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CCNA Exploration 3 - Module 1 Exam Answers V.

1. A network technician is asked to examine an existing switched network. Following this examination,
the technician makes recommendations for adding new switches where needed and replacing existing
equipment that hampers performance. The technician is given a budget and asked to proceed. Which
two pieces of information would be helpful in determining necessary port density for new switches?
(Choose two.)
• forwarding rate
• traffic flow analysis
• expected future growth
• number of required core connections
• number of hubs that are needed in the access layer to increase performance

2. Configuring communication between devices on different VLANs requires the use of which layer of
the OSI model?
• Layer 1
• Layer 3
• Layer 4
• Layer 5

3. What is the likely impact of moving a conventional company architecture to a completely converged
network?
• Local analog phone service can be completely outsourced to cost-effective providers.
• The Ethernet VLAN structure is less complex.
• A shared infrastructure is created resulting in a single network to manage.
• QoS issues are greatly reduced.
• There is less bandwidth competition between voice and video streams.

4. Which hierarchical design model layer controls the flow of network traffic using policies and
delineates broadcast domains by performing routing functions between virtual LANs (VLANs)?
• application
• access
• distribution
• network
• core

5. A network administrator is selecting a switch that will operate at the network core. Which three
features should the switch support for optimum network performance and reliability? (Choose three.)
• port security
• security policies
• 10 Gigabit Ethernet
• quality of service (QoS)
• hot-swappable hardware
• Power over Ethernet (PoE)

6. Which three features are commonly supported at the distribution layer of the Cisco hierarchical
network model? (Choose three.)
• security policies
• Power over Ethernet
• switch port security
• quality of service
• Layer 3 functionality
• end user access to network

7. Which two features are supported at all three levels of the Cisco three-layer hierarchical model?
(Choose two.)
• Power over Ethernet
• load balancing across redundant trunk links
• redundant components
• Quality of Service
• link aggregation

8. Which two characteristics are associated with enterprise level switches? (Choose two.)
• low port density
• high forwarding rate
• high latency level
• support link aggregation
• predefined number of ports

9. Link aggregation should be implemented at which layer of the hierarchical network?


• core only
• distribution and core
• access and distribution
• access, distribution, and core

10. For organizations that are implementing a voice over IP solution, what functionality should be
enabled at all three layers of the hierarchical network?
• Power over Ethernet
• quality of service
• switch port security
• inter-VLAN routing

11. Which layer of the hierarchical design model provides a means of connecting devices to the
network and controlling which devices are allowed to communicate on the network?
• application
• access
• distribution
• network
• core

12. At which heirarchical layer are switches normally not required to process all ports at wire speed?
• core layer
• distribution layer
• access layer
• entry layer

13. Which layer of the OSI model does an access layer LAN switch use to make a forwarding
decision?
• Layer 1
• Layer 2
• Layer 3
• Layer 4

14. Refer to the exhibit. What characteristic of hierarchical network designs is exhibited by having SW3
connected to both SW1 and Sw2?
• scalability
• security
• redundancy
• maintainability

15. Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is refered to as the high-speed backbone of
the internetwork, where high availability and redundancy are critical?
• access layer
• core layer
• data-link layer
• distribution layer
• network layer
• physical layer

16. What statement best describes a modular switch?


• a slim-line chassis
• allows interconnection of switches on redundant backplane
• defined physical characteristics
• flexible characteristics

17. A technician is attempting to explain Cisco StackWise technology to a client that is setting up three
stackable switches. Which explanation accurately describes StackWise technology?
• StackWise technology allows up to eight ports to be bound together to increase available bandwidth.
• StackWise technology allows the switch to deliver power to end devices by using existing Ethernet
cabling.
• StackWise technology allows the switch capabilities and ports to be expanded by the addition of line
cards.
• Stack Wise technology allows up to nine switches to be interconnected via the use of a fully
redundant backplane.

18. Which hierarchical design characteristic would be recommended at both the core and distribution
layers to protect the network in the case of a route failure?
• Poe
• redundancy
• aggregation
• access lists
19. Which feature supports higher throughput in switched networks by combining multiple switch
ports?
• convergence
• redundant links
• link aggregation
• network diameter

20. Refer to the exhibit. Beginning with HR servers and workstations, a network engineer is designing
a new security structure for the network. Which set of • • policies adheres to the hierarchical network
model design principles?
• Implement Layer 3 switching on S1 to reduce the packet processing load on D1 and D2. Install all
security processing on S1 to reduce network traffic load.
• Configure port security options on S1. Use Layer 3 access control features on D1 and D2 to limit
access to the HR servers to just the HR subnet.
• Move all HR assets out of the data center and connect them to S1. Use Layer 3 security functions on
S1 to deny all traffic into and out of S1.
• Perform all port access and Layer 3 security functions on C1.

CCNA Exploration 3 - Module 2 Exam Answers V.4

1. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond
after the backoff period has expired?
• The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
• The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
• The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
• The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

2. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex
operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
• No collisions will occur on this link.
• Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
• The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
• The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

3. Refer to the exhibit. What action does SW1 take on a frame sent from PC_A to PC_C if the MAC
address table of SW1 is empty?
• SW1 drops the frame.
• SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, except port Fa0/1.
• SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, except Fa0/23 and Fa0/1.
• SW1 uses the CDP protocol to synchronize the MAC tables on both switches and then forwards the
frame to all ports on SW2.

4. When a switch receives a frame and the source MAC address is not found in the switching table,
what action will be taken by the switch to process the incoming frame?
• The switch will request that the sending node resend the frame.
• The switch will issue an ARP request to confirm that the source exists.
• The switch will map the source MAC address to the port on which it was received.
• The switch ends an acknowledgement frame to the source MAC of this incoming frame.

5. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its
CAM table. Which of the hosts will capture a copy of the frame when workstation A sends a unicast
packet to workstation C?
• workstation C
• workstations B and C
• workstations A, B, C, and the interfaces of the router
• workstations B, C, D, E, F, and interfaces of the router

6. Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are depicted in the network?
•1
•2
•4
•6
•7
•8

7. Which two statements about Layer 2 Ethernet switches are true? (Choose two.)
• Layer 2 switches prevent broadcasts.
• Layer 2 switches have multiple collision domains.
• Layer 2 switches route traffic between different networks.
• Layer 2 switches decrease the number of broadcast domains.
• Layer 2 switches can send traffic based on the destination MAC address.

