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2006 Remembered Questions NBDE Part I

1. Where are the renal pyramids located in the kidney


Medulla
2. Which of the following structures is found in the renal medulla
o Loop of henle
3. The most hyperosmotic portion of the kidney
o ascending loop of henle, prox tubule, inner medulla, distal tubule, collecting duct
4. The majority of water is reabsorbed.
o Proximal tubule
5. If you have a Kidney or Heart infarctwhat type of necrosis is this
o Liquefactive, Coagulative, Caseous
.Caseous is for Tuberculosis
6. What causes inc filtration fraction in the glomerulus
o Inc pressure (constriction) of efferent arteriolar pressure?
7. What kind of Necrosis will lead to soap formation and calcification
o Fat necrosis (Enzymatic Fat Necrosis)
Usu in the pancreas
8. L. Monocytogenes causes
o Parastie, Gastroenteritis, Meningitis
9. Which Hepatitis will cause symptomatic chronic hepatitis
o Hep C
o I think B is easiest to transmit in dentistry via blood, OSHA precautions for this
10. Several ?s on Pathology of Liver
o Vit K ?s--Coumadin stops vit KWhich leads to lack of
prothrombin or Thromboplastin???
VIT K is required by the liver to make prothrombin
o Pt has Liver Failure/Damage what is most likely cause of bleeding
Dont have enough prothrombin,,maybe thromboplastin11. When mast cells degranulate what is contents of granules.
o Histamine and Heparin
Eo chemotactic factor + histamine??
Histamine + Leukotrienes + ECF-A + Heparin
12. What is most responsible for interstitial osmolarity
o Sodium, albumin (more for blood osmolarity)
o Sodium b/c Interstitial fluid is in the ECF so Na is in Ecf
13. If pt has a plasma osmolarity what is most effective substance that the patient needs
o renin or ADH-increases permeability in collecting ducts, makes blood even more hypoosmolar, so I would say renin.
Renin is secreted when theres low B.P. to retain more water which gives diluted blood and decreased osmolarity.
o

14. What is most likely organism in perio infected oral cavity and infected pulp
Porphyromonas or streptococcus
It said in book that this was for deep subgingival sites and advanced perio dx
Predominant supragingival= streptococcus
Mutans= Enamel, plaque
Strep Anginosus= gingival crevice, dentoalveolar and endo infections??
Strep Vestibularis= vestibular mucosa
S. Salivarus= dorsum of tongue and saliva
15. In perio pockets what is there.
o Bacteria that are not indigenous to the normal flora, bacteria that are normal indeginous flora????-yes
16. Neisseria Gonnorhea virulence factorso Endotoxin (gram neg. have this) LPS
17. Pt gets an extraction, presents w/ fever and blood under his fingernails (splinter blood clots), what disease process was the
most likely cause of this
o
o

---DIC, thrombocytopenia??, Google says Endocardtis or Vasculitis


18. Which is least likely to infect a burn lesion
o C. tetani, S. aurues, M. Ulceratum, P. Aeruginosa
19. Neisseira Meningitis virulence factors, which of these is not a virulence factor
o Capsule, endotoxin, Iga protease, enterotoxin
20. Predominate Ig in saliva
o IgA or Secretory IgA????
Secretory IgA just has a role in protection for external secretions
I would choose Secretory IgA
21. What is the ideal polio vaccine, what it produces
o Produces a secretory IgA from gastrointestinal cells???, secr. IgA from respiratory tract cells
o Polio vaccine is of two types: the killed (Salk) vaccine and the live attenuated (Sabin) vaccine;
the latter given orally is the more popular.
The live vaccine produces more IgA
22. How does Mililary Tb spread
o Bloodstream (hematogenous), lymphatics- Yes, caused by severe bacteremia
23. Which cell type In newly forming bone is the most mitotic
o Osteogenic progenitor cells?, osteoblast precursor??24. Cribiform bone in the periodontium???
o 2?s one was a picture having to label where the Picture
o Synonyms for lamina dura include alveolar bony socket, alveolar bone, true alveolar bone,
alveolar bone proper, and cribriform plate of the alveolar process. The alveolar bone proper is a
plate of compact bone, the radiographic image of which is termed lamina dura.
o

25. Nerve of pterygoid canal


Sympathetic and parasympathetic
26. Lose Control of muscles of face below zygomatic arch on the left
o Upper motor lesion, cerebrocortical lesion on upper right Babinski sign, toes fan out instead of curving inward
o Neural pathway for upper and lower musclesUpper= crossed and uncrossed, Lower= uppermotor nerurons from
opposite side
o

o
o

EXTRA


27. Operate on parotid gland what is at risk other than the facial nerve of being damaged
External carotid branches and superficial temporal artery supply the parotid and auriculotemporal
28. Which nerves innervate the anterior part of the TMJ
Masseteric and deep temporal innervate anterior, auriculotemporal innervates lateral and posterior.
o

