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Software Certifications
Exam CABA
Certified Associate Business Analyst
Version: 6.0

[ Total Questions: 343 ]


Topic 1, Volume A
_______________defects are more expensive to correct when found during the UAT
phase than duringother phases.
A. Requirements Phase
B. Design Phase
C. Testing Phase
D. None
Answer: A
A determination of the current internal level of performance in one or more clearly
defined
areas is thedefinition of _________________.
A. Baselining
B. Benchmarking
C. Regression Analysis
D. Inspection
Answer: A
Code Debug, Re-test, and Post Warranty Maintenance are the examples for:
A. Preventive Cost
B. Appraisal Costs
C. Failure Costs
D. All the above
E. None of the above
Answer: C
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Question No : 3 - (Topic 1)
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Force Field Analysis is a structured approach for identifying and evaluating the forces
that
will promote, encourage, and support change and those that will resist change.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Force Field Analysis is a structured approach for identifying and evaluating the forces
that
will promote, encourage, and support change and those that will resist change. These
forces are:

A. Driving Forces
B. Restraining Forces
C. Resolving Forces
D. A and B
E. B and C
Answer: D
Inspections, reviews, and dynamic testing are __________ activities in the Software
Development Lifecycle (SDLC).
A. Training
B. Quality Assurance
C. TQM
D. Quality Control
E. Risk Analysis
Answer: D
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It is essential to establish a _____________ before the improvement activities are
undertaken so it is possible to demonstrate the nature and extent of improvement.
A. Baseline
B. Defined Process
C. Training Program
D. All the above
E. None of the above
Answer: A
Philip Crosbys book ___________ articulates the Four Absolutes of Quality
Management.
A. Hygiene Motivation Theory
B. Quality is Free
C. Peopleware
D. Out of Crisis
Answer: B
Quality Assurance is defined as those activities which are designed to ___________
defects.
A. Detect
B. Reduce
C. Prevent
D. Remove
Answer: C
Quality Assurance is defined as those activities which are designed to prevent defects.
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Question No : 9 - (Topic 1)
Question No : 10 - (Topic 1)

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Which of the following is an example of Quality Assurance?
A. Conduct reviews / inspection
B. Conduct a test to prevent defects reaching customers
C. Perform root cause analysis on systemic process errors
D. Conduct end-user training
Answer: C
Quality Assurance is defined as those activities which are designed to:
A. Prevent defects from occurring
B. Improves a product's quality
C. Track problems reported to closure
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
Answer: A
Quality Control activities are what type of cost in the Cost of Quality concept?
A. Product Cost
B. Appraisal Cost
C. Preventive Cost
D. Failure Cost
Answer: B
Quality Control is defined as those activities which are designed to ___________
defects.
A. Detect
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B. Reduce
C. Prevent
D. Remove
Answer: A
Quality is an attribute of:
A. A Product
B. A Service
C. A Process
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D
Quality Management is defined as an approach which uses decisions based on:
A. Budget, Schedule, Information
B. Logic, Facts, Schedule
C. Facts, Data, Logic
D. None of the above
Answer: C

The ________________ is used to organize large quantities of suggestions, ideas, and


comments into groupings for later analysis.
A. Affinity Diagram
B. Cause-and-Effect Diagram
C. Control Chart
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D. Regression Analysis
E. Bar Chart
Answer: A
The Cause and Effect Diagram is used to:
A. Enhance Customer Satisfaction
B. Perform Root Cause Analysis
C. Reducing Product Costs
D. None of the above
Answer: B
The advantage of the Earned Value approach is that it allows the early detection of
slippage by using an industry standard approach to:
A. Measure a projects actual progress
B. Forecast both project completion date and final cost
C. Track schedule and budget throughout the project life cycle
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D
The application of the Pareto Principle helps to focus an organizations attention on the
critical few issues or activities that will result in the greatest benefit. What percentage
are
typically referred to as the "critical few"?
A. 20%
B. 40%
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C. 60%
D. 80%
Answer: A
The components that make up the cost-of-quality are:
A. Preventive, Appraisal, and Failure Costs
B. Preventive, Dynamic Testing, and Static Testing
C. Productivity, Efficiency, Effectiveness, and Reliability
D. Run Chart, Pareto Chart, Scatter Plot, and Histogram

E. None of the above


Answer: A
The Earned Value approach compares information about the amount of work planned to
what has actually been completed.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
The Plan, Do, Check, Act Cycle is a methodological approach to applying the concepts
of:
A. Cost Reduction
B. Continuous Improvement
C. Earned Value
D. Quality Assurance
E. None of the above
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Question No : 21 - (Topic 1)
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Answer: B
Affinity Diagram is a tool which is normally used in conjunction with:
A. Control Charts
B. Brainstorming
C. Scatter Plots
D. Benchmarking
Answer: B
The Quality Trilogy identified by Juran includes:
A. People, Process, Technology
B. Planning, Improvement, Control
C. Goal, Question, Metric
D. Plan, Do, Check
Answer: B
Which of the following is NOT one of the seven Quality Tools identified by Ishikawa?
A. Control Chart
B. Run Chart
C. Regression Analysis Chart
D. Pareto Chart
E. Flow Chart
Answer: C
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Question No : 25 - (Topic 1)
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Which of the following is NOT a contribution by Walter Shewhart?
A. Continuous Improvement

B. Statistical Process Control


C. Pareto Principle
D. 1-2-3-4 Cycle
Answer: C
The theory of the 'Hawthorne Effect on Human Motivation' was given by:
A. Walter Shewhart
B. Joseph M. Juran
C. Frederick Herzberg
D. W. Edwards Deming
Answer: B
One of Deming's 14 points is "Work to constantly improve quality and productivity."
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Crosby demonstrated that the best approach to reduce Total Product Cost is to:
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A. Increase Prevention Costs
B. Increase Appraisal and Failure Costs
C. Reduce Prevention Costs
D. Increase Rework Cost
Answer: A
According to Crosby, a Quality Assurance activity is a:
A. Cost of Quality
B. Appraisal Costs
C. Failure Costs
D. Prevention Costs
Answer: D
Which is NOT a commonly used Quality Management tool?
A. Fishbone Diagram
B. CSSR Report
C. Pareto Chart
D. Control Chart
Answer: B
The following are steps in developing a baseline, EXCEPT:
A. Identifying the sources of baseline data
B. Analyzing the data
C. Collecting the data
D. Measure the data
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Answer: D
Which of the following statements best characterizes the Quality Management practice
called Benchmarking?
A. The ISO term for progress measurement
B. Comparing planned project practices to those of other projects
C. A technique used to test certain types of electronic equipment
D. The difference between grade and quality
E. The measurement of customer satisfaction
Answer: B
Which is NOT a characteristic of Control Charts?
A. A Fin
B. A Centerline
C. Upper and Lower Boundaries
D. Performance over time
Answer: A
The horizontal parallel lines above and below the central line in a Control Chart
represents
__________ .
A. Standard Deviations
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Six Sigma
Answer: A
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Question No : 35 - (Topic 1)
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Customer dissatisfaction is an example of:
A. Inspection Cost
B. Internal Failure Cost
C. External Failure Cost
D. Prevention Cost
Answer: C
Cost Performance Index is:
A. BCWP / ACWP
B. BCWP / BCWS
C. BCWP - ACWP
D. ACWP / BCWP
Answer: A
In the EVM concept, a SPI greater than 1 indicates:
A. Less of the budget was consumed for the work
B. Excess of the budget have been spent for the actual work completed
C. 100% or less of the planned time has been used to complete the scheduled work

D. More than planned time has been used to complete the scheduled work
Answer: C
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In earned value, CSI stands for:
A. Customer Satisfaction Index
B. Cost Schedule Index
C. Company Security Index
D. Cost Satisfaction Index
Answer: B
Entity Relationship Diagrams identify:
A. Trace the movement of information through a process
B. How and when transformations occur
C. Define all of the components of a specific activity
D. Who and what are involved in a process and how they interact
Answer: D
Force Field Analysis is also referred as:
A. Histogram
B. State Transition Diagrams
C. Driving Forces and Restraining Forces
D. Double Chart Exposure
Answer: C
Which approach emphasizes process oriented thinking rather than results-product
oriented
thinking?
A. Kaizen
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B. Histogram
C. Force Field Analysis
D. Lewin
Answer: A
Which of the following is NOT a Kaizen concept?
A. Quality, not profit, is first
B. Fit to use
C. Defects are a treasure
D. Problem solving is cross-functional and systemic
Answer: B
Which of the following are the best tools for depicting trends in a process?