8. Which command line interface (CLI) mode allows users to configure switch parameters, such as the
hostname and password?
• user EXEC mode
• privileged EXEC mode
• global configuration mode
• interface configuration mode

9. A network administrator uses the CLI to enter a command that requires several parameters. The
switch responds with “% Incomplete command”. The administrator cannot remember the missing
parameters. What can the administrator do to get the parameter information? append ?
• to the last parameter
• append a space and then ? to the last parameter
• use Ctrl-P to show a parameter list.
• use the Tab key to show which options are available

10. Where is the startup configuration stored?


• DRAM
• NVRAM
• ROM
• startup-config.text

11. If a network administrator enters these commands in global configuration mode on a switch, what
will be the result?
• Switch1(config-line)# line console 0
• Switch1(config-line)# password Cisco
• Switch1(config-line)# login

12. to secure the console port with the password “cisco” to deny access to the console port by
specifying 0 lines are available to gain access to line configuration mode by supplying the required
password to configure the privilege exec password that will be used for remote access problem?
• incorrect vty lines configured
• incompatible Secure Shell version
• incorrect default gateway address
• vty lines that are configured to allow only Telnet

13. Which two statements are true about EXEC mode passwords? (Choose two.)
• The enable secret password command stores the configured password in plain text.
• The enable secret password command provides better security than the enable password.
• The enable password and enable secret password protect access to privileged EXEC mode.
• The service password-encryption command is required to encrypt the enable secret password. Best
practices require both the enable password and enable secret password to be configured and used
simultaneously.

14. .
• The enable password is encrypted by default.
• An MD5 hashing algorithm was used on all encrypted passwords.
• Any configured line mode passwords will be encrypted in this configuration.
• This line represents most secure privileged EXEC mode password possible.

15. Which statement is true about the command banner login “Authorized personnel Only” issued on a
switch?
• The command is entered in privileged EXEC mode.
• The command will cause the message Authorized personnel Only to display before a user logs in.
• The command will generate the error message % Ambiguous command: “banner motd” ” to be
displayed.
• The command will cause the message End with the character “%” to be displayed after the command
is entered into the switch.

16. What are two ways to make a switch less vulnerable to attacks like MAC address flooding, CDP
attacks, and Telnet attacks? (Choose two.)
• Enable CDP on the switch.
• Change passwords regularly.
• Turn off unnecessary services.
• Enable the HTTP server on the switch.
• Use the enable password rather than the enable secret password.

17. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)
• The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP.
• Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.
• The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports.
• After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to
secure MAC addresses.
• If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically
learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.

19. Refer to the exhibit. What happens when Host 1 attempts to send data?
• Frames from Host 1 cause the interface to shut down.
• Frames from Host 1 are dropped and no log message is sent.
• Frames from Host 1 create a MAC address entry in the running-config.
• Frames from Host 1 will remove all MAC address entries in the address table.

20. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?
• The SSH client on the switch is enabled.
• Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.
• A username/password combination is no longer needed to establish a secure remote connection to
the switch.
• The switch requires remote connections via proprietary client software.

21. Refer to the exhibit. A user on PC1 experiences a delay when accessing applications on the
server. What two statements about latency are true? (Choose two.)
• Each hop in the path adds delay to the overall latency.
• Placing the bits on the wire at PC1 is propagation delay.
• Total latency depends solely on the number of devices in the path.
• The NIC delay at points A and F contributes to the overall latency.
• The time it takes for an electrical signal to transit the segment from point C to point D is the cause for
the propagation delay.
• Because optimized routing algorithms are faster than switching algorithms, routers R1 and R2 are
expected to add less latency than switches SW1 and SW2.

22. Refer to the exhibit. Which hosts will receive a broadcast frame sent from Host A?
• hosts A and B
• hosts D and E
• hosts A, B, and C
• hosts A, B, C, D, and E
• hosts A, B, C, D, E, and F

CCNA Exploration 3 - Module 3 Exam Answers V.4

1. What statement about the 802.1q trunking protocol is true?


• 802.1q is Cisco proprietary.
• 802.1q frames are mapped to VLANs by MAC address.
• 802.1q does NOT require the FCS of the original frame to be recalculated.
• 802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports.

2. Which two statements describe the benefits of VLANs? (Choose two.)


• VLANs improve network performance by regulating flow control and window size.
• VLANs enable switches to route packets to remote networks via VLAN ID filtering.
• VLANs reduce network cost by reducing the number of physical ports required on switches.
• VLANs improve network security by isolating users that have access to sensitive data and
applications.
• VLANs divide a network into smaller logical networks, resulting in lower susceptibility to broadcast
storms.

3. What are two characteristics of VLAN1 in a default switch configuration? (Choose two.)
• VLAN1 should renamed.
• VLAN 1 is the management VLAN.
• All switch ports are members of VLAN1.
• Only switch port 0/1 is assigned to VLAN1.
• Links between switches must be members of VLAN1.

4. Refer to the exhibit. SW1 and SW2 are new switches being installed in the topology shown in the
exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 on switch SW1 has been configured with trunk mode “on”. Which statement is
true about forming a trunk link between the switches SW1 and SW2?
• Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 will negotiate to become a trunk link if it supports DTP.
• Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 can only become a trunk link if statically configured as a trunk.
• Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link if the
neighboring interface is configured in nonegotiate mode.
• Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link automatically
with no consideration of the configuration on the neighboring interface.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Computer 1 sends a frame to computer 4. On which links along the path
between computer 1 and computer 4 will a VLAN ID tag be included with the frame?
•A
• A, B
• A, B, D, G
• A, D, F
• C, E
• C, E, F

6. The network administrator wants to separate hosts in Building A into two VLANs numbered 20 and
30. Which two statements are true concerning VLAN configuration? (Choose two.)
• The VLANs may be named.
• VLAN information is saved in the startup configuration.
• Non-default VLANs created manually must use the extended range VLAN numbers.
• The network administrator may create the VLANs in either global configuration mode or VLAN
database mode.
• Both VLANs may be named BUILDING_A to distinguish them from other VLANs in different
geographical locations.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn regarding the switch that produced the
output shown? (Choose two.)
• The network administrator configured VLANs 1002-1005.
• The VLANs are in the active state and are in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.
• A FDDI trunk has been configured on this switch.
• The command switchport access vlan 20 was entered in interface configuration mode for Fast
Ethernet interface 0/1.
• Devices attached to ports fa0/5 through fa0/8 cannot communicate with devices attached to ports
fa0/9 through fa0/12 without the use of a Layer 3 device.

