should be at least a. Any reducing substance can give a false positive reaction with the copper reduction method for glucose b. Bilirubin c. Is most likely contain protein 230. Creatinine c. a urine specific gravity reads 1. 1. Myoglobin d. 1. 10 mg/dl c. Porphyrin b. All of the following apply to the dipstick tests for urine protein . Trichloracetic acid 238. Is fresh tide c. The principle of the test is the protein error of indicators d. 1. False positive glucose 229.022 c. Porphyrin b. Precipitation tests for urine protein DO NOT include which of the following? a. T-S meter b. Haemoglobin pigment c.050 234. A refractometer would be used in a urinalysis department to measure a. Which of the following does not apply to urine protein estimation by the dipstick method? a. Refractometer d. Bence Jones protein interferes with measurement of albumin b. Galactose b. 1. Specific gravity b. Acid and heat c.040 b. what would the corrected specific gravity be? a. Three times that of the plasma b.014. At a temperature at 26C. which one of the following Not occur? a. A smoky red brown urine should be suspected of containing a.

White blood cells b. With infections of the urinary system. Monocyte b. What type of white blood cell is seen most frequently in the urine sediment? a. Red blood cells in urine are lysed by peroxide from the strip 247. Which statements does not apply to white blood cellsin the urine sediments? a. Triple phosphate 261. Crystals c. White blood cells in the urine must be accompanied by proteinuria d. Uric acid 260. Phosphate b. white blood cells are frequently seen in the urine sediment. Oxalate d. Which crystal is unlikely to appear the alkaline urine? a. The finding of six aced puffy crystals in the acid urine of an infant should arouse a suspicion of a. Calcium oxalate d. Maltose d. Squamous epithelial cells 256. Measurement of liver enzymes d. The urine dipstick tests for occult blood depend on the fact that a. Which urinary crystals can assume the greatest variety of forms? a. Sodium urate b. Ferric chloride d. Calcium oxalate crystals c. Color in organic phase identifies urobilinogen b. Ketones d. Cholesterol 259. The addis count is the semi quantitative estimate of the 12 hour excretion of which urinary constituent? a.c. Prior removal of billirubin is necessary 250. Lymphocyte d. Cholesterol crystals d. Casts 253. For fructose detection . Number and type of casts b. Fesorcinol and hydrochloric acid b. Cystine b. Yeast cells 257. Calcium oxalate d. Oxaluria b. Glucose c. Oxidizing agent 244. Billirubin c. Sodium nitroprusside 245. Which of the following is the most effective test for phenylketonuria (PKU)? a. Calcium oxalate d. Which urinary crystal is unlikely to appear in an acid urine? a. The “Coffin lid” crystals is that of a. The most common use of polarized microscopy is to visualize a. White blood cells and tubular epithelial cells cells 252. The addition of Fouchets reagent to the barium chloride precipitate of urine results in a green color in the presence of a. Red blood cells in the urine may be confused with any of the following except a. Protein b. Bacteria and protein c. which of these reagents is employed? a. Lipids (fats) d. Crystals b. 249. Ovaline cast d. Ammonium biurate c. Direct measurement of blood level of phenylalanine b. Uric acid 258. Ehrlich’s reagent c. Crystine c. Ammonium biurate c. Haemoglobin can release an enzyme from the strip c. Vaginal contamination may be responsible for the appearance of which element in the urine from a female patient? a. and white blood d. Cystinuria d. Haemoglobin can act as a peroxidise b. Cystine b. Tyrosinuria A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 15 . Cystinosis c. Color in the organic phase identifies porphobilinogen c. A few white blood cells may present in normal urine b. 248. PHENISTIX test on a freshly voided urine 246. Neutrophil 255. Guthrie tests on blood of a newborn c. red blood cells. Ammonium biurate c. Eosinophil c. Haemoglobin in urine combines with oxygen on the strip to produce a blue color d. An increase in white blood cells is associated with an inflammatory process c. Urobilinogen 251. Oil droplets b. Ehrlich reagent contains resorcinol and hydrochloride acid d. Which of the following statements is true regarding the test for heme pigment in urine? a. Casts. Unstained white blood cells in urine appear spherical and granular 254.

Hemoglobinuria is a more common finding than hematuria c. They tend to accumulate near the edges of the coverslip 265.5SD 278.2 SD b.1 SD c. Which of the following not true about oval fat bodies? a. Which of the following is true statement? a. what dilution is achieved? a. Their fat content is related to the level of lipids in the plasma c. Proteinuria b. Glitter cell “is term used to describe a specific type of a. Chronic crystitis 263. Waxy and fatty casts 274. The presence of bacteriuria can be recognized by a positive result on the nitrate portion of a dipstick casts 273. A high specific gravity of urine may result in lysis of red blood cells b. 0. Yeast. In glomerulonephritis . Red blood cell b. 0.262. Cellular b. Clumps of white blood cells and white blood cells casts b. Hyaline d. Casts are formed primarily in which portion of the kidney? a. They are associate with the appearance of the Maliese cross formation under polarization 271. Ketone body d. A clean catch urine is preferable in most instances to specimen collected by catherization b. The matrix of urinary casts has been identified as which protein a.5 c. Diabetes mellitus b. Their reactive index makes them easily visible d. Fatty c. A granular cast is thought to represent the decomposition of which of these casts? a. Polyuria d. Obesity c. Fatty and granular casts c. oval fat bodies. Glomerulus d. Oval fat body b.40 A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 16 . Glycosuria c. Some kind of stain is needed to make them visible c. In a routine culture of urine 102 microorganisms /ml of urine in considered significant c. A high power objective is employed in a search for these elements b. Distal convulted tubule c.4SD d. Cholesterol esters break down into fatty globules in desquamated tubular epithelial cells b. 1. Loop of henle b. The best single indicator of renal disease is a. The mean for the series of laboratory results is 10. Glycoprotein b. Tam horsfall 264. Which of the following is true of casts in urine/ a. A low pH of urine may result in the conversation of red blood cells to haemoglobin d. 1.0 . Red blood cell b.2. Fatty c.5 ml packed red blood cells are diluted to a volume of 10ml with normal saline. They are associated with degenerative tubular disease d. Pyuria 269. 1. Hyaline d. Hyaline d. Which of the following statements is not true ? a. Waxy 266. Globulin d. Proximal convoluted tubules 272. which of the following should be expected in the urine specimen? a. Red blood cells and red blood cell and fatty casts d.20 b. Fatty droplet c. Which of these casts is most easily visualized in unstained urinary sediment? a. 1. True hemoglobinuria occurs after intravascular hemolysis 275. White blood cell 267. Fatty c. Waxy 268. and calcium oxalate crystals are common in persons who suffer from a. CHEMISTRY 277. Neutrophil 270. 0.8 to 10.10 d. the 95% confidence limits are 9. 0. Albumin c. 276. Which may appear in urine in the absence of renal disease? a. The presence of bacteria in uncentrifuged specimen of urine collected under controlled condition is associated with a significant colony count on culture d. what is the standard deviation? a. Chronic nephritis d. If 0.

What is the serum dilution in the second tube? a.1ml serum is added to 0. 3.4ml saline in the first tube of serial dilution.90% 282. S=32. 3. 150ml urine weights 154 grams . 230. 200. 1:20 c. 111.0mg/dl 280. 1.30% b. using diluents to the 1. 27. 11.0 295. 0. 5 ml filtrate are required for a procedure. 90ml distilled water is added to 10ml of a 3% solution. A concentrated sulphuric acid has a specific gravity of 1. 0. 1. 8. What is platelet count for the patient? a. In this nine squares .0g d. what is the specific gravity of the urine? a.25ml d. 5. 30. What percent is this solution? a. How much Na2SO4 is there in 400ml of a 4M solution? (M.5 c.060 292. 11.0 b. Na=23.5 c. 1:50 d. 1. Na=23. 50 c.W of sodium citrate =258) a. How many grams of sulfuric acid are there in 200ml of concentration acid? a. 0.25 ml saline.5 c. What is the strength of resulting solution? a.0 ml serum is diluted with 4 ml 25% benzoin acid. with tally of 45 white cells. What is the actual amount of substance in the patient serum? a. What is the normality of isotonic saline (0. 27 platelets are counted in cells/cu mm. W.027 d.27ml d.85%)? (M. Ca=40.140N b. which already contains 0. 1.030 b. 190g b. 184. A 10% (W/V) solution of sodium chloride is needed.000 b. how much serum is represented in 2.0g b. 0. 1:10 284.0 ml of the solution? a. 9. 0.40ml b. 16. O=16) a.0g 289. 111. (M.10% c. 0. 11.5.1 d. 1. 4.0 mg. 55.00ml 281. 300 c. 10g NaCi/dl d.20ml c.014N c. 45. 0.000 d. All nine squares of a hemacytometer are counted . 0. In a thrombocytopenia. 10mg NaCl/d c.1 d. 10g NaCi/L b. 6. The final colored solution proves to be too high to read accurately on the spectrophotometer . 111 c.0 b. 1. 0. 227g 296. 720 291.000 285. All nine squares of the hemacytometer are employed to increase the accuracy of the count.0 mark and spinal fluid to the 11 mark. Dilution of a spinal fluid is accomplished in a white cell diluting pipet. 0.5) a.0 mark). which is then filled with Rees-Ecker diluents to the line at the top of the bulb.2% solution for coagulation studies? (M. W Na=23. S=32.0 d. O=16.5) a. H=1) a.279. 56 d. 500 b. 368 b.5g c. How much NaOH is needed to make 4 liters of a 1N solution? (M.5mg/dl c. 1. what is the weight of 30 ml of this acid? a. 1 ml filtrate and 4ml distilled water are substituted for the original filtrate and the procedure is run as before. A concentrated acid has a specific gravity of 1. a. W. 114g c.0 288.0 b.0g 290.6g c. 361 d. 3. Ci=35. 55. Of what does it consists? a. In cells /cu mm. 15.013 c.84 and a percent purity of 98%. 5.25) of the contents of the first tube are transferred to the second tube.028N d. 0. How many milligrams of CaCl2 are needed to prepare 100 ml of a 1 x10 -3 M solution? 294. 150g d. How much sodium citrate is required to make 500ml of a 3. 20. what is the spinal fluid cell count. 1:80 b.280N A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 17 .2g d.0 293. W. 283.dl b.5mg/dl d.0g b. Half (0. 0. CI=35. 1 g NaCi/100ml 287. The graph reading is 46ml/dl. If 1. twice the usual amount of blood is drawn into the red cell diluting pipet (blood to the 1. A solution of calcium chloride contains 3 grams per 100ml. 1000 286.

6N d. Capsules can be used for a: Complements fixation c.Palisades b. 0.Pleomorphic In the bacterial growth cycle . MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY 1.20% b.297.4N d. b. grow the culture on media containing: Antibiotics c. What amount of 10N NaOH must be used to prepare 1 liter of 1N NaOH? a. 1/100 gram d. W. a. 11. 7. What is the normality of 4M NaOH? (M. Precipitation test To demonstrate capsules. A and B Which genera of bacteria form spores? Corynebacterium c. 8. H-1) a. a. Clostridium Bacillus d.7ml d. 1.42. O=16. 4. b. H.6M sulfuric acid solution? (M.N b.8N c. 1360ml 301.Psychrophillic c. 74ml c. 4.0N 298. 4 c. What is the normality? (M. 2. What is the normality of a 3. 14. b. 302. how many ml of concentrated acid are needed to make 500ml of 0. 0. How many ml of 95 alcohol do you need to make 1 liter of a 70% solution? a. a. 3. 7. b. 1/10 gram c. What percent solution is 0. 3. 3.5) a. Flagella Cell wall d.O=16) a. 1. W. 1/1000 gram b. b. 10ml c.5) a. Hno3 has a percent purity (assay) of 70 and specific gravity of 1. 7. 10 306. A serum calcium level of 10mg/dl would be expressed as how many mEq/L? (At. Mesophilic A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 18 . 737ml b. 7. W. g. 6. 4. 136ml d.2N 300.5ml c. b. 2. H=1: CI=35.9N b. a.0ml 303. =1. The microgram can be expressed as which of the following? a. Ca=40) a. Metachromatic Organisms that vary in size and shape are reffered to as: a. 1/1000 mg e. 1.46% d. 10. 9. Cysts b. Serotyping by swelling Hemagglutination test d. 40ml d. Lag phase Logarithmic phase d. 100ml b.Thermophillic d. B and C The quelling test depends on the antigenic speficity of the: Nucleus c.4N HCI? (At. S=32. 200ml 305. 3. W. 5. Optimum Psychrophilic d.2N 299. Capsules d. B and C Bacteria that grow in the absence of atmospheric (free) oxygen and obtain oxygen from oxygen-containing compounds are called: Anaerobes c. 8 b.22N acid? a. Aerotolerants The temperatures at which bactewria groe best in known as: Thermophilic c.42% c. H=1. CI=35.9ml b. 3. Spores c. 6. a.6N d.2N c. 5 d.60% 304. Serum Milk d. b.growth ceases because nutrients are exhausted or toxic metabolic products have accumulated in the: Stationary phase c. Capnophiles Aerobes d. 4. Capsule Dark staining granules are called: a. 14.9N b. 1. W Na=23. a.8N c. A solution of HCI contains 84 grams per liter. f. a.

Bacillus Subtilis c. Disinfection 16. Heat b. Millipore (0. Seits c. Maroon 24. Heated saline c. Media that cannot be heated can be steriLized by: a. Auramine d. Detergent d. Grams iodine c. following Plate was characteristics incubated toomay longbe present? b. Heating (kills remaining vegetative bacteria) d.Phenol c. An example of an negative stain is: a. Incubation (spores germinate) c. Salmonelle lyuhi 17.22 um) d. Disinfectant b. Iodophors are composed of iodine and: a. What is the term that describes a process or treatment that renders a medical device. Autoclave c. Gamma-hemolysis c. Hiss c. Acid-fast organisms in tissue are best stained by whic of the following methods? a. Blood Slimy agar colony is too onold blood agar medium indicates which of the c. Alpha-prime 14. 90-95% alcohol 21. Alpha-hemolysis b. Boiling b. Kinyoun d. Staphylococuss aureus b. Filtration c. Acid alcohol d. Sterile 23. Negative stain 28. Organism has a capsule d.70% alcohol d. phearuginosa d. Beta-hemolysis d. Acid-alcohol 25.a. Acetone + alcohol b. India Ink stain b. Quaternary ammonium disinfectants are easily inactivated by: a. Acid-fast bacteria appear w3hat color microscopically? a. Phenolic compound c. AOTA 15. Branhamella b. Red c. Antinomyces b. Chemical disinfectants d. Heating (kills vegetative bacteria) b. Green d. Methylene blue stain 30. Which of the following filters can give 100% sterility? a.2% aquecus glutaraldehyde 20. Red b. the decolorizer is: a. A and B 18. Fusobacterium d. Blue d. Which of the following is used for quality control for the dry heat oven? a. Gyram stain d. Tergitol no. What is the most effective method of sterilization? a. Artyispesis d. 70% alcohol b. Which of the following is NOT gram-negative? a. What do gram positive bacteria stain? a. Campylobacter A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 19 . Tap water 22. Purple 27. Acetone d. Decontamination c. Veillonella c. Plate was incubated too high temperature 13. Aeromonas 31.7 b. When using fractional steritization the sequence is: a. Organic material b. Ziehi-Neelsen b. Heat c. The mordant used in the Zieht-Neelsen acid-fast-stain is: a. Auramine-rhodamine stain is c. A 12. On blood agar paltes a small zone of alpha-hemoklysis surrounded by zone of beta-hemolysis after refrigeration is known as: a. Peptococcus c. Dry heat oven d. Antiseptics b. Bacillus stearothermophilus d. Purple c. Which of the following is NOT an anaerobe? a. Which of the the following is not a disinfectant? a.QUATS b. Alcohol + HCI 29. Green b. Methyl Alcohol c. Slide warmer at 65%C for 2 hours 26. Millipore (0. instrument. or environmental surface safe to handle? a. In the Ziohi-Neelsen staining method. Cannot be steruilizede 19.5 um) b. How is smear for an acid-fast stain fixed? a. Salmonella d.

Heated cerebrospinal. 33. Smears of cerebrospinal fluid are u8suall stained with. Septi-Check b. What is the most abundant normal flora in troat cultures? a. a. Specimen is more concentrated b. Uncentrifuged cerebrospinal d. a. Hemophilus influenzae. Coybobacterium diphtheriae 38. but no growth occurs aerobically and anaerobically. Inhibition by antibiotics therapy c. G. Escherichia coli b. Neisseria. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis test b. Dilution is increased c. Why is a first morning urine specimen preffered for urine cultures? a. vibrio. B and C 36. Which of the following should be used to remove antimicrobials before culturing? a.. Anaerobes b. A and B 43. Some may producebeta-hemolysis under aerobic conditions b. Latex agglutination tests d. What indicates vaginal or uu8rethral contamination of urine? a. Determination of mycobacterial growth rate b. bordetella pertussis c. India ink stain b. b. Why most blood agar plates for troat cultures be incubated aerobically and anaerobically when betahemolytic streptococci are suspected? a. NOTA 35. Phenylethyl alcohol is used in media to: a. Staphylococcus edidermidis b. Coagglutination tests c. Isolator d. Smears of cerebrospinal flyuid are prefared from: a. Dilution is not affected 45. Primary culture for anaerobes c. Cerebrospinal fluid sediment c. ACID-FAST=STAIN c. Neisseria. Streptococci only grow under aerobic conditions c.LIsteria 40. b. Erysipelothrix. Alpha-hemolytic d. Dilution is decreased d. Stimulate gram-negative bacteria 42. Neuthalizes the bactericidal effect of human serum d. In the pour-plate method for colony counts. c. Stimulate gram-positive bacteria b. Nasopharyngeal swabs are recommended for the detection of carriers such as: a. Legionella pneumophila 37. Inhibit gram-positive bacteria c. which of the following can neutralize the antimicrobials? Tryptic soyn broth Antihistamine Thiol broth Brain-heart infusion broth From a bronchial washing. d. Alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus d. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate may be used as an anticoagulant in blood cultures because it a. Todd-Hewitt broth is recommended for: a. Dilution is increased 20% b. Removes some antimicrobials b. Specimen is diluted c. Uncultivable bacteria e. a. Stool enrichment for salmonella but not for shigella d. mycoplasma. organisms are seen on a Gram stain. Group A streptococcus c. The specimen being incubated instead of refrigerated 34. Hemophilus influenzae pertussis b. Inhibit gram-negative bacteria d. M leprae d. This is most likely due to : a. Antimicrobial Removal device c. rickettsiae. Coagulase test A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 20 . B and C 47. If a patient is taking antimicrobials.1-2 RBCs/hpf b.Morphous urates 44. how does the amount of agar added affect the dilution.32.Many squqmous epithelial cel. Neither A or B 39. Erysipelothrix. Micrococcus c. Streptococci only grow under anaerobic conditions d. Which of the following tests for bacterial antigen on cultures isolated from cerebrospinal fluid is more sensitive and faster? a. Cultuure of beta-hemolytic streptococci for flouresecnce microcopy 41. Bacteria are all motile d.Few white blood cells d. Vibrio d. Prevents phagocytosis c. Frozen cerebrospinal fluid 46. Gram stain d. What is the most common pathogen is throat cultures? a.

Streptococcus Neisseria d. Streptolysin O Cultures for beta-hermolytic streptococci must include: Incubation at 25 C to ensure growth of all strains Anaerobic incubation to detect hemolysis in all strains Incubationwiythy carbon dioxide Media with glucose to show typical hemolysis Which of the following is destroyed by oxygen? Botulism toxin c. Streptolysin G Streptolysin S d. b. 1. a. b. a. Group A. bile-esculin positive 70. 63. a. bacitracin susceptible 69. coagulase-nehgative. a. 55. d. 3. a. b. S. Sheep Human d. 50. a. Clotting of plasma What type of plasma is used for the tube coagulase test? Rabbit c. beta-hemolytic streptococci a. c. beta-hemolytic streptococci d. a. 53. 2. b. Catalase Streplolysin O d. Group b. c.a. b. Staphylococcuhs aureus Troponema pallitum d. a. Phage typing Which of the following staphylococci is the cause of urinary tract infection in young females? S. 49. As a bets-lactamase As a source of calcium d. b. 59. Optochin disk susceptible 71. Aureus from S. 54. f. Trichomonas vaginalis Using sheep blood foer blood agar pltes eliminates beta-hemolytics: Staphylococcus c. 48. 52. Dnase/mannitol fermentation Coagulase test d.which Counterimmunoelectrophoresis of the following serological tests on cerebrospinal Latex agglutination fluid?test d. 56. gram-positive coccus is most likely to be: Staphylococcus aureus c. b. 57. 4. 73. Saprophyticus d. 60. b. Coagglutination protein Staphylococcal test A coasted with antiserum is used inc. a. Enterococcus e.produced by beta-hemolytic streptococci. ELISA Which of the following is not cause of a venereal disease? Nyelsseria gonorrthoeae c. 5. 51. optochin disk resistant Whenever a biochemical test is substituted for a serological test it is reported: By the genus and species name As presumptive with the name of the biochemical test By its common name NOTA CAMP is a factor produced by the group B beta-hemolytic streptococci that: Reduce the zone of lysis formed by the streptococci A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 21 . Steptococcus faecalis The preffered method of differentiating S. Nominis Staphylococcus aureous can be isolated from stool cultures by the use of: Potassium tellurite medium c. b. b. Shigella dysenteriae type 1 Which of the following gram-positive cocci ferment glucose? Staphylococci c. a. Aureus S. Epidermidis c. b. b. CAMP test positive 68. Tests may be used more than one time: 66. Streptococcuspneumoniae b. a. 64. 61. And release oxygen A nonhemolytic. d. S. 58. 72. Alpha-hemolytic streptococci Staphylococcus ediermidis d. hippurate hydrolysis positive 67. Liquefaction Agglutination d. b. Clostridium perfringens Staphylococcus aureus d. alpha-hemolytic streptococci c. Coagulase Match the following organisms with the biochemical test that presumptively identifies them: 65. Medium with 7. Epirmidis is: Catalase test c. is oxygen stable and nonantigenic? Streptolysin A c. A and B Micrococci d.5% salt concentration Macconkey nagar d. Hemophllus A positive tube coagullase test is observed for: Bubbling c. Lowenstein-Jensen medium The most common cause of bacterial food poisoning in the united state is: Clostridium botullinum c. b. a. a. a. catalaswe-positive. 62. b. a. b. Neither A nor B Which hemolysin. Horse Some citrate-positive organisms cause a falkse-positive tube coagulase test because the organism uses the citrate And release calcium c. a.