A. Pareto and Control Chart


B. Control Chart and Run Chart
C. Histogram and Run Chart
D. Gantt Chart and Pert Chart
Answer: B
Given the following data and thinking in terms of the Pareto Principle, where should
corrective action focus?
Problems originate from the following areas: 15% Design, 2% Development, 4%
Prototype,
3% Testing, and 2% Implementation.
A. Design
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B. Design, Development, and Prototype
C. Design and Prototype
D. Development and Prototype
Answer: A
As a Business Analyst you are required to analyze the existing ways the organization
works and compare it with the way their competition works. In this scenario, which tool
would be more effective for you?
A. Benchmarking
B. Scatter Plot
C. Control Chart
D. Pareto Chart
Answer: A
Which of the following techniques handles messy data very effectively?
A. Affinity Diagram
B. Bar Chart
C. Cause-and-Effect Diagram
D. Pie Chart
Answer: A
Which of the following is a common format for performance reporting?
A. Pareto Diagrams
B. Bar Charts
C. Cause-and-Effect Diagram
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D. Control Charts
Answer: B
The role of the facilitator is:

A. To help guide a group through a discussion


B. Not be judgmental
C. Create a productive environment
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D
Creating a baseline of current performance generally happens in which phase of the
PlanDo-Check-Act cycle?
A. Plan
B. Do
C. Check
D. Act
Answer: A
Which communication skill is crucial, but often the last to be emphasized?
A. Writing
B. Listening
C. Speaking
D. None of the above
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Answer: B
A non-verbal cue when listening such as leaning forward slightly:
A. Sends an aggressive signal and should be avoided
B. Indicates a lack of interest in what is being said
C. Signals interest in what is being said
D. None of the above
Answer: C
Interviewing activities are generally irrelevant in most Business Analysts job.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
In Tuckman's Forming-Storming-Norming-Performing Model, Agreement and
Consensus is
largely formed among teams during the:
A. Forming Stage
B. Storming Stage
C. Norming Stage
D. Performing Stage
Answer: C
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Question No : 55 - (Topic 1)
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Communication tools for the Business Analyst include:
A. Brainstorming
B. Focus Groups
C. Negotiating
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D
Negotiating is:
A. Bad
B. Negative
C. Results from a failure to communicate
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: E
All of the following reasons are ways by which a Business Analyst can influence quality
of
the products, EXCEPT:
A. Identify and define a suitable requirements process
B. Obtain understanding on tools available for developing quality system
C. Identify as many requirements defects as possible as early as possible
D. None of the above
Answer: D
In Maslow's book, "The Hierarchy of Needs", the five needs he identified are:
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A. Financial, Safety, Love, Self-Esteem, and Self-Actualization
B. Physiological, Safety, Love, Self-Esteem, and Self-Actualization
C. Physiological, Physical, Love, Self-Esteem, and Self-Actualization
D. Financial, Physical, Safety, Love, and Self-Esteem
E. None of the above
Answer: B
The facilitator is in a position of little power during the facilitated session.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
The theory that shows an individual is driven by their own effort is:
A. Theory X
B. Theory Y
C. Maslows Hierarchy
D. Herzberg Theory

Answer: B
What management style is characterized by leadership in a condescending form of
masterservant
trust, where motivation is mainly by rewards and where managerial personnel feel
responsibility but lower levels do not?
A. Participative - Group System
B. Benevolent - Authoritarian
C. Exploitive - Authoritarian
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D. Consultative System
E. None of the above
Answer: B
Which of the following are major characteristics of Quality Management?
A. Manage with Facts
B. Continuous Improvement
C. Manage by Process
D. Focus on the Customer
E. All of the above
Answer: E
A Business Analyst needs to have good communication and interpersonal skills.
Example(s) of communication and interpersonal skills include:
A. Listening
B. Interviewing
C. Testing
D. Only A and B
E. A,B, and C
Answer: D
When a person does not know some of their own qualities but others are aware of those
qualities, this can be mapped to ________ in the Johari Window.
A. Faade
B. Blind Area
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C. Hidden Area
D. Open Area
E. None of the above
Answer: B
A fifth element was added to the "Forming Storming Norming Performing" model. What
is

the fifth stage is called:


A. Elaborating
B. Adjourning
C. Viewing
D. All the above
E. None of the above
Answer: B
There is a high dependence on the leader for guidance and direction, little agreement
on
team objectives, and individual roles and responsibilities are unclear. This situation is
part
of the ________________ Stage of the Tuckman Model.
A. Performing
B. Norming
C. Storming
D. Forming
Answer: D
Which stage in Tuckman's Model depicts the following scenario, "There is a high degree
of
dependence on the designated leader for guidance and direction."
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A. Forming
B. Norming
C. Performing
D. Staging
Answer: A
Which of the following statements is NOT true for the Team Building Process?
A. The team is involved the in developing the Strategic Plan
B. Have each team member get input for the plan from his or her staff
C. Have team members develop more detailed plans with their staffs to implement their
assigned areas
D. A and B
E. None of the above
Answer: E
A wide variety of activities which contribute nothing to the accomplishment of the
objectives
are termed as _________ by the management theorists.
A. Sound
B. Noise
C. Overrun
D. None of the above
Answer: B

You are the Business Analyst for a safety critical application. You have collected large
amounts of data from various sources and need to provide input to make the product a
success. You have been approached by a competitor to join them as they intend to
develop
a similar product. What must you do?
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A. Reject the offer as it will be a conflict of interest
B. Join the competitor and use the knowledge you have acquired
C. You can participate in giving expert comments
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Given the following sets of leaders (a-e), and their concepts (1-5), which one of the
following best pairs the two sets?
1 - The Hierarchy of Needs
2 - Scientific Management
3 - The Hawthorne Effect
4 - Benevolent-authoritarian
5 - Quality Revolution
a Elton Mayo
b Abraham Maslow
c Rensis Likert
d Frederick Taylor
e Deming
A. 1a, 2b, 3c, 4d, 5e
B. 3a, 1b, 2d, 4c, 5e
C. 1b, 2a, 3c, 4d, 5e
D. 4a, 1d, 2e, 3c, 5b
Answer: B
Which of the following is NOT a part of Maslow's Need Hierarchy Theory?
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A. Physiological Need
B. Self-Actualization
C. Self-Esteem
D. Security
E. None of the above
Answer: E
The following are the major characteristics of Quality Management, EXCEPT:
A. Continuous Improvement
B. Lack of Customer Focus

C. Manage Toward Results


D. Manage with Facts
Answer: B
Which of the following is the best example of 'Manage by Fact'?
A. Meeting the desired results
B. Managing to meet the customer requirements
C. Identify goals for desired business results
D. Using metrics data for performing appraisals
Answer: A
Which of the following is NOT part of Kaplan and Norton Strategic Perspectives?
A. Human Resource Perspective
B. Learning and Growth Perspective
C. Business Process Perspective
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D. Customer Perspective
Answer: A
Continuous Improvement is the definition for Quality proposed by________________
A. Juran
B. Deming
C. Crosby
D. Maslow
Answer: B
The concept of Continuous Improvement as applied to Quality is best described by
which
of the following?
A. The functionality of the products will be enhanced
B. Processes will be improved by a lot of small improvements
C. Organizations must adopt and implement every new thing
D. Improved technology will be added to the process
Answer: B
The original concept of the PDCA cycle was given by:
A. Maslow
B. Dr. Shewhart
C. Ishikawa
D. Harold S. Geneen
Answer: B
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Creating a baseline of current performance is part of planning phase.