8. What happens to the member ports of a VLAN when the VLAN is deleted?
• The ports cannot communicate with other ports.
• The ports default back to the management VLAN.
• The ports automatically become a part of VLAN1.
• The ports remain a part of that VLAN until the switch is rebooted. They then become members of the
management VLAN.

9. A network administrator is removing several VLANs from a switch. When the administrator enters
the no vlan 1 command, an error is received. Why did this command generate an error?
• VLAN 1 can never be deleted.
• VLAN 1 can only be deleted by deleting the vlan.dat file.
• VLAN 1 can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from it.
• VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its responsibilities.

10. What is the effect of the switchport mode dynamic desirable command?
• DTP cannot negotiate the trunk since the native VLAN is not the default VLAN.
• The remote connected interface cannot negotiate a trunk unless it is also configured as dynamic
desirable.
• The connected devices dynamically determine when data for multiple VLANs must be transmitted
across the link and bring the trunk up as needed.
• A trunk link is formed if the remote connected device is configured with the switchport mode dynamic
auto or switchport mode trunk commands.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited configurations do not allow the switches to form a trunk. What is
the most likely cause of this problem?
• Cisco switches only support the ISL trunking protocol.
• The trunk cannot be negotiated with both ends set to auto.
• By default, Switch1 will only allow VLAN 5 across the link.
• A common native VLAN should have been configured on the switches.

12. Switch port fa0/1 was manually configured as a trunk, but now it will be used to connect a host to
the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/1?
• Disable DTP.
• Delete any VLANs currently being trunked through port Fa0/1.
• Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to default.
• Enter the switchport mode access command in interface configuration mode.
13. Refer to the exhibit. Computer B is unable to communicate with computer D. What is the most
likely cause of this problem?
• The link between the switches is up but not trunked.
• VLAN 3 is not an allowed VLAN to enter the trunk between the switches.
• The router is not properly configured to route traffic between the VLANs.
• Computer D does not have a proper address for the VLAN 3 address space.

14. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2
and assigned hosts on the IP addresses of the VLAN in the 10.1.50.0/24 subnet range. Computer A
can communicate with computer B, but not with computer C or computer D. What is the most likely
cause of this problem?
• There is a native VLAN mismatch.
• The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked.
• The router is not properly configured for inter-VLAN routing.
• VLAN 50 is not allowed to entering the trunk between Switch1 and Switch2.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning interface Fa0/5?
• The default native VLAN is being used.
• The trunking mode is set to auto.
• Trunking can occur with non-Cisco switches.
• VLAN information about the interface encapsulates the Ethernet frames.

16. What statements describe how hosts on VLANs communicate?


• Hosts on different VLANs use VTP to negotiate a trunk.
• Hosts on different VLANs communicate through routers.
• Hosts on different VLANs should be in the same IP network.
• Hosts on different VLANs examine VLAN ID in the frame tagging to determine if the frame for their
network.

• 17. Refer to the exhibit. How far is a broadcast frame that is sent by computer A propagated in the
LAN domain?
• none of the computers will receive the broadcast frame
• computer A, computer B, computer C
• computer A, computer D, computer G
• computer B, computer C
• computer D, computer G
• computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E, computer F, computer G, computer
H, computer I

18. What is a valid consideration for planning VLAN traffic across multiple switches?
• Configuring interswitch connections as trunks will cause all hosts on any VLAN to receive broadcasts
from the other VLANs.
• A trunk connection is affected by broadcast storms on any particular VLAN that is carried by that
trunk.
• Restricting trunk connections between switches to a single VLAN will improve efficiency of port
usage.
• Carrying all required VLANs on a single access port will ensure proper traffic separation.

19. Which two statements about the 802.1q trunking protocol are true? (Choose two.)
• 802.1q is Cisco proprietary.
• 802.1q frames are mapped to VLANs by MAC address.
• If 802.1q is used on a frame, the FCS must be recalculated.
• 802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports.
• 802.1q allows the encapsulation of the original frame to identify the VLAN from which a frame
originated.

20. What switch port modes will allow a switch to successfully form a trunking link if the neighboring
switch port is in "dynamic desirable" mode?
• dynamic desirable mode
• on or dynamic desirable mode
• on, auto, or dynamic desirable mode
• on, auto, dynamic desirable, or nonegotiate mode

21. Refer to the exhibit. Company HR is adding PC4, a specialized application workstation, to a new
company office. The company will add a switch, S3, connected via a trunk link to S2, another switch.
For security reasons the new PC will reside in the HR VLAN, VLAN 10. The new office will use the
172.17.11.0/24 subnet. After installation, the existing PCs are unable to access shares on PC4. What
is the likely cause?
• The switch to switch connection must be configured as an access port to permit access to VLAN 10
on S3.
• The new PC is on a different subnet so Fa0/2 on S3 must be configured as a trunk port.
• PC4 must use the same subnet as the other HR VLAN PCs.
• A single VLAN cannot span multiple switches.

22. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and
assign it to VLAN 3?
• Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode.
• Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
• Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
• Enter the no shutdown in interface configuration mode to return it to the default configuration and
then configure the port for VLAN 3.

CCNA Exploration 3 - Module 4 Exam Answers V.4

1. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other
switches shown in the exhibit. What are two possible reasons for this? (Choose two.)
• Switch2 is in transparent mode.
• Switch1 is in client mode.
• Switch1 is using VTP version 1 and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.
• Switch2 is in server mode.
• Switch1 is in a different management domain.
• Switch1 has no VLANs.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Switches SW1 and SW2 are interconnected via a trunk link but failed to
exchange VLAN information. The network administrator issued the show vtp status command to
troubleshoot the problem. On the basis of the output provided, what could be done to fix the problem?
• The switches must be interconnected via access link.
• Switch SW2 must be configured as a VTP client.
• Both switches must be configured as VTP clients.
• Both switches must be configured with the same VTP revision number.
• The switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name.

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
• If this switch is added to an established network, the other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP
domain will consider their own
• VLAN information to be more recent than the VLAN information advertised by this switch.
• This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
• This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
• This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the
same VTP domain.
• This switch is configured to allows the network manager to maximize bandwidth by restricting traffic
to specific network devices.

