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1507;}\viewkind4\uc1\pard\f0\fs24 ROUTER COMMANDS\line\line 1. Identify the command to display the IP routing table?\line A.) show route\line B.) show ip route\line C.) show ip table route\line D.) show ipx route\line\line Answer: B\line\line 2. Identify the command to display all the valid commands at the given mode?\line A.) Help all\line B.) Help\line C.) All commands\line D.) ?\line\line Answer: D\line\line 3. Identify the keystroke used to terminate the setup mode?\line A.) Ctrl-K\line B.) Crtl-C\line C.) Ctrl-Z\line D.) Crtl-End\line\line Answer: C\line\line 4. Identify the command to display the IP host table?\line A.) show ip hostnames\line B.) show ip names\line C.) show hosts\line D.) show ip hosts\line\line Answer: D\line\line 5. Identify the command to display the configured IP routing protocols?\line A.) show protocols\line B.) show protocols all\line C.) show routing-protocols\line D.) show ip protocols\line\line Answer: D\line\line 6. Identify the command to configure ALL the default VTY ports?\line A.) Router(config)# line vty 0 4\line B.) Router# line vty 0 4\line C.) Router(config)# line vty\line D.) Router(config)# line vty 0\line\line Answer: A \line\line 7. Identify the command to reload the router?\line A.) Router(config)# reload\line B.) Router# reset\line C.) Router# reload\line D.) Router> reload\line\line Answer: C\line\line 8. Identify command that configures 'Cisco1' as a secret password?\line A.) Router(config)# enable secret password Cisco1\line B.) Router(config)# enable secret cisco1\line C.) Router(config)# enable password Cisco1\line D.) Router(config)# enable secret Cisco1\line\line Answer: D\line\line 9. Identify the statement which connects access-list 101 inbound to interface e0?\line A.) Router(config-if)# ip accessgroup 101 in\line B.) Router(config-if)# ip access-group 101\line C.) Router(config)# ip access-group 101 e0 in\line D.) Router(config)# ip access-group 101 e0 in\line\line Answer: A\line\line 10. Identify the command that displays ethernet0/1 interface status?\line A.) show interface ethernet0/1\line B.) show interface ethernet e0/1\line C.) show interface ethernet0.1\line D.) show ethernet0/1\line\line Answer: A\line\line 11. Based upon the exhibit, create a static route to 172.16.10.0 on Router A\line A.) Router# ip route 172.16.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.0.2\line B.) Router(config)# ip static route 172.16.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.0.2\line C.) Router(config)# ip route 172.16.10.0 10.1.0.2\line D.) Router(config)# ip route 172.16.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.0.2\line\line Answer: D\line\line 12. Identify the command that saves the configuration stored in RAM to NVRAM?\line A.) copy running-config startup-config\line B.) copy tftp runningconfig\line C.) copy startup running\line D.) copy active to backup\line\line Answer: A\line 1\line 13. Identify the command that displays the SAP table?\line A.) show ipx servers\line B.) display SAP table\line C.) display SAP's\line D.) show sap table\line\line Answer: A\line\line 14. Identify the command to configure the IP address 172.16.100.5 \line 255.255.255.0?\line A.) Router(config-if)# ip address 172.16.100.5 255.255.255.0\line B.) Router(config)# ip address 172.16.100.5\line C.) Router# ip address 172.16.100.5 255.255.255.0\line D.) Router(config)# ip address 172.16.100.5 255.255.255.0\line\line Answer: A\line\line 15. Identify the command to configure the router to boot from an IOS located \line on a TFTP server?\line A.) boot system tftp IOS.exe 172.16.5.1\line B.) boot system tftp 172.16.5.1 IOS.exe\line C.) boot system flash tftp 172.16.5.1\line D.) boot system IOS.exe 172.16.5.1\line\line Answer: A\line\line 16. Identify the command to display the hardware platform information?\line A.) show all\line B.) show platform\line C.) display hardware\line D.) show version\line\line Answer: D\line\line 17. Identify the command to display the Frame Relay map table?\line A.) Router# display frame-relay map\line B.) Router# show frame-relay map\line C.) Router(setup)# show frame-relay map\line D.) Router# show map frame-relay\line\line Answer: B\line\line 18. Given the command 'cl?', what will it display?\line A.) Syntax of the 'clock' command\line B.) Syntax of the 'clear' command\line C.) All commands that begin with 'cl'\line D.) All commands that begin with 'c'\line\line Answer: C\line\line 19. Identify the 2

commands that copies the configuration in NVRAM to RAM?\line A.) copy backupconfig running-config\line B.) configure nvram\line C.) copy startup-config running-config\line D.) configure memory\line\line Answer: B, C\line\line 20. Identify the 2 commands the saves the running-config to NVRAM?\line A.) write memory\line B.) copy running-config startup-config\line C.) write network\line D.) write backup\line\line Answer: A, B\line\line 21. Identify the command that displays traffic statistics on serial0/1?\line A.) display interface serial0/1\line B.) show interface serial0/1\line C.) show seria0/1 stats\line D.) show interface serial0/1 stats\line\line Answer: B\line\line 22. Identify the command to determine if CDP is enabled?\line A.) show enable cdp\line B.) show cdp enabled\line C.) show cdp run\line D.) show cdp\line\line Answer: D\line\line 23. Which 2 commands shows the Cisco IOS filename?\line A.) show IOS\line B.) show ver\line C.) show flash\line D.) show mem\line E.) show NVRAM\line\line Answer: B,C \line\line 24. Identify the command to copy a configuration file from a TFTP server to a \line routers active configuration?\line A.) Router# copy runningconfig tftp\line B.) Router# copy tftp running-config\line C.) Router# copy tftp 172.16.0.1 running-config\line D.) Router(config)# copy tftp runningconfig\line\line Answer: B\line\line 25. Identify the command mode necessary to enter the extended ping command?\line A.) Router#\line B.) Router>\line C.) Router(config)#\line D.) Router(ext-ping)#\line\line Answer: A\line\line 26. Identify the command to configure the router for IGRP autonomous system \line 100?\line A.) Router(config)# router igrp 100\line B.) Router> router igrp 100\line C.) Router# router igrp 100\line D.) Router(config)# router igrp\line\line Answer: C\line\line 27. Identify the command that forces the router to load into ROM mode upon a \line reload?\line A.) boot system rom\line B.) rom boot\line C.) boot system flash rom\line D.) boot router rom\line\line Answer: A\line\line 28. Identify the command that specifies Serial 0 in slot 1?\line A.) Router(config)# interface serial1/1\line B.) Router(config)# interface serial1/0\line C.) Router(config)# interface serial0.1\line D.) Router(config)# interface serial0/1\line\line Answer: B \line\line 29. Identify the command to configure the configuration-register?\line A.) Router# config-register 0x2102\line B.) Router(config)# config-register 0x2102\line C.) Router(config-reg)# 0x2102\line D.) Router> config-register 0x2102\line\line Answer: A\line\line 30. Identify the command to disable CDP on an interface?\line A.) Router(config-if)# no cdp enable\line B.) Router(config-if)# no cdp run\line C.) Router# no cdp enable\line D.) Router(config-if)# no cdp\line\line Answer: A\line\line 31. Identify the command that will display the RIP routes entering and leaving \line the router?\line A.) Router(config)# debug ip rip\line B.) Route# debug ip rip\line C.) Router>debug ip rip\line D.) Router# debug rip routes\line\line Answer: B\line\line 32. Identify the prompt displayed if in privileged exec mode?\line A.) Router(config)#\line B.) Router#\line C.) Router>\line D.) Router(priv)#\line\line Answer: B\line\line 33. 'Show cdp neighbors detail' show the following 3 pieces of information?\line A.) Hardware platform\line B.) Software version\line C.) Same as 'show version' command\line D.) Up to 1 address for each protocol\line E.) Non-direct connected routers\line\line Answer: A, C, D\line\line 34. Identify the command mode necessary to enter the standard ping command?\line A.) Router(config)#\line B.) Router>\line C.) Router(std-ping)#\line D.) Router(config-if)#\line\line Answer: B\line\line 35. Identify the command to run 'setup'?\line A.) Router(config)#setup\line B.) Router?setup\line C.) Router#setup\line D.) Router>setup\line\line Answer: A\line\line 36. Identify the command that configures serial0 for PPP encapsulation?\line A.) Router(config)# encapsulation ppp\line B.) Router(config-if)# encapsulation serial ppp\line C.) Router(config-if)# encapsulation ppp\line D.) Router# encapsulation ppp\line\line Answer: C\line\line 37. Identify the command to display the status of the Frame Relay virtual \line circuit?\line A.) Router# show frame-relay virtualcircuit\line B.) Router(config)# show frame-relay pvc\line C.) Router# show framerelay pvc\line D.) Router# show virtual\line\line Answer: C\line\line 38. Identify the command that disables name-to-address translation?\line A.) Router(config-

dns)# no ip domain-lookup\line B.) Router(config)# no address translation\line C.) Router(config)# no ip domain-lookup\line D.) Router(config)# ip domainlookup\line\line Answer: C\line\line 39. What command will not display the status of to1?\line A.) show int to1\line B.) show to1\line C.) show interface to1\line D.) show interface\line\line Answer: B\line\line 40. Identify the 2 commands to copy a configuration from a TFTP server to RAM?\line A.) configure network\line B.) configure overwrite\line C.) copy backup-config running-config\line D.) copy tftp running-config\line\line Answer: A,D\line\line 41. Identify the following command to configure a secret password to 'cisco'?\line A.) Router(config)#enable password cisco secret\line B.) Router(config)#enable secret cisco\line C.) Router(config)#enable secret password cisco\line D.) Router(config)#set secret = cisco\line\line Answer: B\line\line 42. Identify the effect of Ctrl-Z?\line A.) Exits back to privileged exec mode\line B.) Disconnect from the router\line C.) Abort the ping operation\line D.) Exits privileged exec mode\line\line Answer: A\line\line 43. Given an IPX network with redundant paths, what command will configure \line load balancing?\line A.) ipx load-balance\line B.) ip maximumpaths 2\line C.) ipx maximum-paths 2\line D.) ipx load-share\line\line Answer: C\line\line 44. Identify the correct IGRP configuration?\line A.) Router# router igrp 100\line Router# network 10.0.0.0\line B.) Router(config)# router igrp 100\line Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0\line C.) Router(config)# router igrp\line Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0\line\line Answer: B\line\line 45. Identify the components in the following command 'interface serial0/1/1'\line A.) Serial interface, port number 0, slot 1, port adapter 1\line B.) Serial interface, slot 1, port number 1, port adapter 0\line C.) Serial interface, slot 0, port adapter 1, port number 1\line\line Answer: C\line\line 46. Identify the command to view the configuration-register value?\line A.) show register\line B.) display config-register\line C.) show config\line D.) show version\line\line Answer: D\line\line 47. Identify the 2 commands that save the running-config to a TFTP server?\line A.) write running tftp\line B.) copy running network\line C.) copy running tftp\line D.) write network\line\line Answer: C,D\line\line 48. Identify the mode reflected by the following prompt 'Router<boot>'?\line A.) Setup\line B.) RXBoot\line C.) Boot mode\line D.) Privileged exec mode\line\line Answer: B\line\line 49. How do you disable CDP on the entire Router?\line A.) Router#no cdp run\line B.) Rotuer(config-if)# no cdp enable\line C.) Router(config)# no cdp enable\line D.) Router(config)# no cdp run\line\line Answer: D\line\line 50. What command can be used to test IPX connectivity?\line A.) Ping 2e.000.0045.8923\line B.) Ping 192.168.100.1\line C.) Ping ipx 2e.0000.0045.8923\line D.) Ipx ping 2e.0000.0045.8923\line\line Answer: C\line\line 51. Identify the 2 commands that display the clock rate configured on the \line serial0 interface?\line A.) show serial0\line B.) show interface serial0\line C.) Show clock rate serial 0\line D.) show controllers serial 0\line E.) show running-config\line\line Answer: D,E\line\line 52. What is the command to copy the IOS image to a TFTP server?\line A.) copy flash tftp\line B.) copy running-config tftp\line C.) copy ios tftp\line D.) copy startup-config tftp\line\line Answer: A\line\line 53. Identify the command that configures the bandwidth to 56K?\line A.) Router(config-if)# bandwidth 56000\line B.) Router(config-if)# bandwidth 56k\line C.) Router(config)# bandwidth 56\line D.) Router(config-if)# bandwidth 56\line\line Answer: D\line\line 54. Identify the command to configure DLCI 100 on an interface e0?\line A.) Router(config)# framerelay local-dlci 100\line B.) Router(config)# frame-relay local-dlci 100 int e0\line C.) Router(config-if)# frame-relay local-dlci 100\line D.) Router(configif)# frame-relay local-dlci 100 int e0\line\line Answer: ALL ANSWERS ARE WRONG\line\line 55. Identify the command to configure the router to boot from an alternate IOS \line located in flash?\line A.) boot system flash IOS.exe\line B.) boot system tftp IOS.exe 172.16.5.1\line C.) boot system alternate IOS.exe\line D.) boot system rom IOS.exe\line\line Answer: A\line\line 56. Identify the command to configure a description on an interface?\line A.) Router> description Finance department\line B.) Router(config)# description Finance department\line C.)

Router(config-if)# description Finance department\line D.) Router# description Finance department\line\line Answer: C\line\line 57. Identify the 2 commands that will display the status and information about \line interface E0 only?\line A.) show interface ethernet E0\line B.) show interface E0\line C.) show E0\line D.) show int E0\line E.) show interface\line\line Answer: B,D\line\line 58. In order to configure a Frame Relay subinterface with IP identify the 2 \line commands that must be configured on the physcial interface?\line A.) Router(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay\line B.) Router(config-if)# no ip address\line C.) Router(config-if)#encapsulation subinterface frame-relay\line D.) Router(config)# subinterface s0 encapsulation frame-relay\line\line Answer: A,D\line\line 59. Identify the command to determine if an IP access-list is grouped on \line interface e0?\line A.) Router(config)# show ip interface e0\line B.) Router> show ip interface e0\line C.) Router# show interface e0\line D.) Router# show ip interface e0\line\line Answer: D\line\line 60. Identify the keystroke to position the cursor to the beginning of a \line command line?\line A.) Ctrl-A\line B.) Ctrl-Ins\line C.) Ctrl-B\line D.) Ctrl-Z\line\line Answer: A\line\line 61. Identify the following components of the IPX address 2e.0000.0065.ed43\line A.) Not a valid IPX address\line B.) Network = 2e, Subnet = 0000, Node = 0065.ed43\line C.) Network = 2e.0000, Node = 0065.ed43\line D.) Network = 2e, Node = 0000.0065.ed43\line\line Answer: D\line\line 62. What is the syntax to add a banner to the Cisco router?\line A.) motd banner #\line B.) banner\line C.) banner motd #\line D.) banner #\line\line Answer: C\line\line 63. What is the command to allow you to type Tokyo instead of the IP address \line 172.16.30.1 to access a router named Tokyo?\line A.) config t, ip host Tokyo 172.16.30.1\line B.) config t, ip hostname Tokyo 172.16.30.1\line C.) config t, hostname Tokyo 172.16.30.1\line D.) config t, ip hostname 172.16.30.1 Tokyo\line\line Answer: A\line\line 64. How do you disable advanced editing?\line A.) terminal editing\line B.) terminal no editing\line C.) disable editing\line D.) no terminal editing\line\line Answer: B\line\line 65. Which of the following will show an extended access list 150?\line A.) sh access-list 150\line B.) sh ip int\line C.) sh ip access-list\line D.) sh access-list 150 extended\line\line Answer: A\line\line 66. You have a Class B network address divided into 30 subnets. You will add \line 25 new subnets within the next year. You need 600 host IDs for each \line subnet. Which subnet mask should you use?\line A.) 255.254.0.0\line B.) 255.192.0.0\line C.) 255.255.252.0\line D.) 255.255.248 0\line\line Answer: C\line\line 67. What is the syntax to use to configure the port on a Catalyst 5000 switch?\line A.) slot port/type\line B.) type slot/port\line C.) port slot/type\line D.) port type/slot\line\line Answer: ???/ \line\line 68. What 3 sources can configuration commands be placed into RAM?\line A.) HP Openview\line B.) Console\line C.) Vterminal\line D.) TFTP server\line E.) NVRAM\line\line Answer: B,D,E\line\line 69. Identify the true statements about the following access list:\line Access-list 101 deny tcp 192.10.172.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 23\line Access-list 101 permit ip any any\line A.) This access list prevents the host 192.10.172.0 from telneting\line B.) This access list prevents any telnet traffic from subnet \line 192.10.172.0/24\line C.) This access list filters some telnet access\line D.) This access list denies any telnet traffic to subnet 192.10.172.0/24\line E.) This access list is invalid\line F.) The netmask on the this access list is reversed\line\line Answer: B\line\line 70. Given the IPX address 4a.0002.1111.a999, what is the network ID and what \line is the node ID?\line A.) net 4a host 0002.1111.a999\line B.) net a999 node 0002.1111\line C.) net 0002.1111.a999 node 4a\line D.) net 0002.1111 node a999\line\line Answer: A\line\line 71. What command do you use to disable domain lookup?\line A.) no domain-lookup\line B.) domain no-lookup\line C.) lookup no-domain\line D.) no ip domain-lookup\line\line Answer: D\line\line 72. Which of the following are valid Cisco encapsulation type names?\line A.) arpa = IPX Ethernet\line B.) novell-ether = IPX Ethernet_802.3\line C.) snap = IEEE 802.2 SNAP on Ethernet, FDDI, and Token Ring\line D.) novell-fddi = IPX Fddi_Raw\line E.) sap = IEEE 802.2 on Ethernet, FDDI, and Token Ring\line F.) hdlc = HDLC on serial interfaces\line\line Answer:

B,E,F\line\line 73. Which of the following is an invalid host address using a netmask of \line 255.255.255.192?\line A.) 10.1.1.1\line B.) 10.1.1.66\line C.) 10.1.1.130\line D.) 10.1.1.127\line\line Answer: D\line\line 74. Which of the following will apply IPX sap access list 1010 for incoming \line traffic, assume you are at the interface configuration?\line A.) ipx input-sap-filter 1010 in\line B.) ipx input-sap-filter 1010\line C.) ipx access-group 1010 in\line D.) ipx access-list 1010 in\line\line Answer: B\line\line 75. What command can you type to view the connections after telneting into \line multiple routers simultaneously?\line A.) sh users\line B.) sh ports\line C.) sh host\line D.) sh sessions\line\line Answer: D\line\line 76. Which of the following is a valid extended IP access-list?\line A.) router(config)# access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.0 any eq 21 \line log\line B.) router# access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.0 any eq 21 log\line C.) router(config)# acess-list 101 permit any any 172.16.30.0\line D.) router(config)# access-list 101 permit ip host 172.16.30.0 any eq 21 \line log\line\line Answer: C???\line\line 77. What is the command to manually enter a static route?\line A.) IP route <default gateway> <subnet mask> network\line B.) IP route <destination network> <default gateway>\line C.) IP route < destination network> <subnet mask> <default gateway>\line D.) IP route <destination network> <subnet mask> <source network>\line\line Answer: C\line\line 78. What key do you use to view the last command?\line A.) Ctrl+X\line B.) Ctrl+Z\line C.) Ctrl+E\line D.) Ctrl+P\line\line Answer: D\line\line 79. What 2 commands verify end to end communications?\line A.) Trace\line B.) debug ip session\line C.) Ping\line D.) Route\line\line Answer: A,C\line\line 80. Your Ethernet interface currently has the IP address of 1.1.1.1/24. You \line would like it to have a second IP address of 2.2.2.2/24. Which command \line will do that?\line A.) ip address 1.1.1.1 2.2.2.2 255.255.255.0\line B.) ip address 2.2.2.2 255.255.255.0 secondary\line C.) ip address 2.2.2.2 255.255.255.0\line D.) This cannot be done, you can only have 1 IP address per physical \line interface.\line E.) ip address 2.2.2.2 /24\line\line Answer: B\line\line 81. Which command listed below sets the banner message when someone connects \line to the router?\line A.) message #\line B.) banner #\line C.) login banner #\line D.) description #\line E.) login description #\line F.) banner motd #\line\line Answer: F\line\line 82. What should be the first command to create an access-list that prevents \line all users on subnetwork 10.10.128.0, using subnet mask 255.255.192.0, from \line being able to telnet anywhere?\line A.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0 0.0.63.255 any eq telnet\line B.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0 255.255.0.0 any eq telnet\line C.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0 255.255.192.0 any eq telnet\line D.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0 0.0.192.255 any eq telnet\line E.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0 0.0.128.255 any eq telnet\line F.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0 0.0.127.255 any eq telnet\line\line Answer: A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 166\line Router(config)#hostname ?\line WORD This system's network name\line\line\line\line 83. The Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) periodically sends out a multicast \line packet (at layer 2). Which command will alter the default interval of 60 \line seconds?\line A.) cdp hold 111\line B.) cdp wait 111\line C.) cdp interval 111\line D.) cdp 111\line E.) cdp timer 111\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 8, page 290-295\line Router(config)#cdp timer ?\line <5-900> Rate at which CDP packets are sent (in sec)\line\line\line 84. Which command will start the process for a Cisco IOS file image upgrade?\line A.) download\line B.) copy tftp flash\line C.) copy flash tftp\line D.) download flash\line E.) network\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 8, page 273-276\line The IOS is stored in flash. The command format is: copy [source] \line [destination]\line\line\line 85. Which command allows a user to see previous commands?\line A.) show command\line B.) CTRL-P\line C.) show history\line D.) CTRL-U\line E.) Up Arrow\line F.) SHIFT-CTRL-6\line\line The correct answer(s): B C E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 161\line CTL+P and Up Arrow walk you step by step through previous commands.\line Show History displays all the