A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Good listening is a passive activity.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
A technique that can be used for active listening is:
A. Paraphrase the speaker's meaning
B. Offer a point of view often when in conversation
C. Express concerns
D. Explain the speaker's meaning
Answer: A
It is mandatory that the facilitator be an expert in the subject matter under discussion.
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A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Which theory focuses on team development and behavior?
A. Dialectical Models
B. Simpson Models
C. Forming-Storming-Norming-Performing Model
D. Evolutionary Models
Answer: C
"Roles and responsibilities are clear and accepted" at what stage in Tuckman's Model?
A. Forming
B. Storming
C. Norming
D. Performing
Answer: C
Tuckman's fifth stage is the break-up of the group when the task is completed
successfully.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
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Question No : 85 - (Topic 1)
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The following are Hersey's and Blanchard's Situational Leadership Model stages,
EXCEPT:
A. Managerial Participation
B. Summarizing Results
C. Managerially Explanation
D. Detached Delegation
Answer: B
An item gathering process takes place in:
A. Brainstorming
B. Forming
C. Problem Solving
D. Multi-Voting
Answer: A
In a Johari Model, the areas of the quadrants are fixed.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
The following are conflict management strategies, EXCEPT:
A. Withdrawing
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B. Smoothing
C. Compromising
D. Group Ranking
Answer: D
Which Conflict Management Strategy is also referred to as 'Strategy of Integration'?
A. Smoothing
B. Problem Solving
C. Withdrawing
D. Compromising
Answer: B
The following are Prioritization Techniques, EXCEPT:
A. Group Ranking
B. Forced Choice
C. Problem Solving
D. Multi-Voting
Answer: C
Which technique is used to reduce the total number of items to a manageable number
and
to have the resulting items in a priority sequence?
A. Group Ranking
B. Affinity Diagram

C. Brainstorming
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Answer: A
Using Forced Choice Method is effective when the number of items are:
A. Greater than 10
B. Greater than 15
C. Less than 10
D. Less than 3
Answer: C
Which of the following techniques was developed by Drs. Robert Kaplan and David
Norton?
A. Enterprise Dashboard
B. Business Dashboard
C. PDCA
D. Balanced Scorecard
Answer: D
Which is the fifth stage of Dr. Bruce Tuckman Model?
A. Forming
B. Performing
C. Norming
D. Adjourning
E. Storming
Answer: D
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According to Schmidt, the benefit from properly managed conflict is:
A. Long standing problems brought out
B. Resistance to teamwork
C. Suspicion and distrust
D. People leaving the situation
Answer: A
With the workbench concept, tools can support:
A. Both the DO and the CHECK Procedures
B. Only the DO Procedures
C. The Rework Initiative
D. Only the CHECK Procedures
Answer: A
Which of the following is NOT a component of a workbench?
A. Entrance Criteria (Inputs)

B. Exit Criteria (Deliverables)


C. Work Procedures
D. Check Procedures
E. Process Contract
Answer: E
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A Policy states:
A. What
B. When
C. Where
D. Why
Answer: D
Standards describe how work will be measured. A Standard answers the question:
A. What
B. When
C. Where
D. Why
Answer: A
Topic 2, Volume B
A Literal Standard is directly measurable.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
____________ is the degree to which a measure actually measures what it was
intended
to measure.
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A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Simplicity
D. Calibration
Answer: B
An Intent Standard is directly measurable.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
A process that no one "owns" should be a candidate for elimination.

A. True
B. False
Answer: A
A valid use of an IT measurement program is to record quantitative data that will be
used in
an employee performance appraisal.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question No : 103 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 104 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 105 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 106 - (Topic 2)
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As it relates to CMM/CMMI, the acronym KPA stands for:
A. Key Process Areas
B. Key Product Assessment
C. Key Program Area
D. Kappleman Procedure Appraisal
E. None of the above
Answer: A
Causes of Variation that are typically "external" to the process are referred to as:
A. Special Causes of Variation
B. Common Causes of Variation
C. Separate Causes of Variation
D. None of the above
Answer: A
The following are some of the characteristics of Special Causes, EXCEPT:
A. Not inherent within the system
B. Not predictable
C. Can be assigned to a defect in the system
D. Has a random pattern of data points within the control limits
Answer: D
If two or more individuals performed the same measurement process and achieve the
same result each time, the measure is considered:
Question No : 107 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 108 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 109 - (Topic 2)
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A. Reliable
B. Valid
C. Testable
D. In Control
Answer: A

Responsibility for measurement rests with _______________ at all times.


A. Individuals Performing the Work
B. Management
C. Process Engineer
D. Metrics Consultant
Answer: B
The establishment of standing Process Improvement Teams helps to address the
question
of:
A. Who do we tell?
B. What is the best way to improve the process?
C. How do we reduce variability within the process?
D. None of the above
Answer: A
The Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) describes:
A. Software development life cycle processes
B. IT service delivery best practices
C. IT training "best practices"
Question No : 110 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 111 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 112 - (Topic 2)
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Answer: B
The Six Sigma acronym, DMAIC, stands for:
A. Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control
B. Describe, Manage, Assess, Initiate, Continue
C. Defined Markers and Improvement Controls
D. Defect Measurement Assessment Implementation Control
E. None of the above
Answer: A
The workbench definition should contain a policy statement. The objective of the policy
statement is to:
A. Define why the workbench is performed
B. Define what the workbench is to accomplish
C. Explain how the workbench will perform the tasks
D. Define the quality of the offered product
E. Define who is accountable for performing the workbench
Answer: A
What ISO standard was introduced to address the issue of Information Technology
Service
Management?
A. ISO 9000
B. ISO 20000
C. ISO 12207
D. ISO 9001

E. None of the above


Question No : 113 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 114 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 115 - (Topic 2)
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Answer: B
ISO 20000-2 address the issue of ITSM for:
A. Code of Practice for Service Management
B. Specification for Service Management
C. Process Assessment
D. Process Improvement
Answer: A
Which of the following is a Level 4 process area?
A. Organizational Process Definition
B. Quantitative Project Management
C. Risk Management
D. Decision Analysis and Resolution
Answer: B
Which Six Sigma methodology is used when you are creating new processes?
A. DMAIC
B. DMADV
C. Lean
D. FMEA
Answer: B
Question No : 116 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 117 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 118 - (Topic 2)
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Six Sigma approach suggests that there should not be more than ______ defects per
million opportunities.
A. 3.4
B. 4.5
C. 34
D. 6.8
Answer: A
Cycle Time Management focuses on:
A. Organizations Growth and Profitability
B. Entails Not Only Downsizing, but Upsizing
C. Processes and Process Improvement
D. Keeps Work Moving at a Constant Pace
Answer: C
Which of the following is NOT part of ITIL standard?
A. Service Delivery
B. Application Management

C. Risk Assessment
D. Security Management
Answer: C
Which of the following awards was designed to reward Japanese companies for quality
Question No : 119 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 120 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 121 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 122 - (Topic 2)
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improvements?
A. European Quality Award
B. Deming Prize
C. Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award
D. Rajiv Gandhi National Quality Award
Answer: B
Which of the following is NOT a type of standard?
A. Literal Standard
B. Intent Standard
C. Critical Standard
D. None of the above
Answer: C
A standard must be:
A. Measurable, Achievable, and Robust
B. Measurable, Attainable, and Critical
C. Approved, Available, and Attainable
Answer: B
Creation of test cases is done as a partof:
A. Delivery Processes
B. Management Processes
C. Check Processes
Question No : 123 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 124 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 125 - (Topic 2)
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Answer: C
Which of the following represents the correct combination of Process Categories?
A. Management Processes, Work Processes, and Check Processes
B. Process Control, Product Control, and Environment Control
C. Quality Process, Management Process, and Customer Process
Answer: A
In the Process Maturity Continuum, which of the following is done at Level 2?
A. Reduce Process Variability
B. Fix Process Variability
C. Provide Process Stability