4. Which two statements describe VTP transparent mode operation? (Choose two.)
• Transparent mode switches can create VLAN management information.
• Transparent mode switches can add VLANs of local significance only.
• Transparent mode switches pass any VLAN management information that they receive to other
switches.
• Transparent mode switches can adopt VLAN management changes that are received from other
switches.
• Transparent mode switches originate updates about the status of their VLANS and inform other
switches about that status.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Switch2 was previously used in a lab environment and has been added to the
production network in server mode. The lab and production networks use the same VTP domain
name, so the network administrator made no configuration changes to Switch2 before adding it to the
production network. The lab domain has a higher revision number. After Switch2 was added to the
production network, many computers lost network connectivity. What is the quickest way to solve the
problem?
• Reset the revision number on Switch2 with either the delete VTP command or by changing the
domain name and then changing it back.
• Change Switch1 to transparent VTP mode to reclaim all VLANs in vlan.dat, and then change back to
server mode.
• Change Switch2 to client mode so the VLANs will automatically repopulate.
• Re-enter all appropriate VLANs, except VLAN 1, manually on Switch1 so that they repropagate
throughout the network.

6. What causes a VTP configured switch to issue a summary advertisement?


• A new host has been attached to a switch in the management domain.
• A port on a switch in the management domain has changed to blocking mode.
• A five-minute update timer has elapsed.
• The advertisement revision number has reached n+1.

7. Which two statements describe VTP client mode operation. (Choose two.)
• can add VLANs of local significance only
• can only adopt VLAN management changes
• can create and adopt updated VLAN management information
• can only pass VLAN management information without adopting changes
• can add VLANs to domain
• cannot add VLANs

8 Which statement is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?
• VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.
• VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.
• A switch configured for VTP can belong to more than one VTP domain.
• VTP dynamically communicates VLAN additions, deletions and modifications to all switches in the
same VTP domain.
• VTP advertisements are passed over access links to other switches.

9. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the VTP domain are new. Switch SW1 is configured as a VTP
server, switches SW2 and SW4 are configured as VTP clients, and switch SW3 is configured in VTP
transparent mode. Which switch or switches receive VTP updates and synchronize their VLAN
configuration based on those updates?
• All switches receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.
• Only switch SW2 receives updates and synchronizes VLAN information.
• SW3 and SW4 receive updates, but only switch SW4 synchronizes VLAN information.
• Only switches SW3 and SW4 receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.

10. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be learned from the output provided?
• It verifies the configured VTP password.
• It verifies the VTP domain is configured to use VTP version 2.
• It verifies VTP advertisements are being exchanged.
• It verifies the VTP domain name is V1.

11. Which statement is true about the VTP pruning process?


• VTP pruning automatically updates all switches within the VTP domain with VLAN information.
• VTP pruning updates all switches within the VTP domain with information about pruning-eligible
VLANs.
• VTP pruning updates all switches within the VTP domain with information about pruning-ineligible
VLANs.
• VTP pruning prevents flooded traffic from crossing trunk links to switches that do not need to process
the flood traffic.

12. Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit are connected with trunks within the same VTP
management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3.
This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?
• VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.
• Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches.
• VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.
• There are no ports assigned to the new VLAN on the other switches.
• Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.

13. What does a client mode switch in a VTP management domain do when it receives a summary
advertisement with a revision number higher than its current revision number?
• It suspends forwarding until a subset advertisement update arrives.
• It issues an advertisement request for new VLAN information.
• It increments the revision number and forwards it to other switches.
• It deletes the VLANs not included in the summary advertisement.
• It issues summary advertisements to advise other switches of status changes.

14. Which three VTP parameters must be identical on all switches to participate in the same VTP
domain? (Choose three.)
• revision number
• domain name
• pruning
• mode
• domain password
• version number

15. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network participate in the same VTP domain. What happens
when the new switch SW2 with a default configuration and revision number of 0 is inserted in the
existing VTP domain Lab Network?
• The switch operates as a VTP client.
• switch operates in VTP transparent mode.
• The switch operates as a VTP server and deletes the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.
• The switch operates as a VTP server, but does not impact the existing VLAN configuration in the
domain.

16. Refer to the exhibit. Switch S1 is in VTP server mode. Switches S2 and S3 are in client mode. An
administrator accidentally disconnects the cable from F0/1 on S2. What will the effect be?
• S2 loses all VLANs until the cable is reconnected.
• S2 automatically transitions to VTP transparent mode.
• S2 does not send a VTP request advertisement unless it is reloaded.
• S2 automatically sends a VTP request advertisement to 172.17.99.11 when the cable is reconnected.

17. Which two statements are true about the implementation of VTP? (Choose two.)
• Switches must be connected via trunks.
• The VTP domain name is case sensitive.
• Transparent mode switches cannot be configured with new VLANs.
• The VTP password is mandatory and case sensitive.
• Switches that use VTP must have the same switch name.

CCNA Exploration 3 - Module 5 Exam Answers V.4

1. Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a Layer 2 switched
environment that has redundant connections between switches? (Choose two.)
• The root switch is the switch with the highest speed ports.
• Decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and
identity.
• All trunking ports are designated and not blocked.
• Root switches have all ports set as root ports.
• Non-root switches each have only one root port.
2. Which two statements describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)
• They are sent out by the root bridge only after the inferior BPDUs are sent.
• They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.
• Only the root bridge will send out a BID.
• They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.
• The switch with the fastest processor will have the lowest BID.

3. In which two ways is the information that is contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.)
• to negotiate a trunk between switches
• to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
• to identify the shortest path to the root bridge
• to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
• to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree

4. Which two actions does an RSTP edge port take if it receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)
• immediately loses its edge status
• inhibits the generation of a TCN
• goes immediately to a learning state
• disables itself
• becomes a normal spanning-tree port

5. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network have empty MAC tables. STP has been disabled on
the switches in the network. How will a broadcast frame that is sent by host PC1 be handled on the
network?
• Switch SW1 will block the broadcast and drop the frame.
• Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. This will
generate an endless loop in the network.
• Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. All hosts in the
network will replay with a unicast frame sent to host PC1.
• Switch SW1 will forward the traffic out all switch ports except the originating port as a unicast frame.
All hosts in the network will replay with a unicast frame sent to switch SW1.

6. Which two items are true regarding the spanning-tree portfast command? (Choose two.)
• PortFast is Cisco proprietary.
• PortFast can negatively effect DHCP services.
• PortFast is used to more quickly prevent and eliminate bridging loops.
• Enabling PortFast on trunks that connect to other switches improves convergence.
• If an access port is configured with PortFast, it immediately transitions from a blocking to a
forwarding state.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If
STP is not enabled, what will be the result of this ARP request?