commands in the history buffer.\line Router#show history\line en\line sh ru\line conf t\line show history\line configure terminal\line show version\line show interface bri 0\line show history\line Router#\line\line\line 86. Which command will display the IPX routing table?\line A.) show routes\line B.) show routes ipx\line C.) show routes protocol=ipx\line D.) show ipx\line E.) show ipx route\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 9, page 341\line Router#show ipx route\line Codes: C - Connected primary network, c Connected secondary network\line S - Static, F - Floating static, L - Local (internal), W - IPXWAN\line R - RIP, E - EIGRP, N - NLSP, X - External, A Aggregate\line 1 Total IPX routes. Up to 1 parallel paths and 16 hops allowed.\line C 1000 (NOVELL-ETHER), Et0\line\line\line 87. What is the correct command line syntax for configuring a port on a 7000 \line or 7500 series Cisco router with a VIP card?\line A.) port\line B.) port adapter/port\line C.) You can't put a VIP card in a 7000 or 7500 router.\line D.) slot/portadapter/port\line E.) slot/port\line F.) slot\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 167\line The VIP cards have a port adapter, so you must also specify them as well.\line The syntax for a VIP card is: 'Interface Serial SLOT/PORT-ADAPTER/PORT', \line where:\line Slot = The big linecard slot # in the 7500 chassis,\line Port-Adapter = The PA mini-card slot # inside the larger linecard slot,\line Port = The interface port # on the PA minicard.\line Imagine a larger slot (the linecard slot of the chassis) that in turn has \line two additional smaller slots for mini-cards (the VIP PA slots).\line\line\line 88. How do you view the routers current processor utilization?\line A.) show version\line B.) show processes cpu\line C.) show running-config\line D.) show startup-config\line E.) show cpu\line F.) show utilization\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 8, page 283\line Router#sh processes cpu\line CPU utilization for five seconds: 2%/2%; one minute: 1%; five minutes: 0%\line\line\line 89. Which command will enable debugging for IPX RIP updates?\line A.) debug ipx\line B.) debug ipx rip\line C.) debug ipx routing activity\line D.) debug rip\line E.) debug ipx packets\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 9, page 344\line Router#debug ipx routing activity\line IPX routing debugging is on\line Router#\line\line\line 90. There is an emergency fall-back 'skeleton' IOS stored in read only memory \line on all Cisco routers. What command would make the router load the IOS from \line Read Only Memory?\line A.) reload rom\line B.) boot system rom\line C.) load ios bootflash\line D.) load ios rom\line E.) bootsystem skeleton\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 8, page 277\line Router(config)#boot system ?\line WORD TFTP filename or URL\line flash Boot from flash memory\line mop Boot from a Decnet MOP server\line rcp Boot from a server via rcp\line rom Boot from rom\line tftp Boot from a tftp server\line\line\line 91. Which command would configure Interface E0 with an IP address of 12.23.4.5 \line using a Subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 ?\line A.) ip address 12.23.4.5 255.255.255.0\line B.) ip address 12.23.4.5 /24\line C.) ip address 12.23.4.5 mask 255.255.255.0\line D.) ip address 12.23.4.5 mask ff:ff:ff:0\line E.) that is an invalid mask for a class 'A' address\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 175\line You can change the way the mask is displayed (bitcount, decimal, hex) but \line you must enter the subnet mask in dotted decimal.\line Router(config-if)#ip address 12.23.4.5 ?\line A.B.C.D IP subnet mask\line\line 92. Which commands will restart the router?\line A.) system exit\line B.) reload\line C.) shutdown system\line D.) down\line E.) restart\line F.) system restart\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 163\line Router#?\line Exec commands: \line reload Halt and perform a cold restart\line Note: No other command listed above is a valid Cisco command.\line\line\line 93. How do you set the encapsulation type to PPP for an interface?\line A.) enable ppp\line B.) ppp ietf\line C.) encapsulation ppp\line D.) ppp cisco\line E.) ppp enable\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 410\line Router(config-if)#encapsulation ?\line ppp = Point-to-Point

protocol\line\line\line 94. Which Standard IP Access list commands will deny only the source address \line 1.1.1.1?\line A.) access-list 9 permit any\line B.) access-list 9 permit 1.1.1.1 255.255.255.0\line C.) access-list 9 deny 1.1.1.1 0.0.0.0\line D.) access-list 9 permit 1.1.1.1 0.255.255.255\line E.) access-list 9 deny 1.1.1.1 255.255.255.255\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 10, page 355-360\line A 0.0.0.0 wildcard mask means check every bit and make sure that it \line matches. For our example, the IP host address 1.1.1.1 is a specific \line address to check on the network. An alternative would be to use the IP \line network address and a special access-list wildcard mask to check an entire \line subnetwork.\line\line\line 95. Assume that you are editing a line of text on a Cisco router. What \line key-stroke combination would take you to the beginning of the line?\line A.) CTRL-B\line B.) CTRL-Z\line C.) CTRL-<space>\line D.) CTRL-A\line E.) CTRL-<up arrow>\line F.) CTRL-<right arrow>\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line CTRL-A = Takes you to the st(A)rt of the current line.\line CTRL-P = Takes you to the (P)revious command.\line CTRL-N = Takes you to the (N)ext command.\line\line\line 96. Which global configuration command will tell the router to load the IOS \line file 'IOS_filename' from FLASH memory at the next boot?\line A.) boot system rom\line B.) boot system flash IOS_filename\line C.) This can not be done, only the first file in flash can be used.\line D.) boot system tftp IOS_filename tftp_address\line E.) config-register 0x0\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 8, page 277\line Router(config)#boot system ?\line WORD TFTP filename or URL\line flash Boot from flash memory\line mop Boot from a Decnet MOP server\line rcp Boot from a server via rcp\line rom Boot from rom\line tftp Boot from a tftp server\line\line\line 97. Which command will display adjacent routers found by the Cisco Discovery \line Protocol?\line A.) show all\line B.) show OSPF adjacency\line C.) show ip route\line D.) show routers\line E.) show cdp neighbors\line F.) show ip routers\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 8, page 294\line Adjacent (physically next to) means the directly connected Neighbor as far \line as the command-line interface is concerned.\line\line 98. Which command line option will determine what traffic is interesting \line enough to establish a dialup connection?\line A.) dial-tone\line B.) dial-access\line C.) packet control protocol\line D.) dialer-list\line E.) ppp negotiation\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 392-393\line The interface command 'dialer-group 1' references the dialer list number.\line In turn, the dialer-list can reference (optionally) an access-list.\line Example: dialer-list 1 protocol ip permit\line\line\line 99. Which command switches from User mode to Privileged mode?\line A.) login\line B.) privilege\line C.) admin\line D.) enable\line E.) su\line F.) root\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 157\line Router>?\line Exec commands:\line enable Turn on privileged commands\line disable Turn off privileged commands\line\line\line 100. Extended IP access-lists (100199) can be used to control traffic. Which \line command listed below will permit smtp mail to only host 3.4.5.6 ?\line A.) It is not possible for SMTP traffic\line B.) access-list 102 permit tcp any host 3.4.5.6 eq smtp\line C.) access-list 101 deny ip any any lt 89\line D.) access-list 102 permit tcp any any eq smtp\line E.) This would require an IPX access list?\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 10, page 360-365\line Extended IP access lists can base decision criteria on certain protocols \line and ports.\line access-list 102 permit tcp [SOURCE] [DESTINATION] eq smtp\line\line\line 101. Which command-line keywords are valid for choosing Frame-Relay LMI types?\line A.) itu-t\line B.) dlci\line C.) ansi\line D.) rfc 1544\line E.) cisco\line F.) q933a\line\line The correct answer(s): C E F\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 404\line There are 3 supported FR LMI types: q933a, ansi, cisco\line There are 2 supported FR Encapsulation types: cisco, ietf\line In both cases, the pre-standard 'cisco' is the default.\line Router(config-if)#frame-relay lmi-type ?\line cisco\line ansi\line q933a\line\line\line 102. Which command will copy the routers

configuration from NVRAM to a Network \line file server?\line A.) write startupconfig running-config\line B.) tftp-copy enable\line C.) copy tftp runningconfig\line D.) copy running-config tftp\line E.) copy startup-config tftp\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 8, page 279\line The startup-config script is stored in NVRAM, and copied to RAM during \line boot.\line The router can load or save its configuration script (either the currently \line 'running' script from RAM or the saved 'startup' script from NVRAM) to or \line from a TFTP server.\line\line\line 103. Which command would assign and enable IPX on an interface ?\line A.) enable netware\line B.) enable novell-ether\line C.) enable novell\line D.) You must first enable IPX for that indivitual interface, and then \line assign the network number.\line E.) enable ipx\line F.) ipx network 4a\line\line The correct answer(s): F\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 9, page 333-335\line Router(config-if)#ipx network ?\line <1-FFFFFFFD> IPX network number (default route enabled)\line As soon as you press <ENTER>, two things have happened.\line 1.) You just enabled IPX processing for that interface, and\line 2.) You just assigned an IPX external network number for the default frame \line type.\line\line\line 104. I want to configure a serial interface on a 7500 with a VIP card. What \line global config command would give me access to a serial interface on a 7500?\line A.) int 1/0/0\line B.) int s 1/0/0\line C.) int s 1/1\line D.) int s0.1\line E.) int s1\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 167\line The syntax for a VIP card is: 'Interface Serial SLOT/PORTADAPTER/PORT', \line where:\line Slot = The big linecard slot # in the 7500 chassis,\line Port-Adapter = The PA mini-card slot # inside the larger linecard slot,\line Port = The interface port # on the PA mini-card.\line Imagine a larger slot (the linecard slot of the chassis) that in turn has \line two additional smaller slots for mini-cards (the VIP PA slots).\line\line\line 105. Which command will display Ethernet 0's IP address?\line A.) display ip address e0\line B.) show ip interface e0\line C.) show address e0\line D.) sh ip address e0\line E.) show all\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 163\line Router#show ip interface e0\line Ethernet0 is up, line protocol is up\line Internet address is 10.10.10.1/8\line\line 106. After the command -router igrp 200 -- what command would enable IGRP on \line the router for interface E0, with an address of 157.89.4.4 and a mask of \line 255.255.255.0 ?\line A.) network 157.89.4.0 255.255.255.1\line B.) network 157.89.0.0\line C.) router igrp *\line D.) router igrp 157.89.0.1\line E.) router igrp int e1\line F.) router igrp 157.89.4.1\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 7, page 254\line IGRP can only use the classful portion, which in this case is a class B, \line so we only enumerate the '157.89' part. All interfaces in that network \line will be processed. Example:\line Router(config)#router igrp 200\line Router(configrouter)#network ?\line A.B.C.D Network number\line\line\line 107. Which command do you use to set the Privileged mode password to \line 'clearwater'?\line A.) set password=clearwater\line B.) privilege password clearwater\line C.) enable password clearwater\line D.) login enable clearwater\line E.) password clearwater\line F.) login clearwater\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 164-165\line If there was a secret encrypted password, it would over-ride the normal \line privileged password. Example:\line Router(config)#enable ?\line password Assign the privileged level password\line secret Assign the privileged level secret\line\line\line 108. How would you set the clock rate to 64K, on interface serial 0, from the \line interface configuration mode?\line A.) clock rate 64000\line B.) bandwidth 64\line C.) clock 64\line D.) rate 64\line E.) clock rate 64k\line F.) clock rate 64\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 177-179\line Bandwidth is in Bits (64 = 64k)\line Clock Rate is in Kbits (64000 = 64k)\line\line\line 109. Given the following static route command, 'ip route 3.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 \line 4.4.4.4 125', which portion represents the administrative distance?\line A.) 3.3.3.0\line B.) 255.255.255.0\line C.)

4.4.4.4\line D.) route\line E.) 125\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 6, page 193\line Router(config)#ip route 3.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 4.4.4.4 ?\line <1-255> Distance metric for this route\line\line\line 110. What does the following line for an access list do? 'access-list 101 deny \line tcp 3.4.5.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 23'\line A.) deny all ftp traffic\line B.) deny all ftp traffic from subnet 3.4.5.0\line C.) deny all telnet traffic from subnet 3.4.5.0\line D.) deny all ftp traffic to subnet 3.4.5.0\line E.) deny all telnet traffic\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 10, page 360-365\line A wild card mask of 0.0.0.255 means that any host on subnet 3.4.5.0 \line matches.\line The extended access list is [Source] [Destination]\line So the source is [3.4.5.0 0.0.0.5] the destination is [any]\line Port 23 is telnet\line\line\line 111. Although Cisco IOS 11.3 and later can autodetect the LMI type in Frame \line Relay, which command will force the LMI type to q933a?\line A.) frame-relay lmi-type q933a\line B.) encapsulation framerelay q933a\line C.) don't need to, it is the default\line D.) encapsulation q933a\line E.) encapsulation frame-relay type=q933a\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 404\line Warning: The Cisco ICRC 11.3 book incorrectly states that a valid LMI-type \line is q933i.\line Router(config-if)#frame-relay lmi-type ?\line cisco\line ansi\line q933a\line\line\line 112. Which command can verify Application Layer connectivity between 2 hosts?\line A.) plp\line B.) arp\line C.) telnet\line D.) ping\line E.) traceroute\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 16\line Telnet tests the Application layer, ping tests the Network layer.\line\line\line 113. Scenario: You created 2 access-lists for controlling telnet about a year \line ago, and bound one of them to Serial 0. You can't remember which \line access-list you used. Which command lets you see all accesslists on \line Serial 0 for telnet?\line A.) show access-list\line B.) show ip int s0\line C.) show access-list telnet\line D.) show telnet access-list\line E.) show access-list s0\line F.) show int s0\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line To see which access-lists are bound to an interface, you must specifiy the \line protocol.\line Since these were for controlling telnet, and telnet uses IP, the correct \line answer can only be 'show ip int s0'\line show ip int s0\line show ipx int s0\line show appletalk int s0\line\line\line\line 114. Cisco routers can secure the enable password with a one-way hash \line algorithm. What command would encrypt the enable password with the strong \line encryption method?\line A.) enable encrypt john\line B.) password john\line C.) enable secret john\line D.) enable password john\line E.) secret john\line F.) enable password 5 john\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 5\line On current Cisco routers, there are two 'enable' password methods. One is \line to use the old 'enable' password method, which is very easy to crack. The \line newer 'Secret' method uses Message Digest 5 (MD5) encryption, and is very \line difficult to crack. If both 'Enable' and 'Secret' passwords exist, the \line 'Secret' will always be used and the 'Enable' will be ignored.\line\line\line 115. Which command will display the encapsulation type on interface serial 0?\line A.) show interface s0\line B.) show all\line C.) show int s0 encap\line D.) show encap s0\line E.) show encap\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 411\line Router#show int s0\line SERIAL0 is up, line protocol is up\line MTU 1500 bytes, BW 64 Kbit, DLY 20000 usec,\line reliablility 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255\line Encapsulation PPP, loopback not set\line\line\line 116. What command do you enter at the keyboard to begin a User mode session?\line A.) Type 'CTRL-U'\line B.) Type 'login'\line C.) Just press <ENTER>.\line D.) Type 'enable'\line E.) Press 'Shift + Ctrl + 6' at the same time.\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 5\line From the console port you just have to press the <ENTER> key to enter User \line mode.\line Once you are in User mode, you can enter the Enable mode by typing 'enable'\line Pressing 'Shift + Ctrl + 6' at the same time, and then 'X', is the Cisco \line break key sequence.\line\line 117. You want to set the console password to Boston. What would be the first \line command you need to execute from

global configuration mode?\line A.) line console 0\line B.) enable password boston\line C.) login password boston\line D.) set password=boston\line E.) password boston\line F.) login boston\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 5, page164-165\line You must first go to the Console, then use the command 'password boston'\line Router(config)#line console 0\line Router(config-line)#password boston\line Router(config-line)#\line\line 118. Which command displays the IPX SAP (Service Advertisement Protocol) table?\line A.) show ipx sap\line B.) show sap\line C.) show all\line D.) show ipx servers\line E.) show ipx\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 9, page 340\line Router#show ipx servers\line Codes: S - Static, P - Periodic, E - EIGRP, N - NLSP, H - Holddown, + = \line detail U - Per-user static\line Type Name Net Address Port Route Hops Itf\line S 4 FileServ 1000.0000.0c12.3456:0451 conn 3 Et0\line Router#\line\line\line 119. Which command will display the current time on a Cisco router?\line A.) date\line B.) show clock\line C.) time\line D.) show time\line E.) show date\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chatper 5, page 159\line Router#show clock\line 10:23:08.062 UTC Sat Mar 13 1993\line Router#\line\line\line 120. The default routing protocol for IPX is IPX RIP. How do you view the \line routing updates sent and received by the router?\line A.) show ipx routing default\line B.) debug ipx routing activity\line C.) debug rip\line D.) show ipx routing\line E.) sh ipx\line F.) debug ipx rip\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 9, page 344\line For IPX : debug ipx routing activity\line For IP: debug ip rip\line Router#debug ipx routing activity\line IPX routing debugging is on\line\line\line 121. Using the access-list command, 'access-list 1 deny 2.2.2.2', what else \line must be done to stop host 2.2.2.2 from sending any traffic out of physical \line interface E0, while still allowing other traffic?\line A.) In global mode, Add a line - 'access-list 1 permit 0.0.0.0 \line 255.255.255.255'\line B.) On interface E0, Add a line - 'access-group 1 in'\line C.) In global mode, Add a line - 'access-list 1 permit all'\line D.) On interface E0, Add a line - 'access-list 1 in'\line E.) On interface E0, Add a line - 'access-list 1 out'\line F.) On interface E0, Add a line - 'ip access-group 1'\line\line The correct answer(s): A F\line There is an implicit deny all at the end of every access list.\line You need to add a line to permit other traffic, which can be done one of \line two ways:\line ---------------------------\line 'access-list 1 permit any'\line or,\line 'access-list 1 permt 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255'\line ---------------------------\line You must bind the access list to the interface with the access-group \line command. Note that the default access-list direction is outbound.\line\line\line 122. Which command do you use to set the Secret password to 'clearwater'?\line A.) login enable clearwater\line B.) password clearwater\line C.) privilege password clearwater\line D.) set secret=clearwater\line E.) secret login clearwater\line F.) enable secret clearwater\line\line The correct answer(s): F\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 164-165\line The highly encrypted Secret password will over-ride the normal privileged \line password.\line Router(config)#enable ?\line password Assign the privileged level password\line secret Assign the privileged level secret\line\line\line 123. How do you find the parameters that you can use with the SHOW command?\line A.) ? SHOW\line B.) SHOW ?\line C.) DEBUG SHOW\line D.) HELP\line E.) SH?\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 158-159\line Router>show ?\line clock Display the system clock\line dial-peer Dial Plan Mapping Table for POTS Peers\line dialer Dialer parameters and statistics\line flash: display information about flash: file system\line history Display the session command history\line\'85 etc \'85\line\line\line 124. Which command would show all Ethernet interfaces with IPX configured on \line them?\line A.) show interface ipx ethernet\line B.) show ipx interface\line C.) show ipx interface ethernet \line D.) show ipx\line E.) show version\line F.) show interface ethernet ipx\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 9, page 343\line Use 'show ipx interface' to show all interfaces configured for IPX.\line The command 'show ipx interface

ethernet' is lacking the specific \line interface number, and if it were present, would only show IPX information \line for that one interface.\line Router#show ipx interface ethernet ?\line <0-1> Ethernet interface number\line\line\line 125. If you have configured IPX on a Serial interface, which command would \line display the IPX network and node address on the Serial 1 interface?\line A.) show interface\line B.) show ipx s1\line C.) show interface s1\line D.) show ipx int serial 1\line E.) show ipx int brief\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 9, page 340-345\line 'show ipx int serial 1' is the only one command that displays both the IPX \line NETWORK and NODE address.\line\line\line 126. Which command line statement determines the number of seconds a dialup \line connection can wait without any traffic before the router hangs up?\line A.) time null\line B.) hang-up time\line C.) dialer idletimeout\line D.) dialer hang-up\line E.) deadtime\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 392-393\line Router(configif)#dialer idle-timeout ?\line <1-2147483> Idle timeout before disconnecting a call (in seconds)\line\line\line 127. The Cisco Catalyst 5000 switch supports full duplex. How would you enable \line it on the second port of the card in slot 1?\line A.) set port duplex 1/2 full\line B.) set port full duplex 0/2\line C.) set port duplex\line D.) port duplex = full\line E.) set port 1/2 full\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 167\line Catalyst port-specific commands are issued in the SLOT/PORT format.\line\line\line 128. Which command will enable CHAP authentication on a serial interface that \line is using PPP?\line A.) encapsulation chap\line B.) ppp chap\line C.) ppp enable chap\line D.) ppp encapsulation chap\line E.) ppp authentication chap\line F.) ppp chap enable\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 410\line Router(config-if)#ppp authentication ?\line chap Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)\line pap Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)\line\line\line\line 129. From Enable mode, a user types the letter 'C' and presses enter. There is \line more than 1 command that starts with 'C'. What message would the router \line return?\line A.) Nothing would be returned, the command is simply ignored.\line B.) A list of all commands that start with 'C'.\line C.) Ambiguous Command.\line D.) Copy to?\line E.) Configured console from console.\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 159\line Router#c\line % Ambiguous command: 'c'\line Router#\line When more than a single command have beginning letters in common, you must \line type enough to e unique. The exception is for 'aliases'.\line\line\line 130. You want a message to be displayed every time someone tries to log on to \line the router. Which command is required to accomplish this task?\line A.) show\line B.) message\line C.) banner motd\line D.) display\line E.) send\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 165-166\line Router(config)#banner ?\line motd Set Message of the Day banner\line\line\line 131. You create the following standard accesslist (please scroll down):\line ----------------------------------------\line access-list 1 deny 1.1.1.1\line access-list 1 deny 2.2.2.2\line int e0\line ip access-group 1 in\line ----------------------------------------\line Which of the following statements are true, with regard to traffic flowing \line into E0?\line A.) This will stop IP packets with a source address of 1.1.1.1 only.\line B.) This will stop all IP packets.\line C.) This is an invalid configuration.\line D.) This will stop no IP packets.\line E.) This will stop IP packets with a source address of 2.2.2.2 only.\line F.) This will stop IP packets with a source address of 1.1.1.1 and 2.2.2.2.\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line This is a trick question.\line IMPLICIT DENY ALL is at the end of every access-list.\line It never makes sense to have an access-list with only DENIES in it!\line\line\line 132. The command 'Debug IP Rip' will do which of the following?\line A.) Show Neighbor Info.\line B.) Display RIP routing updates.\line C.) Show routing table changes.\line D.) Show all IP traffic.\line E.) This is not a valid router command.\line F.) Cause the router to respond with 'Ambiguous command'\line\line The correct answer(s):