D. Control Process Variability


Answer: A
If Project A has inspected 1546 requirements in 54 hours and found 441, what is the
Inspection Rate for Project A?
A. 28.63
B. 3.05
C. 20.02
D. 8.17
Answer: A
Question No : 126 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 127 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 128 - (Topic 2)
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If Project A has inspected 1546 requirements in 54 hours and found 350 defects but 9
escaped, what is the Escape Rate of Project A?
A. 2.04%
B. 2.57%
C. 16.67%
D. .58%
Answer: B
A hurricane that caused damage to the facility which resulted in many people unable to
come to work and thus causing schedule slippage would be an example of a:
A. Common Cause
B. Special Cause
C. Any one of the above
D. Both of the above
Answer: B
Even before organizations gain control of common causes, they identify potential
special
causes and predict the potential impact. This is part of:
A. Project Change Management Process
B. Service Continuity
C. Project Risk Management Process
D. Project Planning Process
Answer: C
Question No : 129 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 130 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 131 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 132 - (Topic 2)
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Process Mapping is performed:
A. At beginning of rework
B. At the end of a process improvement cycle
C. During process implementation

D. At the beginning of a major process improvement cycle


Answer: D
In Process Mapping, "TASKS" focus on defining:
A. What
B. How
C. Where
D. Why
Answer: A
A major premise of a quality management environment is an emphasis on continuous
improvement. The approach to continuous improvement is best illustrated using the:
A. System Development Life Cycle
B. PDCA Cycle
C. Quality Improvement Cycle
D. Product Life Cycle
Answer: B
Which process measure focuses on how well the product or service performs in the
customer environment?
Question No : 133 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 134 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 135 - (Topic 2)
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A. Process Measure
B. Output Measures
C. Outcome Measures
D. Community Measures
Answer: C
Efficiency Measures and Metrics are focused on:
A. Doing the right things
B. Doing things right
C. Employee measures
D. Community measures
Answer: B
The first step to establish and effective measurement system is to align it to:
A. Project Goals
B. Organization's Mission
C. Customer's Mission
D. Process Policy
Answer: B
The control limits of a Control Chart determine the Process Capability.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question No : 136 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 137 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 138 - (Topic 2)

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Which of the following is an example of a tactical measurement?
A. Customer Satisfaction Index
B. Project Level Schedule Variance
C. Planned Effort for Each Activity
D. SLA Compliance Index
Answer: C
Which of the following is an example of a measure?
A. Defect Density
B. Proposal to Contract Conversion Ratio
C. Number of Resignations
D. Attrition Rate
Answer: C
The Project Manager of Project Alpha is creating a project plan. Which one of the
following
would be an example of a sub-activity in this scenario?
A. Create a Test Plan
B. Develop Code
C. Perform Testing
D. Manage Changes
Answer: A
Question No : 139 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 140 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 141 - (Topic 2)
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Tactical Measures are provided to senior managers to allow them to make appropriate
decisions about the organizational status and capabilities.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Which of the following measure focuses on doing the right things?
A. Employee Measures
B. Efficiency Measures
C. Effectiveness Measures
D. Outcome Measures
Answer: C
Revenue is also referred to as:
A. Bottom Line
B. Top Line
C. Net Before Taxes
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: B

When it is said that the Business Analyst must be fully bilingual, what two languages
does
the BA need to "speak"?
Question No : 142 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 143 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 144 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 145 - (Topic 2)
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A. English and Native Language of the Client
B. Information Technology and Business
C. Programming and Design
D. Quality Assurance and Quality Control
Answer: B
A listing of the assets, liability, and equity accounts is a:
A. Profit and Loss Statement
B. Gap Analysis
C. Balance Sheet
D. Projection
Answer: C
An Income Statement is a:
A. Summary presentation of revenues less the expenses
B. Expected minimum return on internally invested capital
C. Verifiable assumptions about the future based on history and trend data
Answer: A
____________ clearly expands the Vision Statement into positive statements of desired
outcomes.
A. Goals
B. Objectives
C. Strategies
D. Mission
Question No : 146 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 147 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 148 - (Topic 2)
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Answer: D
The systematic write-off of an asset over its useful life or some other predefined period
is
called:
A. Gap Analysis
B. ROA
C. ROI
D. Cash Flow
E. Amortization and Depreciation
Answer: E

The term used to describe the extent to which an organization is willing to take risks is:
A. Risk Mitigation
B. Risk Assessment
C. Risk Appetite
D. Risk Response
Answer: C
The process that examines risks to determine how likely they are to occur and how
severely they will impact the organization if they do occur is:
A. Risk Mitigation
B. Risk Assessment
C. Risk Appetite
D. Risk Response
Answer: B
Question No : 149 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 150 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 151 - (Topic 2)
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'Quality is Job One'. This statement could be an example of a ______.
A. Mission
B. Vision
C. Objective
D. Goal
Answer: B
Who is involved in developing the Vision Statement?
A. Senior Management
B. Executive Management and the Board of Directors
C. Line Manager
D. Middle Manager
Answer: B
Mission Statements are focused on the future and provide a road map for change.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Goals have the following characteristics, EXCEPT:
Question No : 152 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 153 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 154 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 155 - (Topic 2)
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A. Action Oriented Wording
B. Measurable Results
C. Achievable Fast
D. Time Oriented
Answer: C

"Increasing company revenue by 10%" is an example of a _____________.


A. Vision
B. Goal
C. Tactic
D. Strategy
Answer: B
______________are expenses which reduce income (but not cash), therefore reducing
potential tax liabilities.
A. Amortization and Depreciation
B. Balance Sheet
C. Capital
D. Equity
Answer: A
Which of the following prescribes a format for Balance Sheets?
A. Business Partner
B. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP)
C. Customers
Question No : 156 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 157 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 158 - (Topic 2)
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D. Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB)
Answer: B
The Net Income (Loss) before taxes minus accounting tax effect on income is:
__________
A. Income (Gross)
B. Net Income (Loss) before Taxes
C. Income (Loss) from Operations
D. Net Income (Loss)
Answer: D
The following formats are used to express Return on Investment (ROI), EXCEPT:
A. Return on Assets (ROA)
B. Revenue
C. Return on Equity (ROE)
D. Internal Rate of Return (IRR)
Answer: B
Risk Management is an independent auditing process.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question No : 159 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 160 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 161 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 162 - (Topic 2)
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________ is used to describe the extent to which an organization is willing to take risks.
A. Risk Averse
B. Risk Response
C. Risk Appetite
D. Risk Foundation
Answer: C
Risks are negative outcomes; opportunities are positive outcomes.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
The Quality Factor that describes the effort required to learn, operate, prepare input,
and
interpret output of a program, process, or system.
A. Trainability
B. Testability
C. Usability
D. Transferability
Answer: C
Which of the following is the correct definition of the Quality Attribute Maintainability?
A. Effort required for modifying operational system
B. Effort required to ensure that the system performs as its intended
C. Effort required to locate and fix an error in an operational system
Question No : 163 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 164 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 165 - (Topic 2)
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D. Extent to which a program satisfies its specifications
E. Extent to which a program can be expected to perform its intended function
Answer: C
Anything that places a limit on what is possible is a:
A. Requirement
B. Attribute
C. Variable
D. Constraint
Answer: D
Critical Assumptions are key factors for the project that are:
A. Outside the control of the project team
B. Within the control of the project team
C. Irrelevant whether the project team controls them or not
Answer: A
Measuring the results of most Business Requirements are generally:
A. Analogue (a range of acceptable values)
B. Binary (on or off, present or not)
C. Either Analogue or Binary