• Router_1 will drop the broadcast and reply with the MAC address of the next hop router.
• Switch_A will reply with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.
• Switch_A and Switch_B will continuously flood the message onto the network.
• The message will cycle around the network until its TTL is exceeded.

8. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
• election of the root bridge
• blocking of the non-designated ports
• selection of the designated trunk port
• determination of the designated port for each segment

9. How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?
• Configure all the interfaces on the switch as the static root ports.
• Change the BPDU to a lower value than that of the other switches in the network.
• Assign a lower IP address to the switch than that of the other switches in the network.
• Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.

10. Refer to the exhibit. The spanning-tree port priority of each interface is at the default setting. The
network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. What is the effect
of the command?

• Spanning tree blocks Gi 0/1 on S3.


• • Gi 0/2 on S3 transitions to a root port.
• Port priority makes Gi 0/2 on S1 a root port.
• S4 is already the root bridge, so there are no port changes.

11. What two features of the Spanning-Tree Protocol contribute to the time it takes for a switched
network to converge after a topology change occurs? (Choose two.)
• the max-age timer
• the spanning-tree hold down timer
• the forward delay
• the spanning-tree path cost
• the blocking delay

12. In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forward user data?
• blocking
• Learning
• disabling
• listening
• forwarding

13. Which three statements are accurate regarding RSTP and STP? (Choose three.)
• RSTP uses a faster algorithm to determine root ports.
• RSTP introduced the extended system ID to allow for more than 4096 VLANs.
• Both RSTP and STP use the portfast command to allow ports to immediately transition to forwarding
state.
• Like STP PortFast, an RSTP edge port that receives a BPDU loses its edge port status immediately
and becomes a normal spanning-tree port.
• Configuration commands to establish primary and secondary root bridges are identical for STP and
RSTP.
• Because of the format of the BPDU packet, RSTP is backward compatible with STP.

14. What two elements will exist in a converged network with one spanning tree? (Choose two.)
• one root bridge per network
• all non-designated ports forwarding
• one root port per non-root bridge
• multiple designated ports per segment
• one designated port per network

15. Which statement or set of paired statements correctly compares STP with RSTP?
• STP and RSTP use the same BPDU format.
• STP specifies backup ports. RSTP has only root ports, alternate ports, and designated ports.
• STP port states are independent of port roles. RSTP ties together the port state and port role.
• STP waits for the network to converge before placing ports into forwarding state. RSTP places
alternate ports into forwarding state immediately.

16. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output shown?
Two hosts communicating between ports Fa 0/2 and Fa 0/4 have a cost of 38.
• The priority was statically configured to identify the root.
• STP is disabled on this switch.
• The timers have been altered to reduce convergence time.

17. Which two criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.)
• bridge priority
• switching speed
• number of ports
• base MAC address
• switch location
• memory size

18. What three link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)
• Shared
• end-to-end
• edge-type
• boundary-type
• point-to-many
• point-to-point

19. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) role is assigned to the forwarding port elected for
every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
• alternate
• backup
• Designated
• root
20. When PVST+ was developed, the Bridge ID was modified to include which information?
• bridge priority
• MAC address
• protocol
• VLAN ID

CCNA Exploration 3 - Module 6 Exam Answers V.4

1. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements describe the network design shown in the exhibit?
(Choose three.)

• This design will not scale easily.


• The router merges the VLANs into a single broadcast domain.
• This design uses more switch and router ports than are necessary.
• This design exceeds the maximum number of VLANs that can be attached to a switch.
• This design requires the use of the ISL or 802.1q protocol on the links between the switch and the
router.
• If the physical interfaces between the switch and router are operational, the devices on the different
VLANs can communicate through the router.

2. A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network.
How can this be accomplished using the fewest number of physical interfaces without unnecessarily
decreasing network performance?
• Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
• Add a second router to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.
• Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a FastEthernet interface on the router.
• Interconnect the VLANs via the two additional FastEthernet interfaces.

3. Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC2 can successfully ping
the F0/0 interface on R1. PC2 cannot ping PC1. What might be the reason for this failure?

• R1 interface F0/1 has not been configured for subinterface operation.


• S1 interface F0/6 needs to be configured for operation in VLAN10.
• S1 interface F0/8 is in the wrong VLAN.
• S1 port F0/6 is not in VLAN10.

4. Refer to the exhibit. The commands for a router to connect to a trunked uplink are shown in the
exhibit. A packet is received from IP address 192.168.1.54. The packet destination address is
192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1 tagged for VLAN 10.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 tagged for VLAN 60.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 120.
• The router will not process the packet since the source and destination are on the same subnet. The
router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.

5. What distinguishes traditional routing from router-on-a-stick?


• Traditional routing is only able to use a single switch interface. Router-on-a-stick can use multiple
switch interfaces.
• Traditional routing requires a routing protocol. Router-on-a-stick only needs to route directly
connected networks.
• Traditional routing uses one port per logical network. Router-on-a-stick uses subinterfaces to connect
multiple logical networks to a single router port.
• Traditional routing uses multiple paths to the router and therefore requires STP. Router-on-a-stick
does not provide multiple connections and therefore eliminates the need for STP.

6. Which statement is true about ARP when inter-VLAN routing is being used on the network?
• When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, each subinterface has a separate MAC address
to send in response to ARP requests.
• When VLANs are in use, the switch responds to ARP requests with the MAC address of the port to
which the PC is connected.
• When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, the router returns the MAC address of the
physical interface in response to ARP requests.
• When traditional inter-VLAN routing is in use, devices on all VLANs use the same physical router
interface as their source of proxy ARP responses.

7. What two statements are true regarding the use of subinterfaces for inter-VLAN routing? (Choose
two.)
• subinterfaces have no contention for bandwidth
• more switch ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing
• fewer router ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing
• simpler Layer 3 troubleshooting than with traditional inter-VLAN routing
• less complex physical connection than in traditional inter-VLAN routing

8. Which three elements must be used when configuring a router interface for VLAN trunking?
(Choose three.)
• one subinterface per VLAN
• one physical interface for each subinterface
• one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
• one trunked link per VLAN
• a management domain for each subinterface
• a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the subinterfaces?
(Choose two.)
• Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
• Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
• Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
• Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from
which the traffic originated.
• Reliability of both subinterfaces is poor because ARP is timing out.
• Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/0 on router R1 is connected to port Fa0/1 on switch S1. After the
commands shown are entered on both devices, the network administrator determines that the devices
on VLAN 2 are unable to ping the devices on VLAN 1. What is the likely problem?