What type of joint is a Gomphosis Gomphosis) is a form of immovable articulation in which a peglike part fits into a cavity, as
in the setting of a tooth in its socket
PDL
TMJ=Synovial
29. What does Rotaviruses cause in infants
o Gastroenteritis
30. Which dx affects the most organ systems
o Herpes, HPV, Rubell
31. What causes the Most birth defects in industrialized countries
o Cytemegalovirus???
32. Which virus infects B cells
o Epstein Barr virus
33. Syphylis aneurism occurs where?
o Descending aorta (thoracic), Thoracic Aorta??
34. Which muscle abducts the Vocal Cords
o Posterior Cricoarytenoid muscle pg. 627 for other muscles in Agur and Moore
35. Severe abducens nerve (6)
o Cant abduct the eye due to LR
36. Numbness to skin and muscle of the thumb and forefinger
o Median nerve,- Radial Nerve
37. Structure that is most superficial in deltoid triangle
o Cephalic vein
38. Difference between cementum and bone
o Cementum continues to get deposited throughout life??????, weird answers
o Cementum has similar composition to bone, but it lacks vascularization
39. Cell bodies of the facial touch
o Trigeminl ganglion
40. Bacteria thrives in co2 environment
o Capnophiles
41. Source of cysts in the midline of the neck
o Thyroglossal duct-connection in embryo devpt bw initial postion of thyroid gland and final postion. Remnants may
develope into cysts
42. Carotid triangle of the neck, superior border
o Posterior Digastric
43. Floor of the submandibular triangle?
o Floor not Borders.mylohyoid
44. 53, Cyclic Amp and its role in glycogen breakdown
o
o

Glycogen phosphorylase---It leads to phosphorylation of this and makes it active


Glycogen phosphorylase is one of the phosphorylase enzymes (EC 2.4.1.1). It breaks up glycogen into glucose
subunits. Glycogen is left with one less glucose molecule, and the free glucose molecule is in the form of glucose-1phosphate. In order to be used for metabolism, it must be converted to glucose-6-phosphate by the enzyme
phosphoglucomutase
45. Cells that produce gastrin
o ..G Cells (was not an answer, maybe gastric glands via parasympathetic impulses??)
46. Difference b/tw large and small intestine
o Large intestine d/n have villi
Stomach has rugae?
47. Where does myasthenia gravis effect
o Neuromuscular junction postsynaptic R
48. Thick filament of muscle
o Myosin49. Cells that hypertrophy due to injury
o Cardiac muscle
50. What is in the jnxal epithelium
o Hemidesmosomes + zona occludens?
If Hemidesmosomes + Basal Lamina is an answer choose this b/c that is what is on the decks
51. Which epithelium can sustain trauma the best
o Transitional ????, Stratified Squamous -keratinized
52. What makes up the Nissl substance???
o Rough ER- in cell bodies and dendrites
53. How does pancreatic lipase get activated
o Trypsin
Some ?s about trypsin activating pancreatic enzymes
54. What hormone stimulates gastric secretion
o Gastrin, CCK (inhibits), secretin (no), (Chief Cells (Secrete Pepsinogen), Parietal Cells (secrete HCl from oxyntic
glands)
Mixing and Emptying Actions
Following a meal, mixing actions of the stomach turn the food into chyme and pass it toward the pyloric region
using peristaltic waves. The rate at which the stomach empties depends on the fluidity of the chyme and the type
of food. As chyme fills the duodenum, stretching of its wall triggers the enterogastric reflex, which inhibits
peristalysis and slows the rate at which chyme enters the small intestine
55. What is the enterogastreal reflex
o Feed back system to stomach
The brain alerts the stomach that it should expect arrival of a meal and the stomach comes out of its inter-digestive
quiescence and begins low level motor and secretory activity (cephalic phase). After a meal is consumed, the gastric
motor and secretory activity is fully turned on (gastric phase). If the meal is at all substantial, the gastric phase is
periodically suppressed by signals from the small intestine and, if gastric pH falls to very low levels, from the
stomach itself. Eventually, the meal is fully liquefied and emptied, and the stomach falls back into a state of very
low motor and secretory activity, where it remains until the next cephalic phase.
56. What stimulates glucose intake uptake into adipose tissue
o Insulin
57. Ehler-Danlos causes all of the following except
o Delayed wound healing, collagen, something didnt make sense
o Ehler-Danlos has faulty collagen synthesis causing hyperextensible skin, tendency to bleed ( easy bruising), hypermobile
jts.
58. Best way for Bacteria to transfer multi drug resistance, depends on the ?
o Conjugation or transformation
o Transductiontransfer via viral replication
o Transformationno cell to cell contact, most primitive way for bacteria to transfer genetic info
o Conjugationcell to cell contact, jay put this so not sure
59. Usual outcome of HSV-1 exposure
o No Outcome (most people dont have symptomssubclinical dx)
o
o

60. Usual transmission of ChlamydiaSexual transmission


61. Where is best place to take spinal tap
o L3-L5 spinal cord ends at L1
62. Section below T4 of the spinal cord, and they come into the office for a 2 hr appt what do you worry about
o Bowel emptying, high bp, temp regulation???
63. How does Influenza get its genetic diversity
o Mutation- genetic drift
Gene reasortment genetic shift
Both answers were on test

64. Lag phase


in mass but not #, in # but not mass
65. Pt has Hypotension, peri-oral pigmentation, nausea vomiting, fatigue
o Addisons-primary adrenal insufficiency (this one), Peutz-Jagers(d/n have hypotension), Gardners (d/n have
hypotension)
66. Stain for Acid-Fast stain
o Mycolic Acids (lipids and waxes)
This stains for Mycobacterium tuberculosis= Lipid and wax in cell wall
Mycoplasma pneumoniae= NO cell wall
67. Bacteremia
o What causes it----probing causes endocarditis, seeding of bacteria into the bloodstream
68. Difference between IgM and IgA
o Constant region of Heavy Chain, Constant Of Light, Variable of Heavy, Variable of Light
69. Which is not true of the Properties of Fungal Cells (eukaryotes)
o Chitin is cell wall, 2 forms (hyphae, yeast), asexual and sexual, Cholesterol in cell membranes (they have
pergesterol)
70. How do quantitate mRNA
o Western blot, Southern blot, Northern blot???
Western blotdetect protein
Southern blotdetect DNA
Northern blotdetect RNA and mRNA
71. How do you know if hep B carrier is infective state (actively dividing)
o HBs Antigen (ag)
o