D. None of the above


Answer: B
Question No : 166 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 167 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 168 - (Topic 2)
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A Prototype is a:
A. Fully operational representation of a process or system
B. Limited operational representation of a process or system
C. Non-operational representation of a process or system
D. Flow diagram of a process or system
Answer: C
A Requirement is a:
A. Generalization of a need
B. Specific and detailed statement about what a system must do or be
C. Defines high level functionality of a system
Answer: B
A Use Case definition include(s):
A. Actors
B. Pre-Conditions
C. Post-Conditions
D. All of the above
E. A and B above
Answer: D
Business Event Model is a representation from the ultimate customers perspective of
how
the process will operate.
Question No : 169 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 170 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 171 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 172 - (Topic 2)
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A. True
B. False
Answer: A
During a requirements inspection, requirements defects are categorized as:
A. Wrong
B. Missing
C. Extra
D. All of the above
E. A and B above only
Answer: D
A Formal Inspection is a:
A. Walkthrough of a product for the purpose of familiarizing the stakeholders with the

product attributes
B. Unstructured review process conducted at the end of a life cycle phase
C. Rigorous, structured approach to finding defects
D. None of the above
Answer: C
Quality Requirements are generally:
A. Analogue (a range of acceptable values)
B. Binary (on or off, present or not)
C. Either Analogue or Binary
D. None of the above
Question No : 173 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 174 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 175 - (Topic 2)
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Answer: A
"Requirements gathering" accurately describes the process of defining business
requirements.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
The attributes of a good requirement include:
A. Traceable
B. Correct
C. Complete
D. Unambiguous
E. All of the above
Answer: E
Use Cases are created as part of:
A. Requirement Definition Process
B. Business Analyst May Create
C. JAD Process
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D
Question No : 176 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 177 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 178 - (Topic 2)
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With regard to Use Cases, the actor is an individual, group, or entity ________ the
system.
A. Inside
B. Outside
C. Both Inside and Outside
D. None of the above

Answer: B
Who in the organization has the authority to signoff on the initial request to begin the
project and to commit resources to the project?
A. Business Stakeholders
B. Subject Matter Experts
C. Business Project Sponsor
D. Project Manager
Answer: C
Testers should be involved in the requirement definition phase.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Following are the attributes of a good requirement, EXCEPT:
Question No : 179 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 180 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 181 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 182 - (Topic 2)
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A. Stable
B. Modifiable
C. Ambiguous
D. Traceable
Answer: C
Requirements Verification includes _______.
A. System Testing of Requirements
B. Reviews and Inspections of Requirements
C. Unit Testing of Requirements
D. Acceptance Testing of Requirements
Answer: B
Verification is used to determine whether the product meets the requirements as
understood by the producer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
The number of participants in JAD sessions are typically higher as compared to other
facilitation sessions.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question No : 183 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 184 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 185 - (Topic 2)
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In JAD sessions, ____________ is there to support and/or clarify the use of Data Flow
and
State Transition Models.
A. Scribe
B. Modeler
C. Documentation Specialist
D. Project Leader
Answer: B
Joint Application Development is conducted in __________ phases.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C
Which technique is used for describing, documenting, and analyzing the key events of a
business?
A. Business Object Modeling
B. Business Process Analysis
C. Events and State Transitions
D. Business Event Model
Answer: D
Question No : 186 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 187 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 188 - (Topic 2)
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Business Event Model is an excellent first step in determining what is to be.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
A Business Event Model represents collaboration between __________ and
____________.
A. Facilitator and Information Technology
B. Business Partner and Project Manager
C. Business Partner and Information Technology
D. Project Manager and Facilitator
Answer: C
Use Cases capture functional and non functional requirements.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Use Cases describe all the tasks that must be performed for the actor to achieve the
desired objective.
Question No : 189 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 190 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 191 - (Topic 2)

Question No : 192 - (Topic 2)


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A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Which Use Case model convention is used to insert another Use Case that defines an
alternative path?
A. Include
B. Extend
C. Exception
D. System
Answer: B
The ____________ Use Case will describe how the actor and the system interact.
A. Exception
B. Essential
C. System
D. Business
Answer: C
Given the following sets (a-e), and their symbols (1-5), which one of the following best
pairs
the two sets?
a Processes
b External Entity
c Data Stores
Question No : 193 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 194 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 195 - (Topic 2)
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d Flows
e Data Elements
1 - Parallel Lines
2 - Circles
3 - Arrows
4 - Rectangles
5 - Labels on arrows
A. c1, a2, d3, b4, e5
B. c2, a1, d4, b5, e3
C. c5, a3, d4, b2, e1
D. c4, a1, d3, b2, e5
Answer: A
In the DFD, the External Entities may be:
A. Source of input data only
B. Source of input data or destination of results
C. Destination of results only

D. Repository of data
Answer: B
A data element in a DFD represents:
A. A Sequential File
B. A Disk Store
C. A Repository of Data
D. An Index File
Question No : 196 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 197 - (Topic 2)
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E. None of the above
Answer: E
A Context Diagram:
A. Is Second Level DFD
B. Is First Level of DFD
C. Is Same as Action Diagram
D. Is not a part of DFD
Answer: B
__________are the graphic and textual description of the logic used bya process to
convert
inputs tooutputs.
A. External Entities
B. Context Diagrams
C. N Level Diagrams
D. Action Level Diagrams
Answer: D
N Level Diagrams:
A. Decompose the context level diagram into finer levels of detail.
B. Is the first step in developing a detailed DFD of a system
C. Is not used in drawing a detailed DFD
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Question No : 198 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 199 - (Topic 2)
Question No : 200 - (Topic 2)
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Topic 3, Volume C
In an E-R Diagram, entities are represented by:
A. Circles
B. Rectangles
C. Diamond Shaped Box
D. Ellipse
Answer: B
A student can take not more than 5 subjects in a semester. The number of students

allowed in a subject in a semester is not more than 40. The student subject
relationship
is:
A. 5:40
B. 40:5
C. N:5
D. 40:M
Answer: B
The State Transition Diagram:
A. Represents all states in which an object may exist
B. Depicts functions that transform the data flow
C. Indicates how data are transformed by the system
D. Indicates how system reacts to external events
Answer: A
Question No : 201 - (Topic 3)
Question No : 202 - (Topic 3)
Question No : 203 - (Topic 3)
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A single object may exist in multiple states within a single process, but may only be in
one
state at any specific point in time.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
In a State Transition Diagram, states are represented by:
A. Rectangles
B. Arrows
C. Rounded Rectangles
D. Slashes
Answer: C
In a State Transition Diagram, 'Actions taken in response to state change' are
represented
by __________.
A. Slashes
B. Arrows
C. Rectangles
D. Rounded Rectangles
Answer: A
Question No : 204 - (Topic 3)
Question No : 205 - (Topic 3)
Question No : 206 - (Topic 3)
Question No : 207 - (Topic 3)
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"Test First" is a technique mostly used in __________.

A. Object Oriented Methodology


B. Extreme Programming
C. Waterfall Model
D. SDLC Model
Answer: B
"Test First" would be a very useful technique in the case of legacy systems where there
is
a lack of documentation.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Reliability is closely correlated with the functional attribute of correctness.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
The effort required to transfer a program from one hardware or software
platform/environment to another is called ________.
A. Reusability
B. Flexibility
C. Portability
D. Maintainability
Question No : 208 - (Topic 3)
Question No : 209 - (Topic 3)
Question No : 210 - (Topic 3)
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Answer: C
Which of the quality factors is a consideration when resources are very expensive?
A. Reusability
B. Flexibility
C. Portability
D. Maintainability
Answer: A
Interoperability is the:
A. Effort required to enhance and improve the product
B. Extent to which the system is capable of being used in multiple configurations
C. Extent to which a program can be used in other applications
D. Effort required to couple and uncouple systems
Answer: D
The attempt to maximize efficiency will have a positive impact on all of the other
attributes
in the Quality Requirements Conflict Matrix.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question No : 211 - (Topic 3)

Question No : 212 - (Topic 3)


Question No : 213 - (Topic 3)
Question No : 214 - (Topic 3)
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Which of the following is NOT a category of Enterprise Requirements?
A. Standardization
B. Accessibility
C. Portability
D. Control
Answer: C
The focus of Quality Function Deployment (QFD) is to:
A. Identify Requirements
B. Hear The Voice of the Customer (VOC)"
C. Develop Projects CSFs
D. Define What Constitutes Success
Answer: B
QFD Assembly / Part Deployment includes:
A. Planning a product
B. Determining critical processes
C. Decomposition of critical product characteristics
D. Creating process control methods
Answer: C
The following are the attributes of the QFD approach, EXCEPT:
A. Traceability of the requirement
B. Determining the configuration of the product releases
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C. Quantitative approach
D. Subjective evaluation processes
Answer: D
In Prioritization, a number of subjective evaluation processes may be used to determine
priorities.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Reviews and inspections are considered part of testing.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Which of the following option best matches the role played by the different review
participants?
1. Moderator