• R1 is configured for router-on-a-stick, but S1 is not configured for trunking.


• R1 does not have the VLANs entered in the VLAN database.
• Spanning Tree Protocol is blocking port Fa0/0 on R1.
• The subinterfaces on R1 have not been brought up with the no shutdown command yet.

11. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 has attempted to ping PC2 but has been unsuccessful. What could
account for this failure?
• PC1 and R1 interface F0/0.1 are on different subnets.
• The encapsulation is missing on the R1 interface F0/0.
• An IP address has not been assigned to the R1 physical interface.
• The encapsulation command on the R1 F0/0.3 interface is incorrect.

12. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is routing between networks 192.168.10.0/28 and 192.168.30.0/28. PC1
can ping R1 interface F0/1, but cannot ping PC3. What is causing this failure?
• PC1 and PC3 are not in the same VLAN.
• The PC3 network address configuration is incorrect.
• The S1 interface F0/11 should be assigned to VLAN30.
• The F0/0 and F0/1 interfaces on R1 must be configured as trunks.

13. Devices on the network are connected to a 24-port Layer 2 switch that is configured with VLANs.
Switch ports 0/2 to 0/4 are assigned to VLAN 10. Ports 0/5 to 0/8 are assigned to VLAN 20, and ports
0/9 to 0/12 are assigned to VLAN 30. All other ports are assigned to the default VLAN. Which solution
allows all VLANs to communicate between each other while minimizing the number of ports necessary
to connect the VLANs?
• Configure ports 0/13 to 0/16 with the appropriate IP addresses to perform routing between VLANs.
• Add a router to the topology and configure one FastEthernet interface on the router with multiple
subinterfaces for VLANs 1, 10, 20, and 30.
• Obtain a router with multiple LAN interfaces and configure each interface for a separate subnet,
thereby allowing communication between VLANs.
• Obtain a Layer 3 switch and configure a trunk link between the switch and router, and configure the
router physical interface with an IP address on the native VLAN.

14. Which two statements are true about the interface fa0/0.10 command? (Choose two.)
• The command applies VLAN 10 to router interface fa0/0.
• The command is used in the configuration of router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing.
• The command configures a subinterface.
• The command configures interface fa0/0 as a trunk link.
• Because the IP address is applied to the physical interface, the command does not include an IP
address.

15. Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the output that is shown? (Choose
two.)

• The no shutdown command has not been issued on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
• Both of the directly connected routes that are shown will share the same physical interface of the
router.
• A routing protocol must be configured on the network in order for the inter-VLAN routing to be
successful.
• Inter-VLAN routing between hosts on the 172.16.10.0/24 and 172.16.30.0/24 networks is successful
on this network.
• Hosts in this network must be configured with the IP address that is assigned to the router physical
interface as their default gateway.

16. What are the steps which must be completed in order to enable inter-VLAN routing using router-
on-a-stick?
• Configure the physical interfaces on the router and enable a routing protocol.
• Create the VLANs on the router and define the port membership assignments on the switch.
• Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and enable a routing
protocol on the router.
• Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and configure subinterfaces
on the router matching the VLANs.

17. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator correctly configures RTA to perform inter-VLAN
routing. The administrator connects RTA to port 0/4 on SW2, but inter-VLAN routing does not work.
What could be the possible cause of the problem with the SW2 configuration?

• Port 0/4 is not active.


• Port 0/4 is not a member of VLAN1.
• Port 0/4 is configured in access mode.
• Port 0/4 is using the wrong trunking protocol.

18. What is important to consider while configuring the subinterfaces of a router when implementing
inter-VLAN routing?
• The physical interface must have an IP address configured.
• The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID number.
• The no shutdown command must be given on each subinterface.
• The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for each VLAN subnet.

19. In which situation could individual router physical interfaces be used for InterVLAN routing, instead
of a router-on-a-stick configuration?
• a network with high traffic requirements
• a network with a limited number of VLANs
• a network with experienced support personnel
• a network using a router with one LAN interface

20. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is correctly configured for the VLANs that are displayed in the graphic.
The configuration that is shown was applied to RTA to allow for interVLAN connectivity between hosts
attached to Switch1. After testing the network, the administrator logged the following report:
Hosts within each VLAN can communicate with each other. Hosts in VLAN5 and VLAN33 are able to
communicate with each other. Hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 do not have connectivity to
host in other VLANs. Why are hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 unable to communicate with
hosts in different VLANs?

• The router interface is shut down.


• The VLAN IDs do not match the subinterface numbers.
• All of the subinterface addresses on the router are in the same subnet.
• The router was not configured to forward traffic for VLAN2.
• The physical interface, FastEthernet0/0, was not configured with an IP address.
CCNA Exploration 3 - Module 7 Exam Answers V.4

1. Which two conditions have favored adoption of 802.11g over 802.11a? (Choose two.)
• 802.11a suffers from a shorter range than 802.11g.
• The 2.4 GHz frequency band is not as crowded as the 5 GHz band.
• 802.11a is more susceptible to RF interference from common commercial items.
• 802.11a uses a more expensive modulation technique than 802.11g.
• 802.11g is backward compatible with 802.11b, but 802.11a is not.

2. Which two statements concerning network security are accurate? (Choose two.)
• 802.11i uses 3DES for encryption.
• Open authentication uses no client or AP verification.
• The 802.11i protocol is functionally identical to WPA.
• 802.11i incorporates a RADIUS server for enterprise authentication.
• A wireless client first associates with an AP and then authenticates for network access.

3. Which installation method will allow connectivity for a new wireless network?
• set up WEP on the access point only
• set up open access on both the access point and each device connected to it
• set up full encryption on the access point while leaving each device connected to the network open
• set up full encryption on each device of the WLAN while leaving the access point settings open

4. Refer to the exhibit. When configuring the wireless access point, which setting does the network
administrator use to configure the unique identifier that client devices use to distinguish this wireless
network from others?
• Network Mode
• Network Name (SSID)
• Radio Band
• Wide Channel
• Standard Channel

5. Which two statements are true regarding wireless security? (Choose two.)
• MAC address filtering prevents the contents of wireless frames from being viewable.
• Providing a wireless client with the network key allows an available network to be visible.
• Disabling an access point from broadcasting the SSID prevents the access point from being
discovered.
• Default SSIDs on specific manufacturer APs are generally known and may permit hostile wireless
connections.
• Manually adding a network and setting the known SSID on a wireless client makes the network
visible even if the SSID is not being broadcast.