B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 7, page 251-252\line Router#debug ip rip\line RIP protocol debugging is on\line Router#\line\line\line 133. You would like to have a notation that when a user issues the command \line 'show interface serial 0', a line is displayed indicating that, 'This is \line the connection to Corporate.' What interface command would accomplish this?\line A.) You must use the motd command.\line B.) interface This is the connection to Corporate.\line C.) This cannot be done for an individual interface.\line D.) description This is the connection to Corporate.\line E.) banner This is the connection to Corporate.\line F.) display This is the connection to Corporate.\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 167\line Router(configif)#description ?\line LINE Up to 80 characters describing this interface\line\line\line 134. What command would show the version of the IOS that you are running?\line A.) show nvram\line B.) show version\line C.) show startupconfig\line D.) show ios\line E.) ver -a\line F.) show ram\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 8, page 281-282\line Router#show version\line Cisco Internetwork Operating System Software\line IOS (tm) C800 Software (C800-G3N-MW), Version 12.0(1)XB1\line\line\line 135. When editing a line in the CLI mode, what does 'CTRL-A' do?\line A.) Moves you to the previous command.\line B.) Moves you to the next word.\line C.) Moves you to the end of the line.\line D.) Moves you to the next command.\line E.) Moves you to the beginning of the line.\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 161\line There are many Command Line Interface shortcuts.\line CTL-A jumps to the beginning of the line.\line CTL-E jumps to the end of the line.\line\line\line 136. When a router knows the IP address, but does not know the MAC address of \line the device it wishes to contact, it uses the ARP (Address resolution \line protocol) to determine the MAC address. After it learns the MAC address, \line it stores this information in the ARP cache. What is the command to view \line the ARP cache?\line A.) sh mac\line B.) show cache\line C.) show arp\line D.) sh arp interfaces\line E.) show ip cache\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 3, page 100-107\line Home#sh arp\line Protocol Address Age (min) Hardware Addr Type Interface\line Internet 10.0.0.3 3 0040.0526.d7ee ARPA Ethernet0\line Internet 10.0.0.1 0 0000.861d.d47e ARPA Ethernet0\line Internet 10.10.10.1 - 0050.7307.c70b ARPA Ethernet0\line\line\line 137. Which command can verify only Network layer connectivity between 2 hosts?\line A.) ping\line B.) e-mail\line C.) plp\line D.) arp\line E.) telnet\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 25-29\line Telnet tests the Application layer, ping tests the Network layer.\line\line\line 138. What would be the first command from global configuration mode to enable \line RIP on your router for interface E0, with an address of 157.89.4.4 and \line mask of 255.255.255.0 ?\line A.) router rip\line B.) network 157.89.4.0 255.255.255.0\line C.) router rip int e0\line D.) router rip 157.89.0.0\line E.) router rip 157.89.4.0\line F.) network 157.89.0.0\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 7, page 237\line You must specify the routing protocol and/or AS# BEFORE any network \line statement.\line Router(config)#router rip\line Router(configrouter)#network ?\line A.B.C.D Network number\line\line\line 139. Which command would you type to show SAP and RIP updates you are receiving \line on an interface?\line A.) sh ipx servers\line B.) sh ipx traffic\line C.) sh ipx interface\line D.) sh ipx route\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line\line THEORY\line\line What is the default IPX Ethernet encapsulation?\line A.) SNAP\line B.) Arpa\line C.) 802.2\line D.) Novell-Ether\line E.) SAP\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Novell-ether is the default LAN encapsulation. Novellether is 802.3.\line\line\line 140. What must be true for two Routers running IGRP to communicate their routes?\line A.) Same autonomous system number\line B.) Connected using Ethernet only\line C.) Use composite metric\line D.) Configured for PPP\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line For two routers to exchange IGRP routes they must be configured with the \line same autonomous system number.\line\line\line 141. The following is partial output from a routing table,

identify the 2 \line numbers in the square brackets; '192.168.10.0 [100/1300] via 10.1.0.1, \line 00:00:23, Ethernet1'\line A.) 100 = metric, 1300 = administrative distance\line B.) 100 = administrative distance, 1300 = hop count\line C.) 100 = administrative distance, 1300 = metric\line D.) 100 = hop count, 1300 = metric\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line The first number is the Administrative distance and the seconds number is \line the metric. In this case it is an IGRP metric.\line\line 142. Identify 3 methods used to prevent routing loops?\line A.) Split horizon\line B.) Holddown timers\line C.) Poison reverse\line D.) SPF algorithm\line E.) LSP's\line\line The correct answer(s): A B C\line Routing loops can be prevented by split horizon, poison reverse and \line holddown times. The other two choices relate to Link State.\line\line\line 143. Which statement is true regarding full duplex?\line A.) Allows for transmission and receiving of data simultaneously\line B.) Only works in a multipoint configuration\line C.) Does not affect the bandwidth\line D.) Allows for transmission and receiving of data but not at the same time\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Full duplex is just the opposite of half duplex. It handles traffice in \line both directions simultaneously.\line\line\line 144. Identify the switching method that receives the entire frame then \line dispatches it?\line A.) Cut-through\line B.) Receive and forward\line C.) Store and forward\line D.) Fast forward\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Store and forward switching receives the entire frame before dispatching \line it.\line\line\line 145. Identify the purpose of ICMP?\line A.) Avoiding routing loops\line B.) Send error and control messages\line C.) Transporting routing updates\line D.) Collision detection\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line ICMP is used to send error and control messages. Ping uses ICMP to carry \line the echo-request and echoreply.\line\line\line 146. Which statement is true regarding the user exec and privileged exec mode?\line A.) The '?' only works in Privileged exec\line B.) They are identical\line C.) They both require the enable password\line D.) User exec is a subset of the privileged exec\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line The user exec mode is a subset of the privileged exec mode. Only a certain \line number of commands are available at the user exec mode.\line\line 147. Which OSI layer defines end to end communication, segmentation and re-assembly?\line A.) Network\line B.) Transport\line C.) Physical\line D.) Application\line E.) DataLink\line F.) Presentation\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Layer 4 the Transport layer performs this function.\line\line\line 148. What IP command would you use to test the entire IP stack?\line A.) Stack-test\line B.) Arp\line C.) Telnet\line D.) Ping\line E.) Trace\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Because Telnet is an application and it resides at the top of the stack it \line traverses down the stack and up the stack at the receiving end.\line\line\line 149. Identify the 2 hardware components used to manage and/or configure a \line router?\line A.) Auxiliary port\line B.) ROM port\line C.) Management port\line D.) Console port\line\line The correct answer(s): A D\line The 2 hardware ports used to configure the router are the console and \line auxiliary ports.\line\line\line 150. What is the default bandwidth of a serial connection?\line A.) 1200 baud\line B.) 1.544 Mbps (T1)\line C.) 10 Mbps\line D.) 96Kpbs\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line The default bandwidth is T1.\line\line\line 151. Identify 2 functions of IPX access-lists?\line A.) Control SAP traffic\line B.) Limit number of Novell servers on a network\line C.) Limit number of workstations on a network\line D.) Block IPX traffic\line\line The correct answer(s): A D\line IPX access lists are used to restrict IPX traffic and SAP broadcasts.\line\line\line 152. Identify 2 HDLC characteristics?\line A.) Default serial encapsulation\line B.) Open standard\line C.) Supports Stacker compression\line D.) Supports point-to-point and multipoint\line\line The correct answer(s): A D\line HDLC is the default serial encapsulation and supports pointto-point and \line multipoint. It is not an open standard and does not support compression.\line\line\line 153. Identify 3 IP applications?\line A.) AURP\line B.) ARP\line C.) Telnet\line D.) SMTP\line E.) DNS\line F.) RARP\line\line The correct answer(s): C D E\line ARP and AURP are not part the application layer of

the TCP/IP stack. SMTP \line - Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, Telnet, DNS - Domain Name Services (name \line to IP resolution).\line\line\line 154. Identify 3 LAN technologies?\line A.) FDDI\line B.) HDLC\line C.) HSSI\line D.) X.25\line E.) 802.3\line F.) 802.5\line\line The correct answer(s): A E F\line The question is asking for 3 LAN technologies, HDLC, HSSI and X.25 are all \line WAN technologies.\line\line\line 155. Identify the 4 that are not LAN technologies?\line A.) HDLC\line B.) FDDI\line C.) 802.5\line D.) HSSI\line E.) SDLC\line F.) Frame Relay\line\line The correct answer(s): A D E F\line 802.5 and FDDI are LAN technologies\line\line\line 156. Which OSI layer supports the communication component of an application?\line A.) Data-Link\line B.) Physical\line C.) Session\line D.) Presentation\line E.) Application\line F.) Transport\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line Layer 7 the Application layer performs this function.\line\line\line 157. Identify the length of an IPX address and it's components?\line A.) 80 bits, 48 bits network and 32 bits node\line B.) 32 bits, 16 bits network and 16 bits node\line C.) None of the above\line D.) 80 bits, 32 bits network and 48 bits node\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line IPX address has 2 components; network and node. The network address is 32 \line bits and the node is 48 bits, total of 80 bits.\line\line\line 158. Identify the administrative distance and appropriate routing protocol?\line A.) RIP = 255, IGRP = 100\line B.) RIP = 100, IGRP = 120\line C.) RIP = 1, IGRP = 0\line D.) RIP = 120, IGRP = 100\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line The administrative distance for RIP is 120 and IGRP is 100. The lower the \line AD the better the routing information.\line\line\line 159. Which OSI layer incorporates the MAC address and the LLC?\line A.) Data link\line B.) Network\line C.) Physcial\line D.) Transport\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Layer 2 the Data-Link layer incorporates the MAC and LLC sublayers\line\line\line\line 160. If configuring a Cisco router to connect to a non-Cisco router across a \line Frame Relay network, which encapsulation type would you select?\line A.) Q933a\line B.) ISDN\line C.) IETF\line D.) CISCO\line E.) ANSI\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line There are two types of Frame Relay encapsulations; Cisco and IETF. IETF is \line required when connecting a Cisco to a non-Cisco router.\line\line\line 161. Identify the 2 items that TCP and UDP share in common?\line A.) Both use port numbers to identify upper level applications\line B.) Operate at the Network layer\line C.) Both are Transport protocols\line D.) Both are reliable communications\line\line The correct answer(s): A C\line TCP and UPD are both layer 4 Tranport protocols and both use port number \line to identify upper level applications.\line\line\line 162. Identify 3 characteristics of IP RIP?\line A.) Distance vector\line B.) Administrative distance is 120\line C.) Periodic updates every 60 seconds\line D.) Uses a composite metric\line E.) Can load balance\line\line The correct answer(s): A B E\line IP RIP is a distance vector protocol, it can load balance up to 4 equal \line cost paths and it's rating of trustworthiness is 120.\line\line 163. Which of the following is a layer 2 device?\line A.) Switch\line B.) Router\line C.) Repeater\line D.) Hub\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line A Hub and Repeater are layer 1 devices. A Router is a layer 3 device.\line\line 164. Identify the definition of demarcation?\line A.) Date in which the WAN service contract expires\line B.) Cabling which extends from the WAN service provider to the customer\line C.) Division of responsibility, where the CPE ends and the local loop \line begins\line D.) Equipment which is located at the customer premises\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Demarcation is the point in which repsonsibility changes hands.\line\line\line 165. Identify the 3 key features of the Cisco Discovery Protocol?\line A.) Off by default\line B.) Will allow for the discovery of layer 3 addresses on neighbor routers\line C.) Verify connectivity\line D.) Open standard\line E.) Does not require any layer 3 protocols to be configured\line\line The correct answer(s): B C E\line CDP is used for 2 basic reasons; neighbor connectivity and layer 3 \line discovery if configured. It is proprietary and is on by default.\line\line\line 166. Identify the 3 characteristics of IPX RIP?\line A.) Distance vector\line B.) Does not support multiple paths\line C.) 60 second updates\line D.) Default

encapsulation is SAP\line E.) Uses ticks and hop count as a metric\line\line The correct answer(s): A C E\line IPX RIP is a distance vector routing protocol, it does support multiple \line paths, the default encapsulation is 'novell-ether', it uses tick count as \line a primary metric and hop count as a tie breaker and it sends it\rquote s updates \line every 60 seconds.\line\line\line 167. Identify the access-list range for an extended IP access-list?\line A.) 800 - 899\line B.) 1 99\line C.) 1000 - 1099\line D.) 100 - 199\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line IP extened access-lists use the number range of 100-199.\line\line\line 168. Identify the X.25 addressing standard?\line A.) X.121\line B.) X.25a\line C.) ITU1\line D.) Q933a\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line The X.25 layer 3 addressing standards is X.121.\line\line\line 169. Identify 3 features of IGRP?\line A.) Composite metric\line B.) New horizon\line C.) Flash (triggered) updates\line D.) 60-second periodic updates\line E.) Poison reverse\line\line The correct answer(s): A C E\line IGRP uses a composite metric made up of bandwidth and delay by default, it \line updates every 60 seconds and will trigger an update if the topology \line changes.\line\line\line 170. Where is the backup configuration file stored?\line A.) RAM\line B.) ROM\line C.) Console\line D.) NVRAM\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line One location to store the backup configuration is NVRAM.\line\line\line 171. Identify the correct pair of Novell Ethernet encapsulation and Cisco \line terminology?\line A.) Ethernet II, Snap\line B.) Ethernet 802.3, Novell-Ether\line C.) Ethernet SNAP, Arpa\line D.) Ethernet 802.2, Snap\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line The default IPX LAN encapsulation is Novell-Ether which is 802.3\line\line\line 172. Identify 3 characteristics regarding IP access-lists?\line A.) Can be configured as a standard access-list\line B.) Can be run from another router running IP\line C.) Can be configured as a named access-list\line D.) Are the same as IPX accesslists\line E.) Can be configured as an extended access-list\line\line The correct answer(s): A C E\line There are 3 types of IP access-lists; standard, extended and named. Named \line access-lists can be either standard or extended depending on how they are \line configured.\line\line\line 173. Identify 3 ways in which a router can be configured?\line A.) TFTP\line B.) Nvram\line C.) Ping\line D.) Console\line E.) Trace\line\line The correct answer(s): A B D\line Changes to the configuration can be entered via the console, a config \line stored in NVRAM or on a TFTP server. Trace and ping are tools to verify \line connectivity.\line\line\line 174. A traffic light is an example of what type of mechanism?\line A.) Collision detection\line B.) Flow control\line C.) Sequence numbering\line D.) Network management\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line A Traffice light is an example of flow control.\line\line\line 175. Windowing is a type of?\line A.) Negative acknowledgement\line B.) Address resolution\line C.) Layer transition mechanism\line D.) Flow control\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Windowing allow the sender and receiver to dictate how much information \line that can be received prior to an acknowledgement. It is a form of flow \line control.\line\line\line 176. Identify the 2 types of access-list filters that control SAP traffic?\line A.) Novell-ether\line B.) Arpa\line C.) Input-sapfilter\line D.) Round-robin\line E.) Output-sap-filter\line\line The correct answer(s): C E\line SAP's can be blocked by 2 methods; inbound and outbound.\line\line\line 177. Identify the 3 guidelines for routers in the same autonomous system?\line A.) Must be configured for IGRP or RIP\line B.) Interconnected\line C.) Assigned the same autonomous system number\line D.) Configured for the same routing protocol\line E.) Must be same model of router\line\line The correct answer(s): B C D\line Autonomous system must be interconnected, assigned the same AS # and \line configured with the same routing protocol.\line\line\line 178. Identify the hardware component used to store buffers, tables, \line running-configuration etc?\line A.) NVRAM\line B.) ROM\line C.) RAM\line D.) Flash\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line RAM is the dynamic memory area. ROM contains the boot strap code, NVRAM \line contains the startupconfig and Flash contains the IOS.\line\line\line 179. Identify 3 UDP characteristics?\line A.) Reliable communication protocol\line B.) Applications

that use UDP must incorporate reliability\line C.) Connnection-less oriented\line D.) Incorporates no handshaking\line\line The correct answer(s): B C D\line UPD is a layer 4 Transport protocol. It is connection-less because it does \line establish a connection therefore the 3 step handshake is not needed, it \line does NOT implement any flow control or acknowledgments. Any application \line that uses UDP must incorporate any needed reliability.\line\line\line 180. Identify the IPX standard access-list number range?\line A.) 600 - 699\line B.) 1000 - 1099\line C.) 1 - 99\line D.) 100 - 199\line E.) 800 - 899\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line IPX standard access-list range is 800-899.\line\line\line 181. Which OSI layer provides best effort end to end packet delivery?\line A.) Data-Link\line B.) Presentation\line C.) Network\line D.) Transport\line E.) Physical\line F.) Application\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Layer 3 the Network layer performs this function.\line\line\line 182. Identify the 2 methods to modify the routers boot sequence?\line A.) Setup program\line B.) Boot system commands\line C.) RXBoot\line D.) Config-register\line\line The correct answer(s): B D\line 'Boot system' command the the 'config-register' are used to manipulate the \line boot sequence.\line\line\line 183. Identify the 3 pieces of hardware you would not install to prevent \line broadcasts?\line A.) Switch\line B.) Repeater\line C.) Bridge\line D.) Router\line\line The correct answer(s): A B C\line Router are implemented not only to break up networks into smaller segments \line but they are used to block broadcasts.\line\line\line 184. Identify 2 features of PPP PAP authentication?\line A.) Username and password is sent in clear text\line B.) Authentication messages are sent periodically during the connection\line C.) More secure than CHAP\line D.) Remote node is control of authentication process\line\line The correct answer(s): A D\line PPP PAP authentication sends the username and passwords in clear text and \line the remote node initiates the authentication process.\line\line\line 185. Identify the switching method that examines the destination MAC address as \line the frame is being received then begins forwarding the frame prior to \line receiving the entire frame?\line A.) Fragment-free\line B.) Store and Forward\line C.) Cutthrough\line D.) Fast forward\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Cut through examines the destination MAC address and begins forwarding the \line frame prior to receiving the entire frame.\line\line\line 186. Identify 1 characteristic of RARP?\line A.) IP to MAC address translation\line B.) Connectionless delivery of packets\line C.) Can be used to initiate remote O/S load sequence\line D.) Generates error and control messages\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Reverse Address Resolution Protocol is used to obtain a layer 3 address if \line the MAC address is known which then facilitates the loading of the O/S.\line\line\line 187. Identify the protocol to test connectivity without configuring any layer 3 \line protocols?\line A.) TCP\line B.) Ping\line C.) IP\line D.) CDP\line E.) Telnet\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line CDP can be used to verify connnectivity prior to any layer 3 protocols \line being configured.\line\line\line 188. LMI operates between the Frame Switch and what other device?\line A.) CPE device\line B.) Another Frame Switch\line C.) X.25 switch\line D.) Novell File Server\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line LMI stands for local management interface. It operates between the Frame \line Relay switch and the customer equipment.\line\line\line 189. Identify IPX SAP and it's purpose?\line A.) Sonet Access Pipe - interface to Sonet ring\line B.) Service Advertising Protocol - advertise services\line C.) Server Appletalk Protocol appletalk directory services\line D.) Service Access Point - identify upper layer protocols\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line SAP is an Novell protocol to advertise services.\line\line\line 190. Identify the default values that make up IGRP's composite metric?\line A.) Bandwidth\line B.) Load\line C.) Reliability\line D.) MTU\line E.) Delay\line\line The correct answer(s): A E\line IGRP can be configured to use all 5 within it's metric. By default it uses \line bandwidth and delay.\line\line\line 191. Identify the default serial encapsulation?\line A.) ISDN\line B.) HDLC\line C.) SDLC\line D.) Frame Relay\line E.) PPP\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line The default serial encapsulation

is HDLC.\line\line\line 192. Identify the purpose of ARP?\line A.) Avoiding routing loops\line B.) Determining a workstation's IP address\line C.) Sending a directed broadcast\line D.) Determining a workstation's MAC address\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line ARP is used to find a devices MAC address given an IP address.\line\line\line 193. What is the purpose of the DLCI?\line A.) Identifies the remote routers\line B.) Contained with a 802.2 frame for routing purposes\line C.) Used with PPP during authentication\line D.) Identifies the PVC in a Frame Relay network\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line DLCI stands for Data Link Connection Identifier. It identifies the local \line PVC.\line\line\line 194. Identify 3 characteristics of the Network layer (OSI layer 3)?\line A.) Connnection oriented\line B.) Path determination\line C.) Supports multiplexing\line D.) Manages sessions\line E.) Packet forwarding\line\line The correct answer(s): B C E\line The network layer is respsonible for routing which entails learning the \line paths, selecting the best path and forwarding the packet. Because it \line services multiple layer 4 protocols is multiplexes.\line\line\line 195. Identify 3 characteristics of switches?\line A.) Increase available bandwidth\line B.) Decrease broadcast traffic\line C.) Support full duplex in a multipoint topology\line D.) Make fowarding decision using MAC address\line E.) Create collision domains\line\line The correct answer(s): A D E\line Switches operate at layer 2. They increase bandwidth by reducing the \line number of devics sharing the media. They isolate collisions. Like a bridge \line they forward traffice based upon layer 2 address/ MAC address.\line\line\line 196. Which OSI layer handles physical address, network topology?\line A.) Presentation\line B.) Physical\line C.) Transport\line D.) Application\line E.) Data-Link\line F.) Network\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line Layer 2 the Data-Link layer performs this function.\line\line\line 197. Identify 2 reasons for disabling CDP?\line A.) If the router is not configured for RIP\line B.) Save bandwidth by eliminating overhead\line C.) If the router is configured for Appletalk\line D.) When connected to a non-Cisco router\line\line The correct answer(s): B D\line CDP can be disabled here are a couple of reasons. Connecting a Cisco \line router to a non-Cisco router. Don't want to exchange CDP information to \line save bandwidth.\line\line\line\line 198. Identify 3 characteristics of ISDN?\line A.) Transports voice and data\line B.) Transports voice only\line C.) Support both BRI and PRI\line D.) Runs over existing phone lines\line E.) Same as X.25\line\line The correct answer(s): A C D\line ISDN supports voice, data, and video. It runs over existing phone lines \line and supports 128K (BRI) and T1 (PRI).\line\line\line 199. Identify the 3 characteristics of IGRP?\line A.) Uses hop count as a metric\line B.) Supports multiple unequal paths\line C.) Administrative distance is 100\line D.) Configured with an Automous system number\line E.) Link state\line\line The correct answer(s): B C D\line IGRP is a distance vector routing protocol, it's degree of trustworthiness \line is 100, it can support up to 6 un-equal paths and must be configured with \line an automous system number.\line\line\line 200. Identify 2 features of PPP CHAP authentication?\line A.) Username and password is sent in clear text\line B.) Authentication messages are sent periodically during the connection\line C.) Less secure then PAP\line D.) Local router 'challenges' the remote router\line\line The correct answer(s): B D\line PPP CHAP authentication message are sent periodically during the \line connection by challenging the other end of the connection.\line It is more secure than PAP and passwords and username are encrypted.\line\line\line 201. Identify the default IPX serial encapsulation?\line A.) Novell-Ether\line B.) SDLC\line C.) SNAP\line D.) HDLC\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line The default IPX serial encapsultion is HDLC.\line\line\line 202. Identify the hardware component that stores the backup configuration?\line A.) RAM\line B.) NVRAM\line C.) Flash\line D.) ROM\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line NVRAM contains the backup config. RAM is the dynamic memory area, ROM \line contains the boot strap code and Flash contains the IOS.\line\line\line 203. Identify the extended IP access-list number range?\line A.) 600 - 699\line B.) 1 99\line C.) 900 - 999\line D.) 100 - 199\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line