72. How do you know if pt has been infected and now have immunity (test for post vaccination immunity)
o

Test for hepatitis b surface antibody, (HBs-AB) or (anti-HBs)

73. Sickle Cell anemia difference btw hemoglobin a and hgb S


Single DNA base pair substitution
74. What is the relationship where both members benefit
o

Mutualism (wasnt a choice, this is a form of symbiosis, its when both benefit), Commensalism (1 benefit, 1 not
affected), Symbioisis (Can both benefit but not always???)
75. Acquired active immunity, natural and artificial
o Look it up
76. Oshas standard for Blood Borne Pathogens is intended to protect
o Patient, Licensed hc provider, health care employees? Fine everyone
77. What is a risk factor for endometrial cancer
o Obesity (causes an in estrogen), multiple partners, sex at early age (cervical)
Other risk factors for endometrial carcinoma are Diabetes, HTN, and Infertility
78. What is not a risk factor for cervical cancer
o Early sex, Hpv, multiple partners, high risk male partners.. something else d/n make sense b/c all of these are the risk
factors
79. What is most common cancer of lung
o SSC of lung
80. Least likely to metastatize to bone
o Kidney, colon, thyroid, breast, and tongue??? BLT with Kosher Pickle ( breast , lung, thyroid, testis, kidney,
prostate)-metastasize to bone
81. Appearance of breast cancer, which one is false
Symptoms: lump under the arm or above the collarbone that does not go away may be present. Other possible symptoms include
breast discharge, nipple inversion and changes in the skin overlying the breast.
o Skin is dimpled, change in color of nipple, non tender mass, large red painful swollen mass
82. What the marker for choriocarcinoma- tumor of placenta
o Increased Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (Beta-HCG)
83. Smoking is a risk factor for all of the following cancers except
o Stomach, esophageal, kidney, pharynx
Could also be called colon, Look up what kind of cancers is caused by Smoking
84. What are not Symptoms of Bronchitis
o Look up, Hyaline mmb formation (not related)
Symptoms: An expectorating cough (the colour of the mucus does not signify whether the infection is viral or bacterial) Dyspnea
(Shortness of breath) Fatigue and/or malaise Mild fever Mild chest pains
o

85. What dx is a disorder of plasma cells that shows multiple punched out radiolucencies
o

Multiple Myeloma

86. What are pituicytes


o

Neurohypophysis-contains a specialised type of astrocytic glial cell - "pituicytes

87. Which of the following is most likely to cause cancer


Dysplasia or Metaplasia
88. Osteocyte most resembles
o Cementocyte
89. How does the body regulate Calcium absorbtion
o Based upon body Need (???)PTH, calcitonin,
90. What is an indication of malabsorption
o Steatorhea
91. What is the vitamin deficiency that causes rickets
o Vit D
92. What vitamin deficiency causes gingival inflammation, pocket, and bleeding
o Vit C (ascorbic acid)
93. What is the role of MHC class 2
o CD4, presents extracellular antigen to T helper cells on the cell surface
94. What could be a possible cause of pulmonary emboli
o Arterial thrombosis, parapalegic Venous thrombus/or left ventricle
95. Multiple Sclerosis- causes gradual destruction of myelin (demyelination) and transection of neuron axons in patches
throughout the brain and spinal cord (CNS)
96. Which complement is for alternate pathway
o C3= alternate no ab needed
o

C1= classical
97. 65 yo with an ill fitting denture show cotton wool radiographic appearance
Osteitis Deformans (Pagets Disease), Fibrous Dysplasia
risk factor for osteosarcoma
98. Which of the following activates Osteoclasts
o Thyroxine, Calcitonin, Insulin
PTH was not listed
99. All of the following structures exit the middle cranial fossa
o

Jugular foramen
Some other things in orbital cavity oculomotor, the trochlear, the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal, and the abducent nerves,
some filaments from the cavernous plexus of the sympathetic, and the orbital branch of the middle meningeal artery; and from
the orbital cavity a recurrent branch from the lacrimal artery to the dura mater, and the ophthalmic veins. Behind the medial end
of the superior orbital fissure is the foramen rotundum, for the passage of the maxillary nerve. Behind and lateral to the foramen
rotundum is the foramen ovale, which transmits the mandibular nerve, the accessory meningeal artery, and the lesser superficial
petrosal nerve. Medial to the foramen ovale is the foramen Vesalii, which varies in size in different individuals, and is often
absent; when present, it opens below at the lateral side of the scaphoid fossa, and transmits a small vein. Lateral to the foramen
ovale is the foramen spinosum, for the passage of the middle meningeal vessels, and a recurrent branch from the mandibular
nerve..