6. Wireless users on a network complain about poor performance within a small area of a room.
Moving away from this area in any direction improves performance dramatically. What is the first step
in designing a solution to this problem?
• This might be RF channel overlap, so the technician should verify the channels in use on each
wireless access point and change to non-overlapping channels.
• The RF power settings might be set too low on the wireless access points servicing the room.
Increase the RF output power on all wireless access points.
• Install a new wireless access point in this center area to provide coverage.
• Verify that the wireless access points have sufficient in-line power and connectivity to the wired
network.

7. Which three devices do many wireless routers incorporate? (Choose three.)


• gateway for connecting to other network infrastructures
• built-in Ethernet switch
• network management station
• VTP server
• wireless access point
• VPN concentrator

8. Which access method does a wireless access point use to allow for multiple user connectivity and
distributed access?
• CSMA/CD
• token passing
• CSMA/CA
• polling

9. Why is security so important in wireless networks?


• Wireless networks are typically slower than wired networks.
• Televisions and other devices can interfere with wireless signals.
• Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.
• Environmental factors such as thunderstorms can affect wireless networks.

10. Which wireless technology standard provides the most compatibility with older wireless standards,
but has greater performance?
• 802.11a
• 802.11b
• 802.11g
• 802.11n

11. Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)
• A rogue access point represents a security risk for the local network.
• Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.
• Using encryption prevents unauthorized clients from associating with an access point.
• An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.
• With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must sniff the SSID before being able to connect.

12. Which network design process identifies where to place access points?
• site survey
• risk assessment
• scalability design
• network protocol analysis

13. What wireless security feature allows a network administrator to configure an access point with
wireless NIC unique identifiers so that only these NICs can connect to the wireless network?
• authentication
• SSID broadcasting
• MAC address filtering
• EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)
• Radius (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)

14. What will a wireless client transmit to discover the available WLAN networks?
• beacon
• password
• probe request
• association request
15. In a WLAN network, why should wireless access points be implemented with each access point
using a different channel?
• to keep users segregated on separate subnets
• to control the amount of bandwidth that is utilized
• to keep signals from interfering with each other
• to keep traffic secure

16. What purpose does authentication serve in a WLAN?


• converts clear text data before transmission
• indicates which channel the data should flow on
• determines that the correct host is utilizing the network
• allows the host to choose which channel to use

17. What occurs when a rogue access point is added to a WLAN?


• Authorized access points can transmit excess traffic to rogue access points to help alleviate
congestion.
• Unauthorized users can gain access to internal servers, thus causing a security hole.
• All traffic that uses the same channel as the rogue access point will be encrypted.
• All traffic that uses the same channel as the rogue access point will be required to authenticate.

18. What procedure can prevent man-in-the-middle attacks?


• Force all devices on a WLAN to authenticate and monitor for any unknown devices.
• Enable access points to send an SSID to each device wanting to use the network.
• Configure MAC filtering on all authorized access points.
• Disable SSID broadcasts.

19. Which function is provided by a wireless access point?


• dynamically assigns an IP address to the host
• provides local DHCP services
• converts data from 802.11 to 802.3 frame encapsulation
• provides a gateway for connecting to other networks

20. Which major problem does CSMA/CA overcome in wireless networks?


• bandwidth saturation
• privacy concerns
• media contention
• device interoperability

21. What does a wireless access point use to allow WLAN clients to learn which networks are
available in a given area?
• association response
• beacon
• key
• probe request

CCNA Exploration 3 - FINAL Exam Answers V.4

1.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to setup Switch1 for remote access from HostA.
Theshow ip interface brief is issued on Router1 and the show interfaces trunk command is issued on
theSwitch1 to verify the current status. The administrator applies the additional configuration shown in
theexhibit to Switch1. However, the telnet from HostA fails. What additional commands need to be
appliedto the switch?
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.50.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.50.254
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 50
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

2.

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how will an Ethernet frame on port
GigabitEthernet0/1 be modified?
• 802.1Q encapsulation prepends a 4-byte tag field in front of the original Ethernet frame and
recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
• 802.1Q encapsulation inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame between the source
address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified
frame.
• 802.1Q encapsulation prepends an 802.1p field in front of the original Ethernet frame and
recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame. • 802.1Q encapsulation inserts
an 802.1p field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and
recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
3. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default
value?
• All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
• Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
• Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
• The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.

4. Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
• SSID
• OFDM
• WEP
• DSSS

5.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the consequence if SW1 port F0/1 is configured as an edge port?
• SW1 port F0/1 transitions to the learning state.
• SW1 port F0/1 can generate a temporary loop.
• SW1 port F0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
• SW1 port F0/2 no longer passes BPDUs to SW4.

6.
Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in
VLAN 40 on switch Y?
• QoS
• routing
• trunking
• VPN

7.

Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are 128 for all interfaces. The network administrator
enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. Which two port results are correct?
(Choose two.)
• S1 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
• S2 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.
• S3 Gi0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
• S4 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
• S4 Gi0/2 becomes a designated port.

8.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
• This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
• This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
• This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the
same VTP domain.
• This switch will drop all VTP advertisements that come from the switches that are configured in the
same VTP domain.
• This switch will cause no disruption in the VTP domain operations if the rest of the switches in the
same VTP domain have a higher configuration revision number.

9.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but
cannot ping computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure?
• S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
• R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
• The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
• Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.

10.

Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and host B are on the
default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?
• Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
• Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
• Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
• Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.

11.
Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in
the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
• Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
• Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
• Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
• Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.

12. What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with
the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?
• A new RSA key pair is created.
• The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.
• The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.
• The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.

13.
Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the
switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
• forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3
• add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table
• forward the frame out Interface3
• discard the frame
• forward the frame out all interfaces
• forward the frame out Interface2

14. Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)
• It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
• It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
• It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
• It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
• It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.

15.

Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP addresses should be
assigned to this new host?
• 192.168.1.11 /28
• 192.168.1.22 /28
• 192.168.1.33 /28
• 192.168.1.44 /28
• 192.168.1.55 /28

16.

Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
• SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
• SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
• SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
• SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.
17. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements
correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
• An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and
Switch2.
• An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and
Switch4.
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and
Switch3.
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and
Switch4.

18.