2. Author
3. Reader
4. Recorder
a. Read and paraphrase the material
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b. Lead the inspection
c. Representative of the authoring group
d. Log all identified defects
A. 1b, 2c, 3a, 4d
B. 1a, 2b, 3c, 4d
C. 1d, 2a, 3b, 4c
D. 1b, 2d, 3c, 4a
Answer: A
Which inspection approach is based on sampling of work products and/or
specifications?
A. Fagan Inspection
B. Agile Specification Quality Control
C. Walkthrough
D. Status Meeting
Answer: B
The Fagan Approach emphasizes finding and fixing defects.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Which function ensures the integrity of the requirements change process?
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A. Business Analyst
B. Manager
C. Sponsor
D. Change Control Board
Answer: D
A Change Control Board (CCB) is like an inspection agency.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Business requirements are also called Non-Functional Requirements.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Pat is documenting the way data will be transformed from an existing system in order to
become more compatible with the new system. What type of requirement is he
documenting?
A. Quality Requirement
B. Business Requirement
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: B
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Question No : 226 - (Topic 3)
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As the Business Analysis activity advances due to budgetary constraints, the Business
Partner has asked the Project Manager to focus the effort of the subsequent work only
on
the most critical requirements. What must the Business Analyst do?
A. Elicit Requirements
B. Drop Requirements
C. Prioritize Requirements
D. Validate Requirements
Answer: C
Which of the following represent the components of a data flow diagram?
A. External entities, processes, data stores, data flow
B. Name, aliases, entities, process flow, sequences
C. Concept, attributes, relationships, metadata
D. Entities, attributes, processes, data stores, data flow
Answer: A
Mary's requirement that she should be able to change the screen color whenever she
wants represents which of the following Quality Requirements?
A. Reusability
B. Flexibility
C. Portability
D. Maintainability
Answer: B
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Which of the following quality factors normally has a negative impact on all other
factors?
A. Testability
B. Portability
C. Efficiency

D. Correctness
Answer: C
Which document and/or file contains all the approvals and change history for the
requirement by the project stakeholders?
A. Requirement document
B. Change register
C. Known Base
D. Project Charter
Answer: C
The final product of the Pre-Requirements Analysis phase is the:
A. Feasibility Study
B. Preliminary Benefit Estimate
C. Preliminary Scope Statement
D. Requirements Definition
Answer: A
Project Charter is the high level document that addresses:
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A. The Project Strategy
B. Project Deliverables
C. Project Objectives
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D
Unit Testing generally refers to the testing done by:
A. The business analyst during the requirements phase
B. The developer at the small component level
C. The system tester when testing completed modules
D. The user during acceptance testing
Answer: B
Information about defects that should be gathered is/are:
A. Where they were created
B. Their cause
C. Their significance
D. Where they were found
E. All of the above
Answer: E
The success of a software project developed using an adhoc development approach
relies
heavily on the:
A. Quality of Requirements
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B. Detailed Design Specification
C. Capabilities of the Individuals Working on the Project
D. Schedule and Budget
Answer: C
The challenge(s) of using the waterfall development methodology is/are:
A. Real projects rarely follow the sequential flow
B. At the beginning of most projects there is often a great deal of uncertainty about
requirements and goals
C. It is often a long time into development cycle before any functionality is available for
customer review
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D
The challenge(s) of using the iterative development methodology is/are:
A. Communication and coordination skills take center stage in project development
B. Informal requests for improvement after each phase may lead to confusion
C. User community needs to be actively involved throughout the project
D. Can lead to scope creep"
E. All of the above
Answer: E
The challenge(s) of using the iterative development methodology is/are:
A. Real projects rarely follow the sequential flow
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B. At the beginning of most projects there is often a great deal of uncertainty about
requirements and goals
C. It is often a long time into development cycle before any functionality is available for
customer review
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: E
The highest priority of Agile Methodology as defined in the Agile Manifesto is:
A. Business people and developers must work together daily throughout the project.
B. Simplicity--the art of maximizing the amount of work not done--is essential.
C. Satisfy the customer through early and continuous delivery of valuable software.
D. Build projects around motivated individuals. Give them the environment and support
they need, and trust them to get the job done.
E. The best architectures, requirements, and designs emerge from self-organizing
teams.

Answer: C
During what type of review would an examination of a specific project be done to
determine
what worked, what did not work and what should be changed for the future.
A. Checkpoint Review
B. Post Implementation Review
C. Phase End Review
D. None of the above
Answer: B
_______________ is a high-level document that guides and direct quality activities of
an
organization and is linked to the organizational strategic goals.
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A. Quality Policy
B. Quality Plan
C. Quality Statement
D. Process Document
Answer: A
The scenario described below best describes ______________.
Scenario: The success rates for our projects are very low. Rework effort is very high.
Employees end up spending a lot of time in the office beyond the usual office time.
A. Lack of Software Development Skills
B. Immature Process
C. Lack of Adequate Schedule
D. Lack of Adequate Budget
Answer: B
____________ describes how work will be performed.
A. Standards
B. Procedures
C. Policies
D. Templates
Answer: B
Guidelines are not enforceable.
A. True
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B. False
Answer: A
Which of these is NOT considered to be a primary role of a Business Analyst?

A. Requirements Analysis
B. Testing
C. Implementation
D. Programming
Answer: D
How many steps and/or phases are there in a typical Software Development Lifecycle
(SDLC)?
A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six
Answer: D
Which document contains the preliminary description of the business functionality
desired
by the project sponsor?
A. Requirement Document
B. Preliminary Scope Statement
C. PMP
D. Project Scope Statement
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Answer: B
Suppose a team is developing a web-based ticket distribution system. Which of the
following decisions do you think was most likely made during system design?
A. The ticket distributor will include a user interface subsystem
B. The ticket distributor will follow web-accessibility standards
C. The ticket distributor will provide the traveler with on-line help
D. The ticket distributor requirements have been met and satisfy customer needs
Answer: A
The External Design Process determines:
A. What are the major components of a product
B. What will happen within each of the major components
C. Provides a map of the sub-components
D. Individual items of sub component
Answer: A
Which document ensures that each requirement that is captured at the beginning of the
project is tracked until its implementation?
A. Project Scope Document
B. Requirement Traceability Document
C. Requirement Document
D. Design Document
Answer: B
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During the Design Phase, if there are changes in Project Scope, which documents will
be
impacted?
A. Project Plan, Requirements Documentation, Design, Test Cases
B. Project Plan, Design, Test Cases
C. Requirements Documentation, Design, Test Cases
D. Requirements Documentation, Design, Test Cases, Code
Answer: A
The following are different approach of SDLC models, EXCEPT:
A. Iterative Process
B. Ad-hoc Development
C. Waterfall
D. Big Bang
Answer: D
Rapid Application Development is a variation of:
A. Waterfall
B. Iterative
C. Prototype
D. Exploratory Model
Answer: C
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Artificial Intelligence where most of the research is based on guess-work, estimation,
and
hypothesis is example of:
A. Waterfall
B. Iterative
C. Prototype
D. Exploratory Model
Answer: D
The Spiral Model was designed to include which component?
A. Risk Assessment
B. Specification Development
C. Test
D. Implementation
Answer: A
Reuse Model states:
A. Systems should be built using custom-building new components
B. Systems should be built using existing components

C. Build a simplified version of the proposed system


D. Create a demand for a new method of developing systems
Answer: B
For the following scenario which approach is best suited?
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Projects where it is difficult to obtain solid requirements due to an unstable environment,
especially those in which the requirements will continue to emerge as the product is
used.
A. Agile
B. V-Model
C. Prototype
D. Waterfall
Answer: A
The Prototype Lifecycle Model can be combined with other lifecycle models?
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Which Lifecycle Model is best suited if the customer is not sure about what he wants?
A. Waterfall
B. Reuse
C. V-Model
D. Prototype
Answer: D
Which of the following is NOT an Agile Development Methodology?
A. SCRUM
B. Extreme Programming
C. Prototype
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D. Kanban
Answer: C
Which of the following represents the characteristics of an architectural design which is
developed using a structural model?
A. A structural model allows identifying repeatable architectural design frameworks that
are
encountered in similar applications
B. A structural model addresses behavioral aspects which indicate how the system
changes as a function of external events

C. A structural model represents the architecture as an organized collection of program


modules and components
D. A structural model focuses on the business or technical processes that a system
must
accommodate
Answer: C
Which SDLC model is referred to as a generic model for software development?
A. Iterative Process
B. Ad-hoc Development
C. Waterfall
D. V-Model
Answer: C
Which of the following SDLC approaches best describes the model where project starts
with initial planning and ends with deployment with the cyclic interactions in between?
A. Iterative Process
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B. Ad-hoc Development
C. Waterfall
D. V-Model
Answer: A
The Post Implementation Review is also referred to as the Lessons Learned Review.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Structural Testing is also referred to as:
A. White Box Testing
B. Black Box Testing
C. Functional Testing
D. User Acceptance Testing
Answer: A
The testing term "validation" is generally associated with:
A. Static Testing
B. Dynamic Testing
C. Inspections
D. None of the above
Answer: B
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Which item below is most closely related to: Testing previously verified logic?

A. Capture/Playback
B. Black Box
C. Inspections
D. Regression Testing
E. Stress Testing
Answer: D
Who is responsible for creating and maintaining the overall test plan to reflect changes
to
the overall project plan?
A. Project Manager
B. Test Manager
C. Business Analyst
D. User
Answer: B
The testing activities that require the use of some portion of the executable code is
referred
as:
A. Dynamic Testing
B. Static Testing
C. Reviews
D. Inspections
Answer: A
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Which of the following is NOT an example of Static Testing?
A. Reviews
B. Inspections
C. User Acceptance Testing
D. Walkthrough
Answer: C
Which of the following is NOT a validation testing phase?
A. Requirements Review
B. Unit Testing
C. Integration Testing
D. UAT
Answer: A
Which of the following is true of the V-Model?
A. It states that modules are tested against user requirements
B. It only models the testing phase
C. It specifies the test techniques to be used
D. It represents the relationship of the verification and validation activities
Answer: D

Which of the following statements about reviews is true?


A. Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications
B. Reviews are the least effective way of testing code
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C. Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans
D. Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans
Answer: D
Which of the following describes the major benefit of testing throughout the software
development life cycle?
A. It allows the identification of changes in user requirements
B. It facilitates timely set up of the test environment
C. It reduces defect multiplication
D. It reduces the cost of finding and fixing defects by identifying them as close to their
creation as possible
Answer: D
The following are different causes of defects, EXCEPT:
A. Ambiguous Requirements
B. Poor Design
C. Incorrect Translation of the Design into Code
D. Signed Off Requirements
Answer: D
Unit Testing is performed by the:
A. Developer
B. Business Analyst
C. Tester
D. User
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Answer: A
The purpose of _____________ is to find those defects that occur in the transitions
between one unit and another.
A. System Testing
B. User Acceptance Testing
C. Black Box Testing
D. Integration Testing
Answer: D
Which of the following is NOT an example of Integration Strategy?
A. Big Bang
B. Design Based

C. Top-Down
D. Bottom-Up
Answer: B
System Testing should be conducted in an environment which is a replica of the:
A. Development Environment
B. Production Environment
C. Testing Environment
D. UAT Environment
Answer: B
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Given the following sets of Testing Activities terms (a-e), and activity descriptions (1-5),
which one of the following best pairs the two sets?
a Equivalence Testing
b Boundary Value Analysis
c Smoke Testing
d Regression Testing
e Stress Testing
1 Ensure that changes do not have a negative impact
2 Ensure whether the most crucial functions of a program work
3 Use transaction simulator software
4 Reduce the number of test cases by assigning responses to classes
5 Approach also referred as limit testing
A. a1, b2, c4, d3, e5
B. a5, b4, c2, d3, e1
C. a4, b5, c2, d1, e3
D. a2, b4, c5, d3, e1
Answer: C
Which of the following is a White Box Technique?
A. Path Testing
B. Boundary Value Analysis
C. Equivalence Partitioning
D. State Transition Testing
Answer: A
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The following is typically associated with functional testing?
A. White Box Testing
B. Black Box Testing
C. Tree Diagrams
Answer: B

A program validates a numeric field as follows:


Values less than 100 are rejected, values between 100 and 200 are accepted, values
greater than or equal to 201 are rejected.
Which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?
A. 100, 110, 199
B. 3, 200, 210
C. 80, 100, 201
D. 100, 200,201
Answer: C
A program validates a numeric field as follows:
Values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values
greater
than or equal to 22 are rejected.
Which of the following input values covers the MOST boundary values?
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A. 9, 10, 11, 22
B. 9, 10, 21, 22
C. 10, 11, 21, 22
D. 10, 11, 20, 21
Answer: B
Which of the following is a form of Functional Testing?
A. Boundary Value Analysis
B. Usability Testing
C. Performance Testing
D. Security Testing
Answer: A
Which form of testing is most likely to benefit the most from the use of Automation
Testing?
A. Smoke Testing
B. Regression Testing
C. Sanity Testing
D. White Box Testing
Answer: B
The Risk-Based Testing technique can be applied at any stage after:
A. Unit Testing is Completed
B. Design Phase is Signed Off
C. System Testing is Completed
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D. Coding is Completed
Answer: A
Production Verification Test is also called:
A. Staging Test
B. Structural Test
C. Functional Test
D. Usability Test
Answer: A
Which of the following teams provides the installation and maintenance environment to
support acceptance testing activities?
A. Data Security Staff
B. Operations and Network Staff
C. Internal Audit Team
D. Verification Control Team
Answer: B
Which of the following is NOT included in the Acceptance Test Plan document?
A. Benchmarks for Completion
B. Needed Resources
C. Work Breakdown Structure
D. Cost Benefit Analysis
Answer: D
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Who is involved in developing the business case and understanding the high level
functional requirements for the project which form the basis of Acceptance Testing?
A. Business Analyst
B. Test Manager
C. Coder
D. Test Lead
Answer: A
The creation of test cases begins:
A. During Design Phase
B. During Requirements Phase
C. During Coding Phase
D. During Feasibility Study
Answer: B
Which of the following is NOT a criteria for updating the Acceptance Test Plan?
A. Increase or Decrease of Scope
B. Failure to Execute the Basic Functionality
C. Changes in Schedule
D. New Functionality Added
Answer: B
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Question No : 294 - (Topic 3)
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If 80% of the total product cost is spent in maintenance then reducing maintenance
costs
by delivering a quality product will impact the organizations return on investment (ROI).
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
A technique for capturing the functional requirements of systems through the interaction
between an Actor and the System is called:
A. System Test Case
B. Use Case
C. Acceptance Test Case
D. Data Flow Diagram
Answer: B
A primary actor is one from which the system needs assistance to satisfy its goal.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Use case development results in a series of related tests call scenarios
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B. Failure scenarios are unsuccessful conclusions that result in the actor abandoning
the
goal
C. All the scenarios for a single Use Case must meet all of the interactions related to
different goal or sub-goal
D. If there is only one path, with no opportunities for decisions, changes or errors, there
will
be no scenarios
Answer: C
A data store in a DFD represents a:
A. Sequential File
B. Repository of Data
C. Random Access Memory
Answer: B
Problems discovered at a phase subsequent to the phase in which they were created
are
referred to as _________.