The extended IP access-list range is 100-199.\line\line\line 204. Identify 3 Fast Ethernet technologies?\line A.) 100 Base FastEther\line B.) 100 Base FX\line C.) 100 Base T4\line D.) 100 Base TX\line\line The correct answer(s): B C D\line 100 BaseFastEther is false. 100 Base FX, TX and T4 are all valid.\line\line\line 205. Identify the OSI layer which is responsible for end-to-end connections?\line A.) Network\line B.) Transport\line C.) Session\line D.) Data link\line E.) TCP\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Layer 4 is the Transport layer and is responsible for end-to-end \line connections.\line\line\line 206. Identify the 2 characteristics regarding MAC addresses?\line A.) Contains a network portion and host portion\line B.) Always assigned by System Administrator\line C.) 48 bits long\line D.) Contains a vendor code and serial number\line\line The correct answer(s): C D\line MAC addresses are assigned by the vendor. Each MAC address is 48 bits long \line and made up of 24 bits vendor code and 24 bits serial number.\line\line\line 207. Identify the number range for IPX SAP filters?\line A.) 900 - 999\line B.) 1000 - 1099\line C.) 800 -899\line D.) 100 - 199\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line The IPX SAP filtering range is 10001099.\line\line\line 208. What is the purpose of ARP?\line A.) IP to host name resolution\line B.) Host name to IP address resolution\line C.) Mac to IP address resolution\line D.) IP to Mac address resolution\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Address Resolution Protocol resolves the MAC address if the IP address is \line known. It is a layer 3 protocol.\line\line\line 209. Which OSI layer establishes, maintains and terminates sessions between \line hosts?\line A.) Application\line B.) Physical\line C.) Data-Link\line D.) Presentation\line E.) Network\line F.) Session\line\line The correct answer(s): F\line Layer 5 the Session layer performs this function.\line\line\line 210. Which statement is true regarding Administrative distance?\line A.) It is a metric\line B.) Number of hops between two routers\line C.) Trustworthiness of the routing information\line D.) RIP Administrative distance is 100\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Administrative distance is rating of trustworthiness of the routing \line information. The lower the AD the better the information.\line\line\line 211. Identify the purpose of the Ping command?\line A.) Share routing information with a neighbor router\line B.) Transmit user data when buffers are full\line C.) Test connectivity at layer 3\line D.) Test entire protocol stack\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line The ping command tests layer 3 connectivity.\line\line\line 212. Identify the order of the 5 step encapsulation?\line 1. Create the segment \line 2. Convert the frame to bits \line 3. Create the packet \line 4. Create the frame \line 5. User creates the data\line A.) 1,2,4,2,5\line B.) 2,1,3,4,5\line C.) 5,1,3,4,2\line D.) 5,3,4,1,2\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Cisco 5 step encapsulation. \line 1) User creates Data\line 2) Data is converted into a segment at layer 4\line 3) The segment is converted to packet at layer 3\line 4) The packet it converted into a frame at layer 2\line 5) The frame is converted into bits at layer 1\line\line\line 213. The Cisco IOS is stored where?\line A.) ROM\line B.) CD\line C.) Flash\line D.) NVRAM\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line By default the Cisco IOS is stored in flash.\line\line\line 214. Sequence and acknowledgement numbers are used for?\line A.) Layer transitioning\line B.) Flow control\line C.) Port number addressing\line D.) Reliability\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line TCP uses sequence numbers and acknowledgements to implement reliability.\line\line\line 215. Identify IPX GNS and it's purpose?\line A.) Go Network Server - sends a print job to a network server\line B.) Get Nearest Server - locate the nearest server\line C.) Guaranteed Network Services - allocates resources to users\line D.) Get Notes Server - locates Domino Server\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line GNS stands for Get Nearest Server, initiated by a workstation.\line\line\line 216. Identify the true statement regarding subnetting?\line A.) Allows for more host address\line B.) Borrow bits from the network portion of the address\line C.) Allows for unlimited number of networks\line D.) Borrow bits from the host portion of the address\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Subnetting involves borrowing bits for the host portion

of the address to \line be used to subnet addressing.\line\line\line 217. Inverse ARP serves what purpose?\line A.) Method for a local router to introduce itself to the remote end of the \line connection\line B.) Broadcast a routing table update\line C.) Identify MAC addresses if the IP address is known\line D.) Sent every 10 seconds used to verify the Frame Switch is still active\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Inverse ARP operates in a Frame Relay network so the two end points can \line identify themselves to each other.\line\line\line 218. Identify 3 characteristics of a MAC address?\line A.) Burned into the NIC\line B.) 48 bits long\line C.) Length is 32 bits\line D.) Used to deliver the frame to the end device\line E.) Contains a network portion and a host portion\line\line The correct answer(s): A B D\line The MAC address is 48 bits long not 32. It does NOT contain a network and \line host portion with the address. It is used to deliver the frame to the \line destination device.\line\line 219. Identify 3 IP routing protocols?\line\line A.) RIP\line B.) AURP\line C.) OSPF\line D.) IGRP\line E.) ARP\line F.) ICMP\line\line The correct answer(s): A C D\line AURP and ICMP are not routing protocols.\line\line\line 220. Identify the type of routing protocol that exchanges entire routing tables \line at regular intervals?\line A.) Link state\line B.) Interior gateway protocols\line C.) Appletalk routing\line D.) Distance vector\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Distance Vector routing protocols exchange entire routing tables with it's \line neighbors. Link State routing protocols exchange LSP's to share \line information regarding the networks they know.\line\line\line 221. Identify the type of hardware required to connect a Token ring network to \line an Ethernet network?\line A.) Repeater\line B.) TREnet\line C.) Router\line D.) Token Ring to Ethernet translation hub\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Routers are used to connect dissimiliar networks with different \line access-methods, like connecting Token Ring to Ethernet.\line\line\line 222. Identify 3 characteristics regarding CDP?\line A.) On by default\line B.) Shows only directly connected neighbors\line C.) Requires IP or IPX\line D.) 60 second update interval by default\line E.) 30 second updates interval by default\line\line The correct answer(s): A B D\line CDP stands for Cisco Discovery Protocol. It is used to discover directly \line connected neighbors, it is on by default and has a 60 second update \line interval by default.\line\line\line 223. Identify 2 transport layer protocols?\line A.) IP\line B.) TCP\line C.) CDP\line D.) ARP\line E.) UDP\line\line The correct answer(s): B E\line TPC and UDP are 2 layer4 Transport protocols.\line\line\line 224. Identify 2 features of X.25?\line A.) Supports only IP\line B.) Utilizes switched and permanent virtual circuits\line C.) Contains minimal flow control and error recovery\line D.) Utilizes LAPB as it's data-link protocol\line\line The correct answer(s): B D\line X.25 utilixes LAPB and uses switched and permanent VC's. It supports \line multiple layer protocols and is heavy laden with error detection and \line correction mechanisms.\line\line\line 225. Identify the purpose of the Trace command?\line A.) Explorer packet transmitting routing information\line B.) Test connectivity\line C.) Determine the path a packet is taking through the network\line D.) Transmits user data when buffers are full\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line The trace command is used to determine the path a packet has taken through \line the network.\line\line\line 226. Identify the purpose of the TCP 3 step handshake?\line A.) Setup a unreliable connection\line B.) Initialize routing tables\line C.) Synchronize sequence numbers between hosts\line D.) Connection tear down process\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line The 3 step handshake establishes the parameters required for a TCP \line connection. During the handshake process sequence numbers are synchronized \line allowing for the end points to properly acknowledge and reassemble the \line segments.\line\line\line 227. Identify 2 PPP characteristics?\line A.) Is proprietary to Cisco\line B.) Supports authentication\line C.) Support compression\line D.) Run on a multi-access network\line\line The correct answer(s): B C\line PPP supports authentication; PAP and CHAP. It also supports compression; \line Stacker and Predictor.\line\line\line 228. Which statement is true regarding half duplex?\line

A.) Only works in a point-to-point configuration\line B.) Allows for transmitting and receiving but not at the same time\line C.) Allow for transmitting and receiving of data simultaneously \line D.) Doubles the bandwidth\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Half duplex is analogous to a single a lane bridge, it can handle traffic \line in both directions but not at the same time.\line\line\line 229. Identify the purpose of the wildcard mask?\line A.) Match a certain portion of the IP address while ignoring the rest of \line the address\line B.) Determine the class of the IP address\line C.) Determine the network portion of an IP address\line D.) Hide the host portion of an IP address\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line The purpose of the wildcard mask to match a certain portion of the IP \line address while ignoring the rest.\line\line\line 230. Identify the OSI layer associated with bits?\line A.) Physical\line B.) Network\line C.) Binary\line D.) Data link\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line The Physical layer converts the frames to bits.\line\line\line 231. Identify the type of routing protocol that maintains a topological \line database of the network?\line A.) Topological state\line B.) Shortest Path First\line C.) Link state\line D.) Distance vector\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Link State routing protocols maintain a database that lists all the \line networks in the internetwork.\line\line\line 232. Identify the 3 major functions at layer 3 of the OSI model?\line A.) Forwarding process\line B.) Logical addressing\line C.) End-to-end connnections\line D.) Path selection\line E.) MAC address examination\line F.) Network monitoring\line\line The correct answer(s): A B D\line Layer 3 determines the path, forwards the packet and implements software \line or logicial addressing.\line\line\line 233. Identify the 2 rules used when configuring a Distance Vector routing \line protocol?\line A.) Physically connected network(s)\line B.) Configure the classful address, no subnets\line C.) Enable CDP so neighbors can be detected\line D.) Configure all networks in Area0\line\line The correct answer(s): A B\line When configuring a Distance Vector routing protocol only assign the \line physically connected networks with the classful address only.\line\line\line 234. Identify 3 characteristics of an IP address?\line A.) Contains a network portion and a host portion\line B.) 32 bits long\line C.) Unique to each network\line D.) Part of the default Cisco configuration\line E.) Referred to as the hardware address\line\line The correct answer(s): A B C\line An IP address is 32 bits long, it is referred as the logical or software \line address. It contains a network and host portion. Each IP address is unique.\line\line\line 235. Identify 3 feature of access-lists?\line A.) Implicit deny will deny any packets not matched\line B.) Processed sequentially from bottom to top\line C.) Processed sequentially from top to bottom\line D.) If a packet is denied it would be tested against the remaining \line statements in the access-list\line E.) Once a match is made the packet is either denied or permitted\line F.) Enabled on all interfaces by default\line\line The correct answer(s): A C E\line Access-list are processed from top to bottom, once a match occurs the \line packe is either denied or permitted and is no longer tested and if no \line match occurs the packet is denied via the implicit deny.\line\line\line 236. Which OSI layer performs code conversion, code formatting and encryption?\line A.) Physical\line B.) DataLink\line C.) Application\line D.) Transport\line E.) Presentation\line F.) Network\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line Layer 6 the Presentation layers performs this function.\line\line\line 237. Identify the 3 methods routers learn paths to destinations?\line A.) Dynamic routing\line B.) None of the above, configured by default\line C.) Default routes\line D.) Administrative distance\line E.) Static routes\line\line The correct answer(s): A C E\line Routers can learn paths via 3 different sources; static routes, dynamic \line routing protocols (ie RIP) and default routes.\line\line\line 238. Identify the purpose of the following command 'ip route 192.168.100.0 \line 255.255.255.0 10.1.0.1'\line A.) Enabling a dynamic routing protocol\line B.) Creating a static route to the 10.1.0.0 network\line C.) Teaches the router about the distant network 192.168.100.0 and how it \line can be reached via 10.1.0.1\line D.)

Assigining the IP address 192.168.100.0 to an interface\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line A static routes teaches the router about a distant network and the next \line hop to reach that network. Command syntax:\line ip route networkaddress subnet-mask next-hop-address\line\line\line 239. Based upon the 1st octet rule identify the range for a Class A address?\line A.) 1 - 126\line B.) 192 223\line C.) 128 - 191\line D.) 1 - 191\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Class A address has the 1st octet between 1 - 126. Class B between 128 - \line 191 and Class C between 192 - 223.\line\line\line 240. What does a Standard IP Accesslist use as test criteria?\line A.) IP source address\line B.) IP source and destination address, protocol numbers and port numbers\line C.) IPX source and destination address\line D.) Source MAC address\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Standard IP access list use only source address.\line\line\line 241. What is the function of the Transport layer and which protocols reside \line there?\line A.) MAC addressing - IP\line B.) Interhost communication - SQL, NFS\line C.) Best effort Packet delivery - TCP, UDP\line D.) End-to-end connections - TCP, UDP\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Layer 4, the Transport layer, is responsible for end-to-end connections. \line The two TCP/IP protocols that reside there are TCP and UDP.\line\line\line 242. Identify the 3 Internet layer IP protocols?\line A.) NetBios\line B.) IPX\line C.) ARP\line D.) IP\line E.) RARP\line\line The correct answer(s): C D E\line NetBios and IPX are not layer 3 IP protocols. IP - Internet Protcol, ARP - \line Address Resolution Protocol and RARP - Reverse Address Resolution Protocol.\line\line\line 243. IPX routing updates occur how often?\line A.) Every 30 seconds\line B.) Every 60 seconds\line C.) Only as needed\line D.) When the remote router asks for an update\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line IPX RIP updates are exchanged every 60 seconds.\line\line\line 244. Identify 3 methods not used to prevent routing loops?\line A.) Holddown timers\line B.) Sequence numbers\line C.) Triggered updates\line D.) Split horizon\line E.) Area hierarchies\line F.) Order of router startup\line\line The correct answer(s): B E F\line Area hierarchies, sequence numbers and order of router startup all relate \line to Link State routing protocols which do NOT incur routing loops.\line\line\line 245. Identify the hardware component that stores the bootstrap program?\line A.) ROM\line B.) NVRAM\line C.) Booter load\line D.) RAM\line E.) Flash\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line ROM contains the boot strap code.\line\line\line 246. Which OSI layer provides mechanical, electrical, procedural for \line activating, maintaining physical link?\line A.) Presentation\line B.) Network\line C.) Application\line D.) Physical\line E.) Transport\line F.) Data-Link\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Layer 1 the Physical layer performs this function.\line\line\line 247. Identify 2 characteristics of PPP?\line A.) Uses LLC to establish the link\line B.) Default serial encapsulation\line C.) Support multiple layer 3 protocols\line D.) Offers two types of authentication; PAP and CHAP\line\line The correct answer(s): C D\line PPP is not the default encapsulation and uses LCP not LLC to establish the \line link. It support multiple layer 3 protocols and supports authentication.\line\line\line 248. Identify 3 characteristics of a connection oriented protocol?\line A.) Path determination\line B.) Flow control\line C.) Acknowledgements\line D.) Uses hop count as metric\line E.) 3 step handshake\line\line The correct answer(s): B C E\line Connection oriented protcols must first establish the connection (3 step \line handshake), employ methods to ackowledge the receipt of data \line (acknowledgements) and slow down the flow of data if required (flow \line control).\line\line\line 249. What is the maximum hop count for IP RIP?\line A.) Infinity\line B.) 16\line C.) 15\line D.) 1\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line 15 is the maximum hop count, underscoring the size limitation of RIP.\line\line\line 250. What is Cisco's default encapsulation method on serial interfaces?\line A.) ANSI\line B.) Cisco\line C.) Q933a\line D.) HDLC\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Cisco's implementation of HDLC is only compatible with Cisco routers. It \line is the default encapsulation type for serial interfaces.\line\line\line 251. Which of the following is a characteristic of a

switch, but not of a \line repeater?\line A.) Switches forward packets based on the IPX or IP address in the frame\line B.) Switches forward packets based on the IP address in the frame\line C.) Switches forward packets based on the MAC address in the frame\line D.) Switches forward packets based only on the IP address in the packet\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line A repeater regenerates the signal it receives, a switch makes decisions \line based upon MAC addresses to determine whether a frame should be forwarded. \line Repeaters forward all packets.\line\line\line\line 252. Ping uses which Internet layer protocol?\line A.) RARP\line B.) ICMP\line C.) ARP\line D.) FTP\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Internet Control Message Protocol - ICMP is a management protocol and \line messaging service provider for IP. Its messages are carried as IP \line datagrams.\line\line ICMP is used in the following events:\line\line Destination Unreachable - If a router cannot send an IP packet any \line further, it uses an ICMP echo to send a message back to the sender \line notifying it that the remote node is unreachable.\line\line Buffer Full - If a routers memory buffer is full ICMP will send out a \line message to the originator.\line\line Hops - Each IP datagram is assigned a path. This consists of hops. If it \line goes through the maximum number of hops, the packet is discarded and the \line discarding router sends an ICMP echo to the host. \line\line Ping - Ping use ICMP echo message to check connectivity.\line\line\line 253. Which is true regarding store-and-forward switching method?\line A.) Latency varies depending on frame-length\line B.) Latency is constant\line C.) It is default for all Cisco switches\line D.) It only reads the destination hardware address before forwarding the \line frame\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Store-and-Forward switching copies the entire frame into its buffer and \line computes the CRC. If a CRC error is detected, the frame is discarded, or \line if the frame is a runt (less than 64 bytes including the CRC) or a giant \line (more than 1518 bytes including the CRC). The LAN switch then looks up the \line destination address in its switching table and determines the outgoing \line interface. The frame is then forwarded to the outgoing interface. Cisco \line Catalyst 5000 switches uses the Store-and-Forward method. The problem with \line Store-and-Forward switching is latency is increased. Latency also varies \line with the size of the frame. The larger the frame, the more latency \line associated. This of course is due to the fact that the entire frame is \line copied into its buffer before being forwarded.\line\line\line 254. Which three of the following are true statements about connection-oriented \line sessions?\line A.) The segments delivered are acknowledged back to the sender upon their \line reception\line B.) Any segments not acknowledged are retransmitted by the receiver\line C.) A manageable data flow is maintained in order to avoid congestion, \line overloading and loss of any data\line D.) Segments are sequenced back into their proper order upon arrival at \line their destination\line\line The correct answer(s): A C D\line Connection-oriented services are useful for transmitting data from \line applications that are intolerant of delays and packet re-sequencing. FTP \line and Telnet applications are based on connection-oriented services as well \line as some voice and video programs. Any segment that is not acknowledged by \line the recevied is retransmitted by the sender.\line\line\line What does a metric of 16 hops represent when using RIP?\line A.) Number of hops to the destination\line B.) Destination unreachable\line C.) Number of routers\line D.) Bandwidth\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is a distance vector routing protocol \line that used hop count as its metric. The maximum hop count is 15, 16 hops is \line considered unreachable. RIP updates are broadcast every 30 seconds by \line default. RIP has an administrative distance of 120.\line\line\line 255. You need to come up with a TCP/IP addressing scheme for your company. \line Which two factors must you consider when you define the subnet mask for \line the network?\line A.) The location of DHCP servers\line B.) The volume of traffic on each subnet\line C.) The number of subnets on the network\line D.) The location of the default gateway\line E.) The number of host IDs on each subnet\line\line The correct answer(s): C E\line When determining which subnet mask to use, you must

determine how many \line hosts and how many subnets are required.\line\line\line 256. What is the difference between TCP and UDP?\line A.) TCP is connectionoriented; UDP uses acknowledgements only\line B.) TCP is connection-oriented; UDP is connectionless\line C.) Both TCP and UDP are connection-oriented, but only TCP uses windowing\line D.) TCP and UDP both have sequencing, but UDP is connectionless\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line TCP provides guaranteed connection oriented delivery of packets, UDP does \line not.\line\line\line 257. What does the 'S' mean when looking at the routing table?\line A.) Statically connected\line B.) Directly connected\line C.) Dynamically attached\line D.) Shutdown route\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Statically connected routes are those that an administrator has manually \line entered into the routing table.\line\line\line 258. Why would you use static routing instead of dynamic routing?\line A.) When you want automatic updates of the routing tables\line B.) All the time\line C.) When you have very few routes and want to conserve bandwidth\line D.) When you have a gateway of last resort\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Static routes are typically used when there are very few routes and you \line want to conserve bandwidth. Since routing protocols are constantly sending \line their updates across the wire, it can cause a great deal of congestion.\line\line\line 259. On Cisco catalyst 5000 how would you set the second port on the controller \line in the first slot to full duplex?\line A.) Set port duplex 1/1 full\line B.) Set port duplex 1/2 full\line C.) Set port duplex 0/1 full\line D.) Set port duplex 0/2 full\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line The syntax is: set type duplex slot/port <full/half>\line\line 260. What does the acronym ARP stand for?\line A.) Address Resolution Phase\line B.) ARP Resolution Protocol\line C.) Address Resolution Protocol\line D.) Address Recall Protocol\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line The Address Resulution Protocol (ARP) resolved IP addresses to MAC \line addresses.\line\line\line 261. What is the default encapsulation of Netware 3.12?\line A.) Ethernet_II\line B.) 802.5\line C.) 802.2\line D.) 802.3\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line The 802.2 Frame Type is the default frame-type for Netware 3.12.\line\line\line 262. Regarding frame relay, which of the following statements are true?\line A.) You must use ANSI encapsulation if connecting to non-Cisco equipment\line B.) You must use IETF encapsulation if connecing to non-Cisco equipment\line C.) You must use Q.933a encapsulation if connecing to non-Cisco equipment\line D.) You must use Cisco encapsulation if connecting to non-Cisco equipment\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Cisco's encapsulation for Frame relay is proprietary. To communicate with \line non-Cisco equipment when using frame-relay encapsulation, the IETF method \line must be used.\line\line\line 263. What is required to support full-duplex Ethernet?\line A.) Multiple paths between multiple stations on a link\line B.) Automatic sensing operation by all connected stations\line C.) Loopback and collision detection disabled\line D.) Full-duplex NIC cards\line\line The correct answer(s): C D\line Full duplex ethernet requires that the NIC supports full-duplex, and \line loopback and collision detection are disabled.\line\line\line 264. Which layer is responsible for determining if sufficient resources for the \line intended communication exists?\line A.) Application\line B.) Network\line C.) Session\line D.) Presentation\line E.) Transport\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line The Application layer is responsible for determining if sufficient \line resources for the intended communication exists.\line\line\line 265. What are the 2 functions of the Data Link Mac layer?\line A.) Handles access to shared media\line B.) Manages protocol access to the physical network medium\line C.) Provides SAPs for higher level protocols\line D.) Allows multiple devices to uniquely identify one another on the data \line link layer\line\line The correct answer(s): B D\line Media Access Control (MAC) -The MAC sublayer manages protocol access to \line the physical network medium. The IEEE MAC specification defines MAC \line addresses, which allow multiple devices to uniquely identify one another \line at the data link layer.\line\line\line 266. Describe End to End network services: (Choose all that apply)\line A.) Best Route selection\line B.) Accomplished Segment by Segment,

each segment is autonomous\line C.) Flow Control & Data Integrity\line D.) Best efforts packet delivery\line\line The correct answer(s): A B C D\line All of the above End to End network services.\line\line\line 267. Which of the following provide correct information about a protocol at the \line transport layer of the OSI model?\line A.) UDP - Provides Connectionless datagrams service\line B.) TCP Provides Connection Oriented Services\line C.) SMTP - Provides Mail Exchange\line D.) IP - Route determination\line E.) TCP - Provides Flow Control and Error Checking\line F.) FTP - Transfers of Files\line\line The correct answer(s): A B E\line Only TCP and UDP work at the Transport layer of the above choices. IP is a \line Network layer protocol. SMTP and FTP are application layer protocols.\line\line\line 268. Which protocol works at the Internet layer and is responsible for making \line routing decisions?\line A.) UDP\line B.) IP\line C.) TCP\line D.) ARP\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Internet Protocol - IP provides routing and a single interface to the \line upper layers. No upper layer protocol and now lower layer protocol have \line any functions relating to routing. IP receives segments from the transport \line layer and fragments them into packets including the hosts IP address.\line\line\line 269. Which layer is responsible for providing mechanisms for multiplexing \line upper-layer application, session establishment, and tear down of virtual \line circuits?\line A.) Session\line B.) Network\line C.) Physical\line D.) Transport\line E.) Application\line F.) Presentation\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line The Transport layer does the following: Responsible for end-to-end \line integrity of data transmission. Handles multiplexing upper-layer \line application, session establishment and tear down of virtual circuits. \line Hides details of network dependent info from the higher layers by \line providing transparent data transfer. The 'windows' works at this level to \line control how much information is transferred before an acknowledgement is \line required.\line\line\line 270. Which of the following are logged when IP access list logging is enabled?\line A.) source address\line B.) protocol\line C.) source port\line D.) destination address\line E.) access list number\line F.) destination port\line\line The correct answer(s): A B C D E F\line All of the above are logged when IP access list logging is enabled.\line\line\line 271. What's the default CDP holdtime in seconds for Cisco routers?\line A.) 30 seconds\line B.) 180 seconds\line C.) 90 seconds\line D.) 60 seconds\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Cisco Discovery Protocol is a proprietary protocol to allow you to access \line configuration information on other routers and switches with a single \line command. It uses SNAP at the Data-Link Layer. By default CDP sends out a \line broadcast every 60 seconds and it holds this information for 180 seconds. \line CDP is enabled by default.\line\line\line 272. Which two of the following protocols are used at the Transport layer?\line A.) ARP\line B.) UDP\line C.) ICMP\line D.) RARP\line E.) TCP\line F.) BootP\line\line The correct answer(s): B E\line TCP and UDP operate at the Transport layer.\line\line\line 273. LAN stands for which of the following?\line A.) Local Area Network\line B.) Local Arena Network\line C.) Local Area News\line D.) Logical Area Network\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line LAN stands for Local Area Network\line\line\line 274. Choose three reasons why the networking industry uses a layered model:\line A.) It facilitates systematic troubleshooting\line B.) It allows changes in one layer to occur without changing other layers\line C.) It allows changes to occur in all layers when changing one protocol\line D.) It clarifies how to do it rather than what general function to be done\line E.) It clarifies what general function is to be done rather than how to do \line it\line\line The correct answer(s): A B E\line Why do we have a Layered Model?\line 1) It reduces complexity\line 2) Allows for a standardized interface\line 3) Facilitates modular engineering\line 4) Ensures interoperable technology \line 5) Accelerates evolution\line 6) Simplifies teaching and learning\line\line\line 276. Which layer is responsible for identifying and establishing the \line availability of the intended communication partner?\line A.) Application\line B.) Presentation\line C.) Transport\line D.) Session\line E.)