Enriched chocolate agar b. Producti0n of beta-laclamase c. Group B streptococci from enterococci d. Rectum d. NOTA 77. Colstin b.00 units 78. A bacitracin-resistant.5 % NaCI is probably a/an: a. beta-hemolytic streptococcus that growns in 6. Autolysis is a negative result b. Potassium tellurite 92. Staphylocopccus d.04 b. Trimethoprim lactate 93. The diagnostic of gonerrhoesae in males can be made from: a. Group D strep b. Which of the following differentiates Thayer-Martin medium from modified Thayer-Martin medium? a. hippurate-hydrolysis positive bile-esculin positive. AOTA A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 22 . 1. d. Listeria from streptococci b. What do optochin and bacitracin tests have in common? a. What is the medium of choice for culturing gonococci and meningococci? a. Which of the following serological tests is used for a confirmatory test of streptococci? a. 4. What color is a positive oxidase-positive? a. Resistant to bacitracin 88. Blood agar c. Hippuratae hydrolysis is used to differentiate: a. Pneumococci that arwe resistant to penicillkin should be tested for: a. group A streptococci 81. Modified Thayer-Martin d. Moraxella c. Aeromonas d. Growth in NaCl b. Nystatin c. Bile solubility d. Thayer-Martin medium is basically a/an: a.00-2. 0. Enriched Macconkey agar d.b. Sheeop blood agar b. Major pathogen of the newborn b. Groupm D streptococci from other strep streptococci d. Group A and Group b streptococci c.02-0. 3. Streptococci faecalli from listeria 85. Group A from b streptococci b. They should not be done on blood agar d. Symptoms 90. Vancomycin d. Letters in the second column may be used more than once: 79. d. Enterococcus d. Eyes c. b. coffe bean-shaped diplococci with adjacent sides flattened is descriptive of which of the following? a. Phadebac test c. Listeria b. When performing a bacitracin differentiation test for group A beta-hemolytic streptococci. Positive urethral smear c. Lowentien-jenser c. alpha-hemolytic streptococc 82. Enterococci from other group D c. Oral cavity b. group B streptococci 80. History AOTA b. Pneumococci from other viridians 86. c. Neisseria c. Gram-negative. Chlamydia 89. Diphtheroid 87. Lancefield precipitin test b. Hydrolysis the B factor Causes a change in color Enlarge the zone of lysis formed by staphylococcal beta-hemolysis A positive quelling test is: Oxidation but not fermentation Virtual proof that the organism is a pathogen Visible only by fluorescent light From capsular swelling due to an antigen-antibody reaction 75. 2. Neisseria b. 500 units d. AOTA 91. 74. Scarlet fever a. c. Subacute bacteria endocarditis 83. Pnemococcus c. Fluorescent antibody test d. Whioch of the following specimens may be appropriate for culturing neisseria gonorrhoeae? a. The bilo-esculin test is used to differentiate: a. 10. Growth inhibition is a positive result c. Match the disease in the first column with the organism in the second column. 76.00 units c. Either one will differentiate enterococci from viridens streptococci 84. Step throat c. a. Potassium tellunte agar 94. use disks that have how many units? a. 1.

Listeria momocytogenes d. A and B b. Decolorization of starch-iodine mixture 101. oxidase-positive . A and B b. Neisseria b.gram negative coccus from a rectal swab might be: a. An ËEC d. An oxidase positive. A fastidious. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Palcoagulated egg medium d. Beta-lactamase test 105. Lactose b. Staphylococcus c. What do “PPNG” gonococci produce? a. Which of the following media will enhance pleomorphism and granule production? a. Rub the colony on a piece of filter paper containing the reagent d. Chromogenic cephalosporin method c. What is the purpose of potassium tellurite in tellurite medium? a.gram-negative. Listeria b. Put a drop of reagent on the colony b. When performing the oxidase test. which of the following techniques can be used? a. Fusobacterium b. Aeromonas d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis but not other mycobacteria c. Green c. Gram-positive. Neisseria meningitidis degrades which of the following sugars? a. Propionibacterium xerosis c. When culturing Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Gram-negative. Rub colony on a filter paper strip and add a drop of reagent c. Corynebacterium xerosis c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae c. Enriches the medium d. Enhances granule production 107. nonmotile rods b. Corynebacterium JK b. Red b. Which of the following indicates a positive reaction for the beta-lactamase chromogenic cephalosporin method? a. Which of the following tests xcan give a prasumtive identification of branhamella catarrhalis if the isolate is a gram-negative diplccoccus that is oxidase-positive and isolated from middle-ear fluid? a. Corynebacterium b. Babes-Ernst granules are characteristic of: a. Nitrate test c. Which of the following are methods for testing for the producyion of beta-factamase? a. Plasmid coding for the enzyme may be lost on subculturing b. Potassium Tellurite medium produces what color colories of corynebacterium diphtheriae? a. Gram-negative. Enriches pleomorphism b. Corynebacterium diphtheria 112. A and C 113. what is the morphology of corynecbacterium diphthenae? a. Because of the absorbance of oxygen from the medium d. The term “palisading”picket fence letter describe the common arrangnment of cell of: a. Corynebacterium diphtheiae but not other cotrynebacteria 111. Corynebacterium xerosis b. Neither A nor B 109. Actinomyces but not nocardia d. Neither A nor B 99. Blue d. Glucose c. AOTA 97. NOTA 106. Penicillin-producing goncciocci c. Corynebacterium diphtheriae d. Whena. Color change d. Acidometric method d. motile cocci c. Iodometric method b. Inhibits the normal flora c. Branhamella catarrhalis 103. A and B 104. Rhodococcus equipment A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 23 . Gray-Black 108. AOTA 96. Bacillus anthracis c. AOTA 100. coccus from a troat culture might be: a. Gram-positive. 98.performing Moraxella genera are oxidase-positive? c. Why should beta-lactamase tests be performed with growth from primary isolation media? a. nonmotile rods 110. Reduction of nitrates b. Which of the following are considered diphtheroids? a. Urease test d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae d. Loeffter serum agar c. Neisseria 102. Penicillinase-producing gonccocci d. Production of acid c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis b. Which of the following dipheroids is found in the normal throat? a. May react wiyh chemicals in the medium c. Inudole test b. motile cocci d. Maltose d.95.

A and C 118. Stapyhylococcus epidermidis c. Actinomyces b. Coagulase test c. 12 hours d. Orange 130. In increased humidity d. Catalase b. Cultures 122. Under anaerobic conditions 135. Motile and salicin-positive d. in vivo c. Mordant a. Which of the following media is clear so that the colonies of mycobactweria can be examined microscopically? a. Red b. Nitrate-positive and sucrose-negative b. Malachite green d. Gomori stain 132. Middlebrook 7H11 133. Lowenstein-Jensen d. Gentian violet b. Clostridium ramosum 123. What color is a negative enzymatic hydrolysis of tween 80 test? a. Feeley-Gorman 119. Refrigiration of the specimen for several months may enhance isolation of: a.sporulating rods can cause food poisoning? a. Truant flourochrome stain c. Exchange of genetic material between bacillus sp and Escherichia coli c. Decolorizer d. Which of the following is a vilurence test for listeria monocytogenes? a. Non-acid-fast bacilli what color? a. Lactose dfermentation test d. 2. Acid fast stain that does not use heat as the colonies of mycobacteria can be examined microscopically? a. Elek test c. in vivo 115. Spore-forming cells in bamboo pole arrangement of bacillus anthracis can be fopund in: a. 1. Blood agar b. Amber d. Listeria monocytogenes 120. A slow-growing. An acid-fast stain that does not use heat as the mordant is which of the following? a. The morphological cycle of rhodococcus equi from coccoid to rod form tales: a. Clostridium botulinum toxin. Corynebacterium diphtheriae d. heat to speed staining 129. Bacillus sp. In 5% carbon dioxide c. Listeria monocytoganes produces a positive in which of the following biochemical tests? a. Carbolfuchsin 131. Mycobacterium phlei b. Nonmotile and salicine-negative c. The elect test is for the detection of: a. acid (3% HCI)alcohol 126. Thios is most likely due to: a. NOTA b. Too small an amount of inoculum that caused the organisms to die b. Green c. Mueller-hinton c. Bacillus subtilis c. in vivo b. carbolfuchsin 128. Ponder stain d. At25C b. Which aerobic. Mobile and urease negative 121. A very high spinal fluid glucose allows the Escherichia coli to multify in broth but not on solid medium 124. Primary dye b. Which of the following is a gram-positive to gram-variables coccobacillus? a. Match the following dyes or reagents used in the ziehi-neelsen acid fast training procedure in the second column with their purpose in the first column: 125. 24 hours b. Kinyoun stain b. Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxin. acid-fast rod that is nitrate reduction-negative and nlacin-negative is most likely to be: A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 24 .unbranched. Bacillus anthracis toxin. Green b. In the dehydrated medium are killed and made gram-negative by autoclaving the medium d. Neisteria meningitidis contaminmants d. Bacillus cerrrreus d. Haemophiluis influence 117. Specimen from patient Guinea pigs c. Anton test d. ELISA test b. 3. in vivo d. but there is no growth anaerobically or aerobically. Methylene blue c. Mycobacterial cultures should be incubated: a. Which opf the following will differentiate listeria monocytogenes from the corynebacteria? a. Psychrophillic blood bank c.114. dilute methylene blue 127. 48 hours 116. Listeria monocytogenes b. Red c. Counterstain c. 5 hours c. Corynebacterium diphtheriaetoxin. Blue 134. 4. Very large gram-negative rods with spore are in a nonturbid throglycollate broth culture of spinal fluid. Blue d. gram-positive.

India ink with no counterstain 148. Mycobacterium kansasii b. Acid fast rods in a specimen from nasal mucosa: a. Red blood cells containing acid-fast bacilli 146. The specimen is usually used for the diagnostics of Hansen’s disease? a. Which of the following are slow growers? a. Chlamydia 152. H. NOcardia will grow on any media that does contain: a. “Lumpy jaw’ is caused by: a. 139. Nocardia b. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare d. Carbon gentian violet rather than safranin as a counterstain c. Nocardia d. Shigella d. Actinomyces c. Which of the following is enaerobic? a. Niacin and nitrate reduction tests d. Which differential test for identifying the species of Mycobacteriyum splits phenolphthalein from iripotassium phenolphthalein-sulfate within 2-3 days? a. Growth rate c. Arysulfatase test b. 138.a. Mycobacterium bovis d. Bordetella 151. Salmonella c. Peptone b. Mycobacterium b. After 2 weeks of incubation uncovered tube d.meningitis 158. Neutrophils caontaining gram-negative cocci b. Pigment production d. Which of the following is urease-positive? a. Actinomtyces israelil 136. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best differentiated from Mycobacterium bovis by: a. Macrophages containing acid –fast bacilli d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. Aegyptius c. Mycobacterium kansasil c. Which of the following belong to group IV (rapid growers)? a. Blood serum d. Which medium is preffered for the culture of most haemophilus? a. Blood d. pinkeye 156. Hematoxylin rather than methylene blue as a counterstain b. Growth rate b. H. B and C 145. Catalase test at 68 c 137. Are not a diagnostic point definitive identification 147. AOTA complex 141. Mycobacterium phlei b. Agar 153. Antibiotics c. Sputum b. H. The fite-faraco acid-fast stain is different from other acid-fast stains because it uses: a. Hydrolysis of tween 80 b. haemolyticus d. After 1 week of incubation 144. Match the organism in column 1 with the disease in column2: 154. 4. What are “lepra” cells? a. At any time b. Nutient agar b. Catalase test c. Mycobacterium smegamatis d. 3. Microsporum canis 150. Mycobacterium tuberculosis b. Are diagnostic for leprosy c. One tube of Lowenstein-Jensen medium is incubated covered with foil and one tube is incubated uncovered. Basophils containing gram-positive diplococci c. 2. When growth appears on the c. Nocadia brasilliensis c. Tryptic soy agar A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 25 . Are called “lepra cells” b. Trichophyton rubrum d. Tissue juice c. when is the covered tube observed? a. 1. Antinomyces israella b. Which of the following is used mfor the identification of mycobacteria? a. 140. Urine 149. Ulcerative chancroid 157. Influenzae a. Blochemical reactions c. normal flora in respiratory tract 155. Nitrate reduction test 142. Must be cultured on hansens agar for d. Ducreyl b. Mycobacterium gordonae c. Tween 80 hydrolysis d. AOTA 143. H. Malachite green rather than hematoxylin as a counterstain d.

V wfactor 161. V agar b. does not require CO2 and not inhibited by thionin of basic fushin is probably which pecies of brucella? a. Brucella abortus. Enriched cholocate agar 159. gramnegative rod that produces a characteristics brown pigment on Feeley-gorman agar is: a. Direct visualatiopn of the organism in htissue d. Pertusis b. Sheep d. A pur culture nof vibrio cholera c. What type of blood is used in blood agar plates for better production of beta-hemolysis of haemophilus? a. Which of the following species of Bordetella are urease and oxidase-positive? a. Brucella melitensis. The preffered medium for the isolation of bordetella pertussis: a. nitrate-positive and microaerophilic is: a. 85% NITROGEN b. Branhamella catarrhalis b.c. A gram-negative. A brucella isolate that does not produce H2S1. curved rod with s single polr fiagellum is the cause of gastroenteritis and best isolated jon: a. Gardnerella vaginalis A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 26 . Streptococcus pneumoniae 164. A fastidious. Iron-cystine agar c. Factor III d. Facultative anaerobe b. AOTA 147. Bordet-gengou medium b. Campylobacter jojuni b. What does the campy gas mexture consist of? a. Hemophlus influence c. Haemophilus haemolyticus c. Parapertussis c. X factor b. XLD agar 151. Legionella pneumophila 142. Hemophilus influenzae 160. Brucella abortus d. Campylobacter is a an: a. NOTA 165. Rice water stools often ncontain: a. Chiocolaye agar c. 5% o2 d. Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar 146. Obligate microaerophuile c. fastidious bacillus that has been isolated from air-conditioning tower is: a. Human b. At the present time. Charcoal-caphalexin agar d. Cultures of staphylococcus supplies which of the following for cultures of haemophilus? a. Edwardsiella tarda b.biotypes 1 d. Flavobacterium c. biotype 1 141. Clotted rabbit blood 140. Legionella pneumophila d. Brucells abortus d. Proteus vulgaris c. Detection of soluble microbial products nin body fluids 145. Legionella pneumophila d. A relatively slow growing anad fastidious. biotype 1 b. Rabbit 163. Brucella canis c. Clue cells may be found in infection with: a. Toxigenic staphylococcus aureus b. Campy-thio agar d. Neisseria meningtidis d. A curved. Bronchiseptica d. Brucella suis. The best medium for the isolation of legionella is: a. gram-negative rod from a nasopharyngeal swab is most likely to be: a. Sheep blood agar c. slender. Spinilum mi9nus d. Legionella pneumophila 143. Demonstration of a significant rise in antibody titer b. Brucella melitensis 144. Obligate anerobe 150. small to filamentous . Isolation of organism by culture c. Toxigenic clostridium botulinum 148. Horse c. A gram-negative. which of the following is most sensitive for the diagnostic of infections with legionella pneumophila? a. gram-negative rod that is nonfermenutive. Actinomyces israell c. fastidious bacillus that is difficult to stain by the gram stain is: a. Pruteus vulgais c. 162. Bordetelia pertussis b. Bordet-gengou plates d. Edwardsiella tarda b. Campylobacter coli b. Bordetella pertussis b. Factor I c. Obligate aerobe d. Leptospira 149. Campy blood agar b. Which of the following organisms cause whooping cough? a. 10% co2 c. Human blood tween agar d. A gram-negative.

___ Neutral red 12.___ calories colonies 167. d. ___ xylose. a. Production of acation 155. 9. Ferric ammonium citrate b.motility. Opposite c. carbohydrate 170. Extends lagf phase of normal flora c. Acid slant. acid butt d. Bromthymol blue c. Have 4 nuclei c. Methyl red 171.____ brick red colonies 166.____ eosin Y and methylene blue a. Alkaline slant. Isositol. Ureaplasma urealyticum 154. Holt-Harris. 10. inhibitor for gram-positive organisms and coliforms: 7. ___ ferric(ammonium )citrate+sodium thiosulfate 9. Tryptophan c. ____Lactose 164. Alkaline or neutral butt c. Phenol red d. Which of the following microorganisms form colonies that are embedded in the agar giving a fried egg appearance? a. methyl red. Indole. 1. Most enter bacteria cease give what type methyl red and voges-Proskauer reactions? a. IMViC is a series of which of the following teats? a. Are anaerobic b. ____Black or purple colonies 165. ___ phenol red 6. b.____ Bile salts 162. c. voges-proskaue. Alkaline butt b. Have no cell wall 153. Neutral red 173. sucrose 10. ___ Lactose. Match each item in the first column with one or more of the media in the second column: 174. ___ bile salts and brilliant green 8. Voges-Proskauer. ___ ferrous sulfate 5. What is the purpose of enrichment fluid media when culturing enterobacteriate? a. 3. Phenol red c. A and B 156. ___ brilliant green onlyn. Sodium Thiosulfate d. citrate c. What is the indicator in the methyl red test? a. salmoneilla-shigella (SS) 175. Mycoplasmas are not true bacteriam because they: a. EMB medium 159. 4. Bismuth-Sulfite (BS) 176. Similar d. Match each item in the first column with one or more of the media in the second column? 157. Decrease lag phase of pathogens d.____ Neutral red 163. Inhibition of growth by specific antisera d.mannitol. acid butt 168. sucrose. Voges-Proskauer. 8. Legionella pneumophila d. 7. methyl red. ___ Red colonies 13. salicin 4. What is the hydrogen sulfide indivcator in triple sugar iron agar? a. ___ Lactose only 3. hoktoen Entric agar ebrilliant green agar 1. Alpha-naphthol 169. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate 177. Clostridium difficile b. Radial immune diffusion test b. lactose. Brucella canis 152. Mycoplasmapneumoniae c. citrate b. citrate d. ___ Colorless colonies A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 27 . NOTA 172.c. Grow rapidly d. 6. Levine”s EMB agar 160. 2. Bromthmol blue d.____ Crystal violet 161. Identical b. ___ Bromthymol blue and acid tuchsin 11. What is the indicator in simmons citrate agar? a. 5. ___ glucose (dextrose) 2. MacConkey medium 158. Nitrate reduction test c. Alkaline slant. voges-proskauer. Extends lag phase of pathogens b.____ lactose and sucrose b. Bromoreasol purple b. Bromcresol purple b. Alkaline saint. Nonfermenters produce what reaction in triple sugar iron agar (TSI)? a. Inositol. What is the most method for the identification of mycoplasma species? a.____ lactose only c. Indole. Mycobactyerium kansasii d.

++: motile. Hydrogen sulfide b. Agar becomes cloudy b. Only 3 tubes are needed 181. Testing 3 amino acid would require 4 tubes.. Escherichia coli d. TSI K/A +G. Proteus mirabilis c. and serratia are all: a. TSIA A/A+G. 18. Common hospital-aquired uninary tract infectious agents d. Proteus vulgaris A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 28 . Detects slow lactose fermenters sucrose 191. no capsule. 179. Green c. 15. Color b. Determines the amount of sucrose b. A butter b.Which of the following organisms is it? a. Ornithine. What color indicates a negative result in the molonate utilization test? a. Cadaverine. ornithine b. Liquefy the medium d..urease and phenylalanine doeminase positive. Klebsiella pneumoniae b. Sodium malonate c. Amino acids d.. Groen slant d. Do not report 189. 20.14. Which of the following is an enzyme that removes the amino group (NH2) from an amino acid? a. Klebslella pneumoniae b. Terbidity indicating growth in a medium containing DNA c. Urease d. What indicates a positive dnase result after 0. Which of the following amino acid are used in the test to decarboxylase? a.Which of the following organisms is it? a. Negative b. ___ Red colonies with black centers ___ Black colonies surrounded by black zone with metallic sheen ___ Green colonies ___ Blue green colonies with black centers ___ Orange-salmon pink colonies ___ Citrate to inhibit coliforms and proteins ___ Whitish snowflake colony surrounded by brilliant red agar 178. 19. Produce hydrogen sulfide 183. An organisms isolated from a blood culture has the following: reactions:Gram-negative rod. putrescine.:. Positive c. Morganella morgani b. 2btubes are needed for testing lysine c. Enter bacteria cloacae c. A and B 185. What is the purpose of the ONPG test? a. Produce phenylphruvic acid c. IMVIC. Determines the Fermentation of d. If the negative nitrate reduction test doest not change color after the powdered zinc is added. The DNase test is based on: a. putrescine. 16. 1 tube is neede for a control b. An organisms isolatedfrom a blood culture has the following reactions: Gram-negative rod. Lysine. arginine. Gels on reprigeration c.negative. An organisms isolated from a urine culture has the following reactions: gram-negative rod: TSI A/AG +G. Serratia marcescens d. Hydrogen sulfide production. Serratia marcescens 193. Gelatinase breaks down gelatine to: a. other than in triple sugar iron agar require: a.Escherichia coll. Hyydrolyze area to NH$ OH b. Agar clears around the colony 187. Doubtful d. Yellow d. 17. WHY? a.. arginine. A and B 184. Aceton 186. ornithine c. Arginine. IMVIC + motile: urease-negative: Which of the following organisms is it? a. Organisms that produce urease do what to the medium? a.-H2S: lysine decarboxylase-negative and opmithine decarboxylase-positive. Escherichia coli 192. Providencia alcalifaciens d. Decardoxylase c. Deaminase 182. Determines that amount of glucose c. cadaverine d.lysine decarboxylase. Blue b. A source of metal d.1N HCI is added to the plate? a. how is it reported? a. Dextrose-negative b.. Destruction of sugars in the culture medium d. Product detection of DNA degradation by DNase 188. 2 tubes are neede for testing arginine d. Gelatine b. Saimonella. cadaverine 180. Members of Enterobactrianceae 190. Lactose-negative c. Enter bacteria cloacae c. An organic source of sulfure c. shigella.

b.motile. gram-positive rods 210. anaerobically sterilized 206. 196. Aeromonas hydrophila d. Penicillin. Methyl red c. B and C 200. Vibrio cholera b. rfampin. Bacteroides ureolyticus 212. Bromthymol blue d. Phenylalanine deaminase-positive 202. uresaes and phenylalanine demaninase negative:TSI K/A-G_H2S. Moraxella osloensis c. Clostridium butyricum b. anaerobically sterilized d. Aeromonas hydrophila d. under anaerobic conditios d. Clostridium difficile d. What does PRAS mean? a. Salmonella subgroup 3 (Arizona) c. Anaerobic. 1 tube. Alcaligenes faecalis c. Clostridium butyricum b. Moraxella osloensis 205.%% sodium desoxycholate 201. rifampin. To drive off hydrogen d. A gram-negative. gram-positive rods c. Clostridium perfringens b.nonmotile. Peptone content is low b. Carbonate b. # tubes.. Peptococcus c. How many tubes of oxidation-fermentation media is are inoculated and what precautions should be taken? a. Nagler agar is a selective medium for? a. Cholera red-positive d.indolepositive:Which of the following is oxidase-positive? a. Proteus mirabilis d. Clostridium b. Xanthomonas maltophilia d. An organisms isolated from a stool culture has the following reactions: gram negative rod. gram-negative rod. Phosphate. B and C 199. Carbohydrate contents is high c. Ciostridium tetani c. Vibrio cholera b. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus biotype lwoff 204. Clostridium tetani A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 29 . Gram-negative rods d. Why should thiolycollate broth be boiled for 10 minutes before being used? a. Clostridium ramosum c. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus biotype b. Peptococcus and peptostreptococcus are both: a. Shigella spp. Eubacterium lentum d. To deactive the thioglycollate 207. Preerduced. To drive off oxygen c. lysine decarboxylase negative .Which of the organisms is it? a. Neisseria b. ONPG positive c. Anaerobic. gram-positive cocci c. gram-positive rods produce terminal ”lollipop” spores? a. under aerobic conditions b. Prereduced. Yersinia enterrocolitica c. Xanthomonas maltophilla anitratus d. 2 tubes. 2 tubes. Proplonibacteria are: a. one covered with oil so air excluded c. urease and phenyialanine deaminase negative TSIA k/A +G.194. ). anaerobicoccus that produces a red fluorescence under ultraviolet light is: a. Arachnia 208. Which of the following is part of the normal m flora of the skin? a. Which of the following clostridla produce a double zone a hemolysis around colonies on blood agar? a. aerobically sterilized b. Which anaerobics. lysine decarboxylase-positive. An organism isolated from a stool culture has the followinh reactions. Which of the following is the reagent used for the string test? a. Veillonella d. Common agents of meningitis b. Resistant to penicillin 209. Which of the following allows viability of acid production by oxidizers in oxidation-fermentation (o-F) medium? a. aerobically sterilized c. Which of the following anaerobes causes an antimicrobial-associated diarrhea? a. Bacteroides c. Which of the following is oxidase-positive? a. 197. Anaerobic. Peptone content is high 198. gram negative rods b. Which of the following is oxidase-positive? a. Yersinia anterocolitica c.+h2S. under aerobic conditions 203. Microaerophilic d. Aerobic. Clostridium alactolyticum 213. Any organism that is indole-positive and nitrate reduction-positive is also: a. Sodium chloride content is low d. fusobacterium 211. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus biotype lwoff b. Ornithine decarboxylase-negative b. Proplonibacterium d. To activate the thioglycollate b. Aerobic. Citrobacter freundli 195.

