INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Write
the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.





Badong, with evident premeditation and treachery killed his father. What was the
crime committed?
a. Murder
b. Parricide
c. Homicide
d. Qualified Homicide
PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy against the latter’s will on suspicion
that Totoy keep unlicensed firearms in his home.
What was the crime
committed by PO3 Bagsik?
a. Trespass to Dwelling
b. Violation of Domicile
c. Usurpation Of Authority
d. Forcible Trespassing
Berung and Betang had been married for more than six months. They live
together with the children of Betang from her first husband. Berung had sexual
relationship with Bea, the 14 year old daughter of Betang. Bea love Berung
very much. What was the crime committed by Berung, if any?
a. Simple Seduction
b. Qualified Seduction
c. Consented Abduction
d. Rape
Prof. Juan
gave a failing grade to one of his students, Sixto. When the two
met the following day, Sixto slapped Prof. Juan on the face. What was the crime
committed by Sixto?
a. Corruption of Public Officials
b. Direct Assault
c. Slight Physical Injuries
d. Grave Coercion
A warrant of arrest was issued against Pekto for the killing of his parents. When
PO2 Tapang tried to arrest him, Pekto gave him 1 million Pesos to set him free.
PO2 Tapang refrained in arresting Pekto. What was the crime committed by
PO2 Tapang?
a. Indirect Bribery
b. Direct Bribery
c. Corruption of Public Officials
d. Qualified Bribery

direct assault d. BP 22 d. a. culture The authority of the court to take cognisance of the case in the first instance. RA 6975 The taking of another person’s personal property. 14. jurisdiction b. 10. suicide note d. grave threat b. a. robbery c. 11. whether right or wrong. a. theft d. Violation of traffic laws c.6. General Jurisdiction c. bench The Anti-Bouncing Check Law. ultimate fact c. grave coercion c. venue d. jurisprudence c. qualified theft b. a. dead man statute The meaning of factum probans. a. inheritance b. sufficiency of evidence It refers to family history or descent transmitted from one generation to another. 12. parol evidence b. Counsel de officio b. Attorney at law d. with intent to gain. The penalty does not exceed 6 months imprisonment It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to be exercised. a. Violation of rental laws b. a. RA 6425 b. Special counsel Which of the following is not covered by the Rules on Summary Procedure? a. a. pedigree d. a. ante mortem statement c. Exemption to the hearsay rule made under the consciousness of an impending death. 8. Original Jurisdiction d. malicious mischief Felony committed when a person compels another by means of force. Attorney on record c. 15. evidentiary fact d. by means of force and intimidation. preponderance of evidence b. 7. 9. violence or intimidation to do something against his will. slander by deed . The penalty is more than six months of imprisonment d. 13. Exclusive Jurisdiction A person designated by the court to assist destitute litigants. RA 8353 c. heritage c. Appellate Jurisdiction b.

adultery d. prescription of prosecution c. a. 15-18 years old b. forcible detention An offense committed by a married woman through carnal knowledge with a man not her husband who knows her to be married. scandal The unauthorized act of a public officer who compels another person to change his residence. 21. a. direct assault The deprivation of a private person of the liberty of another person without legal grounds. 24. principal actors d. amnesty d. immorality Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime. suspects c. mala in se c. although the marriage be later declared void. 23. concubinage b. expulsion d. tumultuous b. 19. indirect bribery . a. direct bribery c. a. forcible abduction d. bigamy c. pimps b. 18. violation of domicile b. 22. a mock serenade of discordant noises designed to annoy and insult. 9 years old and below d. pardon b. gang members d. Persons having no apparent means of subsistence but has the physical ability to work and neglects to apply himself or herself to lawful calling. between 9 & 15 years old Those who. a. mala prohibita b. qualified bribery b. prescription of crime b. 18-70 years old c. a. reprieve Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs of the society. estafa d. commutation c. 20.16. accessories The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the final sentence after the lapse of a certain time fixed by law. vagrants A medley of discordant voices. a. a. not being principals cooperate in the execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts. 26. private crimes d. 25. a. prescription of penalty A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty is suspended. a. charivari c. 17. prostitutes c. arbitrary detention c. public crimes Felony committed by a public officer who agrees to commit an act in consideration of a gift and this act is connected with the discharge of his public duties. sedition d. a. prescription of judgement d. accomplices b. arbitrary detention c. illegal detention b.