Network\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line The Application layer performs the following: Synchronizing sending and \line receiving applications. Program-to program communication. Identify and \line establish the availability of the intended communication partner, and \line determine if sufficient resources exist for the communication. Popular \line application protocols include WWW, SMTP, EDI, FTP, Telnet, and SNMP\line\line\line 277. A ISDN PRI circuit can be described as which of the following?\line A.) 24 B channels and 1-64Kbps D channel\line B.) 23 B channels and 1-64Kbps D channel\line C.) 2-D channels and 1-C channel\line D.) 2-64Kbps B channels and 1-16Kbps D channel\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line There are two types of ISDN Channels:\line BRI (Basic Rate Interface) - is 2 64Kbps B channels for data and one \line 16Kbps D channel for link management.\line PRI (Primary Rate Interface) - is 23Kbps B channels and 1 64Kbps D channel.\line\line\line 278. What are 3 ways to provide login access to router?\line A.) Console\line B.) TFTP\line C.) Rlogin\line D.) Auxiliary Port\line E.) X Windows\line F.) Telnet\line\line The correct answer(s): A D F\line The three ways to provide login access to the router are via the Console \line port, auxiliary port, and virtual terminal (Telnet)\line\line\line 279. Which of the following statements are true?\line A.) Store and forward switching creates variable latency through the switch\line B.) Cut through switching creates variables latency through the switch\line C.) Cut through switching works at wire speed\line D.) Store and forward switching works at wire speed\line\line The correct answer(s): A C\line The larger the packet, the greater the latency when using a switch with \line Store and Forward methods. This is due to the fact that Store and Forward \line switching copies the entire Frame into its buffer before forwarding the \line frame. Cut Through switching only examines the destination address before \line forwarding the packet and does not copy the frame into its buffer.\line\line\line\line 280. Which of the following can reply to a Novell Get Nearest Server (GNS) \line request?\line A.) Local Novell server\line B.) Remote Novell Printer\line C.) Cisco router\line D.) Novell client\line\line The correct answer(s): A C\line Cisco routers can act like Novell servers to an extent. They can answer \line Get Nearest Server request by clients. Of course, both Local and Remote \line Novell servers can reply to the GNS request. As with Novell servers, Cisco \line routers can be configured to either reply, or not reply to GNS request by \line clients. Since each Novell server and Cisco router builds a dynamic table \line of resources, they can reply to a clients request for the available \line resources closest to them.\line\line\line\line 281. Identify the 3 kinds of routes IGRP advertises?\line A.) Interior\line B.) Dynamic\line C.) System\line D.) Exterior\line\line The correct answer(s): A C D\line IGRP is a distance vector routing protocol designed by Cisco. The maximum \line hop count is 255, and it uses a combination of variables to determine a \line composite metric. IGRP has an administrative distance of 100. There are \line three types of routes IGRP advertises: 1) Interior, 2) Exterior, and 3) \line System.\line\line\line 282. What is the routing metric used by RIP?\line A.) Route poisoning\line B.) Split horizon\line C.) Hop Count\line D.) TTL\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is a distance vector routing protocol \line that used hop count as its metric. The maximum hop count is 15, 16 hops is \line considered unreachable. RIP updates are broadcast every 30 seconds by \line default. RIP has an administrative distance of 120.\line\line\line 283. What is the default encapsulation and frame type on an Ethernet interface \line when enabling Novell?\line A.) SNAP\line B.) Ethernet_II\line C.) 802.2\line D.) 802.3\line E.) SAP\line F.) Token_SNAP\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line By default, when an encapsulation type is not specified, the 802.3 frame \line type is used.\line\line\line 284. What is true when creating static route?\line A.) The mask parameter is optional\line B.) The administrative distance is required\line C.) The gateway parameter is required\line D.) The administrative distance is optional\line\line The correct answer(s): C D\line When creating a static route, the gateway parameter is required, but the \line administrative distance is optional. The correct syntax is: \line Router(config)# ip route <network> <mask>

<address | interface> <admin \line distance>\line\line\line 285. Of the following switching types, which one has the highest latency?\line A.) Cut-through\line B.) None\line C.) Store-and-forward\line D.) Fragment Free\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Store-and-Forward switching copies the entire frame into its buffer and \line computes the CRC. If a CRC error is detected, the frame is discarded, or \line if the frame is a runt (less than 64 bytes including the CRC) or a giant \line (more than 1518 bytes including the CRC). The LAN switch then looks up the \line destination address in its switching table and determines the outgoing \line interface. The frame is then forwarded to the outgoing interface. Cisco \line Catalyst 5000 switches uses the Store-and-Forward method. The problem with \line Store-and-Forward switching is latency is increased. Latency also varies \line with the size of the frame. The larger the frame, the more latency \line associated. This of course is due to the fact that the entire frame is \line copied into its buffer before being forwarded.\line\line\line 286. What does the IPX maximum path command do?\line A.) Allows you to disable the TTL on an IPX packet\line B.) This parameter is only used in NLSP routing\line C.) Sets the maximum metric that can appear in the routing table\line D.) Configures round robin load sharing over multiple equal metric paths \line (parallel paths)\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line The ipx maximum path command allows you to configure parallel paths for \line load sharing.\line\line\line 287. What does -1 mean in an extended IPX access-list?\line A.) Any IP address\line B.) Deny all\line C.) Deny host\line D.) Any host or any network\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line For IPX access lists, the -1 is a wildcard that signifies Any Host or Any \line Network.\line\line\line 288. What paramater is used with statically assigned routers to tell packets \line which interface to use to reach a distant network?\line A.) Mask\line B.) Subnet\line C.) Default gateway\line D.) Interface\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line The interface parameter tell a packet which interface to use to reach \line other networks.\line\line\line 289. Which of the following protocols are used to get an IP address from a \line known MAC address?\line A.) BootP\line B.) TCP\line C.) IP\line D.) ARP\line E.) RARP\line F.) ICMP\line\line The correct answer(s): A E\line Reverse Address Resolution Protocol - RARP is ARP's counterpart, but it \line resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses typically on diskless workstations. \line BootP allows a host to resolves it's own MAC address to an IP address.\line\line\line 290. What does the Spanning Tree Algorithm (STA) do?\line A.) Restore lost frames\line B.) Builds routing tables for routing through an internetwork\line C.) Forward packets through a switch\line D.) STA is implemented by STP to prevent loops\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line IEEE 802.1d Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) was developed to prevent routing \line loops in a network. If a router, switch, or hub has more then one path to \line the same destination, a routing problem could occur. To prevent this, the \line Spanning Tree Protocol is executed between the devices to detect and \line logically block redundant paths from the network. The main function of the \line Spanning Tree Protocol is to allow redundant network paths without \line suffering the effects of loops in the network. \line The Spanning Tree Algorithm (STA) implemented by STP prevents loops by \line calculating a stable Spanning Tree network topology. When creating fault \line tolerant internetworks, a loop-free path must exist between all Ethernet \line nodes in the network. Spanning Tree frames called Bridge Protocol Data \line Units (BPDUs) are sent and received by all switches in the network at \line regular intervals.\line\line\line 291. IP extended access lists use which of the following as a basis for \line permitting or denying packets?\line A.) destination address\line B.) all of the above\line C.) protocol\line D.) source address\line E.) port\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line All of the above are basis for permitting or denying IP packets for use \line with an Extended IP access list.\line\line\line 292. What is the extended IPX access list range?\line A.) 901-1000\line B.) 100-199\line C.) 900-999\line D.) 1000-1000\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Cisco has setup ranges of numbers to signify access lists. 900-999 is the \line range for the Extended IPX access

lists.\line\line\line 293. CPE is an acronym for which of the following?\line A.) Customer Premise Equipment\line B.) Central Processing Engineering\line C.) Customer Process Equipment\line D.) Central Processing Equipment\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Customer Premise Equipment (CPE) are devices physically located at the \line subscriber's premises. Includes both owned and leased equipment.\line\line\line 294. How often does IP RIP send out routing table updates by default?\line A.) They send complete updates every 30 seconds\line B.) They send partial updates every 30 seconds\line C.) They send complete updates every 60 seconds\line D.) They send partial updates every 60 seconds\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is a distance vector routing protocol \line that used hop count as it's metric. The maximum hop count is 15, 16 hops \line is considered unreachable. RIP updates are broadcast every 30 seconds by \line default. RIP has an administrative distance of 120.\line\line\line 295. Which ISDN protocol prefix specifies switching and signalling?\line A.) I\line B.) E\line C.) Q\line D.) S\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line These protocols deal with ISDN issues: \line E Specifies ISDN on the existing telephone network. \line I - Specifies concepts, terminology, and services. \line Q - Specifies switching and signaling.\line\line\line 296. CSMA/CD stand for which of the following?\line A.) Carrier Sense, Multiple Access with Collision Detection\line B.) Collision Sense, Multiple Access with Collision Detection\line C.) Collision Sense, Multiple Access with Carrier Detection\line D.) Carrier Sense, MAC address with Collision Detection\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line The IEEE standard for Carrier Sense Multiple Acces / Collision Detection \line is 802.3. Also know as Ethernet.\line\line\line 297. Which of the following are Distance Vector protocols?\line A.) IGRP\line B.) RIP\line C.) OSFP\line D.) EIGRP\line\line The correct answer(s): A B\line RIP and IGRP are Distance Vectoring protocols that send their entire \line routing tables to their neighbors.\line In some Cisco literature, EIGRP is listed as an 'advanced disance vector' \line routing protocol. However, the official curriculum courseware considers \line EIGRP a 'hybrid' protocol.\line\line\line 298. UDP works at which layer of the DOD model?\line A.) Internet\line B.) Host-to-Host\line C.) Transport\line D.) Data Link\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line The TCP/IP Transport Layer (OSI) and Host to Host (DOD) protocols use TCP \line and UDP. Notice this question asks for DOD model.\line\line\line 299. Of the following switching types, which one has the lowest latency?\line A.) Cut-through\line B.) Fragment Free\line C.) None\line D.) Store-and-forward\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Cut-Through switching copies only the destination address which is the \line first 6 bytes after the frame preamble into its buffer. The LAN switch \line then looks up the destination address in its switching table and \line determines the outgoing interface. The frame is then sent to the \line interface. A cut-through switch provides reduced latency because it begins \line to forward the frame as soon as it read the destination address and \line determines the outgoing interface.\line\line\line 300. What is an administrative distance of 0 mean?\line A.) 0 means unbelievable\line B.) 0 is for EIGRP\line C.) 0 is the default distance for directly connected networks\line D.) 0 means unreachable\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Directly connected network have the lowest administrative distance of 0. \line They are considered the most reliable.\line\line 301. Which of the following describe full-duplex transmission?\line A.) Uses a single wire\line B.) Data transmission in both directions, but only one way at a time\line C.) Uses a point-to-point connection from the transmitter of the \line transmitting station to the receiver of the receiving station\line D.) Data transmission in only one direction\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Full Duplex - Capability for simultaneous data transmission between a \line sending station and a receiving station. It requires a workstation be \line attached to a switch, the NIC must support it, and collision detection and \line loopback must be disabled.\line\line\line 302. Which of the following is a connectionless protocol at the Transport layer?\line A.) UDP\line B.) ARP\line C.) ICMP\line D.)

RARP\line E.) IP\line F.) FTP\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line User Datagram Protocol - UDP is a connectionless oriented transport \line protocol for use when the upper layers provide error-recovery and \line reliability. UDP does not sequence data or re-assemble it into any order \line after transmission. This protocol uses Port 17.\line\line\line 303. What is the routing metric used by IGRP?\line A.) MTU, delay, bandwidth, reliability, and loading\line B.) Count to infinity\line C.) TTL\line D.) Hop count\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line IGRP is a distance vector routing protocol designed by Cisco. The maximum \line hop count is 255, and it uses a combination of variables to determine a \line composite metric. IGRP has an administrative distance of 100.\line\line\line 304. What does 'P' mean when running a Trace?\line A.) Good route\line B.) Protocol unreachable\line C.) Source Quench\line D.) Destination unreachable\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line When a P is returned when a Trace is run, it means the Protocol is \line unreachable.\line\line\line 305. What is the Network Layer of the OSI responsible for?\line A.) Bridging\line B.) Routing packets through an internetwork\line C.) Regenerating the digital signal\line D.) Gateway services\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line The Network Layer routes data from one node to another, sends data from \line the source network to the destination network. The router will use packet \line switching to move a packet from one interface or port, to another through \line the network cloud.\line\line\line 306. Which layer is responsible for routing through an internetwork?\line A.) Physical\line B.) Session\line C.) Network\line D.) Transport\line E.) Application\line F.) Data Link\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line The Network layer is responsible for routing. This is the primary job of \line routers, which operate at the Network layer.\line\line\line 307. What three occurrences will reset the holddown timer after a triggered \line update?\line A.) Infinity is finally defined as some max number\line B.) HD Timer expires\line C.) Another update is received indicating a better metric\line D.) The router receives a processing task proportional to the number of \line links in the internetwork\line E.) The router detects fault LSP's propagating through the internetwork\line F.) Another update is received indicating net status changed\line\line The correct answer(s): B D F\line The HD Timer expires, another update is received indicating net status \line change, or if the router recieves a processing task proportional to the \line number of links in the internetwork, this reset the holddown timer. These \line are all triggered updates.\line\line\line 308. Which layer is responsible for putting 1s and 0s into a logical group?\line A.) Session\line B.) Application\line C.) Transport\line D.) Data Link\line E.) Physical\line F.) Network\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Frames are broken down into 1s and 0s and placed onto the physical medium \line by the Data Link layer.\line\line\line 309. How many LMI types are available on Cisco routers?\line A.) Four\line B.) Two\line C.) Five\line D.) Three\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line There are three types of LMI standards: \line ANSI - Annex D defined by ANSI standard T1.617 \line ITU-T (Q.933A) - Annex A defined by Q933A \line Cisco (default) - LMI defined by the gang of four\line\line\line 310. Which layer is responsible for framing?\line A.) Application\line B.) Data Link\line C.) Physical\line D.) Network\line E.) Transport\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line The Data link layer performs the following: Responsible for physically \line passing data from one node to another. Translates messages from the upper \line layers into data frames and adds customized headers containing the \line Hardware destination and source address.\line\line 311. What ISDN protocol specifies concepts, terminology, and services?\line A.) Q\line B.) S\line C.) I\line D.) E\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line These protocols deal with ISDN issues: \line E - Specifies ISDN on the existing telephone network. \line I - Specifies concepts, terminology, and services. \line Q - Specifies switching and signaling.\line\line\line 312. What is the purpose of Split Horizons?\line A.) It prevents the regular update messages from reinstating a route that \line has gone down\line B.) Information received on an interface cannot be sent back out the same \line interface\line C.) Informs all

neighbor routers that two routes exist\line D.) Tells the router the destination is unreachable\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Split Horizon - If you learn a protocol\rquote s route on an interface, do not \line send information about that route back out that interface.\line\line\line 313. WAN stands for which of the following?\line A.) Wide Arena Network\line B.) World Area Network\line C.) Wide Area News\line D.) Wide Area Network\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line WAN stands for Wide Area Network\line\line\line 314. Which of the following provide connection-oriented transport to upper \line layer protocols?\line A.) SPX\line B.) RIP\line C.) NLSP\line D.) NCP\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line SPX is similar to TCP in that is provides reliable delivery of packets and \line provides connection-oriented transport to the upper layer protocols.\line\line\line 315. Which two does 100BaseT use?\line A.) CSMA/CD\line B.) IEEE 802.5\line C.) 802.3u\line D.) Switching with 53-byte cells\line\line The correct answer(s): A C\line 100BaseT - 100BaseT uses two-pair Category 5 UTP cable with an RJ45 \line connector and the same pin out as in 10BaseT. 100BaseT supports full \line duplex operation. 100BaseT is limited to 100 meters distance.\line\line\line 316. Which layer is responsible for flow control, acknowledgement, and \line windowing?\line A.) Transport\line B.) Network\line C.) Application\line D.) Session\line E.) Physical\line F.) Data Link\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line The Transport layer performs the following: Responsible for end-to-end \line integrity of data transmission. Handles multiplexing upper-layer \line application, session establishment and tear down of virtual circuits. \line Hides details of network dependent info from the higher layers by \line providing transparent data transfer. The 'windows' works at this level to \line control how much information is transferred before an acknowledgement is \line required.\line\line\line 317. Which of the following is used to manage and monitor the network?\line A.) SNMP\line B.) HTTP\line C.) IP\line D.) FTP\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is used to manage and \line monitor traps.\line\line\line 318. What is true about Link-State protocols?\line A.) They maintain a more complex table than distant vector protocols\line B.) They maintain a less complex table than distant vector protocols\line C.) They use routing ports\line D.) The maintain backup copies of the IOS\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Whereas the distance vector algorithm has non-specific information about \line distant networks and no knowledge of distant routers, a link-state routing \line algorithm maintains full knowledge of distant routers and how they \line interconnect.\line\line\line 319. The maximum distance on a 10BaseT network from the hub to a workstation is \line which of the following?\line A.) 500 meters\line B.) 1000 meters\line C.) 100 meters\line D.) 1500 meters\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line The standard for 10BaseT networks is 100 meters, or approximately 330 feet.\line\line\line 320. Which of the following use PVCs at layer 2?\line A.) X.25\line B.) HDLC\line C.) Frame relay\line D.) ISDN\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line\line 321. Of the above choices, only Frame relay uses Permanent Virtual Circuits \line (PVCs) at layer 2. PVC is the key word in this question.\line What is the routing algorithm used by RIP and IGRP?\line A.) OSPF\line B.) Link-state\line C.) Dynamic\line D.) Distance Vector\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Distance vector-based routing algorithms (also known as Bellman-Ford \line algorithms) pass periodic copies of a routing table from router to router. \line Regular updates between routers communicate topology changes. Each router \line receives a routing table from it's direct neighbor and increments all \line learned routes by one. By this method, each router learns the internetwork \line topology via second hand information.\line\line\line 322. Which layer is responsible for negotiating data transfer syntax?\line A.) Network\line B.) Session\line C.) Application\line D.) Transport\line E.) Presentation\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line The Presentation layer performs the following: Manages data representation \line conversions, or data transfer syntax. For example, the Presentation layer \line would be responsible for converting from EDCDIC to ASCII. Data \line compression,

decompression, encryption, and decryption are presentation \line layer. Presentation layer standards include MPEG, MIDI, PICT, TIFF, JPEG, \line ASCII, and EBCDIC\line\line\line 323. What are hold-downs used for?\line A.) To prevent regular update messages from reinstating a route that has \line come back up\line B.) Information received on an interface cannot be sent back out the same \line interface\line C.) To prevent regular update messages from reinstating a route that has \line gone down\line D.) To hold the routing table from being sent to another router\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Hold-Down Timers - Routers ignore network update information for some \line period.\line\line\line 324. Which of the following protocols are used for logical network addressing?\line A.) IP\line B.) TCP\line C.) ARP\line D.) ICMP\line E.) RARP\line F.) BootP\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Internet Protocol - IP provides routing and a single interface to the \line upper layers. No upper layer protocol and now lower layer protocol have \line any functions relating to routing. IP receives segments from the transport \line layer and fragments them into packets including the hosts IP address. IP \line addressing is logical, not physical.\line\line\line 325. Which can be logged by IPX extended access lists?\line A.) source address\line B.) protocol\line C.) source socket\line D.) access list number\line E.) destination socket\line F.) destination address\line\line The correct answer(s): A B C D E F\line All of the above can be logged by IPX extended access lists.\line\line 326. Put the following steps of encapsulation into the correct order:\line 1) The data is broken into segments to be organized\line 2) Frames are converted to 1s and 0s to be put on the wire\line 3) Packets are converted into frames\line 4) Information that users enter is converted into data\line 5) The segments are changed to packets to be routed\line A.) 4, 1, 3, 2, 5\line B.) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2\line C.) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5\line D.) 4, 1, 5, 3, 2\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Follow the steps through the Layers of the OSI model to get the answer. \line Watch the key words in each line to help you determine the steps. \line Remember the following: Data, Segments, Packets, Frames, Bits (from the top down).\line\line\line 327. Which port numbers are used by TCP and UDP to set up sessions with other \line hosts?\line A.) 1024 and above\line B.) 6 and 17 respectively\line C.) 1-25\line D.) 6-17\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line TCP and UDP use random port number above 1023 for establishing \line communications.\line\line\line 328. Repeaters work at which layer of the OSI model?\line A.) Network\line B.) Session\line C.) Transport\line D.) Physical\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Repeaters work at the Physical layer of the OSI model by regenerating the \line signal to extend the distance it can travel.\line\line\line 329. What protocols can you use while testing Trace?\line A.) DECnet\line B.) CLNS\line C.) IP\line D.) Old Vines\line E.) Vines\line F.) Chaos\line\line The correct answer(s): B C D E\line Type Trace ? At the router command prompt to see a list of available \line supported protocols for tracing routes to IP addresses or Name addresses.\line\line\line 330. What utility can you use to see the path a packet takes through an \line internetwork?\line A.) Route\line B.) SNMP\line C.) Trace\line D.) Ping\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Trace - Uses Time-To-Live (TTL) values to generate messages from each \line router used along the path. This is very powerful in its ability to locate \line failures in the path from the source to the destination.\line\line\line 331. What is true about frame-relay DLCI?\line A.) DLCI represents a single physical circuit\line B.) DLCI is optional in all frame-relay networks\line C.) DLCI identifies a logical connection between DTE devices\line D.) DLCI is used to tag the beginning of a frame with VLAN information\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Data Link Connection Identifier (DLCI). A frame-relay service provider \line typically assigns DLCI values that are used by frame-relay to distinguish \line between different virtual circuits on the network. For the IP devices at \line each end of a virtual circuit to communicate, their IP addresses are \line mapped to DLCIs. Every DLCI value can have a global or local meaning.\line\line\line 332. Which frame has a Type field to identify the upperlayer protocol?\line A.) 802.3\line B.) 802.2\line C.) 802.5\line D.)