Refer to the exhibit. Computer A sends a broadcast message. Which devices will see the broadcast?
• computer B
• computer B and Router1
• computer C and Router1
• computer B, computer D, computer E and Router1
• computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
• computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1

19.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the configuration shown to allow both SSH and
Telnet connections to the switch. The Telnet connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this
problem?
• The SSH version number is wrong.
• SSH has been configured on the wrong line.
• Telnet and SSH cannot be configured simultaneously.
• The transport input command is configured incorrectly.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
• Cat-A
• Cat-B
• Cat-C
• Cat-D
21.

Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLANs will be
pruned from switch SW3?
• VLAN 10 and VLAN 20
• VLAN 1, VLAN 10, and VLAN 20
• VLAN 1, VLAN 1002 through 1005
• VLAN 1, VLAN 10, VLAN 20, VLAN 1002 through 1005

22.

Refer to the exhibit. What does STATIC indicate in the output that is shown?
• The switch will not allow any other device to connect to port Fa0/15.
• Traffic destined for MAC address 0000.c123.5432 will be forwarded to Fa0/15.
• This entry will be removed and refreshed every 300 seconds to keep it in the table.
• The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/15.
• When processing a frame, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final
destination port.

23. Which three statements are regarding router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
• requires the use of subinterfaces on the router
• requires an access link between the router and Layer 2 switch
• more cost-efficient and scalable than using multiple physical interfaces
• requires each subinterface to be configured with the no shutdown command
• can impact performance if many VLANs compete for bandwidth on a single router interface
• makes troubleshooting the inter-VLAN routing configuration much less complex than when using
multiple physical interfaces

24.

Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a
destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
• The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast
domain.
• The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the
router.

25.
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the
switch port from that VLAN in one of the existing VLANs. What two commands should be used when
completely removing VLAN 2 from S1-Central while leaving the switch and all its interfaces
operational? (Choose two.)
• S1-Central# reload
• S1-Central# erase flash:
• S1-Central(config)# no vlan 2
• S1-Central# delete flash:vlan.dat
• S1-Central(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3

26.

Refer to the exhibit.


What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown?
• The switch is sending and receiving data frames.
• The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
• The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
• The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.

27.

Refer to the exhibit. Switch


SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to
SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from
SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
• Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
• Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
• Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
• Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.

28. What are three benefits of a hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
• reduced contention for bandwidth
• reduced size of the physical layout
• increased fault tolerance of the network
• elimination of the need for wiring closets
• elimination of the need for layer three functionality
• simplification of management and troubleshooting

29.

Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this
output?(Choose three.)
• Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.
• A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use.
• The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
• A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.
• Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
• An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.
30.

Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production
network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought
up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?
• All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.
• SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.
• VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of
SW1.
• The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could
contain.

31.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to implement inter-VLAN routing on a hierarchical
network. On which devices should the inter-VLAN routing be configured?
• AS1 and AS2
• DS1 and DS2
• Gateway and CS1
• Gateway, CS1, DS1, and DS2

32. Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose
three.)
• Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
• Enable password is configured as cisco.
• All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
• The flash directory contains the IOS image.
• VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
• All interfaces are set to auto-negotiation of speed and duplex.

33.

Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same
time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
• After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
• Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
• The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
• Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
• If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the
line is idle before transmitting.

34.
Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the
administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely
problem?
• The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
• The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.
• The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic
trunking protocol to establish a trunk.
• The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.

35.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)
• Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
• Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
• Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.
• Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
• Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from
which the traffic originated.

36. What three tasks should be performed before moving a Catalyst switch to another VTP
management domain? (Choose three.)
• Select the correct VTP mode and version.
• Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.
• Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
• Configure the VTP server in the new domain to recognize the BID of the switch.
• Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the new domain.

• Verify that the switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the new
domain.

37.
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same
time but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
• only hosts A and B
• only hosts A, B, and C
• only hosts A, B, C, and D
• only hosts A, B, C, and E

38. Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is ?


• The service password-encryption command is entered at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.
• The service password-encryption command encrypts only passwords for the console and VTY ports.
• The service password-encryption command encrypts all previously unencrypted passwords in the
running configuration.
• To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command, enter the no service
password-encryption command.

39.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are regarding what the cost value of 23 represents for
Switch4? (Choose two.)
• This cost represents the lowest cost path for Switch4 to the root switch.
• A cost of 23 is the value being advertised out port 16 on the switch upstream (closer) to the root
switch.
• Switch4 adds the cost of a Fast Ethernet link to 23 to determine its total cost to reach the root switch.
• Switch4 is connected via a Fast Ethernet link to an upstream switch that in turn is directly connected
to the root switch via a Gigabit Ethernet link.
• The root switch is advertising a cost of 23, which is lower than any other switch in the VLAN0001
spanning-tree domain.

40.

Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to
communicate? (Choose three.)
• The switch ports are on different VLANs.
• The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
• The hosts are configured on different logical networks.
• A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2.
• The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
• The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.

41.
Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the
spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
• switch A
• switch B
• switch C
• switch D
• switch E
• switch F

42.

Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the
transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision?
• hub HB1
• switch SW1
• router R1
• switch SW2
• router R2
• switch SW4

43. Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter
when choosing the root bridge?
• The network diameter limitation is 9.
• BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
• The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
• The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and
its farthest connected switch.

44.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and
configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each
VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely
cause of this problem?
• Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.
• Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
• No routing protocol is configured on Router1.
• One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.

45. What is the purpose of issuing the command switchport mode access on a switch interface?
• disable port security
• make the port operational
• override the default port behavior
• force the port to be a part of a single vlan
46.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is regarding the information shown?


• Only one VLAN is currently configured to use the trunk links.
• The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
• A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
• Interfaces Gi0/1 and Fa0/1 are allowed to carry data from multiple VLANs

47. Which identifier is used to keep track of frames that are destined for a particular wireless client?
• AID
• SSID
• BSSID
• ESSID

48.

Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames that contain an unknown source address reach
interface fa0/24?
• A syslog message will be logged.
• Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.
• The incoming frames will be dropped.
• The security violation count will be incremented.

49. In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP
advertisements?
• client
• root
• server
• transparent

50. Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N
wireless access point?
• Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
• Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration
software.
• From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the
access point in a web browser.
• Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the
same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.

51. What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose
two.)
• Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses
• The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
• The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table
entries.
• The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
• Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300
minutes after the last activity on a switch port.

52. What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
• requires less equipment
• provides improved range
• permits increased data rates
• has a single-input and a single-output
• needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility