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Q1

Volume of distribution of Paracetamol is?


A. 500 ml/kg body weight
B. 1 L/kg body weight
C. 5 L/kg body weight
D. 25 L/kg body weight
Correct answer : B. 1 L/kg body weight
Q2
Who is known as the Father of Pharmacology?
A. Oswald Schmiedeberg
B. J Langley
C. Rudolf Buchheim
D. Paul Ehrlich
Correct answer : A. Oswald Schmiedeberg
Q3
Which of the following is not an action of muscarinic antagonists?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Reduce respiratory secretions


Reduce gastric secretions
Contraction of radial muscles of iris
Increase rate of conduction in the heart

Q4
Buprenorphine
A.
B.
C.
D.

is a?

Partial mu agonist
Full mu agonist
Partial kappa agonist
Full kappa agonist

Correct answer : A. Partial mu agonist


Q5
Which of the following is an integrase inhibitor currently in use for the
treatment of HIV infection?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Indinavir
Elvitegravir
Saquinavir
Raltegravir

Correct answer : D. Raltegravir


Q6
Tolerance develops to all of the following effects of opioids except?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Euphoria
Miosis
Analgesia
Nausea

Correct answer : B. Miosis


Q7
Which of the following is used to decrease the toxicity of amphotericin
B?

A. Dose reduction
B. Liposomal delivery systems
C. Supplementing glucose
D. Giving it along with flucytosine

Correct answer : B. Liposomal delivery systems


Q8
False statement regarding phenytoin is?
A. It is a teratogenic drug
B. Highly protein bound
C. Induces insulin secretion
D. Follows saturation kinetics

Correct answer : C. Induces insulin secretion


Q9
MAO inhibitors are contraindicated in a patient taking?
A. Pethidine
B. Buprenorphine
C. Morphine
D. Pentazocine

Correct answer : A. Pethidine > D. Pentazocine


Q10
Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for treatment of ?
A. Generalized tonic clonic seizures
B. Absence seizures
C. Simple partial seizures
D. Complex partial seizures

Correct answer : B. Absence seizures


Q11
All of the following drugs cross the placenta except?

A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Morphine
D. Heparin

Correct answer : D. Heparin


Q12
Which of the following drugs have a narrow therapeutic index?
A. Lithium
B. Diazepam
C. Penicillin
D. Desipramine

Correct answer : A. Lithium


Q13
Which of the following is used for the treatment of chlamydia infection
in pregnancy?
A. Tetracycline
B. Erythromycin
C. Azithromycin
D. Doxycycline

Correct answer : C. Azithromycin


Q14
Simeprevir is used for the treatment of ?
A. HIV
B. CMV infection
C. Kaposi sarcoma
D. Chronic Hepatitis C
Correct answer : D. Chronic Hepatitis C
Q15
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors are useful in the management of ?

A. Acute myeloid leukemia


B. Small cell carcinoma of lung
C. Gastrointestinal stromal tumors
D. Neurofibromatosis

Correct answer : C. Gastrointestinal stromal tumors


Q16
Which of the following is used in the treatment of meningococcal
meningitis in patients allergic to penicillin?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Teicoplanin
C. Meropenem
D. Chloramphenicol

Correct answer : D. Chloramphenicol


Q17
Drug of choice in eclampsia:
a) Oral magnesium sulphate
b) Intravenous magnesium sulphate
c) Oral phenytoin sodium
d) Intravenous phenytoin sodium
Correct answer: b) Intravenous magnesium sulphate
Q18
Ibrutinib is used for the management of ?
A. Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
B. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
C. Mantle Cell Lymphoma
D. Lymphocyte rich Hodgkins Lymphoma

Correct answer : C. Mantle Cell Lymphoma


Q19
Not true about Na+ K+ 2Cl- Co-transporter:
a) It is a glycoprotein

b) 12 membrane spanning domains


c) There are distinct isoforms for secretory and absorptive function
d) The secretory form is found exclusively in thick segment of ascending
limb of loop of Henle
Correct answer: d) The secretory form is found exclusively in thick
segment of ascending limb of loop of Henle.
Q20
Which of the following is not a loop diuretic:
a) Fruesmide
b) Torsemide
c) Ethacrynic acid
d) Chlorthalidone
Correct answer: d) Chlorthalidone (Thiazide like diuretic)
Q21
Which of the following has a uricosuric action:
a) Allopurinol
b) Losartan
c) Ramipril
d) Atenolol
Correct answer: b) Losartan
Q22
The action of Furosemide in acute pulmonary edema due acute left
ventricular failure is by:
a) Pulmonary venodilation
b) Increasing urine formation
c) Decreases blood volume
d) All of the above
Correct answer: d) All of the above
Q23
Drug class causing free water clearance:
a) Diuretic
b) Saluretic
c) Uricosuric

d) Aquaretic
Correct answer: d) Aquaretic
Q24
Mineralocorticoid Receptors are found in all of the following, Except?
A. Liver
B. Colon
C. Hippocampus
D. Kidney
Correct answer : A. Liver
Q25
All of the following are known adverse effects of thalidomide, except:
A. Diarrhoea
B. Teratogenicity
C. Deep Vein Thrombosis
D. Peripheral Neuropathy
Correct answer : A. Diarrhoea
Q26
Which of the following antihypertensive drugs should not be used in a
patient on Lithium in order to prevent Lithium Toxicity?
A. Clonidine
B. Beta blockers
C. Calcium Channel Blockers
D. Diuretics
Correct answer : D. Diuretics
Q27
Alkalinization of urine is done during administration of which of the
following chemotherapeutic drugs?
A. Ara-C (Cytarabine)
B. Methotrexate
C. Cisplatin
D. Ifosfamide
Correct answer : B. Methotrexate
Q28
Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of
Thrombocytopenia secondary to myelosuppressive cancer chemotherapy?
A. Filgrastim
B. Sargramostim
C. Oprelvekin
D. Erythropoietin
Correct answer : C. Oprelvekin
Q29
All of the following statements about Aprepitant are true except?
A. Agonist at Neurokinin receptor (NK1)
B. Crosses blood brain barrier
C. Metabolised by CYP3A4 pathway
D. Ameliorates nausea and vomiting of chemotherapy
Correct answer : A. Agonist at Neurokinin receptor (NK1)

Q30
All of the following statement s about Erlotinib are true except?
A. Tyrosine kinase inhibitor
B. Food decreases its absorption
C. Rashes may occur
D. Used in non small cell lung carcinoma
Correct answer : B. Food decreases its absorption
Q31
All of the following statements about Selective Estrogen Receptor
Downregulator (SERD), Fulvestrant are true, Except
A. It is a selective estrogen antagonist
B. Used in the treatment of breast cancer
C. Slower acting, safer and less effective than SERM
D. May be administered as once a month dose
Correct answer : C. Slower acting, safer and less effective than SERM
Q32
All of the following statements about Ranolazine are true, except:
A. Piperazine derived antianginal agent
B. May be used as ?rst line agent in chronic angina
C. May improve Glycemic control
D. Hypotension is an established adverse effect
Correct answer : D. Hypotension is an established adverse effect
Q33
All of the following statements about meglitinides are true, except:
A. Act by stimulating insulin release
B. Decrease Postprandial Hyperglycemia
C. Hypoglycemia is less common than with sulfonylureas
D. Act by decreasing insulin resistance
Correct answer : D. Act by decreasing insulin resistance
Q34
lntegrase inhibitors approved for HIV is:
A. Raltegravir
B. lndinavir
C. Lopinavir
D. Elvitegravir
Correct answer : A. Raltegravir
Q35
Amphotericin B treatment mandates the monitoring of which of the
following electrolytes:
A. Na+
B. Ca2+
C. K+
D. Mg2+
Correct answer : C. K+
Q36
Prolonged treatment with INH leads to de?ciency of
A. Pyridoxine

B. Thiamine
C. Pantothenic acid
D. Niacin
Correct answer : A. Pyridoxine
Q37
A patient who was given primaquine develops dark coloured urine one day
after administration of the drug. The likely diagnosis is
A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
B. Glucose-6- phosphatase deficiency
C. Galactose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase de?ciency
D. Galactose-6-phosphatase deficiency
Correct answer : A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
Q38
Which of the following agents is not associated with Hyperthermia
A. Amphetamines
B. MAO inhibitors
C. Atropine
D. Alcohol
Correct answer : D. Alcohol
Q39
All of the following statements about serotonin syndrome are true,
except:
A. lt is not an idiosyncratic reaction
B. Can be caused by SSRI
C. Dantrolene is the drug of choice
D. Associated with hyperthermia and hypertension
Correct answer : C. Dantrolene is the drug of choice
Q40
Which of the following drug is most commonly used world wide in
maintenance doses for opioid dependence
A. Naltrexone
B. Methadone
C. lmipramine
D. Disul?ram
Correct answer : B. Methadone
Q41
BAL is useful in treating poisoning due to all except?
A. Lead
B. Organic mercury
C. Cadmium
D. Arsenic
Correct answer : C. Cadmium
Q42
Which of the following statements is not true about Tacrolimus?
A. It is macrolide Antibiotic
B. lt is indicated for the prophylaxis of organ transplant rejection
C. Glucose intolerance is a well Recognized side effect
D. It can be safely administered with any Nephrotoxic drug

Correct answer : D. It can be safely administered with any Nephrotoxic


drug
Q43
Clinically significant drug interaction occurs between pyridoxine and all
the following drugs except?
A. Isoniazid
B. Cyclosporine
C. Levodopa
D. Hydralazine
Correct answer : B. Cyclosporine
Q44
Which is the most active single chemotherapeutic agent in the treatment
of Leiomyosarcoma?
A. Adriamycin
B. Doxorubicin
C. Methotrexate
D. Cisplatin
Correct answer : A. Adriamycin / B. Doxorubicin
Q45
All of the following are hormonal agents used against breast cancer
except?
A. Letrozole
B. Exemestane
C. Taxol
D. Tamoxifen
Correct answer : C. Taxol
Q46
atients suffering from multidrug resistant tuberculosis can be treated
with all the following drugs except:
A. Tobramycin
B. Amikacin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Clarithromycin
Correct answer : A. Tobramycin
Q47
A 30 year old pregnant woman developes tuberculosis. Which of the
following antitubercular drugs should not be used:
A. INH
B. Rifampicin
C. Streptomycin
D. Ethambutol
Correct answer : C. Streptomycin
Q48
Which of the following Antimicrobials has Antipseudomonal action:
A. Cefopodoxime proxetil
B. Ceforanide
C. Cefotetan
D. Cefoperazone

Correct answer : D. Cefoperazone


Q49
Which of the following fluoroquinolones does not require dose adjustment
in a patient with creatinine clearance of < 50mg/min?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Trovafloxacin
C. Lomefloxacin
D. Sparfloxacin
Correct answer : B. Trovafloxacin
Q50
A post operative patient developed septicemia and was empirically started
on combination chemotherapy by a new resident doctor. However, when the
patient did not respond even after 10 days of antibiotics treatment, the
review of the charts was done. It was found that the resident doctor had
started the combination of antibiotics which was mutually antagonistic in
action. Which one of the following is the most likely
combination that was given?
A. Vancomycin and Amikacin
B. Cephalexin and Gentamicin
C. Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol
D. Ciprofloxacin and Piperacillin
Correct answer : C. Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol
Q51
Which of the following statements is not true regarding sulfonamides:
A. Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from GIT
B. Crystalluria can occur with sulfonamide administration
C. Sulfonamide administration to Newborn may cause Kernicterus
D. Sulfonamides are of value in treatment of infections due to Norcardia
species
Correct answer : A. Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from GIT
Q52
Morphine can be used in all the following conditions except:
A. Head injury
B. Asthma
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Diabetes
Correct answer : A. Head injury
Q53
Which of the following action is ascribed to delta type of opioid
receptors?
A. Supraspinal analgesis
B. Respiratory depression
C. Euphoria
D. Reduced intestinal motility
Correct answer : A. Supraspinal analgesis
Q54
Drug implicated for prolonging QT interval in a premature baby is :
A. Domperidone

B. Metoclopramide
C. Cisapride
D. Omeprazole
Correct answer : C. Cisapride
Q55
All the following statements regarding interactions of levodopa are
correct except:
A. In Parkinsonism, phenothiazines reduce its efficacy
B. It is a prodrug
C. Pyridoxine reduces effect of levodopa in parkinsonism
D. Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its therapeutic
potential
Correct answer : D. Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its
therapeutic potential
Q56
A patient of peptic ulcer was prescribed ranitidine and
morning hours. Why is this combination incorrect:
A. Ranitidine combines with sucralfate and prevents its
B. Combination of these two drugs produces serious side
agranulacytosis
C. Ranitidine decreases the gastric pH so sucralfate is
D. Sucralfate inhibits absorption of ranitidine

sucralfate in the
action
effects like
not able to act

Correct answer : D. Sucralfate inhibits absorption of ranitidine


Q57
Which of the following is not an adverse effect of chronic amiodarone
therapy?
A. Pulmonary fibrosis
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
Correct answer : D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
Q58
A 60 year old man with rheumatic mitral stenosis with atrial fibrillation
is on therapy for a fast ventricular rate. While on treatment, he
developed a regular pulse of 64/min. The most likely drug being
administered was:
A. Verapamil
B. Digoxin
C. Carvedilol
D. Propranolol
Correct answer : B. Digoxin
Q59
Which of the following does not bind to GABA receptor chloride channels?
A. Ethanol
B. Alfaxalone
C. Zolpidem
D. Buspirone
Correct answer : D. Buspirone

Q60
All of the following are advantages of using Raloxifene over estrogen in
post menopasual women except?
A. Reduces fracture rates
B. Avoids Endometrial hyperplasia
C. Reduces incidence of venous thrombosis
D. No increase in incidence of breast carcinomas
Correct answer : C. Reduces incidence of venous thrombosis
Q61
All of the following Anticancer agents cause bone marrow depression
except?
A. Chlorambucil
B. Daunorubicin
C. Doxorubicin
D. Flutamide
Correct answer : D. Flutamide
Q62
All of the following statements about an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor are
true except:
A. Reduces intestinal absorbtion of carbohydrates
B. Effective in both type l & 2 diabetes
C. Hypoglycemia is a common & serious side effect
D. Can be used with other oral Hypoglycemic drugs
Correct answer : C. Hypoglycemia is a common & serious side effect
Q63
Which one of the following statements about biguanides is not true?
A. Dont stimulate insulin Release
B. Decrease hepatic glucose production
C. Renal Dysfunction is not a contraindication for their use
D. Can be combined with sulfonylureas
Correct answer : C. Renal Dysfunction is not a contraindication for their
use
Q64
Sympathomimetic drugs are useful in the therapy of all of the following
conditions except?
A. Acute decompensated heart failure
B. Hypotension
C. Hypertension
D. Erectile dysfunction
Correct answer : D. Erectile dysfunction
Q65
In which of the following phases of clinical trial of drug, ethical
clearance is not required?
A. Phase I
B. Phase II
C. Phase III
D. Phase IV
Correct answer : D. Phase IV

Q66
A highly ionized drug :
A. Is excreted mainly by the kidneys
B. Corsses the placental barrier easily
C. Is well absorbed from the intestine
D. Is highly protein bound
Correct answer : A. Is excreted mainly by the kidneys
Q67
A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most
likely aetiological agent is:
A. Hepatitis B virus
B. Hepatitis C virus
C. Hepatitis E virus
D. Hepatitis A virus
Correct answer : C. Hepatitis E virus
Q68
Regarding methanol poisoning
Assertion: Administration of ethanol is one of the treatment modalities
Reason: Ethanol inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct
explanation for the Assertion
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is not the correct
explanation for the Assertion
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
Q69
Safest pain killer that can be administered in renal failure patients?
A. Nimesulide
B. Sulindac
C. Etoricoxib
D. Mefenamic Acid
Q70
Etanercept acts by one of the following mechanisms:
A. By blocking tumor necrosis factor
B. By blocking bradykinin synthesis
C. By inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase-2
D. By blocking lipoxygenase
Correct answer : A. By blocking tumor necrosis factor
Q71
Nevirapine is a
A. Protease inhibitor
B. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
D. Fusion inhibitor
Correct answer : C. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
Q72
Which one of the following is used in therapy of Toxoplasmosis?
A. Artensenuate
B. Thiacetazone
C. Ciprofloxacin

D. Pyrimethamine
Correct answer : D. Pyrimethamine
Q73
Which one of the following is best associated with Lumefantrine?
A. Antimycobacterial
B. Antifungal
C. Antimalarial
D. Antiamoebic
Correct answer : C. Antimalarial
Q74
The group of antibiotics which possess additional anti-inflammatory and
immunomodulatory activity is:
A. Tetracyclines
B. Polypeptide antibiotics
C. Fluoroquinolones
D. Macrolides
Correct answer : D. Macrolides
Q75
One of the following is not penicillinase susceptible:
A. Amoxicillin
B. Penicillin G
C. Piperacillin
D. Cloxacillin
Correct answer : D. Cloxacillin
Q76
All of the following are topically used sulphonamides except:
A. Sulphacetamide
B. Sulphadiazine
C. Silver sulphadiazine
D. Mafenide
Correct answer : B. Sulphadiazine
Q77
All of the following are hallucinogens, except:
A. LSD
B. Phencyclidine
C. Mescaline
D. Methylphenidate
Correct answer : D. Methylphenidate
Q78
Inverse agonist of benzodiazepine receptor is:
A. Phenobarbitone
B. Flumazenil
C. Beta-carboline
D. Gabapentin
Correct answer : C. Beta-carboline
Q79

Oculogyric crisis is known to be produced by all of the following drugs


except:
A. Trifluoperazine
B. Atropine
C. Prochlorperazine
D. Perphenazine
Correct answer : B. Atropine
Q80
Antipyschotic drug-induced Parkinsonism is treated by:
A. Anticholinergics
B. Levodopa
C. Selegilin
D. Amantadine
Correct answer : A. Anticholinergics
Q81
The major difference between typical and atypical antipsychotics is that:
A. The latter cause minimal or no increase in prolactin
B. The former cause tardive dyskinesia
C. The former are available as parenteral preparations
D. The latter cause substantial sedation
Correct answer : B. The former cause tardive dyskinesia
Q82
Dry mouth during antidepressant therapy is caused by blockade of:
A. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
B. Serotonergic receptors
C. Dopaminergic receptors
D. GABA receptors
Correct answer : A. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
Q83
One of the following is not true about nesiritide:
A. It is a brain natriuretic peptide analogue
B. It is used in actuely decompensated heart failure
C. It has significant oral absorption
D. lt has a short half life
Correct answer : C. It has significant oral absorption
Q84
The following drugs have significant drug interaction with digoxin,
except:
A. Cholestyramine
B. Thiazide diuretics
C. Quinidine
D. Amlodipine
Correct answer : D. Amlodipine
Q85
Which one of the following drugs has been shown to offer protection from
gastric aspiration syndrome in a patient with symptoms of reflux?
A. Ondansetron
B. Metoclopramide

C. Sodium citrate
D. Atropine
Correct answer : B. Metoclopramide
Q86
Which one of the following drugs increases gastro-intestinal motility?
A. Glycopyrrolate
B, Atropine
C. Neostigmine
D. Fentanyl
Correct answer : C. Neostigmine
Q87
With which of the following theophylline has an antagonistic interaction?
A. Histamine receptors
B. Bradykinin receptors
C. Adenosine receptors
D. lmidazoline receptors
Correct answer : C. Adenosine receptors
Q88
Which one of the following is true of adrenal suppression due to steroid
therapy?
A. It is not associated with atrophy of the adrenal glands
B. It does not occur in patients receiving inhaled steroids
C. It should be expected in anyone receiving > 5mg Prednisolone daily
D. Following cessation, the stress response normalizes after 8 weeks
Correct answer : C. It should be expected in anyone receiving > 5mg
Prednisolone daily
Q89
All of the following hormones have cell surface receptors except:
A. Adrenaline
B. Growth Hormone
C. Insulin
D. Thyroxine
Correct answer : D. Thyroxine
Q90
A highly ionized drug:
A. Is excreted mainly by the kidney
B. Can cross the placental barrier easily
C. ls well absorbed from the intestine
D. Accumulates in the cellular lipids
Correct answer : A. Is excreted mainly by the kidney
Q91
All of the following are part of the treatment of lithium toxicity,
except:
A. Treating dehydration
B. Ingestion of polystyrene sulfonate
C. Hemodialysis
D. Using an antagonist

Correct answer : D. Using an antagonist


Q92
Pretreatment evaluation for lithium therapy should include:
A. Fasting blood sugar
B. Serum creatinine
C. Liver function tests
D. Platelet count
Correct answer : B. Serum creatinine
Q93
Nevirapine is a
A. Protease inhibitor
B. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C. Non nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
D. Fusion inhibitor
Correct answer : C. Non nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
Q94
All of the following drugs are protease inhibitors except:
A. Nelfinavir
B. Saquinavir
C. Abacavir
D. Ritonavir
Correct answer : C. Abacavir
Q95
One of the following statements regarding mycophenolate mofetil is
incorrect:
A. lt is a prodrug
B. lt is a selective uncompetitive and reversible inhibitor
C. It also inhibits calcineurin
D. Selectively inhibits lymphocyte proliferation
Correct answer : C. It also inhibits calcineurin
Q96
A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus,
which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity
testing. All the following antibiotics will be appropriate except:
A. Vancomycin
B. Imipenem
C. Teicoplanin
D. Linezolid
Correct answer : B. Imipenem
Q97
Which one ofthe following drugs is an antipseudomonal penicillin?
A. Cephalexin
B. Cloxacillin
C. Piperacillin
D. Dicloxacillin
Correct answer : C. Piperacillin
Q98

All of the following are therapeutic uses of penicillin G, except:


A. Bacterial meningitis
B. Rickettsial infection
C. Syphilis
D. Anthrax
Correct answer : B. Rickettsial infection
Q99
Which of the following medications is contraindicated in patients with
allergy to sulphonamides?
A. Levobunolol
B. Bimatoprost
C. Brinzolamide
D. Brimonidine
Correct answer : C. Brinzolamide
Q100
All of the following antibacterial agents acts by inhibiting cell wall
synthesis, except:
A. Carbapenems
B. Monobactams
C. Cephamycins
D. Nitrofurantoin
Correct answer : D. Nitrofurantoin
Q101
The most common side effect reported in case of treatment with
haloperidol is:
A. Hypotension
B. Akathisia
C. Dryness of mouth
D. Tic disorder
Correct answer : B. Akathisia
Q102
All are side effects of Clozapine, except;
A. Granulocytopenia
B. Seizures
C. Sedation
D. Extrapyramidal side effects
Correct answer : D. Extrapyramidal side effects
Q103
The common side effect with Fluoxetine therapy is:
A. Seizure
B. Anxiety
C. Hypotension
D. Loose stools
Correct answer : D. Loose stools
Q104
Which one of the following drugs does not interfere with folic acid
metabolism?
A. Phenytoin

B. Gabapentin
C. Phenobarbitone
D. Primidone
Correct answer : B. Gabapentin
Q105
Concomitant administration of clonazepam with which of the following
antiepileptic drug can precipitate absence status?
A. Sodium valproate
B. Phenobarbitone
C. Carbamazepine
D. Phenytoin
Correct answer : A. Sodium valproate
Q106
Ethosuximide is used in the treatment of
A. Tonic-clonic seizure
B. Absence seizure
C. Myoclonic seizure
D. Simple partial seizure
Correct answer :B. Absence seizure
Q107
The following statements regarding benzodiazepines are true except:
A. Binds to both GABA A and GABA B receptors
B. They have active metabolites
C. Decreases nocturnal gastric secretion in human beings
D. Extensively metabolized by CYP enzymes
Correct answer :A. Binds to both GABA A and GABA B receptors
Q108
The following are the benzodiazepines of choice in elderly and those with
liver disease, except:
A. Lorazepam
B. Oxazepam
C. Temazepam
D. Diazepam
Correct answer : D. Diazepam
Q109
The loading dose of Aminophylline is:
a) 50-75 mg/kg
b) 0.5-1.0 mg/ kg
c) 2.0-3.5 mg/kg
d) 5-6 mg/kg
Correct answer : d) 5-6 mg/kg
Q110
The drug imatinib acts by inhibition of:
a) Tyrosine kinase
b) Glutathione reductase
c) Thymidylate synthase
d) Protein kinase

Correct answer :a) Tyrosine kinase


Q111
A patient of thromobosis of hepatic veins has been receiving coumarin
therapy for a duration of three years. Recently. she has developed
bleeding tendency. How will you reverse the effect of coumarin?
a) Protamine injection
b) Vit K injection
c) Infusion of fibrinogen
d) Whole blood transfusion
Q112
Prolonged use of one of the following anti convulsants can produce weight
loss:
a) Gabapentin
b) Oxcarbazepine
c) Topiramate
d) Valproic acid
Correct answer : c) Topiramate
Q113
Inhaled nitric oxide is used:
a) For stabilizing systemic hemodynamics
b) In case of jaundice
c) To prevent CNS complication
d) For reducing pulmonary hypertension
Correct answer : d) For reducing pulmonary hypertension
Q114
Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents is associated with
secondary leukemia?
a) Vinblastine
b) Etoposide
c) Cisplatin
d) Bleomycin
Correct answer : c) Cisplatin
Q115
Which of the following drugs is associated with untoward side effect of
renal tubular damage?
a) Cisplatin
b) Streptozotocin
c) Methysergide
d) Cyclophosphamide
Correct answer : a) Cisplatin
Q116
Which of the following is an aromatase inhibitor?
a) Tamoxifen
b) Letrozole
c) Danazol
d) Taxane
Correct answer : b) Letrozole
Q117

Anticoagulant effect of warfarin is increased by all of the following


except:
a) Cimetidine
b) Phytonadione
c) Amiodarone
d) Phenylbutazone
Correct answer : b) Phytonadione
Q118
Neostigmine antagonizes nondepolarizing blockade by all of the following
mechanisms, except;
a) Decreasing the breakdown of Acetylcholine at the motor end plate
b) Preventing K efflux from the cell
c) Increasing the release of Acetylcholine at the motor end plate
d) Depolarization of the motor end plate
Correct answer : c) Increasing the release of Acetylcholine at the motor
end plate
Q119
The most significant adverse effect of ACE inhibition is:
a) Hypotension
b) Hypertension
c) Hypocalcemia
d) Hypercalcemia
Correct answer : a) Hypotension (First dose hypotension)
Q120
All drugs can be used in the treatment of H. Pylori infection except
a) Omeprazole
b) Metronidazole
c) Amoxicillin
d) Mosapride
Correct answer : d) Mosapride
Q121
One of the following is a prodrug
a) Enalapril
b) Neostigmine
c) Esmolol
d) Captopril
Correct answer : a) Enalapril
Q122
Which of the following is a benzodiazepine antagonist
a) Flumazenil
b) Butorphanol
c) Naltrexone
d) Pralidoxime
Correct answer : a) Flumazenil
Q123
Which ATT will cause transient memory loss
a) Ethionamide
b) INH

e) Ethambutol
d) Pyrazinamide
Correct answer : b) INH
Q124
Which antiarrhythmic is not class Ic agent
a) Propafenone
b) Tocainide
c) Flecainide
d) Encainide
Correct answer : b) Tocainide
Q125
Which NSAID undergoes enterohepatic circulation
a) Phenylbutazone
b) Aspirin
c) lbuprofen
d) Piroxicam
Correct answer : d) Piroxicam
Q126
Long acting B2 agonists
a) Orciprenaline
b) Salmeterol
e) Albuterol
d) Pirbuterol
Correct answer : b) Salmeterol
Q127
Which of the following drugs dosage interval should be maximum in a
patient with creatinine clearance less than 10ml/min
a) Amikacin
b) Rifampicin
c) Vancomycin
d) Amphotericin B
Correct answer : c) Vancomycin (It is given once in 72 hours when
creatinine clearance is less than 10ml/min)
Q128
Which antibiotic acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis
a) Cefepime
b) Lomefloxacin
C) Erythromycin
d) Tetracycline
Correct answer : a) Cefepime
Q129
Denosumab, a monoclonal antibody against RANKL receptor is used in the
treatment of
a) Rheumatoid arthritis
b) Osteoporosis
c) Osteoarthritis
d) SLE

Correct answer : b) Osteoporosis


Q130
Loading dose depends upon
a) Volume of distribution
b) T1/2
c) Plasma clearance
d) Route of administration
Correct answer : a) Volume of distribution
Q131
Which is not a second generation antihistamine
a) Cyclizine
b) Fexofenadine
c) Loaratidine
d) Acrivastine
Correct answer : a) Cyclizine
Q132
All of the following drugs are metabolized by acetylation except
a) INH
b) Hydralazine
e) Procainamide
d) Metoclopramide
Correct answer : d) Metoclopramide
Q133
The following drug is not useful for MRSA
a) Cefaclor
b) Cotrimoxazole
c) Ciprofloxacin
Correct answer : a) Cefaclor
Q134
Digoxin toxicity is precipitated by all except :
a) Electrolyte disturbance
b) Acute myocardial infarction
c) Hepatic disease
d) Renal disease
Correct answer : c) Hepatic disease
Q135
FK-506 is a
a) It is a macrolide antibiotic
b) Immunoglobulin antibody
c) Non depolarising muscle relaxant
d) Opioid analgesic
Correct answer : a) It is a macrolide antibiotic (Tacrolimus is its
common name)
Q136
Naloxone is not used during resuscitation of a child whose mother is on
a) Methadone
b) Phenycyclidine

c) Amphetamine
d) Cocaine
Correct answer : a) Methadone
Q137
Imatinib used in CML acts by
a) inhibiting Bcr/abl translocation via tyrosine kinase
b) Blocking the action of P-glycoprotein
c) Competitive inhibition of ATP binding site of ABL kinase
d) C-kit kinase inhibition
Correct answer : c) Competitive inhibition of ATP binding site of ABL
kinase
Q138
Drugs which increase Nitric Oxide are all except
a) Glycerine trinitrate
b) Hydralazine
c) Sodium Nitroprusside
d) Fenoldopam
Correct answer : d) Fenoldopam
Q139
Antihypertensive not contraindicated in pregnancy
a) Spironolactone
b) Labetalol
c) Sodium Nitroprusside
d) ACE inhibitor
Correct answer : b) Labetalol
Q140
Hypertension is seen with all except
a) Erythropoietin
b) Cyclosporine
c) NSAID
d) Levodopa
Correct answer : d) Levodopa
Q141
Which is an antimetabolite
a) Cyclosporine
b) Methotrexate
c) Etoposide
d) Vinblastine
Correct answer : b) Methotrexate
Q142
All are antiemetics except :
a) Domperidone
b) Ondensetron
c) Phenazocine
d) Cyclizine
Correct answer : c) Phenazocine

Q143
Bone marrow aplasia is seen with all except
a) Methicillin
b) Chloramphenicol
c) Alpha methyl hydantoin
d) Phenylbutazone
Correct answer : a) Methicillin
Q144
Carbimazole is associated with all except :
a) Choanal atresia
b) Cleft lip and cleft palate
c) Scalp defect
d) Neck swelling
Correct answer : b) Cleft lip and cleft palate
Q145
All are endogenous catecholamines except :
a) Epinephrine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Dopamine
d) Dobutamine
Correct answer : d) Dobutamine
Q146
Impotence is most commonly caused by which antihypertensive agent
a) Calcium channel blocker
b) ACE inhibitors
c) AT1 receptor antagonist
d) Beta blockers
Correct answer : d) Beta blockers
Q147
Gynaecomastia is caused by
a) Clorniphene citrate
b) Tamoxifen
c) Spironolactone
d) Testosterone
Correct answer : c) Spironolactone
Q148
Filgrastim is used in treatment of:
A. Anemia
B. Neutropenia
C. Malaria
D. Filariasis
Correct answer : B. Neutropenia
Q149
Methotrexate is used in high doses in:
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Rhabdomyosarcoma
D. Ewings sarcoma

Correct answer : A. Osteosarcoma


Q150
Drug causing hypercoagulability is:
A. L asparginase
B. Busulfan
C. Melphalan
D. 5 FU
Correct answer : A. L asparginase
Q151
The following drug acts by hypomethylation
A. Gemcitabine
B. Capecitabine
C. Decitabine
D. Cytosine arabinoside
Correct answer : C. Decitabine
Q152
All are true about immunosuppressants except?
A. Tacrolimus inhibits calcineurin pathway
B. Steroids binds to cytosolic receptors and heat shock proteins
C. Mycophenolate inhibit purine synthesis via GMP dehydrogenase
D. Sirolimus will block kinase in the IL 2 receptor pathway
Correct answer : C. Mycophenolate inhibit purine synthesis via GMP
dehydrogenase
Q153
Nevirapine belongs to the following group
A. Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor (NNRTI)
B. Protease inhibitor
C. Fusion inhibitor
D. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)
Correct answer : A. Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor
(NNRTI)
Q154
The following drug is not useful for MRSA?
A. Cefaclor
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Vancomycin
Correct answer : A. Cefaclor
Q155
All of the following statements about Heparin are true except?
A. Causes Alopecia
B. Non Teratogenic
C. Releases Lipoprotein Lipase
D. Causes Hypokalemia
Correct answer : D. Causes Hypokalemia
Q156

Prothrombin Time of a patient is 26. Control PT is 13 seconds and


Sensitivity index is 1.41. What will be the INR of this patient?
A. 26/3
B. (26/13) * 1.41
C. (26/13) ^ 1.41
D. (26/13) ^ (1/1.41)
Correct answer : C. (26/13) ^ 1.41
Q157
All of the following antiepileptic agents act via Na+ channel except
A. Vigabatrin
B. Phenytoin
C. Valproate
D. Lamotrigne
Correct answer : Vigabatrin
Q158
Which of the following is not an antiepileptic agent:
A. Phenytoin
B. Topiramate
C. Flunarizine
D. Carbamazepine
Correct answer : C. Flunarazine
Q159
All are short and rapid acting insulins except
A. Lispro
B. Aspart
C. Glargine
D. Glulisine
Correct answer : C. Glargine
Q160
All of the following have receptors which are transcription factors,
except?
A. Insulin
B. Estrogen
C. Glucocorticoids
D. Vitamin D
Correct answer : A. Insulin
Q161
Which of the following is beneficial in NSAID induced gastric ulcer?
A. PGE1 agonist
B. PGE2 agonist
C. PGD agonist
D. PGF2 agonist
Correct answer : A. PGE1 agonist
Q162
True about Octreotide are all except :
A. Is active orally
B. Supresses growth hormone secretion
C. Useful for variceal bleeding

D. Useful in secretory diarrhea


Correct answer : A. Is active orally
Q163
Which of the following is a leukotriene antagonist?
A. Montelukast
B. Zileuton
C. Omalizumab
D. Nedocromil
Correct answer : A. Montelukast
Q164
The following drugs are used in obesity except?
A. Orlistat
B. Sibutaramine
C. Olestra
D. Neuropeptide Y Agonist
Correct answer : D. Neuropeptide Y Agonist
Q165
The following drugs may be used in erectile dysfunction except?
A. Phenylephrine
B. Apomorphine
C. Alprostidil
D. PGE1 analogues
Correct answer : A. Phenylephrine
Q166
Nesiritide is a:
A. Brain natriuretic peptide analogue
B. Endothelin R antagonist
C. Gp Ilb IIIa antagonist
D. TNF alpha antagonist
Correct answer : Brain natriuretic peptide analogue
Q167
The drug having maximum propensity to cause peripheral neuropathy?
A. Didanosine
B. Zidovudine
C. Stavudine
D. Lamivudine
Correct answer : Stavudine
Q168
Orange coloured urine is due to:
A. Rifampicin
B. INH
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol
Correct answer : Rifampicin
Q169
All of the following are Gp IIb/Illa antagonist except?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Abciximab
Clopidogrel
Tirofiban
Epitifibatide

Correct answer : Clopidogrel


Q170
Which of the following is a prodrug
A. Ticlopidine
B. Aspirin
C. Clopidogrel
D. Dipyridamole
Correct answer : Ticlopidine & Clopidogrel
Q171
Which of the following is not an alkylating agent?
A. Cyclophosphamide
B. 5-FU
C. Busulfan
D. Chlorambucil
Correct answer : 5-FU (It is an antimetabolite)
Q172
Finasteride is a:
A. 5 alpha reductase inhibitor
B. PDE inhibitor
C. Alpha la blocker
D. Androgen receptor blocker
Correct answer : 5 alpha reductase inhibitor
Q173
True statement about clonidine are all except,
A. Increases parasympathetic outflow
B. Decreases sympathetic outflow by blocking central alpha receptor
C. Used in Hypertension
D. Prazosin is used to antagonize side effects of clonidine
Correct answer : Prazosin is used to antagonize side effects of clonidine
Q174
All of the following may be associated with beta 2 agonist treatment
except?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Detrusor relaxation
D. Relaxation of gut and bronchial muscles
Correct answer : Hyperkalemia, beta 2 agnoists increase K+ uptake into
muscles and hence cause hypokalemia.
Q175
All of the following are non selective beta blockers with additional
actions except?
A. Carvedilol
B. Betaxolol
C. Cartelol

D. Labetalol
Correct answer : Betaxolol, It is a selective beta blocker with
additional actions