Ethernet_II\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Ethernet_II has a Type field to identify the upper-layer protocol. This is \line best seen by capturing packets with a sniffer and examining the packet.\line\line\line 333. Which protocol will let neighbor routers know if your internetwork \line experienced congestion on a serial port?\line A.) BootP\line B.) IP\line C.) ICMP\line D.) ARP\line E.) FTP\line F.) RARP\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Internet Control Message Protocol - ICMP is a management protocol and \line messaging service provider for IP. Its messages are carried as IP \line datagrams.\line\line ICMP is used in the following events:\line\line Destination Unreachable - If a router cannot send an IP packet any \line further, it uses an ICMP echo to send a message back to the sender \line notifying it that the remote node is unreachable.\line\line Buffer Full - If a routers memory buffer is full ICMP will send out a \line message to the originator.\line\line Hops - Each IP datagram is assigned a path. This consists of hops. If it \line goes through the maximum number of hops, the packet is discarded and the \line discarding router sends an ICMP echo to the host. \line\line Ping - Ping use ICMP echo message to check connectivity.\line\line\line 334. What do you use the Aux port for?\line A.) Console\line B.) Terminal editing\line C.) Modem\line D.) Backup logging\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line The auxiliary port is used to connect a modem for dial backups.\line\line\line 335. The CSMA/CD Ethernet IEEE committee is defined as which of the following?\line A.) 802.2\line B.) 802.3\line C.) 802.4\line D.) 802.5\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line The IEEE standard for Carrier Sense Multiple Acces / Collision Detection \line is 802.3. Also know as Ethernet.\line\line 336. How many Frame-relay encapsulation types are available with Cisco routers?\line A.) Four\line B.) Two\line C.) Five\line D.) Three\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line The two types of Frame relay encapsulation are Cisco and IETF.\line\line\line 337. What is the maximum hop count for Link-State protocols?\line A.) 15\line B.) there is no hop count limit\line C.) 256\line D.) 16\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Link-state-based routing algorithms \endash also known as shortest path first \line (SPF) algorithms, maintain a complex database of topology information. \line Whereas the distance vector algorithm has non-specific information about \line distant networks and no knowledge of distant routers, a link-state routing \line algorithm maintains full knowledge of distant routers and how they \line interconnect.\line\line\line 338. What information can you get from CDP info: (choose all that apply)\line A.) Hardware platform\line B.) One address per protocol\line C.) Software platform\line D.) Hostname\line E.) The same info as show version\line F.) Incoming/outgoing port\line\line The correct answer(s): A B D E F\line All of the above except the software platform can be seen with the CDP \line information.\line\line\line How does the cut-through switching technique work?\line A.) By using broadcast address as source addresses\line B.) The switch waits only for the header to be received before it checks \line the destination address and starts forwarding the packets\line C.) The LAN switch copies the entire frame into its onboard buffers and \line then looks up the destination address in its forwarding, or switching, \line table and determines the outgoing interface\line D.) By using a Class I repeater in a collision domain\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Cut-Through switching copies only the destination address which is the \line first 6 bytes after the frame preamble into its buffer. The LAN switch \line then looks up the destination address in its switching table and \line determines the outgoing interface. The frame is then sent to the \line interface. A cut-through switch provides reduced latency because it begins \line to forward the frame as soon as it read the destination address and \line determines the outgoing interface.\line\line\line 339. What is the protocol number for TCP?\line A.) 80\line B.) 21\line C.) 11\line D.) 6\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Transmission Control Protocol - TCP is a connection oriented transport \line layer protocol with built in reliability. It takes a large block of data \line and breaks it down into segments. It numbers and sequences each segment so \line the destination's TCP protocol can re-assemble it back into the

original \line order. TCP uses acknowledgements via sliding windows. It has a large \line overhead due to built in error checking. The protocol use protocol # 6.\line\line\line 340. Which of the following are Presentation Layer standards?\line A.) JPEG and PICT\line B.) MPEG and MIDI\line C.) ASCII and EBCDIC\line D.) NFS and SQL\line\line The correct answer(s): A B C\line For example, the Presentation layer would be responsible for converting \line from EDCDIC to ASCII. Data compression, decompression, encryption, and \line decryption are presentation layer. Presentation layer standards include \line MPEG, MIDI, PICT, TIFF, JPEG, ASCII, and EBCDIC.\line\line\line 341. What is the administrative distance for RIP?\line A.) 100\line B.) 90\line C.) 120\line D.) 110\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is a distance vector routing protocol \line that uses hop count as its metric. The maximum hop count is 15, 16 hops is \line considered unreachable. RIP updates are broadcast every 30 seconds by \line default. RIP has an administrative distance of 120.\line\line\line 342. IP standard access lists use which of the following as a basis for \line permitting or denying packets?\line A.) destination address\line B.) port\line C.) protocol\line D.) source address\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line For Standard access lists, only the source address is used as a basis for \line permitting or denying packets.\line\line\line 343. If a frame is received at a switch and only the destination hardware \line address is read before the frame is forwarded, what type of switching \line method is this?\line A.) Store-and-drop\line B.) Latency\line C.) Store-and-forward\line D.) Cutthrough\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Cut-Through switching copies only the destination address which is the \line first 6 bytes after the frame preamble into its buffer. The LAN switch \line then looks up the destination address in its switching table and \line determines the outgoing interface. The frame is then sent to the \line interface. A cut-through switch provides reduced latency because it begins \line to forward the frame as soon as it read the destination address and \line determines the outgoing interface.\line\line\line 344. What is the purpose and default value of the CDP timer command?\line A.) 90 seconds; interval before an entry expires\line B.) 60 seconds; interval between updates\line C.) 60 seconds; interval before an entry expires\line D.) 90 seconds; interval between updates\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line The CDP timer controls when the update of CDP information should be sent \line to the neighbor router.\line\line\line 345. Choose the following that are benefits to segmenting with router:\line A.) Flow Control\line B.) Manageability\line C.) Multiple Active Paths\line D.) Explicit packet lifetime control\line\line The correct answer(s): A B C D\line All of the above are benefits of segmenting with a router.\line\line\line 346. When discussing static routes, what is the gateway parameter used for?\line A.) Determining the dynamic route\line B.) Defining the subnet\line C.) Defining the Administrative Distance\line D.) Determining the next hop\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line The gateway parameter determines the path to the next router.\line\line\line 347. Which layer hides details of network dependent information from the higher \line layers by providing transparent data transfer?\line A.) Transport\line B.) Physical\line C.) Data Link\line D.) Session\line E.) Application\line F.) Network\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line The Transport layer does the following: Responsible for end-to-end \line integrity of data transmission. Handles multiplexing upper-layer \line application, session establishment and tear down of virtual circuits. \line Hides details of network dependent info from the higher layers by \line providing transparent data transfer. The 'windows' works at this level to \line control how much information is transferred before an acknowledgement is \line required.\line\line\line 348. What information is provided by the local managment interface (LMI)?\line A.) LMI encapsulation type\line B.) The current DLCI values\line C.) The status of virtual circuits\line D.) The global or local significance of the DLCI values\line\line The correct answer(s): B C D\line LMI is a standard related to Frame Relay. It provides information related \line to PVCs.\line\line\line 349. Which layer defines the physical topology?\line A.)

Application\line B.) Transport\line C.) Network\line D.) Data Link\line E.) Physical\line F.) Session\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line The Physical layer deals with the actual physical medium and the method of \line transporting 1s and 0s.\line\line\line 350. What key do you use to view the last command?\line A.) Left Arrow\line B.) Space Bar\line C.) Up Arrow\line D.) Right Arrow\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line CTRL+P as well as the Up Arrow keyboard commands will show the last \line command.\line\line\line 351. Which of the follow do not belong to the customer?\line A.) CO\line B.) DCE\line C.) Router\line D.) CPE\line E.) Demarc\line F.) DTE\line\line The correct answer(s): A E\line Central Office (CO) - A switching facility that provides the nearest point \line of presence for a provider's WAN service. \line\line Demarcation (Demarc) - The point at which the CPE ends and the local loop \line portion of the service begins. Usually the telecommunications closet at \line the subscriber's location. \line\line CPE, DTE, DCE, and the router are all typically owned by the customer. DTE \line devices are usually routers, DCE devices are CSUs/DSUs, or WAN interfaces \line that have a built in CSU/DSU in the router. CPE stands for Customer \line Premise Equipment.\line\line\line 352. What is the IEEE specification for Spanning Tree Protocol?\line A.) 802.9\line B.) 803.ud\line C.) 803\line D.) 802.1d\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line IEEE 8021.d Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) was developed to prevent routing \line loops in a network. If a router, switch, or hub has more then one path to \line the same destination, a routing problem could occur. To prevent this, the \line Spanning Tree Protocol is executed between the devices to detect and \line logically block redundant paths from the network. The main function of the \line Spanning Tree Protocol is to allow redundant network paths without \line suffering the effects of loops in the network. \line\line The Spanning Tree Algorithm (STA) implemented by STP prevents loops by \line calculating a stable Spanning Tree network topology. When creating fault \line tolerant internetworks, a loop-free path must exist between all Ethernet \line nodes in the network. Spanning Tree frames called Bridge Protocol Data \line Units (BPDUs) are sent and received by all switches in the network at \line regular intervals.\line\line 353. CO is an acronym for which of the following?\line A.) Central Office\line B.) Capital Office\line C.) Central Operator\line D.) Company Office\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Central Office (CO) - A switching facility that provides the nearest point \line of presence for a provider's WAN service.\line\line\line 354. What is convergence time?\line A.) The update time\line B.) The time it takes to reload a router\line C.) The time it takes for a packet to reach its destination\line D.) The time is takes for all routers update their tables after a change \line takes place\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Convergence is slower for Distant Vector routing and is faster for Link \line State routing.\line\line 355. Which of the following are Session Layer standards?\line A.) ASCII and EBCDIC\line B.) MPEG and MIDI\line C.) NFS and SQL\line D.) JPEG and PICT\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Session layer protocols include NFS, SQL, RPC, Appletalk Session Protocol \line (ASP), XWindows, and NetBEUI.\line\line\line 356. What is the IP extended access list range?\line A.) 1000-1099\line B.) 100-199\line C.) 1-99\line D.) 101200\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line 100-199 is the range for Extended IP access lists.\line\line\line 357. Define Poison Reverse?\line A.) To prevent regular update messages from reinstating a route that has \line gone down\line B.) Packets sent out that are not destined for a network go to the default \line network\line C.) Information received on an interface cannot be sent back out the same \line interface\line D.) When a network goes down, the router enters in its table the number 16 \line to signify destination unreachable\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line By entering a 16 as the hop count, the other routers know that the \line destination is unreacheable.\line\line\line 358. What is the default interval for SAP updates?\line A.) 60 seconds\line B.) 15 seconds\line C.) 30 seconds\line D.) 120 seconds\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line By default, the SAP (Service Access Protocol) sends out updates every 60 \line seconds. This value can be changed to alter the update interval. To \line decrease WAN traffic,

the update interval could be increased to every 5 \line minutes.\line\line\line 359. What does a router do with a packet that it does not have a destination \line network for?\line A.) Sends it to the Serial port\line B.) Drops the packet\line C.) Sends it back out the same interface it received it in\line D.) Forwards the packet to the next hop\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line When a router does not have a destination for a packet, it drops the \line packet into the bit bucket.\line\line\line 360. What type of frame does CDP use to gather information about It's neighbors?\line A.) TCP/IP\line B.) Novell-ether\line C.) Subnetwork Access Protocol (SNAP)\line D.) Ethernet_II\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Cisco Discovery Protocol is a proprietary protocol to allow you to access \line configuration information on other routers and switches with a single \line command. It uses SNAP at the Data-Link Layer. By default CDP sends out a \line broadcast every 60 seconds and it holds this information for 180 seconds. \line CDP is enabled by default.\line\line\line 361. Which protocol is used for booting diskless workstaions?\line A.) IP\line B.) ARP\line C.) RARP\line D.) TCP\line E.) SNMP\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Reverse Address Resolution Protocol - RARP is ARP's counterpart, but it \line resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses typically on diskless workstations.\line\line\line 362. Which layer is responsible for synchronizing sending and receiving \line applications?\line A.) Presentation\line B.) Session\line C.) Transport\line D.) Application\line E.) Network\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line The Application layer performs the following: Synchronizing sending and \line receiving applications. Program-to program communication. Identify and \line establish the availability of the intended communication partner, and \line determine if sufficient resources exist for the communication. Popular \line application protocols include WWW, SMTP, EDI, FTP, Telnet, and SNMP\line\line\line 363. Which protocol gets a hardware address from a known IP address?\line A.) RARP\line B.) TCP\line C.) IP\line D.) BootP\line E.) ARP\line F.) ICMP\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line Address Resolution Protocol - ARP is responsible for resolving MAC \line addresses to IP address. It stores these in It's arp cache for later use. \line It does this to inform a lower layer of the destination's MAC address.\line\line\line 364. Which layer defines bit synchronization?\line A.) Application\line B.) Network\line C.) Transport\line D.) Physical\line E.) Session\line F.) Session\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line The Physical layers deals with synchronizing the 1s and 0s on the wire.\line\line\line 365. Which is true regarding half duplex Ethernet operation?\line A.) Half Duplex ethernet technology provides a transmit circuit connection \line wired directly to the receiver circuit at the other end\line B.) Half duplex transmission between stations is achieved by using point \line to multipoint Ethernet and Fast Ethernet\line C.) With Half Duplex transmission logically circuits feed into a single \line cable creating a situation similar to a one way bridge\line D.) Half Duplex transmission between stations is achieved using Point to \line Point Ethernet & Fast Ethernet\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Half-Duplex Capability for data transmission in only one direction at a \line time between sending station and a receiving station.\line\line\line 366. When would you use ISDN?\line A.) To connect LANs using POTS\line B.) To support applications requiring voice, data, and video\line C.) When you need a consistent and very high rate of data speed\line D.) To connect to IBM mainframes\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line IDSN supports high speed voice, data and video and is a good choice for \line many small businesses.\line\line\line 367. Which protocol will send a message to routers if a network outage or \line congestion occurs?\line A.) ARP\line B.) TCP\line C.) IP\line D.) ICMP\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Internet Control Message Protocol - ICMP is a management protocol and \line messaging service provider for IP. Its messages are carried as IP \line datagrams.\line\line ICMP is used in the following events:\line\line Destination Unreachable - If a router cannot send an IP packet any \line further, it uses an ICMP echo to send a message back to the sender \line notifying it that the remote node is unreachable.\line\line Buffer Full - If a routers memory buffer is full

ICMP will send out a \line message to the originator.\line\line Hops - Each IP datagram is assigned a path. This consists of hops. If it \line goes through the maximum number of hops, the packet is discarded and the \line discarding router sends an ICMP echo to the host. \line\line Ping - Ping use ICMP echo message to check connectivity.\line\line\line 368. What are the 2 functions of the Data Link Mac layer?\line A.) Handles access to shared media\line B.) Manages protocol access to the physical network medium\line C.) Provides SAPs for higher level protocols\line D.) Allows multiple devices to uniquely identify one another on the data \line link layer\line\line The correct answer(s): B D\line These are the two primary functions of the MAC layer.\line\line\line 369. Which layer is responsible for coordinating communication between systems?\line A.) Application\line B.) Network\line C.) Session\line D.) Transport\line E.) Physical\line F.) Data Link\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line The Session layer performs the following: Responsible for establishing and \line maintaining communications channels. In practice, this layer is often \line combined with the Transport Layer. Dialog control between devices or \line nodes. Organizes the communication through simplex, half and full duplex \line modes. Deals with connection establishment, data transfer, and connection \line release.\line\line\line\line 370. What is the default CDP broadcast update rate for Cisco routers?\line A.) 120 seconds\line B.) 60 seconds\line C.) 30 seconds\line D.) 90 seconds\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Cisco Discovery Protocol is a proprietary protocol to allow you to access \line configuration information on other routers and switches with a single \line command. It uses SNAP at the Data-Link Layer. By default CDP sends out a \line broadcast every 60 seconds and it holds this information for 180 seconds. \line CDP is enabled by default.\line\line\line 371. You need to come up with a TCP/IP addressing scheme for your company. How \line many network IDs must you allow for when you define the subnet mask for \line the network?\line A.) One for each WAN link\line B.) One for each router interface\line C.) One for each NIC installed in each client\line D.) One for each subnet with hosts\line E.) One for each host ID\line\line The correct answer(s): A D\line When determining Network Ids, you need to take into account each Subnet \line and Each WAN link you will have. Add these numbers up and you will find \line the answer to which Network ID you can use.\line\line\line 372. What is the protocol number for UDP?\line A.) 6\line B.) 17\line C.) 25\line D.) 21\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line User Datagram Protocol - UDP is a connectionless oriented transport \line protocol for use when the upper layers provide error-recovery and \line reliability. UDP does not sequence data or re-assemble it into any order \line after transmission. This protocol uses Port 17.\line\line\line 373. What is the default LMI type?\line A.) Cisco\line B.) ANSI\line C.) IETF\line D.) Q933a\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Local Management Interface (LMI) was developed in 1990. LMI messages \line provide information about the current DLCI values, the global or local \line significance of the DLCI value, and the status of virtual circuits.\line\line There are three types of LMI standards: \line ANSI - Annex D defined by ANSI standard T1.617 \line ITU-T (Q.933A) - Annex A defined by Q933A \line Cisco (default) - LMI defined by the gang of four\line\line\line 374. You have two Cisco routers setup back-to-back in a lab using DTE/DCE \line cables. To which router would you add the clockrate command?\line A.) The serial port on the DCE router\line B.) The Ethernet port on the DTE router\line C.) The Ethernet port on the DCE router\line D.) The serial port on the DTE router\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line In order to connect routers back-to-back, a clock rate must be set on the \line router with the DCE cable. This will provide the clocking usually \line performed by a DSU/CSU. It is recommended that a bandwidth statement be \line added to the interface because some routing protocols, such as IGRP, use \line this to make routing decisions.\line\line\line\line 375. How does a switch use store and forward?\line A.) By using a Class I repeater in a collision domain\line B.) The LAN switch copies the entire frame into its onboard buffers and \line then looks up the destination address in its forwarding, or switching, \line table and determines

the outgoing interface\line C.) By using broadcast addresses as source addresses\line D.) The switch waits only for the header to be received before it checks \line the destination address and starts forwarding the packets\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Store-and-Forward switching copies the entire frame into its buffer and \line computes the CRC. If a CRC error is detected, the frame is discarded, or \line if the frame is a runt (less than 64 bytes including the CRC) or a giant \line (more than 1518 bytes including the CRC). The LAN switch then looks up the \line destination address in its switching table and determines the outgoing \line interface. The frame is then forwarded to the outgoing interface. Cisco \line Catalyst 5000 switches uses the Store-and-Forward method. The problem with \line Store-and-Forward switching is latency is increased. Latency also varies \line with the size of the frame. The larger the frame, the more latency \line associated. This of course is due to the fact that the entire frame is \line copied into its buffer before being forwarded.\line\line\line 376. Which of the following are valid WAN terms?\line A.) DTE\line B.) DCE\line C.) Demarc\line D.) CPE\line\line The correct answer(s): A B C D\line All of the above are valid WAN terms.\line\line\line 377. Which two describe frame tagging?\line A.) Examines particular info about each frame\line B.) A unique ID placed in the header of each frame as it traverses the \line switch fabric\line C.) A userassigned ID defined to each frame\line D.) The building of filter tables\line\line The correct answer(s): B C\line Frame identification (frame tagging) uniquely assigns a user-defined ID to \line each frame. This technique was chosen by the IEEE standards group because \line of its scalability. \line\line In this approach, a unique user-defined identifier is placed in the header \line of each frame as it's forwarded throughout the switch fabric. The \line identifier is understood and examined by each switch prior to any \line broadcasts or transmissions to switch ports of other switches, router, or \line end-station devices. When the frame exits the switch fabric, the switch \line removes the identifier before the frame is transmitted to the target \line end-station. \line\line The following points summarize frame tagging:\line Used by Catalyst 3000 and 5000 series switches\line Specifically developed for multi-VLAN, interswitch communication\line Places a unique identifier in the header of each frame\line Functions at layer 2\line Requires little processing or administrative overhead\line\line 378. An ISDN BRI circuit can be described as which of the following?\line A.) 3B channels\line B.) 2-64Kbps B channels and 1-16Kbps D channel\line C.) none of the above\line D.) 2-64Kbps B channels and 1-16Kbps C channel\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line There are two types of ISDN Channels :\line BRI (Basic Rate Interface) - is 2 64Kbps B channels for data and one \line 16Kbps D channel for link management.\line PRI (Primary Rate Interface) - is 23Kbps B channels and 1 64Kbps D channel.\line\line\line 379. The two sublayers of the IEEE Data Link Layer are which of the following?\line A.) Link and Logical Control\line B.) Data Link and LLC\line C.) Logical Link Control and Media Access Control\line D.) Data Link and MAC\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Logical Link Control Sublayer - Acts as a managing buffer between the \line upper layers and the lower layers. Uses Source Service Access Points \line (SSAPs) and Destination Service Access Points (DSAPs) to help the lower \line layers talk to the Network Layer.\line\line Media Access Control (MAC) -The MAC sublayer manages protocol access to \line the physical network medium. The IEEE MAC specification defines MAC \line addresses, which allow multiple devices to uniquely identify one another \line at the data link layer.\line\line\line 380. The -- terminal no editing -- command will perform what function?\line A.) Edit the contents of NVRAM\line B.) Allows access to the terminal port\line C.) Stops the advanced editing feature\line D.) Enable password functions\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line The command to disable advanced editing feature is: Router(config)# \line terminal no editing\line\line\line\line 381. Which two of the following are valid ways to have multiple encapsulation \line types on a single interface?\line A.) This is not possible\line B.) subinterfaces\line C.) additional physical interfaces\line D.) secondary addresses\line\line The correct

answer(s): B D\line Cisco routers do not allow multiple encapsulation types on a single \line interface. Therefore, it is necessary to create either a Secondary \line Network, or a Subinterface and assign a new encapsulation type.\line\line\line 382. Which 3 statements describe default encapsulation and LMI type \line configuration?\line A.) There are only four encapsulations and 3 LMI type options\line B.) The LMI type config term options\line C.) In release 11.3 the LMI type is autosensed\line D.) The default LMI is Cisco\line E.) IETF encap must be configured unless the connecting routers are both \line cisco\line\line The correct answer(s): C D E\line The above 3 statements best describe default encapsulation and LMI type \line configuration for Cisco routers.\line\line\line 383. Which can be true regarding VLANs?\line A.) They are created by location\line B.) They are created by function\line C.) They are created by department\line D.) They are created by group\line\line The correct answer(s): A B C D\line A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a switched network that is logically segmented by \line communities of interest without regard to the physical location of the \line users. Each port on the switch can belong to a VLAN. Ports in a VLAN share \line broadcasts. A VLAN looks like, and is treated like, it's own subnet.\line The benefits of VLANs are as follows:\line Simplify moves, adds, and changes\line Reduce administrative costs\line Have better control of broadcasts\line Tighten network security\line Microsegment with scalability\line Distribute traffic load\line Relocate server into secured locations\line\line\line 384. What is true when using DDR?\line A.) HDLC is the preferred encapsulation\line B.) You must use static routing\line C.) You should use dynamic routing\line D.) You should use ISDN\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line When using Dial Demand Routing (DDR), static routes must be specified in \line order to route packets.\line\line\line 385. If you are running Token Ring with Novell IPX routing, which encapsulation \line should you use?\line A.) SAP\line B.) SNAP\line C.) 802.5\line D.) 802.2\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Token Ring with Novell IPX routing uses the SNAP protocol, not 802.5.\line\line\line 386. What are the 3 ways routers learn paths to destination networks?\line A.) Dynamic\line B.) Static\line C.) Routing tables\line D.) Default\line\line The correct answer(s): A B D\line There are three methods in which routers can learn paths to destination \line networks, they are:\line 1) Static - The administrator manually enters the routes.\line 2) Dynamic - A routing protocol is used.\line 3) Default - A gateway of last resort is set.\line\line\line 387. Bridges work at what layer of the OSI model?\line A.) Data Link\line B.) Network\line C.) Physical\line D.) Application\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Bridges work at Layer 2 (Data Link) because they examine the MAC address \line of the packet which they base decisions upon.\line\line\line\line\line 388. What is the default switching method for the Cisco 5000 series?\line A.) Cut-through\line B.) Store-and-splice\line C.) Latency\line D.) Store-and-forward\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Storeand-Forward switching copies the entire frame into its buffer and \line computes the CRC. If a CRC error is detected, the frame is discarded, or \line if the frame is a runt (less than 64 bytes including the CRC) or a giant \line (more than 1518 bytes including the CRC). The LAN switch then looks up the \line destination address in its switching table and determines the outgoing \line interface. The frame is then forwarded to the outgoing interface. Cisco \line Catalyst 5000 switches uses the Store-and-Forward method. The problem with \line Store-andForward switching is latency is increased. Latency also varies \line with the size of the frame. The larger the frame, the more latency \line associated. This of course is due to the fact that the entire frame is \line copied into its buffer before being forwarded.\line\line\line 389. The benefits to segmenting with Bridges are which of the following?\line A.) Scalability\line B.) Datagram filtering\line C.) Manageability\line D.) Reliability\line\line The correct answer(s): A C D\line Manageability, reliability and scalability are all benefits to segmenting \line with bridges.\line\line\line 390. What is the administrative

distance for IGRP?\line A.) 90\line B.) 120\line C.) 110\line D.) 100\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line IGRP is a distance vector routing protocol designed by Cisco. The maximum \line hop count is 255, and it uses a combination of variables to determine a \line composite metric. IGRP has an administrative distance of 100.\line\line\line 391. On an ISDN BRI interface, the control channel is the 'D' channel. What is \line the rate of this channel?\line A.) 64 Kbps\line B.) 1.544 Mbps\line C.) 128 Kbps\line D.) 2.048 Mbps\line E.) 16 Kbps\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 413\line 16K for the D channel (control)\line 64K for the two B channels (data)\line\line\line 392. MIDI and MPEG are examples of what layer of the OSI seven layer model?\line A.) Session\line B.) Network\line C.) Datalink\line D.) Transport\line E.) Application\line F.) Presentation\line\line The correct answer(s): F\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 17-18\line The OSI Presentation layer includes EBCIDIC, ASCII, PICT, GIF, MIDI, and \line MPEG.\line Encryption can also occur at this layer.\line\line\line 393. Which ISDN specification series deals with Concepts and Terminology?\line A.) World Series\line B.) I- Series\line C.) Q-Series\line D.) 911-Series\line E.) JSeries\line F.) F-Series\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 413\line The 2 most important ISDN specifications are Q & I:\line Q - Call setup and teardown.\line I - Concepts and terminology.\line\line\line 394. Which of the following is an example of the Physical Layer?\line A.) SQL\line B.) IP\line C.) LLC\line D.) DDP\line E.) Ethernet\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 34\line FDDI, Token Ring and Ethernet are all physical layer framing standards.\line\line 395. In regards to the ISDN BRI standard, which channel is used for control?\line A.) B\line B.) D\line C.) E\line D.) I\line E.) Q\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 413\line B is Bearer for Data (2 channels at 64kb each).\line D is for Control (16kb).\line\line 396. Which protocol resolves an IP address to a MAC address?\line A.) DHCP\line B.) RARP\line C.) ARP\line D.) NBP\line E.) DNS\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 3, page 93\line The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) sends out a broadcast to determine \line the MAC address from the IP address.\line\line\line 397. Which of the following is an example of the Network Layer?\line A.) TCP\line B.) IP\line C.) SQL\line D.) Token Ring\line E.) LLC\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 25-29\line Most protocol suites have differnet OSI layer protocols within them. At \line layer 3,\line IP is for TCP/IP. TCP is layer 4.\line IPX is for IPX/SPX. SPX is layer 4.\line DDP is for Appletalk\line\line\line 398. The Internet Control Message Protocol occurs at what layer of the seven \line layer model?\line A.) Physical\line B.) Transport\line C.) Session\line D.) Datalink\line E.) Presentation\line F.) Network\line\line The correct answer(s): F\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 3, page 94-95\line ICMP is used for error handling and testing at layer 3. Ping and \line traceroute are examples of ICMP.\line\line\line 399. Which of the following are examples of the Session Layer?\line A.) IP\line B.) Netbios Names\line C.) NFS\line D.) Token Ring\line E.) SQL\line F.) TCP\line\line The correct answer(s): B C E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 18-20\line Session layer examples include Netbios Names, SQL, NFS, X Windows, and RPC.\line\line\line\line 400. What is the regional telco office called, where the customers local loop \line terminates?\line A.) Demarc\line B.) DTE\line C.) DCE\line D.) CO\line E.) CPE\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 389\line The Central Office (CO) is the Telephone Company (Telco) location nearest \line you.\line\line\line 401. What is the default LMI type for Cisco Routers that are using Frame-Relay?\line A.) Gandalf5\line B.) Q933A\line C.) Cisco\line D.) IETF\line E.) ARPA\line F.) SAP\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 404\line Local Management Interface (LMI) types are Cisco, ANSI, and Q933A.\line\line\line 402. Most routing protocols recognize that it is never useful to send \line information about a

route back out the direction from which the original \line packet came. This is an example of which routing technology?\line A.) Split Horizon\line B.) LMI\line C.) Triggered Updates\line D.) Poison Reverse\line E.) SYN, ACK\line F.) DLCI\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 7, page 218-219\line The golden rule of Split Horizon: Do not send any update packet back out \line the same interface that it was received or learned from. Poison Reverse is \line typically used on larger networks, where a more aggressive routing loop \line solution is required.\line\line\line 403. Which layer of the 7 layer model is responsible for representing the \line application information between 2 different OS's? For example, converting \line ASCII to EBCIDIC.\line A.) Transport\line B.) Application\line C.) Physical\line D.) Session\line E.) Presentation\line F.) Network\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 17\line The OSI Presentation layer formats the data, which includes encryption \line services.\line\line\line 404. Which type of switching reads in the entire frame before forwarding it?\line A.) Tabling\line B.) Store-and-Forward\line C.) Inverse ARP\line D.) Fast Forward\line E.) CutThrough\line F.) Routing\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 2, page 61-62\line Store-and-Forward is slower, but it checks the frame for errors before \line forwarding. This can actually help to improve overall network performance \line on noisy lines.\line\line\line 405. Which OSI Reference Layer is concerned with path determination?\line A.) Datalink\line B.) Physical\line C.) Network\line D.) Transport\line E.) Session\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 20-25\line The Network layer is where routing occurs.\line\line\line 406. Which of the following are examples of the Datalink Layer?\line A.) LLC\line B.) SQL\line C.) TCP\line D.) Token Ring\line E.) IP\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 29-34\line MAC and LLC are the sublayers of the Datalink layer.\line\line\line 407. What is the standard ISDN term for a nonnative analog telephone?\line A.) TE1\line B.) TA\line C.) LE\line D.) TE2\line E.) ET\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 412-413\line Terminal Equipment 2 (TE2) does not support native digital ISDN. The \line analog device will require an external analog to digital converter.\line\line\line 408. Which Distance Vector characteristic can help to speed up convergence?\line A.) Triggered Updates.\line B.) Split Horizon.\line C.) Poison Reverse.\line D.) Hold Down timers.\line E.) Inverse ARP.\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 7, page 218-219\line Instead of waiting on a pre-set periodic interval (before sending the \line routing table), DV routing protocols can send triggered updates to \line immediately notify the neighbor routers. Hold down timers, Poison Reverse, \line and Split Horizon are features that are used to avoid routing loops.\line\line\line 409. Which type of switching is considered to be 'wire speed?'\line A.) Cut-Through\line B.) Multiplexed\line C.) Inverted\line D.) Layer 4\line E.) Store and Forward\line F.) Layer 3\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 2, page 61-62\line Cut-Through is the fastest mode of switching. Store and Forward reads in \line the entire frame, confirms the frame is valid, and then forwards the frame \line onto the wire. CutThrough only checks the destination header in the frame \line and immediately forwards the frame onto the wire, without checking the \line frame to be valid. Layer-3 switching is actually routing.\line\line\line 410. The Datalink layer works with which of the following:\line A.) Packets\line B.) Bits\line C.) Globules\line D.) Frames\line E.) Segments\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 29-33\line Physical - bits\line Datalink frames\line Network - packets\line\line 411. What is a characteristic of Store and Forward switches?\line A.) They forward the frame before it is completely read.\line B.) They work at wire speed.\line C.) They are the same a Cut-Through switching.\line D.) They read the entire frame and check CRC before forwarding.\line E.) They decrease latency.\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 2, page 61-62\line Store and Forward switch

will not forward fragments.\line The longer the frame, the longer the delay (latency) before the switch can \line forward.\line\line\line 412. Station A is transmitting data to station B, and expects an acknowledgment \line after every 400 bytes. After trasmitting data for a while, the two \line stations determine the line is reliable and change to expecting and \line acknowledgement every 600 bytes.\line This is an example of (pick the best answer only):\line A.) BECN\line B.) Sliding Windows\line C.) Poison Reverse\line D.) Countdown timers\line E.) Split Horizon\line F.) Count to infinity\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line A TCP/IP 'window' is the amount of data (number of bytes) that the sending \line station will trasmit before expecting an acknowledgement back.\line If the stations can change that window size on the fly, that is called a \line sliding window. This is done to optimize performance.\line\line\line 413. Which device listed below provides clocking for the line?\line A.) DCE\line B.) CPE\line C.) CO\line D.) DTE\line E.) Demarc\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line The Data Circuit-terminating Equipment (DCE) is responsible for providing \line the clocking on the wire.\line HINT: When You see the 'C' in 'DCE', think 'Clocking' t.\line\line\line 414. Which OSI Reference Layer controls application to application \line communication?\line A.) Datalink\line B.) Network\line C.) Transport\line D.) Session\line E.) Physical\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 16\line The Session layer controls a conversation between applications.\line The Transport layer controls communications between hosts.\line\line\line\line 415. The Datalink Layer is broken down into 2 layers, LLC and MAC. The LLC \line establishes media independence and what else?\line A.) Provides Windowing.\line B.) Provides flow control.\line C.) Provides SAP's (Service Access Points).\line D.) The Datalink layer does not have sublayers.\line E.) Provides SAP's (Service Advertising Protocol).\line F.) RIP Updates.\line\line The correct answer(s): B C\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 30-31\line OSI layer-2 SAP allows the upper layers to encapsulate multiple layer 3 \line protocols.\line IPX SAP is a protocol used to advertise NetWare services every 60 seconds.\line\line\line 416. When a Distance Vector routing protocol detects that a connected network \line has gone down, it sends out a special routing update packet, telling all \line directly connected routers that the distance to the dead network is \line infinity. This is an example of which routing technology?\line A.) ICMP.\line B.) Only Link State routing protocols have this intelligence.\line C.) Triggered updates.\line D.) Garrison-4.\line E.) Split Horizon.\line F.) Poison Reverse.\line\line The correct answer(s): F\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 7, page 218-219\line Instead of just removing the route from the routing update, Poison Reverse \line sets the distance to 'infinity' (for IP RIP this is a hop count of 16). \line This immediately makes the route invalid for all neighboring routers.\line\line\line 417. Which of the following would be displayed by the command 'SHOW CDP \line NEIGHBOR DETAIL'?\line A.) The incoming/outgoing port.\line B.) The hardware platform.\line C.) One address per protocol.\line D.) Amount of Flash Memory Available\line E.) The routers hostname.\line F.) The subnet mask, if IP is configured.\line\line The correct answer(s): A B C E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 8, page 294\line CDP shows a lot of the same info that 'show version' does locally, but \line FLASH memory is not part of it. The 'detail' keyword is optional, but even \line when used, IP subnet mask information is not displayed by CDP for IP \line interfaces.\line\line\line 418. Which of the following are characteristics of UDP?\line A.) UDP is connection oriented.\line B.) UDP is used with TFTP.\line C.) UDP is unreliable.\line D.) UDP is connectionless.\line E.) UDP is at the transport layer.\line F.) UDP uses no acknowledgements.\line\line The correct answer(s): B C D E F\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 3, page 84-90\line UDP sends packets 'blind' down the network, and relies on upper-layer \line protocols to form connections and detect errors. TCP is a \line connection-oriented procotol that can provide reliable transport.\line\line\line 419. What is a characteristic of Store and Forward switches?\line A.) They work at wire speed.\line B.) They are the same as Cut-

Through switching in 'prune' mode.\line C.) They forward based on transport layer info.\line D.) They forward the frame before it is completely read.\line E.) They increase latency.\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 2, page 61-62\line Store and froward will not forward fragments. The longer the packet, the \line longer the delay (latency) in the switch. There is no such thing as \line 'prune' mode.\line\line\line 420. The Internet Protocol (IP) occurs at what layer of the seven layer model?\line A.) Physical\line B.) Presentation\line C.) Network\line D.) Datalink\line E.) Session\line F.) Transport\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 3, page 91-92\line IP is a routed protocol that occurs at layer 3. Other layer 3 protocols \line include IPX, APPLETALK, and DECNET.\line\line\line 421. In regards to TCP/IP, which class of address allows for the fewest valid \line Internet hosts?\line A.) D\line B.) E\line C.) Classes are not used in TCP/IP.\line D.) B\line E.) C\line F.) A\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line Class A = 16.7 million hosts\line Class B = 65,534 hosts\line Class C = 254 hosts\line\line\line 422. For IPX, what is the DEFAULT Cisco Encapsulation on an Ethernet interface?\line A.) novell-ether\line B.) gns\line C.) snap\line D.) arpa\line E.) sap\line F.) dix\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 9, page 334\line At the time when Cisco first supported IPX, Novell-Ether (Novell \line proprietary 802.3 'raw') was the default frame type for NetWare 2.x and \line 3.x file servers. Now, Novell has changed their default frame type to \line 802.2 (which is really IEEE 802.3 Ethernet, with LLC 802.2 headers).\line\line 423. Novell NetWare has an Ethernet frame type called Ethernet_II. What is the \line matching Cisco command line keyword for this encapsulation method?\line A.) dix\line B.) sap\line C.) arpa\line D.) gns\line E.) snap\line F.) novell-ether\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 9, page 334-335\line Novell 802.2 = sap (contains 802.2 LLC headers)\line Novell 802.3 = novell-ether (NetWare proprietary)\line Ethernet_II = arpa (the Internet standard)\line snap = snap (field type set to 'AA')\line\line\line 424. There are 2 types of PPP authentication supported by the Cisco IOS. What \line are they?\line A.) PAP\line B.) PREDICTOR\line C.) MD5\line D.) CHAP\line E.) STACKER\line F.) MSCHAP\line\line The correct answer(s): A D\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 410\line Router(config-if)#ppp authentication ?\line chap Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)\line pap Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)\line\line\line 425. Which of the following are examples of the Transport Layer?\line A.) Token Ring\line B.) UDP\line C.) TCP\line D.) IP\line E.) SQL\line F.) LLC\line\line The correct answer(s): B C\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 20-25\line TCP is connection oriented.\line UDP is connectionless.\line\line\line 426. Which of the following describe SMTP?\line A.) Used for downloading files to the router.\line B.) Used for sending e-mail.\line C.) Uses TCP.\line D.) Uses UDP.\line E.) Uses port 25.\line F.) Used for managing IP devices.\line\line The correct answer(s): B C E\line Send / Simple (depending on literature) Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP) is \line used for delivering mail to other mail servers. It uses port 25, and \line relies on TCP.\line POP 3 (Post Office Protocol versio 3) is used for retrieving mail from \line mail servers to clients.\line\line\line 427. What is the standard ISDN term for a native ISDN modem?\line A.) ET\line B.) LE\line C.) TE2\line D.) TE3\line E.) TA\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 412-413\line The marketing term 'ISDN modem' was created to help sell the ISDN idea to \line America. There is no such thing as an analog modulator demodulator for \line digital ISDN. The Terminal Adapter (TA) allows you to connect a PC to a \line digital ISDN line directly. In the real world, ISDN is digital, modems are \line analog.\line\line\line 428. Which of the following are Transport layer protocols?\line A.) UDP\line B.) TCP\line C.) NBP\line D.) IP\line E.) SPX\line\line The correct answer(s): A B C E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 3, page 84-90\line TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) and UDP are used by TCP/IP.\line SPX (Sequenced Packet Exchange) is used with IPX.\line NBP (Name Binding Protocol) is used with Appletalk.\line\line\line 429. When determining

whether or not to route a LAN segment, which rule of \line thumb do you use?\line A.) 60/40\line B.) 50/50\line C.) 80/20\line D.) 90/10\line E.) 70/30\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 2, page 55\line The industry standard rule is 80/20, which means 80% local, 20% over the \line router.\line However, according to Cisco's online documentation, the answer is 70/30.\line This makes sense, considering more and more traffic is starting to go from \line the desktop to an ulimate destination outside the local are network, such \line as the Internet.\line\line\line 430. Which of the following are examples of the Session Layer?\line A.) TCP\line B.) LLC\line C.) SQL\line D.) NFS\line E.) Token Ring\line\line The correct answer(s): C D\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 18-20\line Session layer examples include Netbios Names, SQL, NFS, X Windows, and RPC.\line\line\line 431. Which layer of the 7 layer model provides services to the Application \line layer over the Session layer connection?\line A.) Transport\line B.) Application\line C.) Session\line D.) Network\line E.) Datalink\line F.) Presentation\line\line The correct answer(s): F\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 18-19\line The OSI Presentation layer is sandwiched between the Application and \line Session layers.\line\line\line 432. What type of switching creates variable latency through the switch?\line A.) Cut-Through\line B.) Inverted\line C.) Layer 4\line D.) Multiplexed\line E.) Store and Forward\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 2, page 61-62\line DEFINITION: Latency = Delay.\line Because a store and forward switch reads the whole frame before forwarding,\line a larger frame takes longer than a shorter frame.\line\line\line 433. The network portion of an address typically represents a:\line A.) Router\line B.) Ethernet MAC address.\line C.) Computer\line D.) Host\line E.) Segment\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 4, page 119-121\line Every network segment is represented by a network or subnetwork address.\line\line\line 434. The Physical layer works with which of the following:\line A.) Segments\line B.) Globules\line C.) Packets\line D.) Bits\line E.) Frames\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 34\line Physical - bits\line Datalink - frames\line Network packets\line\line\line 435. Which of the following is an example of the Network Layer?\line A.) LLC\line B.) SQL\line C.) Token Ring\line D.) IPX\line E.) SPX\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 25-29\line Most protocol suites have differnet OSI layer protocols within them. At \line layer 3,\line IP is for TCP/IP. TCP is layer 4.\line IPX is for IPX/SPX. SPX is layer 4.\line DDP is for Appletalk\line\line 436. When setting up a frame-relay network between a Cisco router and a \line non-Cisco router, what encapsulation type should you use?\line A.) SAP\line B.) CISCO\line C.) IANA\line D.) Apollo\line E.) IETF\line F.) Q933A\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 403\line The Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) encapsulation method is the \line standard encapsulation type for Frame Relay. Cisco routers default to the \line CISCO encapsulation method, because it was created before there was a \line standard.\line\line\line 437. A user device that connects to a DCE must be which of the following?\line A.) DTE\line B.) CPE\line C.) Demarc\line D.) DCE\line E.) CO\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 389\line DTE's are the router side, and receive clocking.\line DCE's are the DSU/CSU side, and provide clocking.\line It may or may not be Customer Premises equipment.\line\line\line 438. What does the parameter -- LOG -- do on an IPX access list?\line A.) The log keyword is not a valid option.\line B.) Read the LOG to figure out what traffic to deny.\line C.) Logs the creation of the access list.\line D.) Logs IPX access control list violations whenever a packet matches a \line particular access list entry.\line E.) Ensures the IPX protocol places a log in the fireplace.\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 10, page 374\line Router(config)#access-list 900 deny any ?\line log Log matches against this entry\line\line\line 439. Given the global configuration commands:\line 'banner