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109.
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Elevation of what marker will cause Acute Pancreatitis


Amylase
Lipase was not listed
In acute pancreatitis, the worst offender among these enzymes may well be the protease trypsinogen which converts
to the active trypsin which is most responsible for auto-digestion of the pancreas which causes the pain and
complications of pancreatitis.
What is a bone disorder of endocrine origin
Acromegaly (caused by GH), fibous dysplasia, pagets
What are the symptoms of asthma one of them will be false
The clinical hallmarks of an attack are shortness of breath (dyspnea) and wheezing. Although the latter is "often
regarded as the sine qua non of asthma,"[5] some victims present primarily with coughing, and in the late stages of an
attack, air motion may be so impaired that no wheezing may be heard.
What is the process when the chromatin condenses in the nucleus of a cell
Pyknosis1st stage of necrosis (unprogramed cell death), then
Karyolysischromatin is degraded by enzymes (DNAses) which causes
Karyorrhexisfragmentation of the nucleus
Apoptosisprogrammed cell death
All of the following are examples of the Heat Sterilization Technique except
Load instruments in when wet, sterilize for 6min @ 190, 12 min for
Which of the following is an immersing sterilant
Gluteraldehyde
Which amino acid forms an inflammatory mediator that causes vasodilation
Histidine- histamine
What is Penicillins MOA
Inhibits cross linking of growing gram + Cell wall(inhibits the terminal step in peptidoglycan synthesis)linkages bw
NAG and NAM
Which of the following inherited dx is associated with high levels of LDL in the blood stream
Familial Hypercholestrolemia
How is Cholesterol transported in the blood
LDL, VLDL??
Chylomicrons= Transfer triglycerides from lymph absorbed in intestine to adipose, and skeletal muscle which
converts it to lipoprotein, such as HDL, VLDL.
HDL= caries cholesterol from tissues to the liver. VLDL is assembled in the liver from cholesterol and
apolipoproteins. It is converted in the bloodstream to low density lipoprotein (LDL)

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111.
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116.

Mesothelioma is caused by exposure to


Asbestos
What organ is affected by Exposure to carbon tetrachloride?
Massive hepatic necrosis (liver problems)
Chronic exposure to carbon tetrachloride can cause liver and kidney damage and may result in cancer
Which of the following is X-linked Recessive
Hemophilia A ( other X linked recessive diseases are Hemophilia. B, Brutons agammaglobulinemia, Wiskot-Aldrich
syndrome, Fragile X, Duchenes muscular dystrophy)
What is the cause of hyperventilation
Respiratory alkalosis (blowing off all of your CO2)
Hypoventilation (building up your CO2 so you are resp. acidosis)
What happens to cause Troponin elevation in the blood
MI????, dont remember the options, just a guess
cardiac troponins are a marker of all heart muscle damage, not just myocardial infarction.
Actinomycosis
Sulfur granules, Anaerobic, gram-positive filamentous, branching rods;anaerobic "sulfur granules" in pus are
mats of intertwined bacteria, Actinomyces israelii, Found in anaerobic crevices around teeth; intrauterine
devices --> Actinomyces israelii endometritis. Normal oral flora, causes oral/ facial abscesses, may drain
through skin.
Active Acquired Immunity
After exposure to Ag, developes Ab
Diagram of mesencephalon=midbrain

117.
o

118.

Extrapyramidal neurons
Dont cross, control posture
ID Lacrimal Gland

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121.
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122.
o

What receptor does Epinephrine react with


Stimulates alpha receptors and beta receptors.
Norepi binds alpha 1 and 2 and beta 1
How does epinephrine raise the blood glucose level
It binds to 1 receptors of liver cells, which activate inositol-phospholipid signaling pathway, signaling the
phosphorylation of insulin, leading to reduced ability of insulin to bind to its receptors
What is least amount of space of teeth
ICP
What enzyme is used for transamination reaction
Pyridoxine (vit. B6)

123.
o

Transamination is the reaction between an amino acid and an alpha-keto acid. The amino group is transferred from the
former to the latter; this results in the amino acid being converted to the corresponding -keto acid, while the reactant
-keto acid is converted to the corresponding amino acid
By checking hydroxyprloine levels what are you testing for
Collagen

Hydroxyproline is a major component of the protein collagen. It helps provide stability to the triple-helical structure of collagen
by forming hydrogen bonds. Hydroxyproline is found in few proteins other than collagen.

124.

Immediate source of methyl groups in amino acid synthesis???


o SAM??, S-Adenosylmethionine (SAM)
A source of transferable methyl groups is choline
125. What root of the maxillary 1st PM would have 2 roots
o ??
126. What structure is epinephrine most closely related to
o tyrosine
127. What is split into urea, the last amino acid before urea is released
o ?arginine
o Urea cycle = amino groups donated by ammonia and L-aspartate are converted to urea , while L-ornithine , citrulline ,
L-arginino-succinate , and L-arginine act as intermediates.
128. In a highly acidic environment the GC content of DNA is
o Highest, Intermediate, Lowt
129. What enzyme is secreted from the pancreas that stimulates an alkaline secretion
o Secretin made in duodenum- stimulates the secretion of bicarbonate (base) from the liver, pancreas, and duodenal
Brunner's glands in order to buffer the incoming protons of the acidic chyme. It also enhances the effects of
cholecystokinin.
130. Where are the JG cells located in the kidney
o ? bowmans capsule- JG cell are specialized smooth muscle cells in the wall of the afferent arteriole that delivers blood
to the glomerulus
131. The breakdown of glycoproteins happens due to what organelle
o Peroxisomes, lysosomes?, golgi
132. What structure is emptied into the inferior meatus
o Nasolacrimal duct
133. which canal creates a direct entry from the oral cavity to the nasal cavity
o ?pterygopalatine, greater palatine
134. Which of these structures is located in the temporal bone
o Internal acoustic meatus
135. Which taste receptor has the lowest threshold for taste.
o Bitter, sour, salty, sweet
136. Which papillae is associated with vonEbner glands
o Circumvallate
137. A 6 yo kid presented to your office with diffuse small red spot on the ant 2/3 of the dorsal tongue what is most likely
affected
o Filliform papillae, fungiform papillae, lingual tonsil, foliate papillae
138. Look up something about a striated duct
o Weird ?
139. When your mandible moves in lateral excursion, the TMJ on the lateral working side moves
o Lateral, medial, inferior, superior
140. What covers the tmj articulating surfaces
o Fibrocartilage
141. in what layer is the large vessels in the floor of the mouththe tongue located
o Submuosa, lamina propria
142. The deep dermis is composed of what
o Dense irregular CT, Dense Regular CT, Reticular Layer
143. What is true insided the pulp