Chlamydia d.c. Direct FA usisng monocional abs (ELISA) d. Pallidum b. Viruses b. Initial stage in psittacosis d. in a sealed container. Detects the entry of hookworm larvae c. Aerobicvally. Staphylococcus aureus b. Aerosol d. What are broad spectrum antibiotics? a. Legionnaires 230. Rickettsias are transmitted by: a. Q fever d. Rash in ricketnsial infectios 231. Rickettsias and viruses 224. Red halo surrounding the colonies 218. NOTA b. What is erythema enronicum migrants (ECM)? a. 217. What is the common tick-borne disease in the U>S? a. Bifidobacterium 225. Rickettsia b. A and B b. A and B 233. Typhoid fever b. Neither A nor b A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 30 . Klebsiella pneumoniae c. A and B 221. 216. Rickettsias and chlamydias b. Mycopllassma hominis c. Antibiotixcs c. Green zone surrounding tyhe colonies d. Antibody d. Aerobically carbon dioxide d. Tyuphus c. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay c. Cholera d. Which of the following is not caused by Rickettsia? a. Contamination b. Cause death of the organism c. Staphylococcus aureus b. Cardinal sign of lyme disease at site of tick bite b. AOTA 232. Rocky mountain spotted fever 223. Campylobacter coli 227. Lyme disease b. What is the cause of primary a typical pneumonia? a. except: a. Inhibit the growth of the organism d. Act against gram-negative bacteria c. Mycoplasma d. produced by microorganisms. Antiseptic b. Which of the following has both ribonucleic acid (RNA) and deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)? a. Chlamydia trachomatis c. Radioimmunoassay (RIA) 229. Chlamydia are cultured in: a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae d. that is very small amounts inhibit other microorganisms are called: a. A and B 228. Rickettsia c. Botulism c. Trachonia d. Mccoy cells d. Mycoplasma pneumoniae is incubated: a. A positive urease test for ureaplasmas is indicated by a: a. Viruses and chlamydias c. Yolk sac of chick embryo c. `clear zone surrounding the colonies c. T. Which of the following have a bacterial type cell wail? a. Bacteriostatic agents do which of the following? a. coccobacillus that is cultured in yolk sac of a chick embryo? a. Indirect FA using Chlamydia ags b. Clostridium difficele 214. Mosquitoes c. Inclussion conjunctivitis c. Mycloplasma pneumoniae 219. Subtances. “TRIC”conjunctivitis includes which of the following? a. Chlamydia c. in c. Which of trhe following is a small nonmotile. Myccplasma and chlamydias d. Genital cultures for sexually transmitted diseases include all of the following. Herpes simplex virus d. Act against gram-positive bacteria organisms d. Cllostridium sphenoides d. Mycoplasma pneumoniae 220. Which serological test is done for Chlamydia trachomatis on genital smears? a. Brown halo surrounding the colonies b. Trench fever b. Act against bacterial and nonbacterial b. Anaerobically in a GASPAk 215. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. NOTA 226. Which of the following organisms produce no hazr in a broth culture? a. Arthropod vectors 222. Blood agar b.

Which of the following are the best indicators of poor storage? a. Once each day of use c. Minimum inhibitory concentration d. calliper or template b. Resistance to an antibiotic can be transferred from resistant to a susceptible organism by a. Year 250. Adjust the turbidity of the inoculums d. f. Record temperature of incubators. What does the size of the zone of growth inhibition correlate with if the correct procedure has been used? a. Smaller zone d. Minimum lethal concentration c. Mutation d. Monthly b. Settings of rpms marked on the face of therheostat control on the centrifuge should bechecked once a. the 0. At each time of use c. Real-life 235. Once each week of use d. Week d. Are members of the plant kingdom c. Innate passage b. Methicillin and linomycin 243. heating blocks. Chloramhenicol and cephalosporins c. Absorption time d. The lowest concentration of drug that will kill all but the minimum defined proportion of viable organisms after incubation for a fixed time under a given set of conditions is definition of the a.time Full-life takes half a dose of antibiotic to disappear from the blood c. Decreased sodium chloride d. When container is first opened c. how often should reagent disks be checked? a. When vial is first opened b. At the end of each day b. Measure the both zones and take the b. Minimum lethal concentration b. Daily d. After inoculating the Mueller-Hinton plates for the Kirby Bauer susceptibility test. Weekly c. Thea. 237. Confluent growth b. Penicillin and methicillin b. Every other week e.5 Mcfarland standard is used to a. A and C 248. Measure the diameter of the inner zone c. At the beginning of each day d. Day c. Lincomycin and penicillin d. fungl: a. Minimum bactericidal concentration d. Determine how close the antibiotic discs should be placed c. With the unaided eye d.234. Maximum inhibitory concentration c. 3-5 minutes c. For quality control when monitoring reagents. Once each week of use d. AOTA 240. Decreased calcium and magnesium 244. Decrease peptone c. On the underside of the plate c. isHalf-life called the: b. and coagulase reagents be tested? a. A and B 239. water baths. Increased calcium and magnesium b. Month b. Lack roots and stems d. what will happen to the growth? a. there are two concentric zones around the disk. Selectivity pressure c. AOTA 249. When doing a susceptibility test with sulfonamides. Band C 242. How does one measure the zone of growth inhibitor correlate with if the correct procedure has been used? a. A and B 246. Check the face velocity of safety cabinets each a. Lack of chlorophyll b. freezers and thermometers a. what can cause increased resistance of Psedomonas aeruglnosa to aminoglycosides a. A and B 247. Maximum lethal concentration b. Measure the thickness of the media in the Petri plate b. MICROBIOLOGY /MYCOLOGY g. 30 minutes b. In the Kirby –Bauer susceptibility test. Once each month b. How should the zone be measured? a. how long should the plates dry before adding the disk? a. AOTA 238. How often should catalase . Extrachromosomal plasmid 236. oxidase . Characteristically . – 2. Zone cannot be measured 245. If there is too much moisture on the surface of a Mueller-Hinton plate when perfo ming a Kirby –Bauer susceptibility test. 1. Larger zone c. refrigerators. AOTA A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 31 . In Mueller Hinton agar. Minimum bactericidal concentration 241. Using a ruler. Not more tahn 15 minutes d. Measure the diameter of the outer zone average size d.

Rectangular 17. They exhibit thermal dimorphism 19. Thallospore b. Divisions d. Paseudohyphea b. Ascospores d. Macroconidia b. Spirals c. Cohidia b. Chlamydospores that grow within the hyphae are referred to as a. Mycelium c. Mycelia within the colony that grow into the substrate are called a. Systemic mycoses 5. Catenate c. By daughter cells piching off from portions of the mother cell c. why is the slide gently heated? a. Molds with aseptate hyphae produce a specialized hyphal structure called a a. Budding forms in which the daughter cell forms as a bud from a single mother cell or forms laterally from a mycelium or pseudomycelium are called a. Catenate c. Aerial hyphae c. Square b. Conidiophores c. Asexual spores c. AOTA A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 32 . Multicellular c. Spores 10. B and C 15. True yeast produce which of the following in the asexual stage? a. Sporangium d. Echinulate d. Favic chandeliers d. Vegetative parts 8. Mounts the specimen b. The swollen portion of the conidiophores is called the a. Vegetative spores b. Sporanglopores 14. Which type of mycoses produce no cellular response by the host? a. Pedunculate b. Seasile 20. Balstoconidia b. No divisions c. Sterigmata b. Which of the following are the result of asexual reproduction? a. Chlamydospores c. Superficial mycoses b. Endothrix\scutula 6. Ectothrix c. Which of the following statements does not apply to true yeasts? a. Echinulate d. Ascospores are produced in the sexual phase b. Within the hyphae 11. By knots of twisted hyphae d. When preparing temporary mounts of fungal elements . intertwining structures of molds are referred to as a. Intercalary b. Saccharomyces is a representative of this group d. Terminal d. Coenocytic hyphae is a synonym for a. Vegetative hyphae 12. Conidia in chains are said to be a. Sessile 13. Aseptate hyphae 4. The basic . Sporangiophore d. Pedunculate b.3. Spherule c. Blastospores are the sexual reproductive form c. Zygospores b. Zygospora 9. Cutaneous d. Conidiophores d. Increase the rate of clearing d. Deep mycoses c. Asexual or sexual spores 16. Directly from the hyphae by fragmentation b. branching. Preserves the specimen c. Macroconidia are usually a. Arthroconidia d. Vesicle 18. Arthrospores c. Ascospores b. Phizoids d. Sexual spores d. Chlamydospores d. Pseudohyphae b. Septate hyphae have a. Arthroconidia 7. Conidia with rough or spiny surfaces are described as a. Arthroconidia are formed a. Arthrononidia on the outside of the hair as well as hyphae within the hair shaft is called a. Sessile 21. Sepatate hyphase c. Dimorphic b. Blastopsores c. Conidia are a. Unicellular d.

Microsporum canis d. Fungal elements in the acridine orange staining procedure a. Stimulates the production of chlamydospores 30. Urease test medium 37. Pigment b. Eosin 27. Cyclohemixide and chloramphenicol b. 25-30 C c. Streptomycin and nystatin 36. Methylene blue d. Which of the following media identifies species of aspergillus? a. Penicillin and streptomycin c. Rice agar 31. 35-37C b. 10-15C d. Fungi should be incubated at a. Acridine orange stain b. Czaapek’s agar d. Red to violet d. Tinea ungulum is a dermatophyte infection of the a. Ascospore agar 38. Staibs medium b. Stain red c. Periodic acid Schiff stain d.KOH and nalls? d. Contains an indicator d. A positive result for the hair baiting test is a. Piedra 40.22. Pityriasis b. Rice agar d. The production of brown pigment 39. Calcoflour white d. 14 days d. Beard A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 33 . Which of these organisms is the usual cause of white piedra? a. trichophyton rubrum can be differentiated from Tricophyton mentagrophytes by the production of a. Gomori methenamine silver stain 28. What is the stain in Aman medium? a. Which fungus medium is used for the primary isolation and maintenance of fungal cultures? a. Czapek’s agar b. Fluoresces a green color 29. V-shaped penetration of the hair shaft c. Bromcresol purple b. Sabouraud dextrose agar c. Urease medium c. How does MYCOSEL medium differ from Sabouraud dextrose agar? a. Periodic acid Schiff stain c. India ink stain 25. 5 days c. 50-56C 34. Gomoli methenamine silver c. Which of the following is negative stain? a. Whicha. Methyl orange 32. Pink to red b. 30 days 35. Which of the following antibiotics can be added to media for the isolation of pathogenic fungi from contaminated material? a. which of the following may be used to restain the slide? a. Sporangia 33. If 1% glucose is added to cornmeal agar. Do not stain d. Which of the following stains is used for sharp delineation of fungal elements by fluorescent microscopy? a. Nall plates b. Methyl red c. Gram stain (Hucker modification) b. What is the indicator in Dermatophyte Test medium? a. b. Acid fast stain c. make 70% alcohol fungal elements more prominent in skin. Malassoizia furfur 41. Giemsa stain d. Brain heart infusion blood agar c. In the periodic acid Schiff stain (PAS). what colors denote the presence of glycogen? a. 10% hair. Stain purple b. The production of red pigment b. A tinea infection is commonly referred to as a. Cotton blue c. Hyphae c. Contains chloramphenicol and cycloheximide b. The production of germ tubes d. Ether 23. Which of the following media stimulates the productionof chlamydospores? a. When the fungus wall is invisible with the hematoxylin and eosin stain. Ascospores d. Cornmeal agar b. Yellow to brown 26. Ringworm d. Vancomycin and nystatin d. Bromthymol blue 24. 48 hours b. Blue to green c. Phenci red d. Trichosporon beigelli c. Does not contain dextrose c.ofLactophenol the followingcotton acts as blue a clearing agent to eliminate debris and c. Cornmeal agar d. How long should fungus cultures be held before reporting as negative a. Hematoxylin b. Piedraia horate b. Prussian blue b. Taeniasis c.

Microsporum audouin c. Epidermophyton c. A fungus that grows as a mold at 35-37 C and a mold at 25C is described as a. Candida c. Which of the following is the result of an antigen antibody reaction in cases of sporotrichosis? a. Cigar shaped c. single conidia bome along the sides of the hyphae are referred as a. Infection of chromoblastomycosis is NOT caused by which of the following fungi? a. Trichophyton rubrum c. Trichophyton tonsurans d. Sleeve 56. very slow growing colonies and has favic chandeliers? a. Dematiaceous fungi have colonies with: a. Exophiala c. Chromoblastomycosis d. Phiatophora b. Which of the following produces macroconidia that are large. Fonsecaea 63. multicellular and club shaped with smooth walls? a. Cladosporium d. Colonization by dematophytic fungi of the hair. Sclerotic body b. Asteroid bodies d. Actinomadura madurae 58. nails and skin is called a. Asteroid body d. Surface and reverse side light c. Sclerotic bodies c. Rhinosporidium seeberi b. Trichophyton rubrum c. All of these organisms 43. Microsporum b. Fonsecaea pedrosol c. Flowerette conidia d. Epidemophyton floccosum 52. Chromoblastomycosis d. 44. Genn tube 53. Palm of hand d. Flowerette conidia c. AOTA 48. Epidermoph NOCCOSUM b. Nocardia asteroids d. Which of the following are a dematiaceous fungi? a. Germ tube 54. Microsporum audouinii d. Mycetoma c. All of these organisms 45. Hyalohyphomycosis b. Cigar shaped yeast cells b. Coccidioides 62. Dermatophytoses 57. – 61. Which of the following are/is anthrophillic? a. Mycelia A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 34 . Cladosporum d. Fusarlum and paecilomyces 60. Hairs infected with which of these dermafophytes fluoresce under Wood’s lamp? a. The favus type tinea capitis is caused by which of the following? a. In older mold cultures of Sporothrix schencikii. Terichophyton rubrum produces a rod pigment on some media 51. Surface and reverse side dark d. Trichophyton tonsurans d. 49. Terichophyton rubrum is noted for its “balloon forms d. Trichophyton schonie b. Microsporum gypseum b. Terichophyton mentagrophytes penetrates the hair shaft c. Epidermophyton floccosum 46. Sclerotic bodies are found in the tissue in an infection with a. Which statement is NOT true? a. Sclerotic body c. Which of the following fungi is/are the cause of dermatophytoses? a. Surface light and reverse side dark b. Dermatophytoses 47. Sporotrichum and aspergillus c. Phaephyphomycosis c. Microsporum canis b. Microsporum canis d. Sleave conidia b. Trichophyton mentagrophytes 50. Chrysosporum b. Asteroid body 55. Monomorphic b. Which of the following infections is caused by dematiaceous saprobes that invade organs of immunosuppressed hosts? a. Trichophyton mentagrophytes is urease positive b. S is a. Surface dark and reverse side light 59. Pseudoallescheria boydii c. Microsporum canis d. Terichophyton tonsurans c. Which of the following is diagnostic for chromoblastomycosia a. Phaeohyphomycosis b. Flowerette d. Phialophora and cladosporium d. Penicillin and acremonium b.c. Which of the following are found in the yeast phase of sporothrix schenckii on culture medium at 37C? a. Feet 42. Trichophyton d. Asteroid body b. Microsporum canis b. The most common cause of mycetoma (maduramycosis) in the U. Which of the following produces small.

Penecillum marnefici d. Dimorphic b. Monomorphic d. Yeasts 65. Aspergillus c. Fusarium moniliforme b. AOTA A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 35 . Which of the following causes and infection by hyaline saprobes that invade most tissues or body fluids of immunosuppressed hosts? a. Eumycetic 64. Dimorphic d.c. True fungi that produce hyphae and spore forms are known as a. Eumycotic c.

Trimethropin c. Sporangia 79. A and B b. Small. Blastospores c. Crytoccus d. tuberculate macroconidla but is a a.66. A and B 82. Hitoplasma capsulatum c. Funguslike bacteria b. Laboratory workers are in no danger when handling which form of dimorphic fungi? a. Yeast forms with multiple buds d. AOTA 84. Ferments trehalose 73. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis b. Sepedonium produces spiny . Blastomyces dermatitidis d. Creatinine c. Germ tube b. Yeastlike fungus d. budding yeast cells 83. Ringworm c. Antibody d. Pseudohyphae b. Blastomyces dermatitis 70. Nocardia asteroids b. evenly staining c. Rapid growing suede like growth 80. Creatinine c. Germ tubes b. Uberculate macrocchidia b. Eumycetes d. Aminoglycoside b. Scedosporidium apiospermum c. The tissue phase of Histoplasma capsulatum. Cornmeal agar plus tween 80 is used to identify candida albicans through the organism production of a. Antibody d. Nocardia braciliensis d. Carbohydrate b. AOTA 76. Favus 77. Blastospores c. Cryptococcus neoformans latex agglutination test on spinal fluid detects crytococcal: a. Barbers itch b. Pseudohyphae with blastospores c. Antigen 74. Candida c. Yeast form (tissue) c. violet. Pseudoalloscheria boydii 67. Opportunistic fungi 68. In you observe cleistothecia containing ascospores . Slow growing dematiaceous growth c. Antigen 75. Which of the following has a capsule? a. Assimilates creatinine c. Actinomyces israelii b. Chlamydospores d. Which of the following are produced by Geotrichum candidum? a. Geotrichum candidum colonies appear as a. Why does crytoccus neoformans produce a brown color on Birdseed or staib agar? a. When culturing crytococcus on Sabcuraud dextrose agar. A presumptive identification of Candida albicans can be made by checking the ability of he organism to produce what structure with serum a. Pseudohyphae 78. Cigar-shaped yeast cells arthroconidia d. Vancomycin d. report the organism as a. Neither A nor B 81. Which of the following is another name for oral candidiasis? a. Actinomadura madurae 69. 85. Tuberculate chlamydospores 86. Chlamydospores d. Capsules c. Chlamycospores d. Thrush d. Acid-fast bacteria c. Which of the following is anaerobic. Dimorphic fungus c. Assimilates niacin d.yeastlike growth d. Geotrichum b. The characteristics structures of the mycelia phase of Histoplasma capsulanum are A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 36 . Candida albicans produces a. Rectangular. which of the following can be mistaken for a lymphocyte? a. Rapid. Which of the following is/are dimorphic fungi? a. Yeast cells within macrophages b. Candida albicans c. waxy growth b. gram positive but not acid fast and does not stain with fugal stains? a. The actinomycetes are best classified as a. Geotrichum candidum d. Monomorphic mold b. Actinomyces israelii d. which of the following antibodies should be in the medium? a. Carbohydrate b. Blastomyces 72. Nocardia asteroids c. In the direct microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid. Slow growing. Cryptococcus neoformans latex agglutination test on spinal fluid detects cryptococcal: a. Crytococcus neoformans b. Hyphal form (culture) d. Cycloheximide 71. Ferments glucose b. characteristically shows: a.

Blastomyces c. Sporothrix schenci Immature spherules of coccidioides are differentiated from yeast forms of Blastomyces because a. String test d. Blastomyces dermatitis c. Numerous intercalary or terminal b. 94. Delicate. Central nuclear material b. Blastomyces dermatitidis produces a. A different size c. 92. Immunofluorescence test b. Sporothrix The characteristic structures of the mycellial phase of blastomycosis are a. 90. They never bud Which of the following fungi is a major biohazard to laboratory personnel? a. ELISA In the mycelia form. branching . NOTA Which of the following tests may be sued instead of conversion when identifying dimorphic fungi? a. Broad. Coccidiodes immits b. Arthrospores with a germ tube in one d. Their buds have a wide base d. Cryptococcus neoformans c. Coccidloides d.87. Spherures filled with endospores Yeastlike forms with multiple buds are characteristic forms associated with a. 91. Clusters of blastopores c. 89. nonseptate . Wide. Tuberculate chlamydospores b. Histoplasma b. A different shape d. They produce buds c. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis b. Conidiophores that resemble lollipops c. Candida albicans d. 88. Exoantigen test c. Fonsecaea pedrosoi d. septate hyphae d. a. 93. hyphae b. acid fast hyphae A yeast from with a single broad based bud would identify an oraganism as a. Small pear-shaped conidia called chlamydospores lollipos d. Yeast cells usually in monocytes corner Leishmania can be differentiated from Histoplasma because Leishmania has: a. Blastopores c. Histoplasma capsulation A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 37 . Their buds have a narrow base b.

Which of the following is characteristic of true amebae? a. The motile. even .95. f. Nana 10. Which of the following has cysts with chromatoid bodies that have two pointed ends or that can be round. Dientamoeba b. AOTA 11. E. reproducing stage. Pseudopod c. Include pathogens and nonpathogens body d. Kidneys d. Nana A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 38 . Lungs c. Hartmanni d. Which of the following fungi produces a spherule that is filled with endospores ? e. Trophozoite d. Hartmann d. Endolimax c. delicate nuclear chromatin b. is likely to ingastred blood cells of the host? a. 1 b. bustchli c. Rocket electrophoresis technique 96. A c. Coli c. Red c. 8 d. E. when acting as a pathogen . Adult worm 2. I. H and/or M c. Leishmania stains? a. Hartmann d. Trophozoites of Entamoeba histolytica have the following characteristics a. A and/or D b. E. H b. E. triangular or oval/ a. MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY g. Which of the following is a true ameba? a. I. Iodamoeba d. Which of the following amebae has chromatoid bodies in the cyst stage? a. butschlii 7. E. Peripheral chromatin on the nuclear c. E. Ova b. When differentiating histoplasma capsulatum from Leishmania using special fungus stains. Green d. Polecki d. feeding stage of the Protozoa is which of the following? a. Coli c. Pancreas b. Mature cysts of E. Small. Cryptozoite 8. M 99. Which of bands in the exoantigen test for Blastomyces dermatitidis is present in a positive result? a. Microscopic immunodiffusion test d. Coli 4. E. peripheral chromatin c. E. Liver 5. Neutralization test b. Amebiasis is caused by a. Polecki have how many nuclei? a. 0 9. G d. 1. Fine . E. Cyst d. E. Entamoeba 3. Histolytica b. O and/or P 97. fragilis b. Amebae that inhibits the gastrointestinal tract of man are nonmotile nonfeeding and infective during which stage? a. Which of the following organs of the body is most often involved in extraintestinal amebiasis? a. E. Cyst c. E. Chromatin bodies in the cyst 6. Indirect passive agglutination test c. Which of these trophozoites . Histolytica b. E. J and/or L d. finger like pseudopods d. Trophozolite b. 2 c. D. In the exoantigen test for Histoplasma capsulatum. Ana c. Blue b. The exoantigen test is a/an a. Progressive motility with hyaline. Will not stain 98. which bands are present in appositive result? a. Histolytica b. AOTA b.