a.plea of surrender At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or information? a. a plea of not guilty b. a. a. Monday morning The process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a criminal case work out a mutually satisfactory disposition on the case subject to court approval. administered by authority of law on a material matter. absolutory causes d. bail d. slander Deliberate planning of act before execution. 31. evident premeditation If the accused refuse to plead. ignominy d. libel b. passion or obfuscation d. a. misfeasance b. conditioned upon his appearance before any court as required under the conditions specified by law. aggravating circumstances c. insanity b. piracy The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to. impossible crimes b. 37. any time before entering his plea d. what shall be entered for him? a. 35.27. 33. a. a plea of guilty c. cruelty Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted together in the commission of a crime. treachery b. a. inducement d. plea bargaining c. evident premeditation c. The wilful and corrupt assertion of falsehood under oath of affirmation. omission d. or make conditional plea of guilty. perjury d. 36. only after entering his plea C. negligence b. 30. falsification c. recognizance c. 29. at any time before his arrest b. a plea of mercy d. intoxication c. instigation Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of public policy and sentiment there is no penalty imposed. trial The security given for the release of a person in custody. arraignment b. complex crimes An alternative circumstance. gang b. act Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law breaker in the execution of his criminal plan. 28. preliminary investigation d. 32. conspiracy c. subpoena b. furnished by him or a bondsman. imprudence c. a. a. a. band d. entrapment c. 34. warrant .

informers The unlawful destruction. a.38. murder d. documentary evidence b. secondary evidence b. used or intended to be used as means in committing an offense b. preliminary investigation d. a. witnesses c. arraignment c. The examination before a competent tribunal. suspects b. 43. a. judgment The adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or is not guilty of the offense charged. a. for the purpose of determining such issue. stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the offense c. unexplained or uncontradicted is sufficient to maintain the proposition affirmed. corroborative evidence d. real evidence When the witness states that he did not see or know the occurrence of a fact. trial b. by which ideas are represented on material substances. all of the above All persons who can perceive and perceiving. and the imposition of the proper penalty and civil liability provided for by law on the accused. secondary evidence d. a. pre-trial d. of the acts in issue in a case. subject of the offense d. can make known their perception to others. victims d.testimonial evidence c. corroborative evidence d. a. judgment It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well founded belief that an offense has been committed and the offender is probably guilty thereof and should be held for trial. 40. 42. secondary evidence b. 41. a. plea bargaining It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts. 44. parricide . a. abortion b. prima facie evidence c. infanticide c. material evidence d. arraignment b.corroborative evidence c. best evidence A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived from conventional symbols. a. according to the laws of the land. 45. a. best evidence It is that which. pre-trial b. 39. prima facie evidence c. pre-trial c. 47. negative evidence Personal property that can be subjects for search and seizure. arraignment d. standing alone. such as letters. 46. trial b. of human fetus before the natural time of birth which results in death. positive evidence b. or the bringing forth prematurely.

complex crime d. guilt d. prejudicial question d. 52. a. reiteracion b. dura lex sed lex An act which would be an offense against persons or property were if not for the inherent impossibility of its accomplishment. alarm and scandal b. a. 24 hours c. RA 5425 b. legal question b. 48 hours d. responsibility b. accidental crime d. ignorantia legis non excusat b. death under exceptional circumstances d. complex crime Infanticide is committed by killing a child not more than…. a. 57. RA 7659 d. 51. compound crime b. RA 8553 c. juridical question c. imbecility The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its owner or author. accidental crime The law which reimposed the death penalty. mysterious homicide c. 49. a. 53. 50. 55. a. habitual delinquency An act or omission which is a result of a misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not intentional. parens patriae c. recidivism b. impossible crime b. RA 8551 One who is deprived completely of reason or discernment and freedom of the will at the time of the commission of the crime. imputability . a. 36 hours b. a. impossible crime c. duty c. a. 54. judicial question The offender has been previously punished for an offense to which the law attaches an equal or greater penalty or two or more crimes to which it attaches a lighter penalty. 72 hours Ignorance of the law excuses no one from compliance therewith. epilepsy d. a. insanity c. tumultuous affray A question which arises in a case the resolution of which is the logical antecedent of the issue involved in said case and the cognisance of which pertains to another rtribunal. mistake of facts c. a.48. discernment b. Felony committed when a person is killed or wounded during the confusion attendant to a quarrel among several persons not organized into groups and the parties responsible cannot be ascertained. 56. quasi-recidivism d. res ipsa loquitur d.

right against self-incrimination Known in other countries as the body of principles. a. subpoena b. Something that happen outside the sway of our will. justifying d. common laws d. usages and rules of action which are not recognized in our country. fortuitous event b. a. aggravating Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance with the law. subscribed by the offended party . right to remain silent d. statutory laws Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the crime any of all the conditions that would make an act voluntary and hence. treachery c. 62. special laws c. destiny A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense. the conviction of an innocent person. practices. recidivism b. though there is no criminal liability there is civil liability. and although it comes about through some acts of our will. a. penal laws b. reiteracion d. causing him unnecessary physical pain in the consummation of the criminal act. a. 60. masochism One. lies beyond the bounds of humanly foreseeable consequences. habitual delinquency c. exempting b. cruelty . accident d. writ This right of the accused is founded on the principle of justice and is intended not to protect the guilty but to prevent as far as human agencies can. 63. complaint d.58. he incurs no criminal and civil liability. presumption of innocence c. any peace officer or other public officer charged with the enforcement of the law violated. and hence. fate c. alternative c. 66. a. 64. right to due process of law b. exempting b. cruelty c. alternative c. craft b. ignominy b. a. aggravating When the offender enjoys and delights in making his victim suffer slowly and gradually. quasi-recidivism Alevosia means a. information c. justifying d. 65. treachery d. 61. evident premeditation d. a. who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been previously convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal Code. 59. a.