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167.
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168.
o

Type I collagen>Type III collagen


A fungal infection most common in diabetics
Mucor mycosis
What artery does middle meningeal a tributary of
Maxillary artery
What artery parallels the the ptergoid plexus of veins
Maxillary
What structure stores sperm
Testis, vas defrens, seminiferous tubules
If a pt develops right heart failure with an otherwise healthy left side what is the problem
Cor pulmonale
If a patient can only rotate his jaw and not translate what is the max amount of opening
30mm, 40mm, 50mm, 60mm
What foramen connects the sphenoid sinus and nasal cavity
Sphenopalatine foramen
Which muscle of the tongue pulls the side of the tongue inferior
Hyoglossus
What muscle does the parotid duct pierce
Buccinator
What foramen directly connects the nasal cavity and oral cavity
Incisive
The lingual nerve before it joins the c. tympani has what type of fibers
Afferent ant 2/3 tongue (general sensory) then it picks up taste from c. tympani
How many heme molecules and globulin protein chains??? Does hemboglobin have
4 hemes, 4 chains
How does the mandible form
Intramembraneous bone formation around Meckels cartilage
Hint: meckels bone does not ossify
What is the primary growth center of long bones
Epiphysis, epiphyseal plate, metaphysic, diaphysis
What deformity is due to lack of Vit D
Rickets in children, Osteomalacia in adults
What cell cycle phase is characteristic of separating nuclear material?
M phase
Asbestos exposure most likely causes what
Mesothelioma
What nerve innervates the TMJ
Auriculotemporal from V3 is the main one (highly innervating the posterior and lateral aspects), however
receives little twig branches from masseteric nerve and the deep temporal nerve in the anterior portion.
Which of these is located in the anterior mediastinum
Some loose areolar tissue, lymphatic vessels and some lymph glands, and branches from the Internal Mammary
artery
What structure is located at the level of the trachea bifurcation
Sternal angle at the level of the 4th thoracic vertebrae.
What is a positive chronotropic agent that will stimulate carotid bodies
Low O2 tension
The nerve that stimulates the submandibular ganglion (c. tympani) has its origin in what nucleus
Superior salivatory nucleus
The adventia of the arterioles is derived from what?
Contains loose collagen and elastic fibers (mesenchyme??)
The tip of the tongue receives its blood supply from
Deep lingual artery
What is a direct tributary of the celiac trunk
3 main branches: Left Gastric (later anastamoses with the Right gastric artery, a branch of the Hepatic artery),
Common Hepatic, and Splenic arteries

169.

The inferior thyroid artery is a branch of the


thyrocervical trunk is a branch of the subclavian artery. Its branches are, inferior thyroid, suprascapular, and
transverse cervical artery.
170. Which part of the gastric mucosa has no vili and limited mucous glands
o Ileum, stomach, duodenum, jejunum Every part of the small intestine contains villi. The only places that dont are
stomach and large intestine
171. What vessel carries oxygenated blood to the heart
o Pulmonary veins
172. What is the function of synovial fluid
o Lubrication and nutrition
173. What lines the ventricles of the brain
o Ependymal cells
174. Where is the Brocas area of speech
o Inferior FRONTAL gyrusWernickes area is in the left posterior part of the cortex called the superior temporal
gyrus
175. What is a relay station for sensory stimuli from the spinal tract to cortex
o Thalamus
176. What structure is the midbrain derived from
o mesencephalon
177. If you the permeability of a nerve cell to K what will happen
o It will go 0, +30, - 30, -50, -80 (should become hyperpolarized)
178. Complete cardiac block of the nerve transmission will show what on an EKG
o ..Dissociation of QRS and P
179. The Right 1st, 2nd, and 3rd posterior intercostal veins drain into the right superior intercostal which then drains into what
structure
o Hemiazygous, azygous, superior vena cava
180. Which of the following causes a
181. Osteoblasts are derived from
o Mesenchyme
182. What lines the articulating surfaces of the mandi. Fossa
o Fibrous connective tissue
183. TMJ lower rotation, upper translation
o Translation or gliding happens in the upper compartment and rotation or hinge occurs in the lower compartment
184. The tip of the tongue drains directly to
o Submental nodes and then the deep cervical nodes
185. If you have an abcess of the 1st PreMolar what space is infected
o Submandibular (mand. Incisor tth are the submental only)
186. Which of these will during a contraction
o H bands and I band will decrease. A band will stay the same
187. If your tongue deviates to the right what is wrong
o Right hypoglossal nucleus
188. Which antimicrobial affects lipid and non-lipid membranes
o Chlorhexidine gluconate distrupts membranes. Chlorine attacks cell membrane. Alcohols extract membrane
lipids
189. What will cause over secretion of saliva
o Epinephrine, atropine, curare, something else was the answer starts with a P (Pilocarpine)
190. Staph aureus
o Heat stable enterotoxins
191. What type of necrosis is most common in alcoholics
o Liquefactive???
192. What type of necrosis is most common for infarcts
o Coagulative (typically seen in hypoxic states)
193. Patients with cystic fibrosis
o Will have a sweat that contains NaCl (Get dx by chloride level in a sweat drop)
194. SCID is due to hypoproduction of
o

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206.
o

207.
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208.
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209.
o

210.
o

211.
o

212.
o

213.
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214.
o

215.
o

216.
o

217.
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218.
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219.