Epithelial cells 26. Which are the best staining procedures for species of naegleria and Acanthamoeba? a. fragilis b. D. – 16. A. Triangular 27. E. Viruses c. Mouth c. Pseudopods c. In which specimen are Acathamoeba and naegleria usually found? a. Two d. Nana c. Gram stain c. Ears b. flagellates b. Pear shaped b. Which of the following wouyld have a double walled wrinkled cyst form? a. Amebae inhabiting the central nervous systems enter the body through the a. Spiral groove –trophozoite c.12. Ammonium carbonate crystals crystals d. Size 13. AOTA 24. Worms 15. AOTA 31. Asymptomatic b. Urine b. Giardia c. A cyst that possesses a single nucleus and a large glycogen vacuole that stains deeply with iodine belong to a. Which flagellate can be a pathogen of the small intestine? a. Blood c. fragills can show which of the following symptoms? a. Cribriform plates b. Joint fluid 23. butschlii d. Histolyca d. Which of the following is pathognomonic for G. D. What does D. Abdominal discomfort without diarrhea d. Undulating membrane –cyst d. Nasal mucosa d. Ammonium magnesium phosphate b. Gondii b. Amebae d. D. fragilis 18. Trypanosoma d. butschlii 17. Four b. Chilomastix b. Acanthopods 20. Naegleria has which of the following characteristics? a. Both can appear as urine contaminants d. AOTA 30. T. Hermotoxylin and eosin d. fragills can show which of the following symptoms? a. Fowleri c. fragilis d. hyaline extensions called/ a. Trichomonas c. N. Lamblla and the stage it is found in? a. Coli 19. Presence of peripheral chromatin b. Round c. Oval d. E. N. I. Hartmanni d. E. Intestinal flagellates are usually which shape in the trophozoite stage? a. Which of the following are often mistaken for cysts of amebae? a. E. Diarrhea c. Nana c. Trichomonas d. Limax forms d. The point of differentiation between Entamoeba histolytica and E. Both are ciliate c. Cytostome –trophozoite b. Ventral sucking disk-trophozoite 28. Which of the following protozoa have an undulating membrane? a. Infections with D. Hartmanni is: a. Some amebae have a spiny. Presence of chromatoid bodies c. Wright stain b. Fowleri c. B and C 21. The mature cyst of Entamoeba histolytica has how many nuclei? a. Strongyloides A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 39 . Coli b. B. Cerebrospinal fluid d. E. Which trophozoite is distinguished by the possession of achromatic granules surrounding its karyosomai chromatin? a. Neither has a cyst form b. Blastocystis hominis c. Feet 22. Castellanii b. Chilomastix b. Trophozoite can assume a limax form flagellate d. Coli 25. Only one possesses a cyst form d. More than four 14. I . E. Failure to find bacteria in purulent spinal fluid should alert one to find the possibility of an infection with: a. One c. The tropozoite whose karyosomal chromatin appears as a rosette of 4-6 granules is identified as a. A and B 29. Trophozoite can become an ameba b. Found in the brain c.

No nuclei 37. Vaginalis d. In the laboratory diagnosis of L. Leishmania c. Fluid from lymph node d. H. Posteriorly from the kintoplast d. Meshili c. Which of the following is the cause of African sleeping sickness? a. AOTA 46. which is the preferred specimen in which find Leihman –Donovan bodies? a. Vaginal secretions b. Thick organism b. Giardiasis b. T. 3 nuclei d. Dientamoeba d. The extracellular form of Trypanosoma is a slender organism characterized by an undulating membrane and a free flagellum that arises: a. A chagoma is a lesion seen in infections with a. Trypanosoma d. Cruzi b. Transmitted by a mosquito to man b. Bite of reduviid bug b. since it customarily infects swine c. Trichuris trichiura b. Which of the following is the only elliate that is pathogenic in humans? a. Red and white blood cells in stool specimens are characteristic of a. G. C-shaped d. Posteriorly from the nucleus 45. Trypanosoma 48. Leishmanial d. Sandfly (Phlebotomus) d. 8 flagella and an exostyle? a. Which of the following is characteristic of the trypanosomes of sleeping sickness/ a. Gambiense b. Which of the following structures are used for motility of Balantidium coli? A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 40 . Which of the following is the intracellular form of blood and tissue flagellates? a. E. Gandil b. AOTA 44. Trypanosomal b. Anteriorly from the nucleus c. 2 nuclei. A and C 42. D. CSF 50. Donovani . Blood c. Leptospira 36. Reduviid bug (Triatoma) c. L. Eighty percent of the trophozoites of D. T. Which species of Trypanosoma is the cause of Chagas disease? a. capsulatum d. E. T. Centrally from the anterior b. Coli b. A very large cyst whose doubie wall encloses a ciliated organism with one visible nuclei would be a. fragilis have: a. Bone marrow c. Cruzi d. Tsetse fly (Glossina) b. CSF b. Lamblia b. Braziliensis d. fregilis 34. The onlybilaterally symmetrical protozoan is a. Crithidial c. Prominent kinetoplast c. Blood d. Ticks 41. Rhodesiense c. L. NOTA 35. L. Which intestinal flagellate trophozoite has a sucking disc . Meningoencephalitis c. Acquired by a accident by man . AOTA 43. Babesia c. Donovani c. Isospora d. Trichomonas c. – 33. Bite of tsetse fly d. Which of the following is found within the reticulcendothelial cells? a. Demonstrated only by the trichrome stain 52. T. Inhalation c. Donovani c. Leptomonad 39. Trichomans vaginalis d. Coli 51. Which specimen would be suitable for a demonstration of the trypanosomes of sleeping sickness? a. C. Coli b. Plasmodium b. Babesia 40. Gambiense 49. Sexual contact 47. B. How is Trypanosoma cruzi transmitted? a. Which oraganism is the cause of kala-azar? a. A member of the sporozoa d.32. T. Bacillary dysentery d. 2 nuclei c. Balantidium 38. A pear shape flagellate with jerky motility that is found in a urine specimen is identified as a. Which of the following is the vector of African sleeping sickness? a. Hominis c. 1 nuclei b. Giardia b. Trypanosoma gambiense c.

P. Blackwater fever c. P. Falciparum The gametocyte of plasmodium falciparum can be differentiated from that of other malarial species by a. This is called. Macrophilia b. Ovale b. Falciparum c. infecting a large pale red blood cell with dots of haemoglobin? a. Malariae d. Sporozoites In which of malaria is there synchronized rupture of the red blood cells every 72 hours? a. P. Ovale b. P. 62. Number of nuclei c. Malariae In falciparum malaria there may be a sudden massive intravascular hemolysis producing hemoglobinuria. Hb-A What is the name of the laboratory test that allows laboratory bred reduviid bugs to feed on patients suspected of having Chagas disease? a. P. Vivax d. Tsetse fly (Glossina) c. P. 55. Macronucleus d. pale red blood cell with fimbriated edges? a. 54. Vivax c. Malariae d. Hemoglobinopathies d. Ovale c. Very large organisms The definitive host (vector) to Plasmodium is the: a. Hb-CC c. Malariae d. Complement fixation b. Vivax c. 63. Nuclear chromatin d. Sandfly (Plebotomus) d. Schizogony d. 70. Large organisms c. Ovale Which malarial organism has large. Vivax malaria c. P. Cilia d. Falciparum In which type of malaria can Maurer’s dots be found? a. Falciparum malaria d. NOTA What is the infective stage of malarial parasite to the vector? a. Vivax b. 61. 59. Ovale malaria b. AOTA The malarial organism whose schizont resembles a “fruit ple ” in which the merozoite form a rosette around the malarial pigments is a. 66. Trophozoite d. 57. Serodiagnosis A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 41 .’ a. appliqué forms and often have multiple parasites in the infected red blood cells? a. 65. Sporocyst b. Gametocyte b. P. P. P. 67. Hb-SS b. Vivax malaria c. P. P. Shape In which type of malaria can Ziemann’s stippling be found? a. Vivax c. Falciparum d. Neither A nor B Conjugation of trophozoites of Balantidium coli never occurs between a. Cryptozoites d. 58. P. coarse. Falciparum Which malarial organism features ring trophozoites that have double chromatin dots. P. Large and small organisms b. 60. P. P. a. Vivax b. Falciparum Which malarial organism characteriscally has a band form trophozoite stretching across the red blood cell? a. A and B b. Same size organisms d. Malariae c. Malariae malaria d. very ameboid ring trophozoites . Female anopheles mosquito b. Ookinete What is the infective stage of malarial parasite to humans a. 68. P. 56. P. Malariae b. Ovale b. 69. P. Falciparum b. Flagella c. Male reduviid bug (Tratoma) Which of the malarial organisms presents as pale. P. Malariae The sexual reproduction cycle in Plasmodium and coccidian is referred to as: a. 71. Ovale malaria b. Vivax Which of the malarial organisms preferentially invades reticulocytes? a. A and C Which haemoglobin is incomplete with malaria parasite survival? a. Cryptozoites c. are dots within a large. P. Malariae c. P. 64. Pseudopodia b.53. Gametocyte c. Hb-F d. Endulating membrane Which nucleus in the trophozoite of Balantidium coli is the reproductive one? a. P. Micronucleus c. Schizonts b. Size b. Falciparum d. Ovale d. Sporogony c.

Ring form 80. Infective oocysts of isospora belli contain a. Crab 91. Isospora belli immature oocysts contains a. Ramon flocculation test b. – 92. Sporozoites c. MHA-ABS test for congenital syphilis d. Blood transfusion d. Cryptosporidium 84. Dipylidium caninum 85. Leave in the water bath 74. The demonstration of retinochoroiditis and cerebral calcifications in a newborn would result in which of these laboratory requests? a. The mouse into which the immune serum is injected does not die from toxoplasmosis 81. Bite of sandfly b. Which of the following are hermaphroditic? a. Xenodiagnosis b. Tachyzoites d. Pseudocysts b. Isospora helli c. Trematodes d. Humans are infected with Babesia by a. Oocysts c. Sporozoites c. Chicken 79. Schistosoma mansoni b. If immature cocysts of isospora belli are found in stool specimens from infected human. Which of the following parasites poses a particular hazard for immunodeficient or immunosuppresses individuals? a. A and C 90. Sabin –Feldman dye test c. Sabeala b. Cat d. Strobila b. Which of the following tests is used for the detection of Cryptosporidium? a. Tachyzoites d. Water plant d. Oval c. Which of the following is the first intermediate host of the flukes? a. Toxoplasma can no longer be demonstrated as an intracellular organism c. Tapeworms b. Paragonimus westermani d. Toxoplasma becomes nonmotile b. Which of the schistosome eggs may be recovered in rectal biopsy? a. Which of the following worms have an oral and ventral shaped sucker in the adult stage? a. Pseudocysts d.c. Tachyzoites 75. What is appearance of toxoplasma gondii in tissue fluids of man? a. Fish b. Western blot 72. Dog b. Sarcocystis d. Leave in the refrigerator d. Sheather’s sugar flotation 82. Sporoblast 76. Flukes c. Larval b. Titer of toxoplasma antibodies 78. Casoni skin test c. Schistosoma haematobium c. Cryptosporidium c. Schistosoma mansoni d. Crescent d. Snail c. Sporoblast 77. Fasclola hepatica c. A and B 73. Which of the following parasites is associated with AIDS? a. Rostellum 88. – 87. The scientific name of the head of a tapeworm is a. Cestodes c. Glardla d. What is both the definitive and intermediate host of toxoplasma gondii? a. Toxoplasma loses its affinity for methylene blue dye d. Leave in the incubator b. Bite of ticks c. Which operculated ovum contains a miracidium and can appear in sputum. Nematodes b. What constitutes a positive result in the Sabin-feldman dye test? a. B and C 86. Filarae 89. Scolex c. The common names for the schistosomes is A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 42 . Strongyroides b. Limax form b. G-6-PD test d. Leave at room temperature c. Schistosoma japonicum b. What stage of isospora is infective to humans? a. Proglottid d. often accompanied by blood and charcot-leyden crystals? a. Cow c. Xenodiagnosis d. what would be done with the specimen for identification? a. Pseudocysts b. Roundworms d. AOTA 83.

Dogs b. Hydatid cyst b. D. Solium d. Which of the following is found in the intermediate host of Echinococcus granulosus? a. Which tapeworm infection has to be treated with great care so that man does not acquire the larval infection? a. and is seen under the microscope to have numerous regular uterine branches (more than 15) resembling those of a tree? a. T. The first intermediate host of Diphyllobothrium latum are: a. Taenia solium c. H. Cercariae minus tail d. D. Crab 109. E. caninum d. Pork tapeworm b. Adult worm c.a. The beef tapeworm is common name for a. Diphyllobothriasis 102. particularly those of Scandinavian extraction . Water plants d. T. Cattle c. D. The second intermediate host of Diphyllobothrium latum are a. Intestinal flukes c. What is the common name for clonorchis sinensis? a. Hydatid cyst infection of man is due to a larva of the tapeworm a. Copepod c. latum b. Freshwater 110. D. nana 108. Cattie 106. Granulosus b. What is a schistosomule? a. A bile stained egg that is 75 microns at its greatest diameter and contains a hexacanth embryo that lacks polar knobs or filaments is that of a. Snail d. Trichuris c. Cercariae c. nana c. Which species of Taenia has 7 to 12 uterine branches? a. T. Lung flukes 93. Blood flukes d. Meteceriae 96. H. caninum d. nana c. H. Saginata d. Cysticercus 111. latum c. caninum 98. The tapeworm is a. What is the infective stage of the broad fish tapeworm to humans? a. T. Taenia d. Egg d. T. E. latum b. Dwarf tapeworm c. Kidney fluke 95. Trichinella 101. D. Crayfish b. Beef tapeworm d. H. Trichostrogyius b. Granulosus b. sollium 105. Lung flukes c. Chinese liver flukes d. The eggs of this tapeworm are developed and have an opeculum at one end and a small abopercular knob at the other end. Which tapeworm proglottid makes its way across the fecal specimen by doubling movements . D. Westermani b. Plerocercoid c. latum c. diminula d. Coracidium d. E. Dog tapeworm 99. 103. Sagineta 97. Pseudocyst 107. T. Solium b. Americanus A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 43 . NOTA 100. Which of the following has an unarmed scolex? a. diminula d. this worm can cause megaloblastic anemia. Fish d. T. Pragonimiasis c. F. The eggs of Echinococcus granulosus are found in the feces of a. Fish b. O. H. D. – 94. Solium c. Hymenolepis nana d. Liver flukes b. Intestinal fluke b. Granulosus b. H. Hepatica d. diminuta 112. a. Cats c. In some individuals . latum c. Saginata 104. D. Free-swimming cercariae b. Saginata c. Latum b. A hexacanth embryo enclosed in a radially striated shell belongs to the genus a. The “dwarf” tapeworm infection is another name for a. N. P. Taeniasis solium d. Dipylidiasis b. Hydatid cyst b. T.

lung. Lumbricoides b. brain and pharyx c. Eggs that average 60 microns in length. In the small intestines c. The rhaditiform lava of the hookworm has a a. S. Which stage of Trichiura is infective to humans? a. and then back to small intestines b. pharynx. Threadworm 131. Saginata b. Rectal biopsy c. Whipworm d. Trichuris trichiura. AOTA 130. and then the small intestines? a. pharynx. nana 124. The best way to demonstrate a pinworm infection is by which of the following techniques? a. Stercoralis 120. Lumbricoides b. In sputum 117. Oval. Duodenale d. Medium length buccal cavity d. Flotation method 116. Liver flukes d. Cyst b. Short buccal cavity equal ½ the width of the body c. Dorsally curved posterior c. Mature 123. A. bronchioles. AOTA 127. Stercoralis c. are oval with one flattened side. Whicha. Cercaria 125. S. Rounded posterior 115. Which of the following organisms cause infections where the larvae migrate into the lymphatics and blood. Americanus b. Cellophane tape preparation b. Microfilaria d. alveoli. T. Third portion of urine voiding d. In the large intestines b. Lumbricoides d. T. Large roundworm d. Hookworm 119. Migrates through the blood. On the perianal skin d. Migrates through the blood. The gravid female of Enterobius vermicualris deposits her embryonated eggs a. hookworm and_____ form the unholy three of roundworms a. liver . Migrates through the lymph nodes and back to the intestines d. E. The male roundworm is differentiated from the female roundworm by its a. Unfertilized d. Duodenale d.ofIntestinal the following flukes worms have separate sexes? c. Embryonated egg 121. Whipworm b. Clear space between shell and embryo d. Muscle biopsy is a diagnostic technique employed to detect: A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 44 . T. Tapeworms b. Stercoralis b. If an Ascaris egg lacks it bile stained mammilated coat. Pinworm b. Decorticated b. Pointed posterior d. N. lungs. Hookworm c. and contain a motile larva. It does not migrate 122. Solium d. Vermicularis c. The helminth that induces a hyperchromic microcyclic anemia in its host in the a. are those of: a. Rhabditiform larva c. Blood flukes 114. A no buccal cavity 129. Which of the following is the first stage larva of intestinal nematodes? a. E. N. Americanus c. Threadworm 128. Eggs that are bile stained and have clear polar plugs belong to the a. Fertilized c. Filariform larva d. A. Square posterior b. N. we refer to the egg as a. Enterobius vermicularis c. A. Which of the following larval worms enters the host by penetration of the ski? a. An embryo in the two to eight cells stage of cleavage b. Large roundworm d. Solium d. Filariform larva c. A roundworm that inhibits the small intestine and usually is demonstrated as rhabditiform larvae in the fecal specimen is the: a. Vermicularis c. Hookworm c. Pinworm c.113. A. Rhabditiform larva b. thin shell c. A. Which of the following nematodes does not have a free living stage? a. Long buccal cavity equal to the width of the body b. H. S. AOTA 126. Which of the following is characteristic of the eggs of hookworms? a. Americanus 118. Whipworm b. Where does the larva of ascaris lumbricoides go after it hatches in the small intestine? a.

Schistosomule b. A shealth d. 136. Copepod Dirofilaria immitis is the a. On contact with water. Fly b. Dog hookworm c. Dog hookworm d. 135. Brugia d. AOTA A viviparous female nematode: a. Microfilariae d. Philippinensis d. Rostellum d. Cercanal dermatitis Dracunculus infections cause ulcers that a. Lymphatics and subtaneous tissue One of the pathological findings in infestations of Wuchereria is: a. release larvae c. Fibrotic nodules The intermediate host of the guinea worm is the a. Scolex c. commonly known as swimmers itch. Dog heartworm b. NOTA 140. Nucleus c. Strobila b. Metacercariae 144. Filariform larvae of dog hookworm b. Rat lungworm b. Which of the following is caused by the ingestion of snails by humans? a. Which of the following is the eye worm? a. Onchocerca b. Cercarial dermatitis. 138. Contain eggs d. 134. Blood and feces c. Black fly d. Wuchereria c. Anisakis b. Ascariasis Which of the following roundworms give birth to her young? a. Loa d. Dirofilaria immitis c. Dog heartworm c. A. Loa 143. Which of the following microfilariae does NOT have a shealth? a. Produces living larvae b. A dorsal curvature of the posterior end b. Subcultaneous tissues and blood b. Wuchereria c. Brugia b. Trichinosis c. Eggs of tapeworms d. Mansonella b. Rat lungworm d.132. Eye infections b. Wuchereria c. 133. Does not require a second intennediate host On of the differential characteristics of the microfilariae is the presence or absence of a. Elephantiasis d. Cat tapeworm 146. Does not require a male to produce eggs d. Larvae of roundworms c. 139. Taeniasis d. Produces eggs c. Brugia 142. a. Trichuriasis b. Mosquito c. 141. Brasillensis 145. Proglottid A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 45 . Cercariae of schistosomes 147. Mansonella d. Which of the following causes a chronic cough . Appear on the eye b. Cutaneous larva migrans or creeping eruption is caused by a. Larvae of pinworms c. What is the scientific name of the body of a tapeworm? a. 137. pulmonary and artery obstruction but no invasion of the heart in humans/ a. is caused by a. Blindness c. Flagella Adults of filarial worms live in a. Urine and lymphatics d.

MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY g. hemoflagellates d. Venipuncture blood is not recommended for a. Colorless b. amebae. Capsomer 2. 1-2 minutes c. During larval migration d. f. Viruses are characterized by the presence of a. Scolex d. “Ground itch”occurs in infections of hookworms at the a. Allergic reaction b. Do not stain 152. Neither A nor B for staining 162. Suckers 149. Nucleocapsid c. Proglottid c. cryptosporidium. DNA and RNA d. is called a a. Strobila b. Isospora. Female reproductive organs d. babesia c. A six hooked embryo is known as a. A and C 151. 1. A and B b. Mitochondrial DNA c. Trophozoites are destroyed by iodine b. Brown d. Eggs b. Green d. 30 minutes to 1 hour after being drawn d. The gravid segments of a tapeworm are filled with: a. Babesia. What will happen if blood from finger stick mixes with the alcohol use to clean the rea? a. Yellow c. 2 hours after being drawn b.148. Site of the larval penetration of the skin c. Malaria. Male reproductive organs c. prepare blood films venipuncture within a. What color do chromatoid bodies of protozoan cysts stain in an iodine wet stool preparation? 161. malaria. Red c. Ribosomal RNA b. Yellow-brown 153. To detect stippling. What color does the cytoplasm of protozoan cysts stain in an iodine wet stool preparation? a. Hexacanth 150. Virion b. babesia. RNA A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 46 . Amebae. Thick blood firms become unsuitable d. with or without envelope . A mature virus particle containing a nucleic acid core surrounded by a protein coat. 5-10 minutes e. hemoflagellates 163. hemoflagellates b. Genome d. Direct examination of stool specimens stained with iodine make the trophozoite of the Potozoa stain what color? a. “Fixes” red blood cells c.

10C 12. Enterovirus 5. The following characteristics are similar in both influenza and parainfluenza viruses.after primary infection. Troat swab d. Herpesviridae d. Release b. Monkey kidney cells and embryonated hen’s eggs b. Hemadsoption assay d. Cerebrospinal fluid b. Nuclear or cytoplasmic membrane c. Segmented RNA genome 21. Retroviridae c. Paramyxovirus c. Hemagglutinin and nonsegmented nucleocapsid A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 47 . Nucleus or cytoplasm d. Which of the following is the smallest RNA virus? a. Genomes b. Harpesviridae b. Poxvirus d. Pocviridae b. Membranes 9. 37C c. Influenza d. 4C b. Attachment and penetration c. Mumps b. The best host systems for influenza virus isolation are a. Neuraminidase and hemagglutinin b. Adenoviridae c. Poxviridae 11. A549 cells d. Embryonated hents eegs 15. Specimen collected for virus isolation should be kept at: a. Lipid and double stranded DNA d. Monkey kidney cells and human embryonated hens eggs c. Immunoperoxidase test b. Square or round c. Orthomyxoviridae d. AOTA 17.3. At what temperature should clinical specimen suspected of containing viruses kept for transport that takes days? a. Papovaviridae 14. Budding from cytoplasmic membrane b. Poxviridae 10. Haxon d. Myxoviridae virus envelope contains both a. Hemagglutination inhibition test 18. Long or short d. Where is the site of vision assembly? a. 4C b. Influenza A viruses can be detected in cell cultures by a. Human embryotic fibroblasts and embryonic hen’s eggs d. What is the largest DNA virus? a. Lipid envelope d. In waht family of viruses. What is the first step in the replication cycle of a virus? a. What specimens should be collected from a patient with suspected enteroviral meningitis? a. Which of the following viruses causes acute central nervous system disease in humans and animals? a. What common antigen in cross reactive in all human adenoviruses? a. except: a. Pseudomyxoviridae c. 37C d. Assembly of vision d. Monkey kidney cells and A549 cells 19. Fiber c. mRNA or DNA 8. Which of the following is a RNA virus? a. Monkey kidney cell c. Adenovirus b. Capsomere 20. Hemagglutinin b. Togavirus d. -10C 13. Cytomegalovirus isolation is best accomplished using. Lipoprotein and nonsegmented nucleocapsid c. Helical symmetry c. Stool c. a. capsomere c. Helical or icosanedral 7. Ribbon like or square b. Complement fixation test c. 20C d. Capsomeres or genomes b. Herpesvirus c. Parvovirus 4. Rabies c. Paoviridae d. Herpesviridae b. does an individual become latently infected and then the infection can be reactivated? a. Measles 16. Uncoating 6. Which of the following is a DNA virus? a. Adenovirus b. -70C c. The virus capsid morphology is a. From what part of the virus is the envelop acquired? a. Human embryonic fibroblasts b. Nucleus or cytoplasm d.