A. Errors
B. Defects
C. Mistakes
D. Faults
Answer: B
If a defect fix is to be considered part of a new enhancement or an entirely new project,
the
status of defect will be:
A. Corrected and Closed
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B. Closed - No Action
C. Transferred and Closed
D. Assigned
Answer: C
The following are the critical functions that a defect reporting and tracking tool must
have,
EXCEPT:
A. Capture Narrative Information
B. Capture Statistical Information
C. Track Defect to Closure
D. Identifies the Staff Person who made the Error / Defect
Answer: D
Forced Choice Matrix tool can be used for:
A. Defect Reporting
B. Defect Tracking
C. Defect Prioritization
D. Defect Analysis
Answer: C
Use Case Development typically results in a series of related tests called
____________________.
A. Business Case
B. Scenarios
C. Flows
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D. Goals
Answer: B
In Use Cases, the basic course of events is called the:
A. Alternative Event

B. Happy Path
C. Business Rule
D. Trigger
Answer: B
____________ determines that an information system protects data and maintains
functionality as intended.
A. Smoke Testing
B. Regression Testing
C. Sanity Testing
D. Security Testing
Answer: D
Which type of testing is performed without planning and documentation and is part of
Exploratory Testing?
A. Smoke Testing
B. Failure Testing
C. Ad-hoc Testing
D. Sanity Testing
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Answer: C
Which type of testing is used to evaluate the extent to which a user can learn to
operate,
prepare inputs for, and interpret outputs of a system?
A. Data Validation Testing
B. Usability Test
C. Production Verification Test
D. Structural Test
Answer: B
Which of the following is the most important post implementation process improvement
activity?
A. Post Implementation Reviews
B. Post Implementation Support
C. Post Implementation Training
D. Process Improvement Workshops
Answer: A
Which of the following statement about Recidivism is NOT correct?
A. It is the introduction of new errors in the attempt to correct a defect
B. It is often the result of inadequate analysis of the reported defect
C. It is the name for defects that are not resolved by new releases to the total defects
reported
D. High rate of recidivism indicates a problem with the analysis process
Answer: C
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A Performance Based Contract is an agreement that covers the speed of execution of
system functionality.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Before committing to the acquisition of a vendor package, it is essential to see the:
A. Product Run on Your Current System
B. Vendor's Profit and Loss Statement
C. Defect Reports on Vendor Testing
D. Use at Another Client Location
Answer: D
If the product is to be a custom developed (as opposed to COTS or MOTS), the
selection
of the vendor is critical to the long term success of the project.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
If you acquired COTS software and were attending a demonstration of that software,
what
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aspects of that software would you want to observe during the demonstration?
A. Understandability
B. Clarity of Communication
C. Functionality of the Software
D. Effectiveness of Help Routines
E. All the above
Answer: E
MOTS is an acronym for:
A. Modified Off-The-Shelf Software
B. Management Oriented Testing System
C. Manipulated Object Training Series
D. Mission, Objectives, Training, Supervision
Answer: A
The Project Liaison is the primary project contact with the other party or parties to the
contract.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
COTS is an acronym for:
A. Center Operations and Technical Support
B. Commercial Off-The-Shelf
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C. Component Off-The-Shelf
D. Committee On Technical Security
Answer: B
Which of the following is installed and operated with no modifications by the purchaser?
A. COTS
B. GOTS
C. MOTS
D. PBC
Answer: A
Performance Based Contracting (PBC) helps:
A. In vendor identification
B. Manage the custom developed product
C. All of the products developed by outside individuals
D. Manages the interaction between a software vendor and a requesting organization
Answer: D
If the product is to be purchased, the requirements form the criteria against which
products
are judged.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question No : 318 - (Topic 3)
Question No : 319 - (Topic 3)
Question No : 320 - (Topic 3)
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Which approach supports multiple types of Operating Systems running on a single
server?
A. Operating System Virtualization
B. Hardware Virtualization
C. Software Compatibility
D. Operating System Compatibility
Answer: B
When planning a site visit to evaluate software your organization is considering
purchasing,
who should be on the site visit team?
A. SME, IT Support Team, Tester, BA

B. SME, Tester, BA
C. PM, Tester, BA
D. SME, IT Support Team
Answer: A
Who has the primary responsibility for ensuring that there is proper communication,
both
incoming and outgoing?
A. Project Liaison
B. Team Members
C. Senior Manager
D. Tester
Answer: A
Question No : 321 - (Topic 3)
Question No : 322 - (Topic 3)
Question No : 323 - (Topic 3)
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Internal projects where it is necessary to augment your staff with outside resources
would
then be considered 'custom software'.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Attorneys and Legal Counsel are responsible for:
A. Participating in test execution and analysis
B. Tracking vendor deliverable against the contracted schedule
C. Managing budget and staff resources
D. Supporting contract negotiation efforts when required
Answer: D
The work of translating the requirements of what a system must do into a product that
will
meet those needs is called:
A. Requirements
B. Design
C. Development
D. Prototyping
Answer: B
Question No : 324 - (Topic 3)
Question No : 325 - (Topic 3)
Question No : 326 - (Topic 3)
Question No : 327 - (Topic 3)
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Performance Based Contracting (PBC) does not apply to COTS.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Questions for a telephone interview can be developed using Likert Scale.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Subject matter experts participate in the prioritization of the requirements which form the
basis of the contract.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
-- Exhibit -Question No : 328 - (Topic 3)
Question No : 329 - (Topic 3)
Question No : 330 - (Topic 3)
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-- Exhibit -The diagram is a _____________________.
A. Control Diagram
B. Affinity Diagram
C. Cause-and-Effect Diagram
D. Pareto Chart
Answer: C
-- Exhibit -Question No : 331 - (Topic 3)
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-- Exhibit -The diagram is what type of chart?
A. Run Chart
B. Control Chart
C. Affinity Diagram
D. Flow Chart
E. Pareto Chart
Answer: E
-- Exhibit -Question No : 332 - (Topic 3)
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-- Exhibit -The diagram is what type of chart?
A. Flow Chart
B. Pert Chart
C. Pareto Chart
D. Control Chart
E. Root Cause Analysis Chart

Answer: D
-- Exhibit --- Exhibit -The diagram is known as a:
A. ISO Model
B. Program Segment
C. Process Workbench
D. Flow Diagram
Answer: C
Question No : 333 - (Topic 3)
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-- Exhibit --- Exhibit -The diagram is of the:
A. ISO 9000
B. Malcolm Balridge Model
C. Capability Maturity Model Integrated
D. Process Workbench
E. None of the above
Answer: C
-- Exhibit -Question No : 334 - (Topic 3)
Question No : 335 - (Topic 3)
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-- Exhibit -In the diagram, the arrow labeled A points to an event on the control chart which is:
A. Under Control
B. Over Control
C. Out of Control
D. In Control
E. Irrelevant
Answer: C
-- Exhibit --- Exhibit -In the table, the column labeled "Number of Requirements Inspected" records a:
A. Metric
B. Correlation Coefficient
Question No : 336 - (Topic 3)
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C. Measure
D. Variability Factor
Answer: C
-- Exhibit --

-- Exhibit -In the table, the number 20.2, which represents the inspection rate, is a:
A. Metric
B. Correlation Coefficient
C. Measure
D. Variability Factor
Answer: A
Question No : 337 - (Topic 3)
Question No : 338 - (Topic 3)
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-- Exhibit --- Exhibit -The diagram is a:
A. Configuration Management Artifacts Map
B. Screen Play Script Mapping Diagram
C. Use Case Boundary Diagram
D. Unit Testing Flow Diagram
E. Unit Level Process Map
Answer: E
-- Exhibit --- Exhibit -The diagram is a:
A. Data Flow Diagram
B. Entity Relationship Diagrams
Question No : 339 - (Topic 3)
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C. State Transition Diagram
D. USE CASE Diagram
Answer: B
-- Exhibit --- Exhibit -With regards to Entity Relationship Diagrams, the diagram is a:
A. One to one
B. One to zero or one
C. One to many
D. One to zero or many
Answer: C
-- Exhibit -Question No : 340 - (Topic 3)
Question No : 341 - (Topic 3)
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-- Exhibit -The diagram is of the ___________ Development Model.

A. Waterfall
B. Iterative
C. Exploratory
D. Spiral
E. None of the above
Answer: D
-- Exhibit -Question No : 342 - (Topic 3)
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-- Exhibit -Using the "V" Model diagram, what testing phase is represented by the letter C?
A. Integration
B. Requirements Walkthrough
C. User Acceptance Testing
D. Unit Testing
Answer: D
-- Exhibit -Question No : 343 - (Topic 3)
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-- Exhibit -Using the "V" Model diagram, what type of testing activity is represented by the letter A?
A. Verification or Static
B. Validation or Dynamic
C. White Box
D. Boundary Analysis
E. User Acceptance Testing
Answer: A
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