B cells, T cells, stem cells (no differentiation of stem cells, lymphoblasts, so you have NO B or T cells)
Most common type of meningitis
Viral is most common (Enteroviruses) but less severe than Bacterial (most common being Strep. Pneumonia)
What is false about Chylamydia Trachomatis
I think I narrowed it down to , the majority of women are symptomatic
What disease is most common to resemble primary syphilis (chancre)
Gingival herpetic stomatitis, herpangina
What is the most common renal tumor in kids
Nephroblastoma (Wilms tumor) most common metastasis is to the lungs
What infects skin, hair, and nails
Trichophyton (treat with Griseofulvin)
Which of these cause cancer in the genital tract of females
HPV (cervical cancer)
What causes a blood clot, terminal step
Monomeric fibrin
Hemophailiac A is caused by a deficiency of
Factor 8
How is VZV spread
Airborne, direct skin contact
Chicken pox stays latent where
Dorsal Root (sensory) Ganglia
Cytomegalovirus and EBV are familys of
Herpes Virus (HHV-4 is EBV and HHV-5 is CMV)
Which of the following are not viruses of the brain
..
HIV is a rotavirus
False, it is a retro virus
Intervertebral disc is composed of
Fibrocartilage
What is endotoxin associated with
Gram (-) part of the LPS
What is the most common severe rxn in transplants
Graft vs. Host disease, Host vs. Graft
What is associated with the mushroom toxin that affects mRNA
I put Rifampin ?? Alpha-amantin
If pt has a RV (something like that) quotient of 0.7 what is the main source of fuel
Fats are the source for fuel with an RQ (respiratory quotient) of 0.7. Carbohydrates are the source at an RQ of
1.0
Hertwigs epithelial root sheat forms
Epithelial cell rest of malasez
Enamel formation is due to
Stratum intermedium????
Crown dentin is different from root dentin by
Granular layer of tomes in radicular dentin
Know the pathogens in adult and juvenile Periodontitis
JUVENILE: Generalized- Prevotella intermedia + Eikenella Corrodens
Localized- Actinobacillus Actinomycetemcomitans + Capnocytophaga
ADULT: Porphyromonas gingivalis, Prevotella, Bacteriodes, Campylobacter, Fusobacterium, and Spirochetes
Crutzfiel Jacobs dx
Something about infected carcasses of cow (also known as Mad Cow Disease)
What is a secondary messenger
Cyclic AMP
Could also be cyclic GMP
Which of the following can you not measure using a respirometer
Residual Volume ??

220.
o

221.
o

222.
o

223.
o

224.
o

225.
o

226.
o

227.
o
o

228.
o

229.
o

230.
o

231.
o

232.
o

233.
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234.
o

235.
o

236.
o

237.
o

238.
o

239.
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240.
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241.
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242.
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243.
o

244.
o

245.

Which of the following would be going on if Oxaloacetate was depleted


TCA Cycle will come to a stop, Acetyl CoA will accumulate, and HMG-CoReducatase will be formed at high rates
What enzyme is used in the oxidation of energy
Cytochromes
What is the function of secretory IgA
Protect mucous membranes
Which salivary enzyme breaks down starch (or maybe it said proteins)
Alpha-amylase (aka ptyalin), beta amylase
Which is true of polyunsaturated fatty acids
Have a lower melting point than saturated fatty acids
The storage form of Iron in the liver is called
Ferritin
If it is transferable= transferrin
If a person has antibodies anti-A and anti-B in their blood what blood type are they
O
If a patient comes in with a cyanotic blue looking lip what is their problem
Deoxygenated hemoglobin due to a circulatory or ventilatory problem
I put low hemoblobin count (low o2), other answers were anemia related problems (which would mean normal o2
tension, just not enough of normal cells???)
The breakdown of Lactose yields
Glucose+ galactose
Which of the following could cause glucosuria
Low Insulin due to Diabetes mellitus or Renal Glycosuria (inherited)
Inulin is a measure of
GFR
Pt had a diastolic pressure of 140 and a systolic pressure of 80, what is the mean arterial pressure
MAP = [(2 x diastolic)+systolic] / 3 =120
Which of the following is the most common autoimmune thyroid problem
Hashimotos, Graves, DiGeorges, etc..??
What causes exopthalmous, bony defects, etc
Graves disease causes exophthalmos
What is the storage form of Thyroid hormone
Thyrogloblulin (others say T4 is the storage form)
How does DNA, RNA, and protein replication occur
53, 53, N-terminalC-terminal
What is the function of the nuclear pore
Transfer of proteins and ribosomes from the nucleus to the cytoplasm
What is the cDNA libraries made up of
All of a cell or organisms set of mRNA reversely transcripted to DNA
What is useful for detecting DNA sequences
Southern Blot
The most important buffer system in parotid secretions of saliva
Bicarbonate, that was the only one that made sense, phosphate also an answer
How is glucose mediated across cell membranes
2ndary active transport
What hormone is responsible for producing milk in the mammary glands
Prolactin, Oxytocin
If during breast feeding I think its Oxytocin, depends on how its worded
What is the hormone that has the direct effect on growth of a bone
Somatotrophin (GH)
What hormone binds to an intracellular receptor and has a long slow response
Estrogen
What is the major regulator of Ca in the body
Calcitonin, PTH
What disease is caused by an excessive formation of uric crystals in the big toe

246.
o

247.
o

248.
o

249.
o

250.
o

251.
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252.
o

253.
o

254.
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255.
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256.
o

257.
o

Gout
What is the Mechanism of destruction in rheumatoid arthritis
Inflammatory autoimmune disorder that attacks joints. Might be from food allergy or external agent
(Mycoplasma)molecular mimicry
What is true of a micelle
The hydrophobic portion is pointed toward the interior
Urea is produced by the hydrolysis of
Arginine
What reflex controls posture to the spine
Stretch reflex??
The pentose phosphate will generate
Ribulose 5-phosphate
Isotopes have
The same atomic # (same protons) but different atomic mass (different neutrons)
What virus most closely resembles herpangina
Hand foot and mouth disease
What is the cytopathic effect of HIV
Giant cell formation (induced by apoptosis)
Hypoplasia
Decrease in cell production
Sjorgens syndrome is associated with destruction of what two glands
Salivary and lacrimal
What is the disease called that causes tumors in the gi tract
Puetz-Jeghers
What is the difference between Th1 and Killer T cells
Th1= MHC2 & CD4, Killer T= MHC1 & CD8
MHC
T Cell Subset
CoReceptor
Recognition
Immunity Type
Cytokines
Cytotoxic (CTL)
T Helper (Th1)

258.
o

CD8

Class 1

CMI
Tc1, Tc2
(Killer Ts, NK,
IL-2, IFN-g
Macrophages)
CD4
Class
2
T Helper (Th2)
Humoral
IL 4, 5, 10
(B Cells and Ab
What pathway is shut down in arachidonic acid pathway to cause a of leukotrienes
Lipoxygenase pathway
Know this good, know that asprin will shut AA synthesis off, probably 2-3?s related to this

259.
o

260.

What strep bacteria is not found in dental plaque


Strep pyogenes, s. sanguis, S. mutans, s. salivarius, s. mitis
What is the best way to monitor a malignant tumors prognosis

261.
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262.
o

263.
o

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267.
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268.

Size, location, degree of differentiation


UV light causes damage to DNA by
Damaging the cross-links of pyrimidine bases to form thymine dimers
Hemophilia A is caused by a deficiency of
Factor VIII
If your bile duct is plugged it will cause you to be deficient in what vitamins
I have no idea, each answer was like ADE, kde, kab, etc(Bile breaks down fats right? So, the vitamins that you
cannot absorb must be fat-soluble, like A, D, E, and K.
What is the most common fungal infection of humans in the US
Candida Albicans
A cell that stains heavily in the center and is tightly packed has undergone
Pyknosis, it is followed by Karyorrhexis, fragmentation of nucleus
What lung diseases causes you to not be able to keep the alveoli open, also common in CF pts
Atelectasisalveolar collapse, followed by a mucus plug occluding a bronchiole
Down syndrome is mainly caused due to what
Non-Disjunction
Thats all folks

ANATOMICAL SCIENCES 2006

1. Which foramen is not in the middle cranial fossa?


Option: foramen Lacerum, Rotundum, Ovale, Jugular Foramen
Which is in the Retroperperitoneal?
o Kidney
Which structure innervate Orbicularis Oculi( or Oris) or supply nerve to them is
o Option: superior orbital fissure, mental,......
Which nerve abduct the eye....?
o Option: Abducens N, Adduct N...
Diagram of eye and asked to locate lacrimal glands
o

2.
3.
4.
5.

6. (2-3) more Q's regarding triangles of the Neck?


o

7. Right lymphatic duct drains lymph from??


o

Upper right trunk, right arm, and right side of head and neckeverything else drains via the thoracic duct

8. More Q's about Lymph nodes??


o

9. What causes cleft lip?


Maxillary and medial nasal processes unable to fuse
10. Which cell cycle is more variable is most variable in mammal?
o G1
11. What forms Philtrum?( Maxi process & Medial nasal process)
o

12. Which is seen continuously throughout the circulatroy system?


o

Adventitia (larger in veins), Endothelium (intima), Vasa Vasorum

13. Function of hyaline cartilage in bone growth???\


Gets replaced by bone. If not enough produced, then dwarfism
14. Something about notochord?
o Becomes the nucleus pulposesalso induces formation of neural tube
15. Which one is propriception nucleus in face?
o Mesencephalic nucleus!!
16. Jaw-Jerk-reflex goes through what ganglion??
o Mesencephalic nucleus!!
17. Bell stage definition?
o

Morphodifferentiation and histodifferentiation (majority of cells are stellate reticulum because of their star
shaped.
18. What is the lateral boundary of retromandi space??/
o

19. Ipsilateral-contra lateral Q's about facial and something about pain innervation??
o

20. Q's about Hypothalamus and its Hormones


o

Oxytocin, ADH, ??(Acromegaly)

21. Numbness to thumb and forefinger caused by damage of???


o

Option: radial nerve, ulnar nerve, median.......

22. Abduction of vocal cord caused by???


Posterior Cricoarytenoid
23. Engterogastric reflex???
o Peristaltic contraction of small intestine followed by food entrance into stomach
24. Where respiratory bronchiole subdivides into?
o ...terminal bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveoli, primary bronchi
25. Know type I collagen fibrils well???
o

26. Where is trapeful M???????


o

Option: Medial, Lateral, Superior, Inferior...