What virus is the most frequent cause of gastroenteritis in children during the winter months? a. Chicken pox d. Size determination d. Heart c. Hepatitis A virus 31. The first defectable antibodies in primary infections are usually a. Measles 25. With transfer of monocytes from a normal person d. Adenoviruses d. Which of the following procedures is routinely used for the detection of hepatitis B virus (HBV) in blood donor/ a. Indicator of early infection c. Serological tests d. What specimens should be collected from a patient with suspected influenza? a. Adenoviruses d. IgG b. Solid –phase RIA c. Reticuloendothelial system and biliary b.22. Nucleous e. Bone marrow 2. All of the following groups of viruses are resistant to ether treatment . Bacteria and granulocytic cells 3. Alpha globulins c. Parainfluenza virus b. Periodic acid-Schiff stain 33. Urine b. Vaccinia virus 24. An IgG antibody is a good a. Herpesvirus c. Indicator of allergy b. Gram stain b. What is an alastrim infection? a. Brain d. Direct electron microscopy b. IgG b. Various virus groups can be differentiated in negativity stained specimens by their a. Ether stability b. Albumin b. Enteroviruses can be differentiated from rhinoviruses by a. Smallpox c. With polymorphonuclear cells from a normal person 4. segmented RNA genome? a. Stool c. except: a. Which of the following laboratory procedures is the most rapid method for diagnosis of a virus infection? a. Rubeola virus c. IgM 5. With lymphoid cells from a hypersensitive individual b. Herpesvirus c. Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions are elementary bodies of the a. Antibodies are primarily a. Which organs or systems are capable of responding to circulating antigens with the production of specific lymphocytes and plasma cells? a. Poliovirus b. Acid fast staining d. Cytopathic effect (CPE) in cell cultures 27. What virus group contains a double stranded. Acid resistance c. Mild form of smallpox b. AOTA 28. Gamma globulins A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 48 . The most common method for rapid electron microscopy examination is a. Herpesviruses c. IgD d. Pancreas and liver tract d. Culture b. How can cell mediated immunity be transferred to a normal individual? a. IMMUNOLOGY –SEROLOGY 1. Culture c. Agglutinating antibody 7. Rubella virus d. Morphology b. Lymph nodes and spleen c. Cytoplasmic membrane d. With transfer of specific liver cells from an infected individual c. Envelope c. Which of the immunoglobulins is present in the greatest amount and rises later in an infection? a. Enteroviruses b. Where does differentiation of T cells occur? a. f. Influenza virus d. Papilloma virus 23. Reovirus 29. Varicella –zoster virus b. IgA c. Reoviruses 32. Precipitating antibody d. IgM 6. ELISA d. Negative staining c. A and B 26. Ribonnuclease treatment 30. Throat swab d. Thymus b. Poxvirus d. German measles is caused by: a. Beta globulins d. IgA c. IgD d. Influenza viruses c. Rotavirus b.

Reactivea. IgM c. Which of the following cells recognize certain substances as “foreign” (nonself)? a. B lymphocytes d.antibody complexes in semisolid medium occurs in a. T cells are involved with a. which of the following forms at the equivalence point of antigen and antibody? a. Suppressor T lymphocytes plasma cells c. Which immunoglobulin is able to cross the placenta? a. Precipitin bands d. Neutrophils c. Avidity b. An antibody whose production it included b. Which immunoglobin plays a role in hypersensitivity ? a. A heterologous antigen reacts with a. T lymphocytes c. IgG d. Humoral immune response is due to a. T cells d. Sensitivity d. Gel diffusion 23. Line of intersection 29.8. Which immunoglobulin is predominant in body secretions? a. The ability of clinical test to be positive in the absence of its homologous antigen is referred to as its a. Electroimmunodiffusion is directed movement of antigen or antigen and antibody in A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 49 . Wheal and flare reaction d. All of the above 16. Lymphokines. IgD 20. The random movement of antigen. Antigen and antibody are both free to move toward each other to form precipitate in a. Specificity c. Antibody protection 12. Macrophages b. Basophils 11. Immunoelectrophoresis. Spurs c. Agglutination c. Complement fixation b. Double radial diffusion c. Lymphocytes b. Lymphokines 13. Precipitin bands d. An antibody whose production it did not induce c. In immunoelectrophoresis. Lines of fusion d. Titer 21. IgE 18. Which of the following cells are thymus dependent? a. Single radial diffusion d. Nonspecific substances d. A combination of electrophoresis and double immunodiffusion is referred to as a. Spurs c. Macrophages c. IgM b. Which of the following cells ingest and destroy bacteria. Precipitin band markedly curved b. IgE 19. Immunoelectrophoresis d. Suppressor T cells c. B cells b. Cytotoxic T cells 15. Titer 22. Specific substances 17. IgA c. IgE b. B cells c. Macrophages b. The production of antibodies by B cells is turned off by a. Affinity b. T cells d. B lymphocytes that transform into b. Two-dimensional diffusion c. Macrophages d. The binding strength of an antibody for an antigenis referred to as its a. IgD d. Humoral immunity c. – 25. Helper T cells b. Troughs b. IgA b. Linear diffusion b. Plasma cells 14. Monocytes d. IgG c. Basophils 10. fiberated by sensitized T cells recruit a. Three dimensional diffusion 24. Valence d. Affinity d. Immunofluorescence b. Haptens b. Line of intersection 27. damaged host cells. Immunofluorescence d. Cell mediated immunity b. or tumors? a. Specificity c. Macrophage activity d. which of the following forms at the equivalence point of antigen and antibody? a. “gull wing”formation 28. Immunoglobulins 9.sites Determinants on an antigen are known as c. IgG d. Troughs b. An electrophoretically abnormal protein displace from the normal position may be recognized by a. Precipitin band of moderate curvature c. Electroimmunodiffusion 26.

Macrophages c. E cells Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) shows a change in the ratio of a.g. Fluorescein isothiocyanate d. Hinge d. T/B cells c. Phosphoresce Which of the following is the energy source of fluorescence microscope? a. Precipitation lines not sharp b. 1 light and 1 heavy chain In the structure of immunoglobulins. Emit light of a longer wavelength c. Wood’s lamp c. Precipitation lines visible within 30 minutes d. 48. Antigen and enzyme c. Teramethylrhodemine isothiocyanate Immunofluorescence tests employ a compound that is able to absorb light of a certain wavelength and to a. Brightfield microscope d. Truant fluorochroma b. Auramine-conjugated d. Antigen and albumin In the enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). Neutrophils c. Quantum efficiency c. Radioimmunoassay b. Antigen x b. All of the above One dimensional single electroimmunodiffusion is also known as a. Biotin –avidin d. Crystallisable b. 43. None of the above In the radioimmunoassay test the zero standard is labelled as a. 40. 38. 33. 39. 36. Fluorochrome –conjugated c. Rocket lectrophoresis 41. the antihuman globulin is a. <200 CD4 + T-lymphocytes /uL or a CD4+T-lymphocyte percentage of total lymphoresis<14 d. 37. 31. Blood transfusion c. 49. B1 Which of the following fluorochromes gives off a red emission at 580 nm? a. Precipitation does not occur at the intermediate point c. L. 44. Hormone-conjugated b. which of the following can be attached to a solid phase support (e. 1 light and 2 heavychains c. Amino terminal or variable region b. Bo c. Parasites found in stool c. Mercury vapour lamp b. 45. Auramine-rhodamine c. Heavy chains c. Liquid media b. Sneezing and coughing b. Fluorescein isothiocyanate d. a. Enzyme-conjugated Interferon can be produced by which of the following? a. All of the above In the enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) . 47. Sharing of hyperdemic needles Fc is which fragment of the antibody molecule? a. Any of the above Which of the follwoign is an advantage of counterimmunoelectrophoresis? a. All of the above A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 50 . 46. Tetramethylrhodamine isothiocyanate Which of the following fluor chromes give a minimal flase reading? a. B1/B2 cells d. Black light What system can be used in fluorescent staining technics to give a bright fluorescence? a. Skin test b. B lymphocytes b. Enzyme inhibition b.30. Sexual contact d. T4/T8 cells Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is transmitted in all the following ways EXCEPT: a. Carboxy terminal or constant region c. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis d. polystyrene)? a. Antibody and albumin d. T lymphocytes d. Antigen O d. Differential blood count Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) characteristically shows a deficiency in a. Emit white light b. Virus infected cells b. Semi solid media d. Antigen-binding The basic immunoglobulin structure consists of a. T lymphocytes d. Which of the following is the diagnostic laboratory test for acquire immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? a. where is the antigen binding site located? a. Immunoelectrophoresis c. 42. Emit light of a shorter wavelength d. Antigen and antibody b. Disulfide bridge d. 2 light and 2 heavy chains d. 2 light and 1 heavy chains b. Auramine rhodamine c. 34. Truant fluorochroma b. A/G b. Solid media c. 32. 35.

factor B) d. Phagocytes 60. 64. Passive agglutination b. Optimal agglutination d. When a preparing monoclonal antibcoies a. properdin) 70. What is the purpose of antisheep hemolysin in a complement fixation test/ A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 51 . Anaphylatoxin d. Latex antigen absorbed particles b. Complement fixation tests contain which two systems? a. Zymosan 51. Serological tests employed to identify antigens of antibodies are referred to as what type of test a. Indirect (passive) agglutination b. Zone of inhibition b. Anti-drug antibodies d. Hemagglutination 57. A hemolysin is an antibody that a. Sensitivity b. Can fix complement b. Cellular 53. Too much antibody 54. 63. Opsonisation c. Trivial names (e. Which of the following are limitations of monoclonal antibodies from a hybridoma? a. Carboxyl terminal 52. Cannot fix complement d. Lyses T cells b. What is the indicator in the complement fixation tests? a. Are not good in precipitation or hemagglutination assays d. By being phagocytised d. Reacts with an epitope c. In vitro d. Fc) b. Prozone reaction 56. Too much antigen antibody c. Numbers (e. How does a spleen cell become “Immortal”? a. Do not cross link to form a precipitate c. Soluble c. Cross reaction 59. Inject an animal with an antigen c. Disulfide bond d. Fuse B lymphocytes with a malignant cell b. The antigen used in precipitation tests is a. React with only 1 antigenic determinant on a multivalent antigen b. Direct agglutination c.g. Test and indicator systems b. In vivo b. Sheep and red blood cells c. All of the above 62. Particulate b. Fe c. Monoclonal antibodies cannot be used in complement fixation tests because they a. Causes agglutination of red blood cells d. Zone of equivalence d. By fusing with a tumor cell 61. Guinea pig kidney cells c. is referred to as a. Antibodies c.the Papain following is a proteolytic enzyme that fragments an antibody? c. T lymphocytes b. Regain c. Rat myeloma cells d. Not by differing amounts of antigen and b. Capillary precipitation d. By neutralization b. Fab b. The optimal ratio. Complement proteins are designated by all of the following terms EXCEPT: a. g. when the most antibody is precipitated by the least amount of antigen . A hybridoma consists of a clone of fused cells of a. After an antibody has been fragmented . Insoluble d. Too little antigen d. Symbols (e. C1. When a precipitation reaction is converted to agglutination by increasing the size of the antigen particles the test is then referred to as a. What type of antigen antibody reaction is usually performed in the detection of the HBs antigen of hepatitis? a. Human and red blood cells d. Sensitives white blood cells 71. B and C 65. Postzonal reaction is caused by a. Viral hemagglutination c. Are homogeneous 67. Hemolysin and titration systems 68. Antigen antibody systems c. Opsonins 58. C2 ) c. Properdin b. Remove the B lymphocytes d. Effective phagocytosis occurs in the presence of a. Causes lysis of red blood cells c. Which ofa. ELISA and latex systems d. Nonspecific c. g. All of the above 66. Cannot cross link to form a precipitate c. Carbon particles 69. Mouse lymphocytes b. g. B lymphocytes d. Widal formation 55. which term denotes the antigen binding fragment? a.50. Abbreviations (e. Hybridomas are formed from a.

Hemolysis d.Nonreactive d. Not clump d. What is the purpose of the hemolytic system in a complement fixation test? a. Agglutinates sheep red blood cells b. neutralization d. Once a month c. 1/60 (60 drops/ml) d. Horse red blood cells 78.Increasing sensitivity of test c.56C for 10 minutes 83. Needles used to deliver VDRL antigen should be checked: a. In a negative complement fixation test sensitized red blood cells will a. Sheep red blood cells c. it would be reported as: A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 52 . Incomplete hemolysis c. To make certain that the serum is not anticomplementary 74.Destruction of complement b.Any of the above for 15 minutes b. a. To test the patients serum for the presence of antibodies b. It too much hemolysin is added to a complement fixation test. Antisheep hemolysin d. a zonal reaction usually appears as which of the following results? a. cardiolipin 81. A positive reaction in a complement fixation test is expressed as a. 84. Daily or every time tests are performed b. precipitation c. Antigen needles for the qualitative Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test (VDRL) shoud deliver a. 120 drops/ml d. 1/75 (75 drops/ml) Saline needles for the quantitative venereal disease research laboratory test (VDRL) should deliver a. Reagin c. Clump c. Hemolysis d. Weekly VDRL antigen emulsion is stable for: a. Sensitives sheep red blood cells c. The serum: antigen ratio in any VDRL test maintained at a. hemolysibn b. 24 hours c. flocculation b. hemolysis 82. if the interval between heating the serum of the VDRL test and testing exceeds 4 hours. the serum should be reheated at a. If a VRDL test shows small clumps of antigen with many free particles.1 d. Fluorescence 77. All of the above 76.Weakly reactive b. what should occur? a.37C for 30 minutes d. No hemolysis c. Opsonics b. 100drops/ml b. 110 drops/ml 77.Restoration of refrigerated sera to an appropriate temperature for testing 87. the reaction between the antibody and the antigen in the venereal disease research laboratory test (VDRL) is known as: a.37C for 15 minutes c. What is used to sensitize red blood cells in the complement fixation tests? a.1 86. Inactivation of sera for serology tests is performed for what purpose? a. complement d. Be hemolyzed b. Hamagglutination b. What should occur when controls for complement fixation tests are used to check for anticomplementary factors? a. No hemolysis c. Not be hemolyzed 79.1. Complete hemolysis b. 48 hours d. Agglutination c.Reactive c. 30 days 79. 8. 1/100 (100 drops/ml) c.2. In the VDRL test. Inhibition of hemolysis b. 20 drops/ml c.2 c. 1/120 (120 drops /ml) b. Neutralizes patient antibody 72. Neutralization 73. Hemolysis d. what happens to the result: a. In a positive control for complement fixation tests. To act as an indicator and provide a visible reaction c. Hemolyzes sheep red blood cells d. To test the red blood cells d. 7 days b.3. 80. Patients with syphilis develop an antibody response to a substance known as: a.Removal of particulate matter d. Hemagglutination b. Sensitivity is decrease d. Bimonthly d.1 b. Hemagglutination 75.

Cardiolipin 107. What role does cardio lipan play in the VDRL test? a. The fluorescein-antihuman gamma globulin used in the FTA-ABS test a.Either reactive or weakly reactive 98. b.Charcoal particles b.Regain b.Weakly reactive 88. The rapid plasma regain (RPR) antigen needle with deliver how many drops? a.It is related to reactivity of the test b.It is the center for absorption of tissue lipids c. Which of the following represents the reported titer in a quantitative VDRL test? a.Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorbed (FTA-ABS) d. Reactive 32 dills 94.Venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL) c.125 rmps for 2 minutes 102.Fluorescent isothiocyanate 100. Which laboratory test for syphilis uses plastic coated cards? a.Treponema pertenue 106. W W R R R R W N 91.Lowest dilution giving a weakly reactive result b.Lowest dilution that gives a negative result A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 53 .It is related to sensitivity of the test d.100 drops per 0. d.Cardiolipin b.Treponemal antibody c.Biological false positive b.Makes the antibody visible 108.An extract of a pathogenic treponeme d.Microhemagglutination praponema pallidum (MHA-TP) 99.Lowest dilution giving a reactive result c. The rapid plasma regain (RPR) test: a.60 drops per 0.Highest dilution giving a reaction result 97.Micro-hemmaglutination b. Which of the following serves as the absorbent in the fluorescent tr6eponemal antibody test-absorbed (FTA-ABS) test? a.Cardiolipin with added charcoal particles d.Lecithin 104.Makes the antigen-antibody reaction visible b. The rapid plasma regain (RPR) test is rotated at what speed for what length of time? a. Rapid plasma regain (RPR) antigen contains cardio lipin with a.Enzyme-inhibition d.Regain c.Rapid plasma regain ( RPR) b. a.Treponema pallidum fixed on a slide b.100 drops per 0.200 rpms for 10 minutes c. Reactive 64 dills 92.Is added to the serum before the antigen is added c.Precipitation 109. How would be following VDRL quantitative test be reported? 89.a.Living treponema pallidum 105.Reiters tereponeme c. Reactive 4 dills 93.Complement-fixation c.Sheep red blood cells c.Reactive d.Is added to the antigen before the serum is added d.Treponema palildum.Nonreactive d.Lipoteichoic acid d.Highest dilution giving a weakly reactive result d. The fluorescent treponemal antibody-absorbed (FTA-ABS) test is used to identify which of the following in the patients serum? a.Uses zinc particles c. cannot be reported 95.00 ml c.All of the above 96.100 rpms for 8 minutes d.10% saline c. Nichols strais b. 1:1 1:2 1:4 1:8 1:16 1:32 1:64 1:128 90.180 rmps for 4 minutes b. In the classic antistreplolysin O (ASO) test.Treponemes d. The serum titer in the anti-strepplolysin O (ASO) test is reported as the a.Highest dilution that gives a positive result b.60 drops per 1. The quantitative VDRL test is performed on all sera in which the quantitative VDRL test is a. The principle of the antistreptolysin O (ASO) tubetest is a.Does not require inactivate of serum d. c.504 ml d.50 ml b.Employs treponemal antibodies 101. streptolysin O should not be rehydrated until it is needed because it: 110.Weakly reactive b.Does not require a period of rotation b. The treponema pallidum immobilization (TPI) test requires a.Reactive c. The antigen that reacts with the antibody substance in the patient serum in the rapid plasma regain (RPR)test is a.Treponema microdentlum d.25 ml 103.Nonreactive c.

Febrile agglutinins b.A cross reacbn 128.Rabbit b. when serum is absorbed with beet cells a.Rabbit d.Strains of proteus vulgaris c.Recer vaccination b.Antigens of rickettsia prowazeki d.Hemolysis d. which of the following constitutes a passive reaction? a. OX 19 and OX 2 refer to a. What does the antistreptolysin O (ASO) test measure in tyhe patients serum? a. What type of red blood cells are used in the traditional heterophil antibody test? a.streptodornase (+) yellow (-) c.Todd or international units 111.Herpes simpes simplex virus 122. In the widal test.Neutralization 118.There is an increase in the titer of guinca pig kidney antibodies (+) colorless (-) b.Highestdilution that shows agglutination c.Agglutination 113.Regain d.Antibody to atreptolysin O d.Lowest dilution that shows hemolysis d. The heterophil antibody test is reported as the: a.purple (+) yellow (-) 115. an elevated O titer indicates a.Boiled beef cells b. The antistreptolysin O (ASO) slide test is resd for the presence of: a.Streptococcal antibodies 112.Neither beef cells nor guinea pig kidney antigen d.Forssman antibodies are absorbed 121.Human group O c.hyaluronidase 114. Forssman antibodies are absorbed by (+) orange (-) d.Forssman antigen 126.Sheep d.Sheep red blood cells b. In the heterophil antibody test.Serotypes of brucella abortus b.Indicates the presence of typhoid fever d.Horse b.Precipitation b.Isomerases d. Which f the following is NOT a streptococcal extracellular product? a.Mycoplasma d.A mucin clot b.Agglutination c.Rickettsia b.Asntibodies to salmonella typhi 127. In the presumptive heterophil antibody test.Salmonella c.Nicotinamide adenine dinucieotidase c.There is a decrease in the titer of infections mononuclecsis mantibodies b.Hyaluronidase b.Currenty infection c.Serum sickness antibodies are absorbed d.groupA carbohydrates d. A streptococcal extracellular product that dissolves fibrin clots is: a.Oxygen labile streeptolysin c.Horse 117. Serological cross reactions are usual A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 54 .c.Viral 125. The widal and weil-felix reactions are examples of techniques used to detect a. A passive david sohn heterophil antibody test.Streptokinase c.Antigens in agglutinins to salmonella typhi d. The heterophil slide test of lee and davidsohn uses what type of blood cells? a.Hepatitis C virus c. a.JC virus d.Precipitation d.Differentiate three types of heterophil antibodies c.Lowest agglutination that shows agglutination 120.Deoxyribonuclease B 116. Infactious mononucleosis is a self-limited disease of the reticulo endo t he lial system caused by: a.Epstein-barr virus b.Guinea pig kidney antigen c.Shows hemolysis b. The weil-felix is used for the detection of which type of antibodies? a.Both beef cells and guinea kidney antigen 123.Asao units d. the reactive on DNA-methyl green substrates.Highest dilution that show hemolysis b.Sheep c.Hemolysis c.Heterophil antibodies c.Human group O 124.Uses fresh plasma 119. when testing for the presence of anti-DNase (antistreptornase) are a.

A and B 145.a.Thyroxine 144. Cold agglutinins may develop after infection with a.Gamma globulin 133.Anitistreptolysin d. In the rheumatoid factor latex test a.Indicative of infection with an unrelated organism b.O c.Haemophilus influenzae 138.Synovial fluid may give a positive reaction when serum is negative c.H d.Moncional protein d.Klabsiella pneumonia c.Inflammation c. The antigen used to determine the somatic antigenic grouppi9ng of enteric bacteria is a.Cell culture d.Speckled 141.Room temperature d.The test is more specific than the Rose.C.Streptococcus pneumoniae b.Streptococcus pneumoniae b.A titer of 1:20 identifies the patient’s discase as rheumatoid arthritis 136.Scleredema b.Microsomal antigen d. What does “ds” in anti-ds-DNA and anti –ds.Typoid or paratyphoid fever 135.Anti-I c.Body temperature c.In lower titers than are specific reactions c.Alpha globulin b.Thyroglobulin c. The presence of C.Dormant stage c.Systemic lupus erythematosus(SLE) 142.Group A beta hemolytic streptococcal b.Double –stranded d.Antisheep hemolysin c.RNA mean? a. A positive anti-ribonucleoprotein (anti-RNP) in the antinuclearvantibosy group is suggestive of which autoimmune disease? a.Nucleolar b.Rheumatoid arthritis b. Which of the following antibodies is directed against the Fc portion of IgG? a.Disease sign b.Monocional protein b.Type 2 c. Which of the following methods has a high degree of specificity when typing the herpes simplex virus (ELISA) a.Detected only later tan are specific reactions d.Regain 134.Detectable symptom 143.Indirect fluorescent antibody method c.The antibody identified is IgG b.Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) c.Mycoplasma pneumonia d.Homogenous d.Ki b.Anti-K 139.Rheumatoid factor b. A method used to serotype the herpes simplex virus (HSV) is the a.Thyroglobulin c. Which of the following is the major autoantigen of the thyroid gland? a.Refrigerator temperature b.Direct fluorescent antibody A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 55 . Which of the following cold reacting antibodies is present in infections of mycoplasma pneumoniae? a.Anti –Lewis b. Which herpes simplex virus (HSV) can cause urogenital infections? a.Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) d.Cytoplasmic c.Franciscella tularensis 131.Anti-i d.Of a different type than are specific reactionsm 129.Direct fluorescent antibody method 146.Salmonella typhi c. What is the incubation temperature for the cold agglutinin test? a. Which of the following can interfere with the cryptococcal antigen latex agglutination test? a.nuclear antibody (ANA) test is most closely associated with active systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) a.Rheumatoid factor d.Proteus vulgaris d.Pneumococcal pneumonia infection d.Type 3 d. 140.Freezer temperature 137.reactive protein in a patient’s serum indicates a.Beta globulin c. The rheumatoid factor (RF) latex slide test uses diluted patient’s serum plus a. Which pattern of fluorescence in the anti. Vi 130. Brucella aborted will ceross-react with antibodies of a.reactive protein 132.Waaler sheep cell agglutinin test d.Cell typing b.Type 1 b.