73. quasi-recidivist c. subpoena b. Criminal Law b. proceeds upon inquiry and render judgment after a fair trial. principals A crime against honor which is committed by performing any act which casts dishonor. a. a. Secondary d. 74. theft.67. Criminal Evidence c. made upon oath before an authorized magistrate or officer. misleading c. a. Conclusive These questions suggest to the witness the answers to which an examining party requires. incriminating innocent person d. Best c. 77. he is found guilty of any of the said crimes a third time or oftener. hardened criminal A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome. hearsay A method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of persons alleged to have committed a crime. instigators d. libel b. nonfeasance d. 71. a. a. estafa or falsification. slander by deed c. robbery. 72. 69. malfeasance c. Secondary d. The law hears before it condemns. accessories c. 40 years Persons who take direct part in the execution of a crime. 20 years b. 76. Criminal Procedure d. 68. Conclusive A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome. a. a. ex post facto law b. Criminal Jurisprudence The period of prescription of crimes punishable by death. misfeasance b. Primary b. 70. accomplices b. 75. 15 years c. a. a. stupid d. and for their punishment in case of conviction. habitual delinquent d. recidivist b. Primary b. a. or contempt upon another person. 10 years d. a. rule of law d. due process of law A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his release or last conviction of the crime of serious or less serious physical injuries. dereliction A sworn statement in writing. leading b. affidavit . discredit. intriguing against honor The improper performance of some act which might lawfully be done. equal protection of the law c. Best c. writ c. warrant d.

a. Consummated d. a. Attempted b. recidivism c. 84. Sedition b. screen name A special aggravating circumstance where a person. Error in Personae c. 81. Frustrated c. it is the raising of commotions or disturbances in the State. 80. Rebellion c. arbitrary detention c. dwelling The mental capacity to understand the difference between right and wrong. Treason d. Coup d’ etat The length of validity of a search warrant from its date. a. common name c. treason b. espionage c. illegal detention b. premeditation c. recidivism d. Municipal Councilor In its general sense. prison c. 89. Accomplished . 10 days d. a. unauthorized detention A breach of allegiance to a government. quasi-recidivism b. 30 days b. Police Officer d. a. 87. 85. 79. compulsory detention d. a. a. 60 days The detention of a person without legal grounds by a public officer or employee. alias b.78. after having been convicted by final judgment. a. 83. or while serving the same. exclusively used for rest and comfort. fictitious name d. Praeter Intentionem It means mistake in the blow. Aberratio ictus b. a. Private School Teacher c. a. Rape It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is intended. 82. Praeter Intentionem A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are present. Any other name which a person publicly applies to himself without authority of law. Error in personae c. Dura lex sed lex d. Rebellion d. 86. Municipal mayor b. 90. coup d’ etat A building or structure. shall commit a new felony before beginning to serve such sentence. charivari Which of the following is not a person in authority. a. 88. jail d. Estafa b. rebellion d. Aberratio Ictus b. committed by a person who owes allegiance to it. a. sanctuary b. 15 days c. Murder c. reiteracion d. a. discernment Conspiracy to commit this felony is punishable under the law. Dura Lex Sed lex d. treachery b.

Farm Theft c. Retroactive 97. Negligence b. An act or omission which is the result of a misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not intentional. Mistake of facts c. Formal c. force or intimidation. Offenses b. Qualified Theft d. 92. Misdemeanours c. a. Material b. a. a. a. Penal Law 98. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may bound to answer for the commission of an offense. Detention 99. Ex Post Facto Law d. Seasonal d. Inference Acts and omissions punishable by special penal laws. Pedro. Ordinances A character of Criminal Law. a. None **Nothing follows** . 96. a 19 year old man had sexual intercourse with her 11 year old girlfriend without threat. Bill of Attainder b. Deliberate d. Culpable b. making it binding upon all persons who live or sojourn in the Philippines. Robbery b. A legislative act which inflicts punishment without judicial trial. Imprudence d. 94. Absolutory Cause b. a. Arrest d.91. General b. Conspiracy d. Continuing Felonies where the acts or omissions of the offender are malicious. Pedro stole the cow of Juan. 95. What was the crime committed? a. Statutory Rape d. Felonies d. Qualified Rape c. Felony Crimes that have three stages of execution. Territorial c. Diligence c. Seizure c. Child rape b. Inculpable It indicates deficiency of perception. Search b. What was the crime committed? a. Intentional c. Prospective d. a. 93. a. Simple Theft 100. Bill of Rights c.