27. Paralysis of lateral rectus causes interference with what eye movement??
Abduction
28. Trapezius inserts into??
o Scapular spine
29. Jugular foramen found in which part of cranium??
o Posterior cranial fossa
30. Hard palate supplied by??
o Greater palatine NAV
31. Aggregated mass of lymphoid tissue found between palatoglossus and palatophanryngeus ...?
o palatine tonsil
32. What is usually mistaken for subgingival calculus??
o Option: Concrescent teeth, dens in dente.......
33. Carcinoma of larynx would affect- ????
o Option: deep cervical nodes, submandibular, thorax....
34. Postganglionic sympathetic to head region???/
o From Intermediolateral cell column in the thorax region
35. Postganglionic parasympathetic to spincter pupillae???
o

36. What is the function of nuclear pore???


o

BIOCHEMISTRY & PHYSIOLOGY--2006

37. Enzyme helping in transamination reactions???


B6 (Pyridoxyl)
38. Immediate source of methy groups in amino acid synthesis???
o SAM??, serine
39. Something about DNA transcription??
o

40. Which glucose, that is not degraded in muscle??


o

41. How to check protein level in meat


hydroxyproline level???
42. Activation of complement by alternate pathway take place at???
o C3
o

43. TCA cycle???


o

know it well couple of Q's about it...

44. Enzyme not found in muscle??


o

Option: glucose-6-phosphatase, glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase,.....

45. Which one is used to pick out amount of mRNA sequence??


Option: western, southern, northern...
46. Q about GFR and inulin?
o
o

47. Greatest osmotic pressure is found in what part of nephron???


Option: PCT, DCT, Collecting duct, Henle loop..
48. HCL secreted by which cells of stomach??..
o parietal cells, chief cells
49. Something about Kw calculations????
o

50. Movement of solute against an ectrochemical gradient requires???


Option: simple diffusion, facilitated, active transport..
51. Difficult in breathing in neonates is due to ????
o Option: puctured lung, collapsed alveoli, increased surface tension of tissue...
52. A DNA sequence was given and the corresponding RNA seq had to be chosen????
o A-- T (RNA=U), G ---C Study their sequence and know it by heart......
53. What maintain the tertiary structure of proteins??
o The primary structure is held together by covalent peptide bonds, which are made during the process of translation. The
secondary structures are held together by hydrogen bonds. The tertiary structure is held together primarily by
hydrophobic interactions but hydrogen bonds, ionic interactions, and disulfide bonds are usually involved too.
o

54. (2-3) Q's about hyperventilation & hypoventilation??


PATHOLOGY & MICROBIOLOGY--2006

55. Bacteria surviving in CO2???


Option: anaerobic,fac anaerobes, capnophiles....
56. Legionella pneumophila causes??
o pneumonia
57. Miliary tuberculosis spread by??
o hematogenous
58. Rotavirus causes what.... in infant?
o Gastroenteritis
59. Staining in tubercle bacilli is possible due to ???
o Mycolic acids?, lipids and waxes make up the cell wall
Mycobacterium Tuberculosis= lipid and wax cell wall
Mycoplasma pneumoniaethere is no cell wall
60. What is the cause of cervical cancer??
o hpv
61. Mechanism of action of chloramphenicol???
o Act on ribosome to inhibit protein synthesis
62. Q about multiple sclerosis!!!!
o Seen as plaques of demyelination in CNS??
63. Four choices of combination of O2,Co2, and N were given...Which would Affect the central chemoreceptor the most??
o CO2???
64. Patient have HepB would show??
o Option: HBsAg, HBsAg antibodies, ...etc
65. What is the symptom of malabsorption??
o Steatorrhea!!!
66. What cause bronchogenic carcinoma???
o Asbesto....etc?
o

67. A few Q's about sterilization, OSHA. OSHA established for ??


o

Option: patient Health provider, public, employees...etc

68. Cell wall of mycoplasma made up of???


o

NO cell wall, its lipids and waxes??

69. Acute pancreatitis can be caused by elevated level of???


Serum Amylase and Lipase???
70. What is the main cause of Down Syndrome???
o Option: Non-Disjunction, translocation, or Mosaic DS
All cause Trisomy 21, non-disjunction is most common cause
71. Hepatitis B what indicates active replicaiton??
o HBeAg!!!!!
72. Listeria monocytoigens causes what?
o

73. If a susceptible person were given tetanus antitoxin what kind of immunity would result:
o

Option:1. Innate 2. Natural active 3.Natural passive 4. artificial active 5. artificial passive
(If tetanus antitoxin is given, then, artificial passive immunity results, because tetanus antitoxin is nothing but
antibodies aganist the toxin. since artificial antibodies are given from outside , it is called passive imunity.)

DENTAL ANATOMY--2006

74. Lots of Q's about Max/Mand 1st & 2nd premolars know them well and put more effort in learning their difference in shape ,
roots #, eruption, angulation, which one is more prone to have anamoli
o

75. Some Q's about TMJ & articular disc


o

76. High frequency Q's about Occlusion movement[ lateral movement, metrio,,, on the posterior teeth, Cuspid protective
occlusion, Condylar guidance, Anterior guidance,...]
o

77. How many primary and permanent teeth are present in the 6.5 year old child??
o

78. Earliest sign of mixed dentition phase???


o

When Mand Centrals erupt

79. If upper first premolar had 3 roots, where would that be???
o

80. Cervical contours + contacts in Icp + anatomical features of premolars, anterior teeth and first molar??
o

81. A woman in her second trimester, took tetracycline, what teeth of her baby would be affected???
o

82. Amount of swallowing in one day??


o

[geez, I have search a lot of books to find answer , the only answer I found was in book by Okeson "597 times perday"]

83. Tooth formation stages and it histology and embryology??


o

84. What is the difference between Max 1st and 2nd Premolar??
o

85. Lot's of Q's on Premolars


o

86. What muscles moves the condyle Superior- Anteriorly- superioanterioo

( 3 Q's )

87. What are used to record mandibular movement in horizontal plane???


o

Gothich arch tracer?