Carboxyhemoglobin d. The best serological method used to test for a rubella virus infection is the a.Radioimmunoassay d. What product is formed when ferrous iron of normal hemoglobin is oxidized to the ferric state? a. Hemosiderin d. To maintain an anaerobic pathway of glycolysis 4.Direct agglutination c. AOTA 6. To keep iron in the ferric state c.Herpes simplex virus 149.cell typing 147.enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay(ELISA) test b. Free ferric iron b. Hemoglobin 2. Hb-A c.Primary infection of varicella zoster virus c. Target cells c.Complement fixation d. To maintain alpha and the beta chains of hemoglobin d.Direct fluorescent antribody test d. Basophilic stippling d.Cell culture fluorescent antibody test 148. which type of red blood cells are used? a. What is the ratio of iron to porphyrin in heme? a. Hb-A2 d. Blood donors should be routinelt tested for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and a. Most of the hemoglobin in the newborn is found to be: a.Herpes simplex virus d. Sulfhemoglobin 5. h.Complement fixation test c. Hb-D b.enzyme –linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) d.Varicella zoster virus c. Hb-F 7.Human 155.Indirect immunofluorescent antibody test b. 4:1 b.Rubella virus 150. which of the following is the cause of chicken pox? a.Sheep c.Cell culture c.Direct fluorescent aantibody test 152. Which of the following hemoglobins could be present in a normal adult a. The most popular serological test for the diagnosis of Toxoplasma gondii is the a.Cytomegalovirus b. Which of the following is a good screening test for determining immunity to the rubella virus? a.Direct fluorescent antibody test b.fluorescent antibody-membrane –antigen (FAMA) test d.Indirect fluorescent antibody test b.Copmlpement fixation test c. Schihistocytes A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 56 .Rubella virus b. Hb-F b. Methemoglobin c. Hemoglobin C disease is characterized by: a.Horse b.complement fixation test c. Cyanmethemoglobin b.Primary infection of human immunodeficiency virus d.Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay test 153. 1:4 d. Rod-shaped crystals b.IgG antibody test b. 1:2 3.b. Transferrin c. which of the following is the easiest serological test for varicella zoster virus (VZV) a. In the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) method for typing herpes simplex virus (HSWV).Indirect fluorescent antibody test b. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection can be diagnosed by which of the following serological test? a. g.Indirect human globulin test 151. To keep iron in the ferrous state b.Complement fixation test c. Hb-A c. H-b-A2 d. 1:1 c.IgM antibody test z e. HEMATOLOGY 1.Goat d.Enyzyme-linked immunosorbent assay test 154. What is the function of the enzyme methemoglobin-cytochrome C reductase in a red blood cell? a.Igm anf IgG antibody c.Direct fluorescent antibody test d. The larges quantity of normal body iron is found in the form of: a. Which test for cytomegalovirus has problems with false positive? a. f.

Fibrinogen c. Valine c. The addition of 0. Red blood cell sedimentation rate c. Sodium is: dithionate d. red blood cells. 2-3grams 16. 1:25 c. 9. 3. for Saponin the reduction of the hemoglobin molecule b. Which of the following hemoglobins is insecute under lowered oxygen tension? a. Packed red blood cell volume 17.5 c. blood cells. and platelets 23.425. 10.5.0 d.50 d. Hb-S b. All hemoglobin pigments c. Drabkin’s solution 9. Platelets b.resistant red blood cells in specimens aspirated in automated hematology analyzers occur with: a. Cold agglutinin b.000 d. Sickle cell disease d. Red blood cells 18.500 b.750 19.1. Anemia 22. Red blood cells and platelets c. glutamic acid is replaced is: a. when the differential count has 5 nucleated red blood cells and the automated analyzer white blood cell count is 105. Hb-A2 from Hb-A b. The RBC. a. Haptoglobin d. Hb-S from Hb-F 12. 2. 1.500 c. To avoid or false crystals.69.000 b. 10. Whit blood cells and red blood cells b. 1. White. synovial fluid should be collected in: a. White blood cells. Promrombia d.100 dilution is: a.ul of a body fluid that has 285 red blood cells counted in the 5 red blood cells squares with a 1. MCHC 39. MCH 53.000 c. is.1NHCI d.700.0 b. 2-3mg c. 0. Drabkin’soln 14.000 b. In hemoglobin C.5 24.MCv 135. 1. Pilods fluid c. On automated hematology analyzers. Hemosiderin b. Hb-A2 from Hb-F c. Potassium tube solubility phosphate test for hemoglobin S the reagent responsible c. 5. In the a.8. Lyse.8. An increase in the erythrocyte sedimentation rate(ESR) can be the result of an increase in the quantity of: a. Sodium carbonate b. All hemoglobin pigments except b. RBC 1.000 d. Instrument reagent depleted 25.9 a. Myoglobin c. 142.000 20. Transferrin 15. Powdered ethylene diaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 57 . and platelets d. Total red blood cells b. A hematocrit is a measure of: a. The factor for the conversion of counted white blood cells to WBC/ cu. Acute leukemia b. Multiple myeloma c. 20-30mg d. 17. What is the most likely cause of these result? WBC 6. Hereditary spherocytosis d. The Kleihauer technic is used to differentiate is: a. Lysine d. 11. 200-300mg b. Only oxyhemoglobin sulfhemoglobin d. 1. Hb-S from Hb-A d. The cyanmethemoglobin method measure: a. The plasma protein that binds free hemoglobin is: a. Oxalate b. The WBC/ul of an undiluted synovial fluid that has 175 white blood cells counted in the large center square of ahemocytometer is: a.000 26. Hct 22. Cystine b. in the manual count is: a. The normal plasma hemoglobin per dL is: a.0 ml diluents results in a partial dilution of: a.02 ml of blood to 5. Tolal red blood cell mass d. The white blood cell count. Only methemoglobin 13.000 d.Hb 9. Hb-A. marked red blood cell fragments will cause an abnormal histogram and/or scatterplots for: a. 1:500 21. Hb-A d. 7. Hb-F 11. c. 1:250 b. The diluents used in the cyanmethemoglobin method for hemoglobin determination is: a. Improperly mixed specimen c. 50 c. 285. Arginine 10.

Poikilocytosis d. Anisocytosis c. Hypochromic Abnormal variation in the size of erythrocyte is known as: a. Hematocrit b. ACT’A Increased iron in the mitochrondia of normoblast are characteristics of: a. PMNS 30% c. Teardrop red blood cells A macrocytic anemia characteristically accompanies all of the following . Hemoglobin d. Reticulocyte count c. 35. except: a. 43. Sidercblastic anemia d. Postsplenectomy b. Philadelphia chromosome b. Hemoglobin d. 34. Liquid ethylene diaminetetraacetic (EDTA) Pilot’s fluid is the reagent used in the determination of: a.000. Spherocyte c. Rapid drying of slides Parasites in red blood cells are best demonstrated with which stain? a.000. 44. Folate deficiency individual c. 38. 41.E ration of the marrow After a due to acute blood loss is usually: a. Giemsa c. 42. M. WBC <2. Laptocytes b. Vitamin B12 deficiency b.27. Red blood cell count b. 31. Megalocytes d. Low serum iron and high TIBC pinding capacity (TISC) d. Erythrocytosis b. Nypochromic microcytes with poikilocytes c. 30. Mean cell diameter The blood film in iron deficiency anemia snows: a. 32. Poikilocytosis d. WBC< 2. Anisocytosis c. Target cell d. Tissue iron deposits d. Decreasing the concentration of glycerol in the stain d. PMNs. 40. Adjusting the buffer pH c. WBC 2. Normocytic b. Microcytic c. 28. Thalassemia c. 45. Iron deficiency c. Normochromic normocytic cells with basophilic stippling d. Megalocytosis b. Platelets The following results indicate a noninflammatory syncvial fluid: a. 33. Occasional burr cells with decreased central pallor of macrocytes b. New methylene blue b. Fish tapeworn infection in some b. c. WBC 2.PMNs <30% The color of wright-stained red blood cells may be and usted by: a.PMNs>50% b. Aplastic anemia c.50% d. Crystal violet To calculate the mean corpuscular volume . Pancytopenia d. 36. Wright d. Low serum iron and low total iron c. one must know the erythrccyte count and the a. Hemoglobin c.000-5000. Sickle cell The red blood cell with the “bull’eye”appearance is present in: a. Numerous oval macrocytes with decreased platelets Which determination is considered a reliable assessment of effective erythropoiesis in the bone marrow? a. Iron deficiency anemia Chronic blood loss can lead to: a. Macrocytic d. Drepanocytes 37. Macrocytes c. Eosinophils c. Schistocyte b. Red blood cell count d. 39. 29. Polycythemia The characteristics finding in iron deficiency anemia is: a. Lithium heparin d. Red blood cells b. Iron deficiency A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 58 . Dipping the slide in methanol before staining b. Abnormal variation in shape of the erythrocyte is known as: a. Chronic anemia b. Microcytosis The red blood that shows a peripheral rime of the hemoglobinwith a darl staining central area is a: a. Low serum iron and normal TIBC Polycythemia vera is associated with: a. High serum and low TIBC b. Liver disease d. Vitamin B12 deficiency d. Leptocytosis Erythrocytes with a diameter of 9-12 microns are referred to as: a.000-5000. Panycytosis c.

white blood cell count >50. DNA h. The presence of DNA remnants in the red blood cells d. Heinz body c. excess membrane for cell volume (bull’s eye) 57.000/cl 61. Pappenheimer body 56. crystallization of abnormal hemoglobin during oxygen deprivation Bite cell Sickle cell Spherocyte Target cell e.46. 1. Speherocytes differ most from normal red blood cells in their: a. Hypersegmented neutrophils 47. pitting of the red blood cell inclusion by spleen 59. Punctate basophilla refers to which of the following? a. Reticulocyte b. Iron i. Of the following which is a white blood cell inclusion? a. Decreased of the following platelets is not typically seen in the peripheral smearc. granulocytes released prematurely to myelocyte stage 59. 3. Oval macrocytes d. reticulocytosis 64.inSpherocytes megaloblastic anemia? b. Thalassemia 49. Lymphocytes 55. 4. Increased resistance to hypotonic saline 54. Cabot rings 68. Glutamic acid b. New methylene blue d. 3. Dohle bodies 66. RNA remnants in red blood cells are visualized when stained with? a. Cabot rings are inclusion found in: a. left shift 63. Howell-jolly body 52. Increased central pallor d. 2. RNA g. Heinz bodies d. 4. Peroxidise b. G-6 PD deficiency is an abnormality in: a. Decreased ratio of surface area volume c. Giant bands and metamyelocytes d. 55. It is the only disorder associated with elliptocytosis d. Damage to the red blood cell membrane b. Osmotic fragility and autohemolysis usually normal b. Burr cells represent what abnormality of red blood cells? a. Sickle cell anemia c. Erythrocytes d. Which of the following is true of hereditary elliptocytosis? a. leukomoid reaction 65. Pappenheimer body b. Siderocytes b. Heinz body stain 53. Which of the following inclusion represents a remnant of nuclear DNA in a red blood cell? a. Increased volume b. Unless 100% of the red blood cells are oval the diagnosis is doubtful c. Monocytes b. Match the cell content with the appropriate inclusion f. Howell-jolly body c. 2. Hereditary spherocytosis b. Heinz body d. b. The deposits of lead in the red blood cells b. Hemoglobin a. Prussian blue c. d. Dohle bodies b. An increased osmotic fragility is observed in the red blood cells of a. Reticulocytes c. 4. The aggregation of residual RNA in the red blood cells c. pancytopenia 62. An abnormal hemoglobin replacing the normal varieaty 67. Drepanocytes 51. decreased cell membrane with same cell volume 58. Iron deposits in the red blood cells 48. Hereditary elliptocytosis d. Which a. a. red cells and platelets 58. Red blood cells that contain iron –stained granules aret= termed: a. Change in hemoglobin content d. Eosinophils c. 1. decreased white cells . 2. Match each of the following red blood cells with the correct description 56. Schuffner’s granules (dots) c. The most characteristics change seen in the white blood cells of the megaloblastic anemia bone marrow is: a. increased polychromosia 60. An abnormality of hemoglobin is responsible for this condition 50. Change in hemoglobin content c. 1. c. Hyposegmentation b. Megaloblast d. 3. Erythropoiesis A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 59 . Toxic granulation c. Match the following with the correct definition 57. Dohle body d.

A monocytwe that has phagocytised a nucleus is called a: a. Appears with a “shift to the left’’ c. All of the above b. Band neutrophil 82. Neutrophil c. In the Pelger. Thrombocytosis c. Match the following white blood cell anomaly with the correct cellular component a. Immature cells 88. 2 lobes and hyperclumped chromatin b. LE cell c. At what stage will specific (secondary) granules of granulocytes appear? a.Huet anomaly. Pelger-huet 84. 80. Lekocytosis b. >6000/ul c. Downey cells 75. Emden-Meyerhoff pathway d. Thrombocytopenia 79. Leukoppenia can occur in which of these conditions? a. 4. Bacterial infections b. Monocytes d. Infectious mononucleosis c. Smudge cells c. Immature cells of one white blood cell c. All of the above 78. Viral infections d. >8000/ul 85. Acute leukemias are usually associated WITH: a. PMN d. The white blood cell anomaly that may be confused with a shift to the left is: a. Smudge cell 77. Eosinophilia is found in which of the following? A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 60 . Neutrophils d. Flame cell b. Reactive leukocytosis is present when the absolute count of granulocytes are: a. What is required for the in vitro formation of LE cells? a. Dohle inclusion bodies are found in the cytoplasm of: a. May be accompanied by vacuolization and /or Dohle bodies 74. Free nuclear material b. Eosinophil d. In lupus (LE)the cells that phagocytises the nucleoprotein is usually a: a. Alder-Relly c. c. May-Hogglin Neutrophil inclusions resembling Dohle bodies Large dark granules in granulocytes caused by anomaly of primary granules anfd lymphocytes by lysosomal granules Failure to complete development of nuclear lobes Dense granulation of granulocytes caused by abnormal enzyme 87. Lymphocyte c. Chediak higashi c. Anemia c. Chedlak-Higashi b. Erythrocytes 72. Leukemias d. Dohle bodies d. May –hegglin b. AOTA 86. A shift to the left c. Antinuclear antibodies c. Metarnyelocyte d. Leukemia c. Splenomegaly d. LAP-low to zero 83. Marrow injury by chemical agents b. 3. Basophil b. Tart cells d. 2. Auer rods d. Anemia series d. Tart cell d. the most probable source of confusion is: a. Normal platelet count b. neutrophils shown a. In examining a stained film for lupus ( LE)cells. HMP shunt 69. Toxic granulation 71. Accompanies hypersogmentation b. Histocyte 76. Promyelocyte c. Pelger-Huet anomaly 73. 81. >9000/ul b. May be mimicked by overstaining d. The white blood cell least often seen on a normal peripheral smear is the: a. Monocyte 70. Monocyte b. Chronic myelocytic leukemia ( CML) can be distinguished from polycythemia vera by: a. Which of these is NOT consistent with toxic granulation of polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs)? a. Myelocyte b. >4000/ul d. Which of the following findings rule out acute leukemia? a. Chronic granulomatous disease d.1. Pelger-Huet d. Neutrophils b. Lymphocytes c. Toxic granulation of neutrophils is usually associated with: a. Gaucher’s cells b.

acetate c. Polymorphonuclear neutrophils c. Acute monocytic leukemia (AMol) d. Lymphocytosis d. A shift to the left means an increase in: a. there is usually a: a. Monocytes 101. Lymphonocytes b. The Philadelphia chromosome is associated with: a. The immediate precursor of the band polymorphomuclear neutrophil is the: a. Eosinopenia 103. Pregnant women b. leukomoid reaction b. Acute lymphocytic leukemia c. A nuclear cytoplasmic (N:C) ratio c. Chronic granulocytic leukemia (CGL) d. Fine nuclear chromatin d. Lymphopenia 102. Parasitic infection b. Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) b. Chronic granulocytic leukemia d. Metatubricytes 96. Allergic rhinitis b. Absence of nucleoli 98. The characteristics cell found to be increased in the peripheral smear of infectious mononucleosis is a: a. Myelomonocytic leukemia b. Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) b. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia d. Plasma cell c. Paroxidase esterace (NASDA) d. The largest leukocyte in the normal peripheral blood smear is the: a. Methyl green pyronine b. Basophils d. Diabetic acidosis c. Acute nonlymphocytic leukemia 91. Leukocytosis b. Promyelocyte d. Auer rods in blast cells d.a.AS –D. infectious mononucleosis 104. Hypersegmented PMNS b. A peripheral blood smear demonstrating an absolute increase in small” hypermature” lymphocytes and smudge cells would be suggestive of: a. Lymphocyte b. Systemic lupus erythematosus b. Leukopenia c. Leukpcyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) activity b. In chronic lymphocytic leukemia. acute granulocytic leukemia 105. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) 106. Acute granulocytic leukemia (AGL) c. Leukomoid reaction c. What stain differentiates acute myelocytic leukemia from acute lymphocytic leukemia? a. Acute myelocytic 93. PMN c. Infectious mononucleosis 108. An increased titer of antinuclear antibody (ANA) aids in the diagnosis of: a. Megakarocyte d. myelofibrosis b. A characteristics of immature blood cells is: a. A positive myeloperoxidase stain indicates the possibility of: a. Monocyte 95. The results on leukemia patient was alpha –napthol. Trichinosis d. chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) c. Polycythemia vera 107. Alpha-napthol. Immature granulocytes d. What specific cytological finding can differentiate acute myelocytic leukemia (AML) irom acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)? a. B and C 89. Stab b. Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) 92.AS-D-acetase-esterace (NASDA) 3+blast NASDA+ Naf O+ suggest: a. A low neutrophil alkaline phosphatase NAP/LAP is seen in: a. acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) d. Number of nucleoli in blast cells c. Acute myelomonocytic c. An increased number of eosinophils may be observed in all of the following except: a. 100. Auer rods are characteristically found in the cells of which leukemia? a. Thrombocytopenia c. Acute lymphocytic leukemia A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 61 . chronic lymphocytic leukemia d. 99. Acute granulocytic leukemia (AGL) c. Variation of size of blast cells 90. chronic granulocytic leukemia c. In chronic granulocytic leukemia. Chronic granulocytic leukemia (CGL) d. Acute monocytic d. Allergies 97. Lymphocytosis b. Pale blue cytoplasm b. Sand PMN d. Myelocyte c. Acute lymphocytic b. there is usually a: a. Erytroleukemia c. The leukemia that does not have peroxidise activity is? a. Metamyelocyte 94.

Reed. 120. CALLA 112. Basophilic stippling re blood cells. Granules 124. Multiple myeloma 114. WBC count 121. Hodgkin’s disease b.acanthocytes 126. Hemoglobinuria d. Acute monocytic b. Multiple myeloma d. What laboratory results are found in an iron deficiency anemia but not in thalassemia? a. Hairy cell leukemia 115. Plasmacytoid d.and teardrop red blood cells are associated with: a. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia The leukemia that has a positive periodic acid – Shift stain is associated with: a. Small mature lymphocytes with dense nuclear chromatin 116. Decreased WBC 111. In the presence of marked culeaux formation on a peripheral smear. A leukemia that presents with leukopenia in > 50% of patients with > 90% massive splenomegaly is most likely: a. Metarubricyte 123. Central nucelolus. The most reliable criteria for the estimation of a cells age is: a. Chronic myelocytic leukemia d. Which of the following laboratory results can occur with intravascular hemolysis of the red blood cell? a. Nuclear chromatin b. RBC count d. Using the automic cell counters may increase a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) due to: a. B lymphocytes d. Neutrophils b. one could expect the same sample to exhibit an increased: a.hegglin 122. Increased megakaryocytes 113. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia c. Decreased plasma naptoglobin b. Rubriblast b. Normal to high serum iron and normal total iron binding capacity b. The last red blood cell precursor to retain the nucleus before it becomes an erythrocyte is: a. peroxidase is negative for: a. T4 helper cells b. Cytoplasm c. The cytochemical stain. Prolymphocytic leukemia d. Lymphosarcoma cells can be described as: a. sickle cells d. Acute myelocytic d. Myelofibrosis b. Acute promyelocytic c. Increased plasma hemoglobin c. Solubility b. The specific diagnosis of sicklecell anemia can be made from the following laboratory test is: a. Eosinophils 118. All of the above 125. Prolymphocytic leukemia d. Monocytes c. Erythroleukemia c. Increased tissue mass cells b. Low red blood cell count and high mean corpuscular volume 127. Giant bizarre platelets nucleated red blood cells(nRBCs). Nucleus d.Stemberg cells are diagnosis for: a. Most chronic lymphocytic leukemia are necpiasms of: a. nucleated red blood cells. Teardrops cells. Infectious mononucleosis d. Hemoglobin c. A lymphocytes c. Low serum iron and increased total iron binding capacity c. In vitro hemolysis b. Acute lymphocytic 110. Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase b. Sedimentation rate b. Manocytic leukemia 117. Target cells. fine nuclear chromatin with deep clefts in thenucleus c. Acute lymphocytic leukemia b. A peripheral blood smear from a patient with thalassemia would exhibit: a. T8nsupprssor cells 119.nucleated red blood cells . basophilic stippling c. Increased abnormakl lymphoid cells d. Lymphocytes d. Marked rouleux formation c. Cells c. May. High red blood cell count and low mean corpuscular volume d. A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 62 .target cells Howell. The leukemia that has increased basophils and/or eosinophils in the early stages is: a. Small prominent nucleoli .jolly bodies b. except: a. condensed nuclear chromatin. Rubricyte c. Progranulocytic leukemia b. Prerubricyte d.c. Sodium metabisulfite 109. All of the following are characteristics of a bone marrow of Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia. Cold agglutinins c. light basophilic cytoplasm b. Ninety-five percent of chronic lymphocytic leukemias have surface markers of: a. T cells d. Burr cells. Hairy cell leukemia c. Excess EDTA d. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia c.