motd # Hello #'\line When would the message be displayed?\line A.) The message of the day banner shows up before login.\line B.) The message of the day banner shows up during logoff.\line C.) These commands are not the right syntax for MOTD.\line D.) Message of the day banners are displayed upon entering global config \line mode.\line E.) Message of the day banners are not possible.\line F.) The message of the day would be, 'Hello #'\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 166\line Message of the day banners are displayed when a user logs on to the \line router. In the example above, the '#' is the unique delimiting \line (terminating) character. In this way, banners can have multiple lines, \line terminated not by hitting <ENTER>, but rather by the chosen (unique) \line delimiting character.\line\line 440. Which ISDN specification deals with call Setup and Teardown?\line A.) Q-Series\line B.) J-Series\line C.) ISeries\line D.) World Series\line E.) F-Series\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 413\line The 2 most important ISDN specifications are Q & I:\line Q = Call setup and teardown.\line I = Concepts and terminology.\line\line\line 441. All equipment located at the customers site is called:\line A.) CPE\line B.) CO\line C.) DCE\line D.) Demarc\line E.) DTE\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 389\line CPE - Customer Premise Equipment\line\line\line 442. Which layer allows multiple Ethernet devices to uniquely identify one \line another on the Datalink layer?\line A.) Transport\line B.) Session\line C.) Network\line D.) Datalink - MAC Sublayer\line E.) Datalink - LLC Sublayer\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 29-33\line Ethernet MAC addresses are 48 bits long, and provide a unique hardware \line identifier.\line\line\line 443. Which of the following are examples of ICMP?\line A.) Traceroute\line B.) Web Browsing\line C.) Ping\line D.) Telnet\line E.) Destination Unreachable message from a router\line F.) Inverse Tunnels\line\line The correct answer(s): A C E\line Ping and Traceroute are used by ICMP for Testing.\line Destination Unreachable messages are generated by a router when it does \line not have a route to the network.\line\line\line 444. Novell NetWare has an Ethernet frame type called Ethernet_SNAP. What is \line the matching Cisco command line keyword for this encapsulation method?\line A.) arpa\line B.) sap\line C.) snap\line D.) gns\line E.) dix\line F.) novell-ether\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 9, page 334-335\line Novell 802.2 = sap (contains 802.2 LLC headers)\line Novell 802.3 = novell-ether (NetWare proprietary)\line Ethernet_II = arpa (the Internet standard)\line snap = snap (field type set to 'AA')\line\line 445. Given the Novell IPX address 1aceb0b.0000.0c12.3456 which part is the \line network portion of the address?\line A.) 0000\line B.) 1\line C.) 3456\line D.) 1ace\line E.) 0000.0c12.3456\line F.) 1aceb0b\line\line The correct answer(s): F\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 9, page 329\line IPX addresses are 80 bits total: The first section of the address is the \line network portion, the last 3 groups of numbers are the host.\line\line\line 446. In version 11.3 of the IOS, a Cisco router configured for frame-relay can \line automatically detect the LMI type. What is this known as?\line A.) Psychic\line B.) ESP\line C.) Inverse ARP\line D.) Hello\line E.) Reverse ARP\line F.) Autosense\line\line The correct answer(s): F\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 404\line Autosense allows the router to determine which LMI type the frame relay \line switch is using. Options include CISCO, ANSI, and Q933A.\line\line\line 447. What type of Ethernet operation allows only one entity to transmit at a \line time? For example, if someone else is transmitting, they must wait.\line A.) Full-Duplex\line B.) DualDuplex\line C.) Half-Duplex\line D.) Latex\line E.) Quarter-Duplex\line F.) Suplex\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chatper 2, page 65\line Half-Duplex is like a one-lane bridge. If one car is going over the \line bridge, all other cars must wait on the other side before crossing.\line\line\line 448. Which of the following are examples of the Application Layer?\line A.) LLC\line B.) Token Ring\line C.) Spreadsheet\line D.) TCP\line E.) IP\line F.) Word Processor\line\line The correct answer(s): C F\line

Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 16-17\line Pretty much any end-user program is an example of the Application Layer.\line\line\line 449. Which technologies listed below help prevent network loops in a switched \line (bridged) environment?\line A.) Store-and-Forward\line B.) IEEE 802.1d\line C.) Diijstra Algorithm\line D.) Cut-Through\line E.) Spanning Tree Protocol\line F.) Routing\line\line The correct answer(s): B E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 2, page 62-63\line The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) eliminates loops by disabling the port(s) \line that are causing the briding loop. This is also called putting a port into \line 'blocking' mode. The industry standard for STP is IEEE 802.1d\line\line\line 450. Which OSI Reference Layer controls end-to-end (host to host) communication?\line A.) Transport\line B.) Physical\line C.) Datalink\line D.) Network\line E.) Session\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 20-25\line The Session layer controls a conversation between applications.\line The Transport layer controls communications between hosts.\line\line\line 451. What is the first step in data encapsulation?\line A.) User information is converted into data.\line B.) Frames are put into bits.\line C.) Data is converted into segments.\line D.) Segments are converted into datagrams and packets.\line E.) Packets are put into logical frame.\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line The Five steps to data encapsulation (IN ORDER):\line 1) User information is converted into data.\line 2) Data is converted into segments.\line 3) Segments are converted into datagrams and packets.\line 4) Packets are put into logical frame.\line 5) Frames are put into bits.\line\line\line 452. We know that TCP provides connection oriented services, what else does it \line provide?\line A.) FECN & BECN\line B.) Path discovery.\line C.) Flow control and error checking.\line D.) Name resolution.\line E.) File manipulation.\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 20-25\line The transmission control protocol uses acknowledgements and windowing to \line handle flow control and error checking.\line\line\line 453. With distance vector routing protocols, it is never useful to send the \line same routing update packet back out the same interface that it was \line learned. This concept is called what?\line A.) Holddown timers\line B.) Poison Reverse\line C.) Count to infinity\line D.) Split Horizon\line E.) Link State\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 7, page 218-219\line Split horizon is the concept of: 'Don't tell me what I just told you.'\line\line\line 454. Which of the following are ways to provide login access to a router?\line A.) HTTP\line B.) Console\line C.) Telnet\line D.) Aux Port\line E.) SNMP\line F.) LLC\line\line The correct answer(s): A B C D\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 157\line You can connect via Aux, Console, Telnet, or HTTP to a Cisco router.\line SNMP can support Community (password protected) SET and PUT commands, but \line you can not issue a command line interface command with it.\line\line\line 455. What two types of PPP data compression are available using Cisco IOS?\line A.) Predictor\line B.) DoubleSpace\line C.) Stacker\line D.) PAP\line E.) ZIP\line F.) CHAP\line\line The correct answer(s): A C\line Stacker and predictor have similar compression rates.\line Stacker uses more CPU, while predictor uses more RAM.\line\line\line 456. In regards to the OSI seven-layer model, at which layer is EBCDIC and \line ASCII?\line A.) Presentation\line B.) Application\line C.) Transport\line D.) Session\line E.) Datalink\line F.) Network\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 17-18\line The OSI Presentation layer includes EBCIDIC, ASCII, PICT, GIF, MIDI, and \line MPEG.\line Encryption can also occur at this layer.\line\line\line 457. Which of the following are examples of the Transport Layer?\line A.) SQL\line B.) UDP\line C.) IP\line D.) LLC\line E.) ARP\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 20-25\line TCP is connection oriented.\line UDP is connectionless.\line\line\line 458. Given the global configuration command 'banner motd #7 Hello #', what do \line the '#' symbols represent?\line A.) Escape sequence to exit the menu.\line B.) Nothing, just part of the banner.\line C.) Tic

Tac Toe Macro.\line D.) Delimiting Character\line E.) Message border character.\line F.) Number of times message to be displayed.\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 166\line Delimiting characters allow you to have a message the is more than one \line line. You simply type as many lines as you want, ending with the \line delimiting (terminating) character.\line\line\line 459. There is a process in Frame-Relay where LMI resolves an IP address from a \line DLCI number. What is this called?\line A.) aarp\line B.) inverse arp\line C.) rarp\line D.) automap\line E.) reverse arp\line F.) arp\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 406-407\line Inverse Arp maps the Local DLCI number to the remote IP address.\line Inverse Arp is a function of LMI.\line\line\line 460. When setting up a WAN network, everything outside of the Demarc is not \line owned by the customer. Which of the following are not owned by the \line customer?\line A.) The T1 line.\line B.) LAN\line C.) The Router\line D.) DTE\line E.) PC's\line F.) CO\line\line The correct answer(s): A F\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 389\line The Central Office is the where phone people work.\line The Telco maintains ownership of its physical wiring, and leases their use \line to their customers.\line\line\line 461. You want to segment a network. The network is running SNA and Netbios. \line Which device should NOT be used to segment the network?\line A.) A store and forward switch.\line B.) A router.\line C.) A Catalyst 5000.\line D.) A cut-through switch.\line E.) A bridge.\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 2, page 56-57\line SNA and Netbios are non-routable, you should bridge them.\line The most correct answer for this question is 'A Router.'\line The purpose here is to recognize that Layer 2 protocols can not be routed.\line However, there are ways to turn a non-routable protocol into a routable \line protocol via a protocol gatewatay, DLSW+, RSRB and other technologies.\line\line\line 462. Name a major component of the Point-toPoint Protocol (PPP) to negotiate \line and set up control options on the WAN data link.\line A.) RFC 1661\line B.) High Level Datalink Protocol (HDLC)\line C.) Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)\line D.) SS7\line E.) Link Control Protocol (LCP)\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line LCP negotiates many of the PPP settings during call setup.\line\line\line 463. Which of the following is an example of the Physical Layer?\line A.) SQL\line B.) IP\line C.) LLC\line D.) Token Ring\line E.) FDDI\line F.) TCP\line\line The correct answer(s): D E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 34\line FDDI, Token Ring and Ethernet are all physical layer framing standards.\line\line\line 464. Cisco's implementation of ISDN BRI has multiprotocol support, SNMP MIB \line support, and what other features?\line A.) Call waiting\line B.) Compression\line C.) ADSL\line D.) 1.544 Mbps\line E.) Call screening\line F.) Negative 'G' support\line\line The correct answer(s): B E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 413\line Caller ID is part of ISDN and you can screen calls based on it.\line Cisco can compress with Stacker or Predictor.\line\line\line 465. The Network layer works with which of the following:\line A.) Globules\line B.) Bits\line C.) Packets\line D.) Segments\line E.) Frames\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 25-27\line Physical - bits\line Datalink frames\line Network - packets\line\line\line 466. An optional parameter on an IPX access is the 'LOG' parameter. This \line records access-list violations when a packet matches. What else does the \line 'LOG' option do?\line A.) Records the number of times that a packet matches the list.\line B.) Return a message to user who is denied access the by list.\line C.) Notifies an SNMP Agent.\line D.) Saves the log to NVRAM.\line E.) Send an SNMP Trap.\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 10, page 374\line It will record to the log. By default a Cisco router logs to RAM and can \line display the offense to the console, which is not recommended. It is \line suggested that you log to a syslog server, for less router CPU impact.\line\line 467. Which is not a common problem with Distance-Vector routing?\line A.) Slow convergence.\line B.) Complex configuration.\line C.) Routing loops.\line D.) Periodic updates can slow convergence.\line E.) Counting to infinity.\line\line The correct answer(s):

B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 7, page 215\line Easy Config:\line Router(config)#router rip\line Router(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0\line Router(config-router)# \line That\rquote s it! (Remember that the network is followed by the CLASSFUL address.)\line\line\line 468. Which routing protocols uses connection-oriented routing updates?\line A.) IGRP\line B.) UDP\line C.) RIP\line D.) IP\line E.) BGP\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 7, page 228-229\line BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) uses TCP to reliably deliver its routing \line updates.\line\line\line 469. At which layer of the OSI Reference Model do bridges operate?\line A.) Physcial\line B.) Session\line C.) Datalink\line D.) Transport\line E.) Network\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 2, page 56-57\line Bridges and switches work at layer 2 and forward frames based on the MAC \line address.\line Repeaters work at the physical layer.\line\line\line 470. Where is the point between the customers site and the phone carrier that \line responsibility changes?\line A.) CO\line B.) Demarc\line C.) DCE\line D.) DTE\line E.) CPE\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 389\line The DEMARCATION POINT (Demarc) in North America is between the customers \line CSU/DSU and the Local Telco Office, because Americans own the DSU/CSU.\line Elsewhere in the world, the Demarc is between the Router and the CSU/DSU, \line because outside the USA the Telco owns the DSU/CSU.\line\line 471. Novell NetWare has an Ethernet frame type called Ethernet_802.2. What is \line the matching Cisco command line keyword for this encapsulation method?\line A.) gns\line B.) arpa\line C.) snap\line D.) sap\line E.) novell-ether\line F.) dix\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 9, page 334-335\line Novell 802.2 = sap (contains 802.2 LLC headers)\line Novell 802.3 = novell-ether (NetWare proprietary)\line Ethernet_II = arpa (the Internet standard)\line snap = snap (field type set to 'AA')\line\line\line 472. Which of the following is an example of the Physical Layer?\line A.) TCP\line B.) ARP\line C.) IP\line D.) FDDI\line E.) LLC\line F.) Fast Ethernet\line\line The correct answer(s): D F\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 34\line FDDI, Token Ring and Ethernet are all physical layer framing standards.\line\line\line 473. Which of the following is true regarding standard ISDN BRI service?\line A.) ISDN BRI B channels are typically 64K.\line B.) ISDN BRI can handle only voice.\line C.) ISDN BRI can handle only data.\line D.) ISDN BRI has 2B and 1D channels.\line E.) ISDN BRI D channels are 16K.\line F.) ISDN BRI can handle voice and data.\line\line The correct answer(s): A D E F\line 2 64K B channels carry the data.\line 1 16K D channel is used for control.\line Note: In certain parts of the world, it is possible that the 'B' channels \line are only 56k each instead of 64k each.\line\line\line 474. In distance-vector routing, there is a problem known as the 'count to \line infinity' problem. What is the most direct solution to this?\line A.) Defining a Maximum.\line B.) You can not solve the 'count to infinity' problem with a distance \line vector protocol.\line C.) Poison Reverse.\line D.) Triggered Updates.\line E.) Split Horizon.\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 7, page 218-219\line The most direct solution to the count to infinity problem is to lower what \line infinity is.\line For RIP, the default maximum number of hops is 16. It takes a lot less \line time to count to 16 than infinity.\line\line\line 475. Which of the following are examples of the Network Layer?\line A.) Token Ring\line B.) LLC\line C.) SQL\line D.) IP\line E.) TCP\line F.) IPX\line\line The correct answer(s): D F\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 25-29\line Other Network Layer protocols also include Appletalk and DECnet. TCP is \line considered to be at a higher Layer, because it provides guaranteed data \line delivery.\line\line\line 476. Which type of switching reads just the address portion of the frame and \line then immediately starts forwarding it?\line A.) Cut-Through\line B.) Store-andForward\line C.) Tabling\line D.) Routing\line E.) Inverse ARP\line F.) Fast Forward\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 2, page 61-62\line Cut-Through is fast, but it does not read the entire frame and perform any \line error checking before forwarding. This can result in forwarding

errors, \line such as fragments.\line\line\line 477. Which feature of PPP (Point to Point Protocol) allows the router to bind \line multiple channels together, to form a single logical channel?\line A.) multi-link ppp\line B.) multi-channel ppp\line C.) can't be done\line D.) omni-ppp\line E.) plp\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 410\line Multilink PPP binds separate physical lines into one logical line. This \line feature is especially useful for ISDN BRI, where you are provided 2 \line different circuits at 64k each (so you can bind them together for 128k).\line\line\line 478. Which of the following are solutions to the problems encountered with \line Distance-Vector routing?\line A.) Defining a Maximum\line B.) Poison Reverse\line C.) Triggered Updates\line D.) Shortest path first algorithm.\line E.) Split Horizon\line\line The correct answer(s): A B C E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 7, page 218219\line The Shortest Path First (SPF) algorithm is used only with Link-State \line protocols such as OSPF.\line\line\line 479. Classful routing protocols do not include subnet masks in their routing \line updates. Which of the following routing protocols are considered classful?\line A.) EIGRP\line B.) OSPF\line C.) TCP\line D.) IGRP\line E.) RIP\line F.) IP\line\line The correct answer(s): D E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 7, page 214\line IGRP & RIP do NOT includes the subnet mask in their routing updates.\line OSPF & EIGRP are classless routing protocols and DO INCLUDE the subnet \line mask in updates.\line TCP and IP are not routing protocols.\line\line\line 480. What is the standard ISDN term for a native ISDN telephone?\line A.) ET\line B.) TE1\line C.) TE2\line D.) LE\line E.) TA\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 412-413\line Terminal Equipment 1 (TE1) understands what native digital ISDN is, and \line has built-in analog to digital converters.\line\line\line 481. PICT & JPEG are examples of what layer in the OSI seven layer model?\line A.) Transport\line B.) Presentation\line C.) Application\line D.) Datalink\line E.) Network\line F.) Session\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 17-18\line The OSI Presentation layer includes EBCIDIC, ASCII, PICT, GIF, MIDI, and \line MPEG.\line Encryption can also occur at this layer.\line\line\line 482. Which of the following is an example of the Session Layer?\line A.) TCP\line B.) SQL\line C.) IP\line D.) X-Windows\line E.) Token Ring\line F.) LLC\line\line The correct answer(s): B D\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 18-20\line Netbios Names, SQL, NFS, X-Windows are examples of the Session layer.\line\line\line 483. Which global configuration command will tell the router to load the IOS \line file 'IOS_filename' from the Network File server at 1.2.3.4 during the \line next boot?\line A.) boot system flash IOS_filename 1.2.3.4\line B.) boot system tftp IOS_filename 1.2.3.4\line C.) config-register 0x0 1.2.3.4\line D.) boot system rom 1.2.3.4\line E.) This can not be done, only the first file in flash can be used.\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 8, page 277\line Router(config)#boot system ?\line WORD TFTP filename or URL\line flash Boot from flash memory\line mop Boot from a Decnet MOP server\line rcp Boot from a server via rcp\line rom Boot from rom\line tftp Boot from a tftp server\line\line\line 484. At what layer of the OSI reference model does FRAME-RELAY map to?\line A.) Session\line B.) Physical\line C.) Network\line D.) Presentation\line E.) Transport\line F.) Datalink\line\line The correct answer(s): F\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 402\line Remember, layer 2 deals with 'frames', and Frame-Relay is purely a layer 2 \line procotol.\line\line\line 485. X.25 is characterized by layer 2 identifiers, and what else?\line A.) Virtual Lan's\line B.) Session Layer\line C.) Transport Layer\line D.) Routing Updates\line E.) PVC's\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 396\line Permament Virtual Circuits and Layer 2 identifies are typical in X.25.\line\line\line 486. Which of the following is an example of the Network Layer?\line A.) Token Ring\line B.) RARP\line C.) LLC\line D.) DDP\line E.) TCP\line\line The correct answer(s): B D\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 25-29\line The following two are layer 3 protocols:\line DDP - Datagram Delivery Protocol. AppleTalk network layer protocol that is \line responsible for

delivery of datagrams.\line RARP - Reverse Address Resolution Protocol. Protocol in the TCP/IP the \line allow a client to get assigned an IP address based on it's own MAC address.\line\line\line 487. What is an advantage of LAN segmentation?\line A.) Increases broadcasts.\line B.) Increases collisions.\line C.) Provides more protocol support.\line D.) Decreases broadcasts.\line E.) Routing protocol support.\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 2, page 55\line Broadcast containment is a primary motive for LAN segmentation.\line\line\line 488. What does the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) provide?\line A.) Connectionless datagram service.\line B.) FECN & BECN\line C.) Flow control and error checking.\line D.) Name resolution.\line E.) Path discovery.\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 3, page 88-90\line UDP is connectionless, and does not provide error checking. But remember, \line error checking can occur at other layers too.\line\line\line 489. Which OSI Reference Layer is concerned with logical addressing?\line A.) Network\line B.) Transport\line C.) Datalink\line D.) Physical\line E.) Session\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 20-25\line Datalink is physical (hardware) addressing.\line Network is logical (software) addressing.\line\line\line 490. What layer can optionally support reliability?\line A.) Transport\line B.) IP\line C.) Physical\line D.) Network\line E.) Sub-physical layer\line\line The correct answer(s): A\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 20-25\line The Transport Layer:\line Segments upper-layer applications.\line Establishes an end-to-end connection.\line Sends segments from one end host to another.\line Optionally, ensures data reliability.\line\line\line 491. Which of the following is an example of the Datalink Layer?\line A.) LLC\line B.) TCP\line C.) SQL\line D.) IPX\line E.) Token Ring\line F.) MAC\line\line The correct answer(s): A F\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 29-33\line MAC (media access control) and LLC (logical link control) are both layer 2 \line protocols.\line\line\line 492. What is the last step in data encapsulation?\line A.) User information is converted into data.\line B.) Segments are converted into datagrams and packets.\line C.) Frames are put into bits.\line D.) Data is converted into segments.\line E.) Packets are put into logical frame.\line\line The correct answer(s): C\line The Five steps to data encapsulation (IN ORDER):\line 1) User information is converted into data.\line 2) Data is converted into segments.\line 3) Segments are converted into datagrams and packets.\line 4) Packets are put into logical frame.\line 5) Frames are put into bits.\line\line\line 493. Which switching technology can reduce the size of a broadcast domain?\line A.) Cut-Through\line B.) Store-and-Forward\line C.) Spanning Tree Protocol\line D.) RARP\line E.) ARP\line F.) VLAN\line\line The correct answer(s): F\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 2, page 64\line VLAN's are logical ways to break up a large broadcast domain.\line To get from VLAN to VLAN you must have a router.\line\line\line 494. Station A is transmitting data to station B faster that station B can \line handle it. When station B's buffer fills up, it send out a message to \line station A to stop sending data. After B empties out its buffer, station B \line sends a message to station A to start sending data again.\line This is most directly an example of (pick the best answer only):\line A.) Poison Reverse\line B.) Connectionless protocol\line C.) Windowing\line D.) Connection oriented protocol\line E.) Flow Control\line F.) Split Horizon\line\line The correct answer(s): E\line Flow control is when a station is being overloaded with data abd tells the \line other station to stop for a while, so the receiving station can process \line the data that it has in its buffer.\line\line\line 495. The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) Basic Rate Interface (BRI) \line provides which of the following?\line A.) 1.544 Mbps\line B.) 23B + 1D Channel\line C.) 24B + 1D Channel\line D.) 2B + 1D Channel\line E.) 23B + the Disney Channel\line\line The correct answer(s): D\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 11, page 413\line Each B (Bearer) Data channel is 64K\line The D (Control) channel is 16K\line\line\line 496. Which layer manages protocol access to the Network layer?\line A.) Datalink - MAC Sublayer\line B.) Datalink - LLC Sublayer\line C.) Transport\line D.) Session\line E.)

Network\line\line The correct answer(s): B\line Sybex CCNA Study Guide: Chapter 1, page 34\line Having two Datalink sublayers provides physical media independence.\line The MAC sublayer encapsulates to the Physical Layer.\line The LLC sublayer encapsulates to the Network Layer.\par } #

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