In the process of fibrinolysis. VIII b. Nucleoili prominent 133. All of the above 9. high erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Oil Red O c. L2 c. Thrombin b. Thromboplastin c. 137. L3 d. Secondary hemostasis consist of: a. 138. The coagulation family that is defendent on vitamin K synthesis is: a. Thrombin c.high fibrinogen c. IgG – binding complement 130. Prothrombin d. Plasmin b. The autoantibody that has maximal intravascular hemolysis at low temperature is: a. Calcium 5. Prothrombinase b. Few cytoplasmic granules c. increased uric acid . which of the following acts on fibrin? a. increased uric acid b. low leukocyte alkaline phosphatase d. Teardrop cells. Fibrinogen c. schistocytes. IX b. low serum iron. VII d. Presence of sickle cells The second most common abnormal hemoglobin in the worl . Factor XIII 8. Plasmin d. 5-10% blast. The precursor of thrombin is: a. IgM-binding complement d. Acute lymphocytic leukemias that have a predominance of homogenous cells with a high N/C ratio belong to which FAB group? a. High gamma globulin . Bizaare platelets. Hb-E d. Prothrombin 4. IgG c. low white blood cell count with neutrophilia . which predominates in southeast Asians is: a. The activated coagulation factor that is NOT is serine protease is: a. Thrombin c. VII d. teardrops cells. High white blood cell count with neutrophilia. Prothrombinase d. Hb-C b. high hemoglobin. a. M2 132. L2 b. high white blood cell count 136. Irreversible platelet aggregation d. high white blood cell count. ACP b. M2 131. X c. Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin by: a. Anemia. Hb-M 129. COAGULATION QUESTION 1. II c. Napthol AS –D acetate 134. The prothrombinase complex consist of: A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 63 . low alkaline phosphatase. Cytoplasmic granules absent d. 128. Which of the following factors does not require vitamin K to its production by the liver? a. PAS d. L3 d. Thromboplastin d. high erythrocyte sedimentation rate 135. low serum iron b. 139. AOTA 6. Fibrinolysis 7. Hemoglobin electrophoresis d. IX 2. Contact c. VIII 3.c. Florinogen d. L1 b. Hb_S c. L1 c. Low white blood cell count. Secretion of adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and adenosine triphosphate (ATP) c. Uncondensed chromatin b. Fibrinogen b. Fibrin clot b. no blast cells c. The FAB classification of the lymphocytic leukemia with prominent cytoplasmic vacuolation is: a. Platelet change shape b. Laboratory results of Hodgkin’s disease are a. In acute myelocytic leukemia the FAB classification of type II blasts that distinguishes them from type I blast is: a. low serum iron d. Laboratory findings of myelold metaplasia with myelofibrosis is: a. The end result of most coagulation test is the production of: a. The stain that is positive for hairy cell leukemia is. Normal erythrocytesedimentation rate. Complement b.

Thrombocytosis Thrombocytopenia is associated with a a. VII b. kallikrein. Autoimmune thrombocytopenia The normal range of a direct platelet count is: a. Hemohistioblast b.calcium Factor XII can be activated by: a. 27.000/ul d. 20. Primary vascular abnormality c. 12. Fibrinogen assat c. 11. platelets are a.calcium b.dimer assay d. A and B b.000 to 600.10. VIIIa-tisue factor-calcium c. II c. 21. X A prolonged bleeding time with a normal platelet count indicates a.Ecker c. Von Willebrand’s syndrome d. Prolonged bleeding time c. Thrombin time b. Thromcythemia b. Abnormal prothrombin time b. 300. IX b. Markedly decrease function Classic haemophilia is the result of a deficiency of which coagulation factor? a. Neither A nor B The origin of platelets in the bone marrow is the: a. prothrombin time normal and the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) is abnormal. 15.phospholipid. increased levels of fibrin split products. Prekallikrein. 75. 26. D-dinne A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 64 . V c. V d. 200.000/ul A quatitative defect of platelets is known as a.000/ul d. Coulter If the prothrombin time is abnormal and the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) is abnormal . 18. Fresh frozen plasma c. 14. IX Factor VIII is present in highest concentration in a.000/ul b. Aspirin digestion c. Thrombocytopenia d. VII d. Brecher-Cronkite d.000 to 440.000/ul b. 25. Indirect b. a. AOTA The test that uses a reagent form of tissue thromboplastin is a. 13. Qualitative platelet disorder b. 22. Rees. Prothrobin time b. X If the prothrombin time is normal and the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) is abnormal. Cryoprecipilate b. a deficiency of which factor is suggested? a. 400. high molecular weight kininogen d. Normal in number but abnormal in d. D. Thrombocytopathia c. Megakaryocytes c. Markedly increase b. 16. Exposure to glass in vitro d. IXa-VIII.000/ul c. Activated partial thromboplastin time d. a deficiency in which factor is suggested? a. IX b.000 to 125. X If the bleeding time is normal.000 to 100. VII d. VII c. and quantitative and qualitive fibrinogen is a. 140. 24. VIII b.000/ul c. 19. 50. Megaloblast Low platelet count and normal bleeding time indicates: a. 23. VI c. a deficiency of which factor is suggested? a. 17. Von Willebrands syndrome b. 150.000/ul A bleeding tendency is likely to be present when the platelet count is below: a. VIII d. Platelet concentrate d. Normal in number c. VIII The test that can monitor heparin therapy . V c. Euglobulin clot lysis The phase contrast microscope is employed in which platelet count method? a. Abnormal APTT In thrombocythemia. Xa-Va. APTT c. Stem cell d. VII d. Vascular abnormality d. IX b. 50. Exposure to subendothelium in vivo c.phospholipid. Whole blood The Christmas is factor a. Prolonged lotting time d.

Greatly enhances activity of AT-III h. Thea.All of the above 41. Ehlers Danlos. The activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) serves as a screening procedure for which plasma factor deficiencies? a. Ixa or thrombin can activate Vll d.28.Accelerates fractivation of factors V and VIII d.50mg/dL d. The activated partial thromboplastin time may be within normal limits with abnormality activity of a.Inhibits vitamin K c.Placenta praevia 40.Snake bites monocytic leukemia c. _______coumadin 6. Fibrinogen has to decrease below what level to affect the various clotting tests? a. V and X d. Match the function will the following inhibitors 1. except a. can activate IX and X b. APTT b.Normal platelet count b. Xa.Adhesion c. Optical c. Vitamin K b. _______protein C 4.200mg/dL 38.75mg/dL b.Inactivates coagulation factors through phospholipoprotein 37. All except VII and XIII b.Prolonged prothrombin time. XIII 34. and thrombin time c. activated partial thromboplastine time. _______plasminogen 7.Inactivates zymogen . Decreased VIII:C c. Factor Vllla. Platelets c. _______ protein S 5. Decreased VIIIR: RCo d. Factor VIII b. Impedance d. then the test should be corrected by the addition of a. 5M urea or 1% monochloracetic acid are reagents used in tests for which plasma factor deficiency? a. VII and IX c. Prolonged bleeding time b.Activates blasminogen for lysis of thrombi e. Factor I d. binds fibrin at critical lysine binding sites f. Laboratory results from a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (OIC)are: a. All of the following represent coagulation methodology. Platelets 33. Normal plasma d. _______AT-III 3. AOTA 35. Diagnosis of von Willebrands disease can be made from the following test results? a. If a coagulation test is prolonged due to a deficiency of a plasma coagulation factor.Degrades factors V and VIII b. Thrombin time d. onlyProthrombin test that is sensitive time to a deficiency of factor VII is c.Marrow infiltration (malignancy) 39. Which of the following factor of activations occur in the alternate pathway? a.Increased platelet destruction c. Calcium c. Chemical 32.Primary aggregation d.Positive D-dimer d.Increased megakaryocytes d. _______streptokinase 8. Protamine sulphate 29. _______ lupus like anti coagulant a.Haemophilia d.20mg/dL c. XI. and Bernard Soulier: are all qualitative platelet disorders that have alnormalities of a. V and VIII b. XII b. IX d. except a. Factors Xlla. Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) is associated with all of the following disorders.Acute granulocytic leukemia or acute b. Principle inhibitor of thrombin and factor X g.NOTA A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 65 . XII and platelets 30. _______ heparin 2. All of the above 36. Idiophatic thrombocytopenic purpura is usually characterized by a. Factor V 31. VIII c. von Willebrand. Immunological b.Secondary aggregation b.Decreased platelets and factors I. Factor IX and Kallikrein can activate factor VII c.

37. Banking 1.42.0 g/dl 4. 13. The name given to the infections virus of hepatitis B (HBV) is: a.0 g/dl d. 2 weeks d. 12. What is the lowest acceptable hematocrit for female blood donors? a. Circular DNA virus b. 36% c. 2 days c. 6 weeks c.Other release mechanisms 44. Prospective donors who have malaria should be deffered: a. For three years after cessation of d. 8 weeks d. Permanently c. The interval between blood donations is: a. 37. For two years cessation of treatment b.Primary aggregation b. 3 months 2.Gray platelet syndrome d.Deficiency or more than one plasma factor c. 46. 38% d. $3% 5. For six months treatment 6. measles (rubeola) or mumps vaccines are acceptance after a periods of: a. IMMUNOHEMATOLOGY 47. Storage pool deficiency and Wiskott Aldrich are qualitative platelet disorders that have abnormal a. Complex virus c. The minimum acceptable haemoglobin for male donors is: a. Symptom-free donors immunized with oral polio. 14.Glanzmann b.0 F 3.6 F b. 98. Infections particle 7. The qualitative platelet disorder that has abnormal primary aggregation is a. 98.May-Hegglin 43.Secondary aggregation c. The oral temperature of a donor shall not: a. Dilutions of patient and normal plasma with a prolonged prothrombin time and/or activated partial thromboplastin time indicate a a.5 g/dl b. Done particles d.0 C c.Deficiency of a factor involved in both intrinsic and extrinsic coagulation pathways d.Wiskott-Aldrich c. 24 hours b.Adhesion d.5 g/dl c.Circulating anticoagulant b. 24 days A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 66 . 41% b.Fibrinolysin 45. 13. 10 weeks b.5 C d.

P b. 6 hours d. Ulex europeus c. S-10 C b. 1-10 C d. Which blood group system was discovered first? a. Be over 21 years old c. 58 C 17. Rh 19. Injection of purified blood group c. Select yhe INCORRECT statement below. Bacillus species 13. 4-6 C 18. React best at room temperature or 4C d. With an observable variable effect 20. Be treated for bacteria d. 4% b. Plasma potassium (k) decreases d. Anti-A in their serum A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 67 . That is expressed only in the homozygous state c. Which biochemical change does NOT occur in stored blood? a. Immune antibodies may be produced by: a. 5 years 15. Naturally accurring antibodies are found regularly accuring antibodies: a. The frequency of group A individuals in the United states is: a. 8 hours 16. HBs Ag d. With no directly observable product] d. 1-10 C d. 48 hours b. Unexpected antibiotics that react 37C are: a. Naturally antibodies: a. Usually Igm antibiotics c. Group B individuals have: a. 2-8 C c. React best in saline c. Citobacter freundii d. 48 hours b. Prozone 21. Antigenic determination d. Are usually IgG 24. When a blood product is stored at 1-6C and the hermetic seal has been broken. Dosage effect c. Usually naturally occurring antibodies d. 1-6 C c. AOTA b. Kid 23. That is expressed in the heterozygous state b. Repeated blood transfusions substances d. Vicia graminea d. Fresh frozen plasma that is stored at 18 or lower has a shelf life of ___. Dolichos biflocus 26. -10 C d. the expiration date becomes: a. 9% c. Which of the following pre transfusion test must be determined for an autologous transfusion recipient? a. STS b. The acceptance plasma that is stored at-18 C or lower has a shelf life of __. Be on oral iron therapy 10. Kell b. 24 hours c. 24 hours d. 6 months c. 1-0 C b. The optimum temperature for thawing fresh frozen plasma is: a. 1 year d. blood should not be drawn from the donor-patient within ___ hours of the time of the anticipated operation or transfusion a. Plasma pH decreases c. An autologous blood donor must: a. For autologous blood donations. Antyi-A1 is a seed extract from: a. 41% d. Plasma ammonia (NH2) increases b. Do not usually cross the placenta b. 30-37 C b. 46% 27. Which of the following organisms have been implicated in bacterial contamination of door blood? a. Arachia hypogeal b. a. if blood is to be transported the blood temperature must be kept between: a. Compatibility testing 11. 32-37 C 14. Escherichia coli b. 2 years b. ABO c. Have at least an 11 g/dl hemoglobin b. ABO c. According to DFA regulations. MNS d. Production of more antigen in the homozygous state than in the heterozygous state is reffered to as: a. -18 C c. a. An amorph is gene: a. A antigens on their red cells b. 72 hours 9. Considered not clinically significant b. Rh d. Inorganic phosphate increases 12. ABO and RH type c. Independent segregation b. Pregnancy 25. Considered most clinically significant 22. Pseudomonas c.8. 12 hours c.

Rh2 Rh2 cells 36. Rh1 Rh1 cells d. Anti-A c. The f antigen refers to: a. antiFy5 44. D” cells usually be incupated at 4C for one our d. Rh1 rh cells d. Coombs phase b. D” antigens are fairly common in blanks b. Rh 43. Anti-H 31. immune and anti-globulin (coo-bs) reactive? a. Anti-l b. Ce 40. Rhz Rhz cells 39. AB c. Rh1 rh cells d. Red blood cells of which blood group react most strongly with anti-H? a. Rh 1 Rh2 cells c. R2r b. R1 R1 d. Anti-Oh 42. Oh c. C d.B d. D” is a variant of the Rho (D) antigen c.c. Anti-n 45. Lutheran c. D” cells should not be considered Rho (D) negative when used donor blood d. Anti-A1 c. Rh cells c. In the duffy blood group system. O b. B 30. Rh2 Rh2 cells b. Weakly reactive with anti-I at 4C c. Anti-E will react with: a. D” cannot be inherited b.B typing serum? a. the most common antibody detected is: a. D b. E c. The system composed of antigens found primarily in saliva and plasma is: a. then tested by the anti-globulin procedure 34. Anti-I is most commonly detected in which cross match phase? a. Rr 37. Rh rh cells 35. Anti-C will not react with: a. 37 c d. Rho rh cells b. Anti-A. D” Cells are incubated at 37C. Rh cells c. Anti-B d. Anti-hr will NOT react with: a. Rh1 Rh1 cells b. Anti-Fya c. The antigen I is: a. Ho b. Poorly developed on cord red blood d. Anti-hr will react with: a. R1 R2 c. Ce c. P b. All but one of the following antibodies will be detected in the serum of Bombay genotype: a. Which is not TRUE of D” antigens? a. A b. Anti-jk b d. Anti-le a c. HO 41. CE b. Rhz Rh2 cells c. Select the incorrect statement: A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // d. Rh2 Rh2 cells 38. The antigen most commonly tested for i the Rh system is: a. A1 d. Which of the following usually Igg. AB 29. Neither Anti-A nor Anti-B in serum d. Anti-B b. Lewis d. D” cells usually appear to be negative or weakly reactive at initial testing c. Red blood cells of which blood group will not be agglutinated by anti-A. Rh1 Rh1 cells d. B c. OH d. Room temperature c. Not found in blanks cells 46. O 68 . A rare antigen b. cE d. Anti-H b. Anti-B in their serum 28. AnAnti-fy4 b. The reagent made from the seeds of dolichos bi-florus is: a. The symbol for the Bombay blood group is: a. O 32. Anti-Fy”b d. AOTA 47. Which of the following is true of D”? a. D” is common in Caucasians 33. Anti-c can be formed by persons with the genotype: a. Rh cells b.

Green b. Next to Rho (d0. Kidd b. Rh c. Colories d. 36. Is used to confirm group O individuals c. Lewis system b. Anti-K” b. 54. 90% of the population is kell (K) negative b. Black What is the standard acceptable color for anti-A grouping serum? a. Blue c. Blue d. 61. Green b. Malaria d.0% When color-coding is used for donor blood labels. 48. 62. 51. Blue d. 58. 90. 60. Anti-Mclead d. 56.0% Approximately what percentage of females are Xg positive> a. the kell (K) antigen is the most immunogenic Anti-k ia also known as: a. 67. 1% c. such as anti-P1. 49. 66. a. c.6% b. !0. anti-M and anti-le Which of the following is NOT TRUE of Anti-Le? a. B serum: a. Serum d. 88. 11. Yellow c. 57. 65.00% b. Anti-k1 c. 9% d.00% Select the INCORRECT stamen: a.3% c. d. Viral hepatitis The antigen Tj is part of which system? a. b. 59. Yellow d. Occurs in Le (A-b) individuals b. 2. they may mask more significant antibodies.0% d. P Approximately what percentage of males are Xg positive? a. Albumin b. Papain 64. Bromelin b. Enzymes prevent detection of antibodies in the: a.02% c.0% d. 63. 53. Pink c.a.6% b. 52. Amylase d. NOTA Anti-A.00% d. Agglutinates group O cells Which of the following is NOT a suitable medium for suspensions of red cells for blood banking? a. Blue-green c. Syphilis b. 0. 55. Anti –I is often the causative antibody in case of cold hemaglutinin disease (CHAD) Anti-I reacts best with cord blood cells Anti-I can be found as weak cold agglutinin in the serum of normal individuals Anti-I agglutinin are usually cli0nically insignificant. Kidd system c. group A is. however. Anti-K reacts best in saline at room temperature c. Yellow Polyspecific antiglobulin serum is sometimes colored: a. Ficin c. Anti-cellano Approximately what percentages of blacks have the Fy (a-b) phenotype? a. ^68%% Recent finding suggest there is an association between the Fy (a-b) phenotype and resistance to: a. 22% b. Is obtained from A2B individuals b. Duffy system d. 88.3% c. Is neutralized by lewis blood group substance d. MNS d. Is commonly implicated in hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) c. Red b. 11. 65. Is obtained from A1B individuals d. Saline c. 50. Chronic granulomatous disease c. Anti-K can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) d. S composed mostly of IgM molecules What percentage of the population lacks the kell (K) antigen? a. Rh system The technique used to remove antibody bound to sensitized red cells is called: A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 69 . Pink What is the color of the dye added to commercially prepared anti-B blood grouping serum? a. 65. Distilled water Which of the following enzymes is NOT used in blood bank procedures? a. 36. Yellow b.

P d. Elution due to delayed washing b. Serum against donor cells An direct anti-globulin test is incubated for: a. Prozone r6eaction d. 4C c. 81. Geriatic patients d. Cephalothin b. Flution d. Compatibility testing In a direct anti-globulin tests. IgG and c3d The direct anti-globulin test is most useful for: a. 74. 250 angstroms By common usage. 77. Reagen A1 and B cells to detect serum anti-A and Anti-B b. a. 5-10 minutes at 4C b. 72. Anti-A anti-R antisera to detect cell antigers A and/or B c. Iga and C3d b. 56C The direct anti-globulin test (DAT) using poly-specific anti-hurian globulin serum is NOT of value in the a. Titer b. 78. IgG and C4 c. Group AB A false positive anti-globulin test ca n be caused by : a. Diagnosis of hemolytic transfusion reactions c. Occurs naturally is most human beings Which of the following drug will NOT cause a positive direct antiglobulin (Coomb’s) test? a. 69. 80. IgG. Inadequate w2ashing c. Anti-D The most dangerous and unexpected antibodies in the blood bank are those that react at: a. Patients undergoing chemotherapy b. 15-60 minutes at 37 C d. 25C d. Tranlocation A cold autoagglutinin will usually have specificity for the: a. Aspirin What is the optimum incubation temperature for the indirect antiglobulin (IAI) test? a. AOTA A patient that forward group an AB but reserve group as group B probably is a group A2 B with: a. 1000 angstroms c. Detection of unexpected antibodies b. 15-60 minutes at 56C The red blood cells used for screening patient’s serum for unexpected antibodies s hold be of what group? a. Diagnosis of the hemolytic disease of the newborn b. Test cells being direct coombs positive c. Lewis b. 82. 73. Anti-A2 d. Penicilin c. 83. a poly specific anti-human serum at least contains antibodies to: a. 600 angstroms d. a. Group B b. Diagnosis of drug-induced hemolytic anemia d. 70. Serum d. 37C Antiglobulin reagent: a.68. Anti-A1 c. Cells c. Leuloagglutinin assays newborn d. Chemical contamination A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 70 . Rh Forward grouping is using: a. Never detects complement-dependent b. Bacterial contamination of reagents A false negative indirect anti-globulin test can be caused by: a. 85.B to confirm group O d. L antigen b. Is produced in human beings antibodies d. K antigen Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria is often associated is which system? a. Differentiation of cell surface coating (complement or (IgH) Albumim-reactive Igg antibodies are about __in length. 71. 37C b. 22C d. E antigen d. Anti-A. IgG and Ig d. Alpha-methydopa d. Absorption c. Cells against donor serum b. you are testing patient: a. Group A d. 500 angstroms b. MNS c. Group O c. 75. 79. Anti-B b. Detection of hemolytic disease of the c. 76. 4C c. 32C b. Bacterial contamination of test cells d. Using anti-A1 to detect subgroups of A Reverse grouping difficulties may be encountered in the following instances: a. Newborn infants c. 84. 15-30 minutes at 25 C c. Inadequate washing b. D antigen c. May be produced in laboratory animals c.

A re5ciept antibody to a high incidence antigen b. Supplying deficient coagulation factors c. Fresh serum (less than 48 hours old must be used for compatibility testing to preserve: a. Screening donor units for rare antigens c. Active anti-globulin serum was added b. 4 c. Weak subgroups of A or B 89. Multiple myeloma 99. Calcium and sodium b. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia b. Anti-Le d. Chelating agents c. Red cell antibodies b. Patient serum was added c. A clerical error d. The most likely antibody is: a. Red blood cells are the product of c hoice for: a. Anti-P1 91. Hypofibrinogenemia 100. Hemolysis requires complement activation. 72 102. Which of the following is NOT necessarily true? a. Von Willebrand disease d. Recipient serum was not added 95. Which of the following antibodies usually gives negative reactions in enzyme test procedures? a. Anti-K c. If a recipient is incompatible wiit5h only one donor. Siatic acid d. a. Typing the patients blood for rate antigens b. Thrombocytopenia d. The initial response to a foreign antigen is known as the primary response: His primary response usually takes how long occur? a. Secondary response to the same foreign antigen is known as: a. Ab response 98. Cryoprecipitated anti-hemophillic factor (AHF) is not recommended for the treatment of: a. 24 b. Deglycerolized frozen red blood cells must be transferred w2thin how many hours? a. Plateit concentrates are most likely to be benefit in. Anti-D b. 8-10 months 97. Agglutination or hemolysis b. Hemophilia A c. Anti-Jk c. Calcium and potassium d. Which of the following are required for complement activation? a. Increasing oxygen carrying capacity 101. Hemolytic disease of the newborn c. A recipient antibody to a low incidence antigen c. Sodium and potassium 96. Anamnestic response c. Anti-Jk c. Antigen strength altered in disease b. Laboratories must check each negative anti-globulin test using red blood cells sensitized with IgG. All but one of the following antibodies will usually be detected in the room temperature phase of cross match. a. Testing the patients blood for ABO and Rh type and unexpected antibodies d. It never occurs c. Auto-antibodies 88. A positive antigen-antibody reaction is indicated by: a. No agglutination or hemolysis 92. Transfused states c. Calcium and magnesium c. Haemophilia B b. 10-12 months d. Anti Le 93. Identification of unexpected antibodies in the patient blood 90. One of then eight units cross matched is incompatible in the anti-globulin phase of testing. Natural response b. Complement b. Exchange transfusion b.86. Thrombocytopenia d. 21 d. Anti-k 94. Anti-Jk b. Antibody formation c. 2-6 months b. the most probable cause is: a. Mixed field agglutination is observed under the microscope as clumps or agglutinates of cell among many free CELLS. Twin chimetras d. White cell antibodies A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 71 . Anti-globulin serum has not reacted with the original red being tested 87. Anti-Fy d. Anti-HLA antibodies c. Antigen formation d. Anti-fy d. Recurrent nonhemolytic febrile transfusion reactions are usually caused by all of the following except: a. After the addition of these cells. Platelet antibodies d. The washing phase as performed satisfactorily d. The term type and screen refers to: a. Which of the following is the most common reason for mixed field agglutination? a. Anti-M b. IgG response d.

2 degree F rise in temperature within 1 hour transfusion b.C+ e-? a. D+ C+ E+ e+.103. anti-hr. and a. 2 degree F drop in temperature within 1 hour of transfusion c. D+ c+ E+-c+ e+. R1r b. R1R1 126. After notification of the laboratory 104. Group O d.negative 116. R1R1 d. R1r d. Cde/cde d. 111. R1 r1 A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 72 . R1r 123. R1r2 d. When red cells are positive when tested with anti-e and negative when tested with anti-D. Rr b. R2R2 c. Group B b. The infant is probably: a. Anti-b – positive b cells . Anti-AB –positive 117. R1r d. A2O 106. After the physician has been notified b. R2R2 c. cde/cdE 122. The patient is group A2B with anti-A1 c. R2r b. what is the most probable genotype? a. 8-10% b. If red cells give positive reactions when tested with anti-Rho. Anti-A – negative A1 cells – negative 109. 119. 1-2% c. The patient is group A2b with anti-h 120. A patient is suspected of having a transfusion reaction. What is the most common of the Rh NEGATIVE GENOTYPES? a. R1R c. Patient cell with: Patient serum with: 108. Cde/cde d. Anti-A – positive a1 cells – positive 115. 107. CDE/CDe c. cDE/cDE b. What is the most common genotype that could result from the phenotype D+ C. The blood phenotype O can result from which of the following genotypes? a. What is the optimum concentration of a cell suspension to be used in blood bank testing? a. which of the following genotypes is IMPOSSIBLE? a. AC c. Cde/CdE b. Ror 127. BO d. R2r b. The cells and serum of a neonate were tested at room temperature. The weiner genotype R2 R2 is equivalent to: a. R1R2 c. cde/cde c. Given the reactions. Patient cells with Patient serum with: 113. Give the most likely explanation for the discrepancy in the forward and reverse grouping: a. The patient is group B with an acquired A-like antigen d. A transfusion reaction is considered febrile when the patient experiences a: a. Anti-c and anti-E. After the unit is infused c. what is the most probable genotype? a. Immediately d. R1r d. negative reaction with anti-rh. NOTA 112. R1R2 124. Anti-B. R1R1 c. anti-hr. 114. Anti-C and anti-e and negative when tested with anti –E and anti c. what is the most likely genotype? a. Given the reactions. R1Ro d. When should the transfusion be stopped/ a.positive b cells . Anti-A1 – negative 118. Rr c. R1Ro b. cdE/cde 129. If cells are positive when tested with anti-D. 2-5% d. R2Ro 125. OO b. 128. Group AB c. No temperature increase at the start of the transfusion 105. Ro Ro b. what is the genotype? a. 10-15% 121. The patient is group A1B with autoantibody b.negative 110.

red cells for exchange transfusion should be what group? a A c O b B d AB 7 In case of ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn. Blacksare fairly common to what race? c. Which one does not usually cause homolytic disease of the newborn? a Rh c P b Kell d Duffy 6 In a case of hemolytic disease of the newborn. Caucasians d. which of the following phenotypes is possible in the offspring? a A1 c B b A2B d O 12 An A1B mother and an A2O father could NOT produce which of the following genotypes? a A1A2 b A2B c BO d A2O A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 73 . D antigens a. Asians 131.130. which of the following phenotypes is possible in the offspring? a A1 c O b A2B d B 11 In the phenotype mating O x O. the mother is usually which of the following? a Group AB c Rho (D0 negative b Group O d A 8 If a mother passes an antibody to her fat us through the placenta. The d antigen is responsible for the most frequent production of unexpected antibodies. what type of immunity does the fat us have? a Naturally acquired active c Naturally acquired passive b Artificially acquired active d Artificially acquired passive 9 If the mother is group A1B and the father is group A1b. Which other blood group antigen is responsible for a large percentage of unexpected a O antigen c K antigen b A antigen d B antigen 2 Hemolytic disease of the newborn can occur when: a The infant lacks the antigen the mother possesses b The mother lacks an antigen the infant possesses c The mother possesses an antigen the father lacks d NOTA 3 Which antibody is most likely to be involved in hemolytic disease of the newborn? a Anti-c c Anti-m b Anti-le d Anti-Js 4 Whwn severe hemolytic disease ofv the newborn is due to an unidentified antribody: a No blood ids acceptable or transfusion b AB negative red cells an O negative plasma should be used for transfusion c Mothers red cells may be used for transfusion d NOTA 5 Of the following blood groups. which would be IMPOSSIBLWE in the offspring? a A1 c B b A2 d A2B 10 In the phenotype mating A2B x O. Hispanics b. when the mothers is group O and the baby is group a.

0-7. isotonic saline 2. the following genotypes will result: a AO and Bo c AB and OO b AA and BB d AO and BB 16 In the mating of R1rxR2r genotypes. the first 2-3 tubes are negative and later tubes are positive.Found in all A2 b patients A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 74 . it would be possible for him to form which of the following antibodies? a Anti-E c Anti-ce b Anti-Ce d Anti-c 18 If a patient requiring a blood transfusion has an anti-e (hr) approximately what percent of donor blood tested would be compatible? a 2% c 20% b 15% d 80% 19 Approximately what percentage of donor blood is compatible with a patient who has anti-Jk? a 25% c 75% b 40% d 90% 20 You must find two units f compatible blood for a patient who has anti-JK. found in group A1 patients 3.5-6.0 c 6.Enzymes a 1 and 3 c 1. It should be4 easiest to find two units of compatible blood for the patient with: a Anti-e b Anti-c c Anti-k d Anti-Le If the patient with anti-E needs a blood transfusion.3 and 4 Anti-a1 agglutinin is: 34 1.13 If the mother is group O and the infant is group B.inactivating sera 4.preparing elautos 3.5 A blood bank has 10 nits of O Rho (D) positive blood from random donors. This is known as: a Rouleaux effect c Antigen effect b Antibody effect d Prozone effect Intravascular hemolysis occurs when: a Complement is activated c Calcium is activated b Complement is inactivated d Calcium is inactivated What is the optimum pH at which antibodies bind o cells? a 5. How many units will you cross match? a 5 c 20 b 10 d 50 21 When a patient is to undergo heart by pass surgery.5-7. the infants blood group genotypes is: a BB c BO b AO d AB 14 Given a mother of group O and an infant of group B.2. Thawing frozen cells a 1 and 4 c 1. select the appropriate number of compatible units: a 1 of 4 units c 2 of 3 units b 1 of 10 units d 3 of 4 units A 56 C water bath is commonly used for: 30 1. which of the following is probably NOT that of the offspring? a CDe/cDE c CDe/cde b cde/cde d CDe/cdE 17 If an R2R2 patient is transfused with R1R1 blood. approximately what percentage of donor blood tested will be compatible? a 2% b 305 c 70% d 98% A patient needing a blood transfusion is found to have anti-P1.2. which antibody is considered clinically significant? a Anti-A c Anti-Le b Anti-b d Anti-P1 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 31 33 a Kidd c Lewis b Lutheran d Xg In titration of an antibody.5 d 6.2 and 3 b 2 and 3 d 1.0 b 7.2 and 3 b 2 and 4 d 1. According to the statistics. which of the following blood group would eliminate paternity? a AB c O b B d Paternity could not be ruled out 15 If a group AB mated with a group O. Albumin 4.3 and 4 Testing media for antigen-antibody reactions include: 32 1. isotonic saline 2.8-8. LISS 3.

Is obtained from group O individual 39 2. Found in group B and O patients a 1 and 3 c 1.2 and 3 b 2 and 4 d 1.A review of personnel policies c.Le 48 3.and 4 e f SUPERVISION AND MANAGEMENT 1.2. Causes decrease in the electropositive cations surrounding the red cells 61 3. Frequency noted to be cold agglutinins 43 3. anti –P1 47 2.35 36 37 40 45 50 55 56 57 58 2.2.3 and 4 The phenotype A can result from which of the following genotypes? a A1A2 d A2O b A2A2 e A1B c A1O In the every acute phase of hepatitis.3 and 4 b 2 and 4 d 1. A1B 52 2. Anti-S a 1 and 3 c 1.3 and 4 b 2 and 4 d 1.dextroseadenine (CPDA-1)? a 2. Anti –N 49 4.3 and 4 b 2 and 4 d 1. the employers skills and abilities should be permanently documents in the: a.3 and 4 Standardize techniques for blood banking procedures by: a Grading reactions consistently b Timing test accurately c Making accurate cell suspensions and controlling size of drops d AOTA Anti-ab serum: 38 1.3.Personnel handbook c. Is obtained from A1B individuals 3.Orientation checklist d.3 and 4 The group B phenotype can result from the following genotype/s? 51 1. React more strongly at 37C than at 4C 42 2. BBB 53 3. Anti.3 and 4 b 2 and 4 d 1.Personnel file b.2. AO 54 4. Causes of increase in the electropositive cations surrounding the red cells 60 2. Is obtained acquired fr.3 and 4 Rh antibodies: 41 1. which of the following would be indicative of the onset of a viremic state? a Positive HBsAG c Positive anti-HBc b Positive HBeAg d Anti-HAV What is the expirations date (In days) of red blood cells preserved with citrate –phosphate. Enhances the rate and sensitivity of the antigen-antibody reactions a 1 and 3 c 2. Usually consists of phosphate saline and glycine 62 4.None of the above 2.2 and 3 b 3 and 4 d 1. The orientation process for a new employee includes all of the following EXCEPT: a.3 and 4 Which of the following are naturally occurring? 46 1. occasionally found in A2 patients 4.2. c 35 b 24 d 40 Low ionic strength solution (LISS): 59 1.2.The location of general use facilities A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 75 . BO a 1 and 3 c 1. Which a new employee begins orientation. Is obtained from A2B individuals 4. Confirms group o individuals a 1 and 2 c 1. Confirms group O individuals a 1 and 3 c 1.2.A review of duties and responsibilities of the job b. Transfusion or pregnancy 44 4.

Records or affidavits of civil or criminal c.One hour c. A continuing education unit (CEU) is defined as: a. We I designed job description does NOT include which of the following? a.Monthly b.Twenty hours 12.Proper use and documentation on time cards c.Medical director of the laboratory d. An orientation to the laboratory work area includes of the following Except: a.A temporary shortage of staffing b. During the orientation period for a new employee.Ten contact hours b.At every entrance and exit 17. All new employees should be introduced to the proper procedures for all of the following EXCEPT: a.The reasonable cost-to-change relationship of the procedure 14.Section supervisor 18.Copies of certification and credentials b. 6. Result that are grossly abnormal should be reviewed by one or all of the following EXCEPT: a.The minimal qualifications of the employee c.Quarterly b.Weekly c.In the laboratory sections d.Needs of the medical staff d.A review of all tests the new employee will be expected to perform b.d.Weekly c. The determination of the type of services offered by the laboratory must take into consideration all of the following EXCEPT: a.Monthly d.In the laboratory office c.Use and care of personnel identification card b. Which of the following would cause the most concern in limiting test specimen processing? a.A minimum supply of reagents c.Physician ordering the test b.The pay scale for the job d.Usefulness of procedures for the type of patients treated c.Management system to evaluate performance A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 76 .Routine Preventative maintenance and troubleshooting of instruments d. In-service and continuing education programs for the employee should be conducted at least: a.The techniques and procedures employed by technical biomedical service engineers c.Reprimands and commendations arrests d.Bi-weekly d. Emergency Evacuation routes and procedures for the laboratory should be posted: a.Introduction to department management c.An employees job descriptions 11.Job responsibilities and degree of supervision 9.Not posted but in the safety manual b.Criteria used to evaluate performance d.Personnel reputations for time cards d.The request of the patients b.A lack of qualified personnel to perform analysis d.Annually 10. Employee personnel records should include all of the following EXCEPT: a.One contact hour d.Review of workers actual performance during the period c.The duties of the employee for the job classification b.Necessary responses to grossly abnormal patient test results 5. In the performance evaluation.Introduction and identification of supervisory personnel 4. Personnel evaluations should be conducted at least: a.Introduction to laboratory staff b.Annually 13.Work practice controls d.Cultures to be taken 16.The temporary absence of a technical supervisor 15.General laboratory supervisor c.Engineering control procedures c.Calculating time card hours 8.A request for personal information on past facilities 3. Infection control policies and procedures should include all of the following EXCEPT: a. the parties involved should consider all of the following EXCEPT: a. 7.Introduction to reference laboratory technical support associate d. all of the following actions should be performed EXCEPT: a.Goals and obligations identified b.Personnel protective equipment and clothing to be used b.

To assure proper test performance all of the following must be available to the technical staff in the immediate area of testing EXCEPT: a.Special times of collection and preparation of patient d.Before being used for patient testing b.The name and address of the laboratory performing the analysis c. All emergency (STAT) laboratory analysis should be reported to the ordering physician.Necessary quality control materials to be utilized 28. Quality assurance studies should be conducted on a regular basis a.To point a finger at poor performance by testing personnel c. storage b. materials c.Unique identification number d.Specimen collecting and handling requirement b. reference services 32. reagents. equipment.Determine competency of management of the laboratory d.3 hours 22.Name of patient c.Within the specified time defined by the laboratory d. Test results should be re5ported: a.Weekly c.Date of last revision manual d.Signature of individual approving the b.In a clinically useful time period 21. materials d.Information regarding the personal life of the employee 20. within a. reporting results.Concentrations of reagents d.Within 2 days of beginning use of new materials 29. All laboratory testing performed by another laboratory and reported by the originating laboratory must include. A well maintained personnel file for an employee should contain all of the following EXCEPT: a. Purchased reagents and diagnostic kits must be verified for intented reactivity: a. or designate.Materials. which one of the following? a. Labels that must be affixed to reagents of materials prepared by the laboratory include all of the following EXCEPT: a.Job description of employee b. These areas are: a. clinical relevance. on the report form. The title page of a policy or procedure manual should include all of the following EXCEPT: a.Proficiency report of previous inter laboratory evaluations d.Salary and benefits records d. Those who utilize laboratory services for patient testing should be provided with information pertinent to all of the following EXCEPT: a. A properly labelled specimen will include all of the following EXCEPT: a.19.The type of specimen submit7ted tio the reference laboratory d.The signature of the technical supervisor of the originating laboratory 23. supplies.Date of specimen collection b.A methodology for the performance of the procedure c.Yearly or whenever changes are made b.Date of birth of patient 24.When running out of old materials c.1-2 hours b.0. Identify the one unnecessary items of information from the list below: a.Written reprimands and commendations c.Patients age c.When requested c.Hazards And precautions c.Proper methods of specimen collection b.Methodologies employed in the performance of testing 26.To identify problems and make corrections b.At specific time periods during the shift b.Recommended storage b.Reporting results.The initials of the person collecting the specimen b.Full name of patient d. instrumentation.Date of collection b. Laboratory specimens require proper labelling for positive patient identification throughout the processing of the specimen.Effective date of manual c.Equipment.Amount of reagent used in a procedure 25.Supplies.5 to 1 hour c.Yearly d.So that the laboratory will comply with CLIA regulations A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 77 . Each standard operating procedure must be reviewed and date by the laboratory director: a.Care necessary in collection and transport of specimen c.None of the above 31. equipment. technical methods. The standard operating procedure manual should address four primary areas.Index of manual 30.10-20 minutes d.Unique patient identification number 27.

38.Clear and concise c.Maintenance of all safety equipment in good working order 34. warning emblem is a three colored square label.Health d.Annual safety training c.33.Weekly b. activating.Inappropriate venipuncture site d.Cleansing of the collection site b. These three documents are a. Food and drink may be stored in a laboratory refrigerator if: a.Poison b.Annually c. Which of the following is NOT associated with improper specimen sampling? a. 37. Venipuncture site prepared for the purpose of obtaining ethanol levels should be cleansed with: a.Applied with regard to the demands of d. and blue identifies what type of hazard? a. packing slip b. Laboratory supplies should NOT be stored: a.In the administration office and dangerous laboratory areas 43. Within each color block is a numeral identifying the severity of the hazard identified by the color.Betadine 39. Directives from supervisory personnel must be: a.Purchase order. Management’s role in the administration of the clinical laboratory requires daily efforts in four areas.Adequate orientation of new employees in safety practices b.In cabinets and drawers c.Monthly d. and yellow.In any refrigerator within the laboratory department c. and: a.Dark laboratory cabinet sealed from light b.All work areas of the laboratory d.Refrigerator in a clear bottle d.Radiation c. Laboratory safety manuals should be available in: a.In an explosion-proof refrigerator d. instrument manual c.Purchase order.Reporting c.Quality control of test procedures c. Laboratory fire extinguishers should be inspected at least: a. The color red identifies fire hazards.Certification of operation within manufactures specifications 40.In an ordinary refrigerator with a flammable storage label affixed b. The purchasing of laboratory supplies must be monitored through the evaluation and verification of three important document to ascertain that the laboratory received proper products and paid the appropriate price. Flammable liquids may be stored: a.Evaluating 47.Marked as a consumable material c.Quarterly 42. Reagents that require storage between 2-8 c and are photo reactive should be stored in a: a.On shelving platform 45.All of the above the situation 48.Supervising d.The laboratory office only b.Only in an explosion-proof refrigerator located in a remote area 44.Ethano9l b. invoice A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 78 .Reasonable b. yellow indentifies instability of the product.Refrigerator in a dark bottle c.Stored for short periods of time 41.On the floor b. instruction manual.Placed in a special sealed container b.Methanol d. organizing.At floor level if placed upon a raised d. The national fire protection association hazard.Dummy runs to certify operation d.Food and drink may not be placed in a laboratory refrigerator d.Evaluation of electronic parameters b. Management role in providing for a safe working environment includes all of the following EXCEPT: a. packing slip. These four areas are planning.Labelling of specimen with name only 36.Communication b.Incorrect specimen collection vessels c. packing slip. Daily instrument preparation and evaluation should include all of the following EXCEPT: a.Laboratory closet in a cool location 35.Providing incentive for employees to use safety equipment d.Acid 46. The three colors are red.Invoice.Acqueous marthiolate solution c.The pathologists office only c.

Accredited by CAP d.Water is added to concentrated acid 56. price list 49. Proficiency testing should consist of a.85% c.A member of AHA 52.Sputum specimens from tubercular b.Federal laws and regulations b.Avoiding work areas b. In order to participate in the medicare program.Use of nonbiodegradable chemicals b.Approved by medicare b. All accidents should have a written report made within a. If an automated test instrument should be temporarily inoperable.The name of the requesting physician b.Only collects specimens c.Sending sample to a reference lab for analysis d.Internal external quality control testing sample c.Packing slip. An laboratory procedures commonly practiced for years that must be avoided in to days laboratory is a.A tentative diagnosis d.Avoiding all incoming specimens that are marked “CAUTION”’ d.Frequent hand washing c.Wearing protective clothing at all times 59.Use a new standard b.Urine specimens from AIDS patients d. you should a. a laboratory must meet all applicable a.0.Pipetting by mouth 60.Kept 27C until the instrument is operate c. An explosion could result if a.Water is premixed with a weak salt d.Acid is neutralized and water added b.A pathologist request d.Placing in acid for 24 hours b.d.State laws and regulations c. Which biological samples should be regarded as potential hazards? a. An excellent general laboratory cleanser that is also a disinfectant is a. samples for testing should be a.Accredited by JCAH c.The name of the patient c.Engages in interstate commerce 51.Tincture of merthiolate 57.Tincture of iodine d.Use of Bunsen burners d.Acid added to water c.Stored in the refrigerator until the instrument is operate 65.A lawyer request c.The week is occurred 58.A hospitals request 61. bill of lading.All biological samples 62.Federal of state laws and regulations 50.Boiling for 15 minutes in saline c. 53.Burning the waste in a laboratory incinerator A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 79 .Burying contaminated materials in an isolated area b.Check the reagents d.Placing in a potassium dichromatic solution for 24 hours d. The only avenue of access to a patients is laboratory record from an outside source without the patients written permission is a.Testing and evaluating individuals workers b. A laboratory must be licensed under the clinic laboratory improvement act (CLIS) if it a.Stool specimens patients c.Placing in a bag and autoclaving 63.Checking all reagents for performance 54. If a result on a single control had a result outside of standard deviations.30 days b.The date of collection 64.Operates in mexico and Canada d.24 hours hospitalized d.The time the accident victim is c.Analyzed by alternate method or properly stored until the instrument is operable d.Repeat the run c. A hospital clinical laboratory that performs medicare work must be: a.Hypochlorite b.Check the machine for a detect 55. Which of the following does not appear on the specimen label? a. Chemical waste is best discarded by a.Performs electro cardio grams b. Materials used in blood collecting should be disposed of by a.Discarded and fresh ones obtained when the instrument is operable b.Some from of judicial order b. One of the best preventive measured for personal safety is a.Pouring chemicals from stock bottles c.Federal and state laws and regulations d.

Neutralizing .Years d.6000 c.2000 The disposal procedure for radioactive material (1125) used in the laboratory is as follows a.Non-infectious unless noted d.3 months c.46.Annually 69.0216 b. stable chemical substance of a definite composition of which measured amounts are used to establish a point of reference against which unknown amounts of the substance can be compared and determined? a. 74.21.Graduated cylinder d. diluting and then burying or incinerating d. 67. 71.Class A volumentric flask b. 68.Two years How often should a spore suspension be used to check the sterility of an autoclave? a.66.Precision d.Standard deviation All laboratory reagents should have labels that state: a. Six months b.In the morning before work starts b.0.In the evening after work ends c.Dispose with copious amounts of water On method to check the accuracy of a pipellor is to deliver multiple volumes into a a.1 year c.3 d. The patient coefficient of variation is a. 80.Once a month b.Name of reagent b.2. and dated every a.Twice a month c.Control c. 75.All of the above What is a pure.Secondary standard Fire extinguishers would be monitored . 78.6 months d.1600 d.2 years d.9 months b.Reference sample b.Precision d.Infectious Accumulated radiation exposure for clinical laboratory personnel should not exceed how many roentgen equivalents in humans (rem) per quaterter? a.Dissolving in acid and burying the results Laboratory specimens should be regarded as a. 76.90 days b. 72. 70.Follow manufacturers instruction c. The degree of reproducibility among a series of laboratory determinations on the same specimen is called a.Routine with no precautions b. 73. 77.10 b.Before work begins and when finished Under medicare regulations the laboratory report is sent to the physician who requested the test and a record is kept on file for what period of time? a.7 years A mathematical measure of the speed (dispreson) of statistical data above and below the average is called: a.Place in a special radioactive disposal can d.Primary standard d.Date received of prepared A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 80 .Months c.None of the above Countertops should be disinfected at least a.Mean c. Pack well and place in trach can b. certified .Specificity A precision run has a mean (X) of 231 and standard deviation of 5. 79.Reliability b. c.Sensitivity b.7 A centrifuge should be checked with a tachometer every a.15 c.Every three months d.Once a week d.Graduated centrifuge tube c.Accuracy c.Routine unless otherwise noted c.

Income 82. 101. 97.Expiration date d. A laboratory worker splashes concentrated hydrochloric acid in hid/her eye. 91. 94. 90.c. The best safety measure is to a. 96.Call the physician and wait for his/her advice 83. 102.Wash the eye with dilute sodium hydroxide (NaOrt) and call a physician STAT b. A budget is a written formal proposal of expected re venues and: a. 99. 93. 88.Expenses c. 87.Requirements d. A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 81 .`Standards b. 85. 92.Wash the eye with distilled water and call a physician STAT c. 98.All of the above 81. 100. 84.Wash the eye with dilute acetic acid and call a physician STAT d. 95. 89. 86.

149. 109. 128. 134. 121. 138. 126. 117. 105. 140. 111.103. 107. 143. 141. 136. 124. 127. 129. 135. 110. 137. 118. 130. 142. 139. 120. 113. 119. . 145. 133. 114. 148. 112. 146. 132. 108. 131. 104. 122. 116. 125. 147. 115. 123. 144. 106.