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13.

The following sentences about complications and supportive therapy in neonatal
sepsis are true:
A. Metabolic alkalosis may accompany sepsis and is treated with bicarbonate
B. Digoxin is used like a pressor agent
C. Decreased prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time arc observed in
disseminated intravascular coagulation and measures include fresh frozen plasma, vitamin K,
platelet infusion
D. Assure adequate oxygenation with blood gas monitoring E. Seizure control with Phenobarbital
14. In the management of shock and hypotension it is necessary to administrate:
A. Dopamine
B. Intravenous colloid and crystalloid
C. Inotropic agents
D. Albumin
E. Dextran (10mifkg intravenously over 30 min)
15. Risk factors for hypocalcaemia are:
A. Acidosis
B. Diuretics treatment
C. Meconium aspiration
D. TORCH infections
E. Blood transfusions
16. If hypoglycemia is not present the treatment of seizures is made with:
A. Phenytoin —20 g/kg
B. Diazepam —5 mg/kg
C. Pirimidone —60 gilcg
D. Phenobarbital —20 mg/kg
E. No answer is correct
17. Management of pulmonary hypertension in the newborn includes:
A. Hypoventilation
B. Infusion of nahco3 or THAM
C. Phannacologic pulmonary vasoconstrictor
D. Therapy with Tolazoline
E. Extracorporeal membrane oxigenators in severe cases
18. Recognize the signs of respiratory distress:
A. Bradypnea
B. Nasal flaring
C. Expiratory grunting
D. Coughing paroxysm
E. Fever
19. Which of the following markings and/or symptoms are present in congestive heart
failure in the newborn:
A. Excessive weight gain (edema)
B. Bradycardia
C. Increased respiratory rate (>60/min)
D. Increased liver size
E. Increased heart size (cardiac/thoracic ratio >60%)
20. Prevention of hyperbilirubinemia is made by:
A. Phototherapy
B. Generous hydration
C. Diuretic administration
D. Antibiotic administration
E. Phenobarbital administration
21. Most common conditions associated with primary microcephaly include:
A. Trisomy 18
B. Beckwith's syndrome
C. Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome
D. Achondroplasia
E. Trisomy 13

At age of 8 months he pronounces clearly isolated or repetitive syllables: ma-ma'. Generalized tonic seizures B. At age of I year and o months he walks up and down stairs with supports on banister 28. At age of 9 months he indicates an object with his forefinger. Hypoxia 27. Clamp and cut the umbilical cord at 25-30 em from the bottom of the implant in the abdomen. The causes of hemolytic anemia are: A. Motor development of the infant and child: A. 'Ea' . Bulging anterior fontanel C. Extension of superior limbs C.. Prematurity B. ABO incompatibility. At age of 1 year he pronounces correctly 2-3 words E. C. Thc absence of the grasp reflex at birth may be the consequence of peripheric motor nerves lesions (brachial palsy if the absence is unilateral) or central motor nerves lesions E. Flexion of inferior limbs D. At age of I year and 6 months he comprehends more words (10 usually) . At age of 1 month he utters larynx's sounds B. -ba-ba'. Begins to disappear at 3-4 months and is replaced by voluntary gasp provoked by seeing an object D. Infection or maternal drugs E.. The persistence of' the grasp reflex after four months means the presence of tonic cerebral mechanism. At age of 4 months he plays with toys when these are in his hand but can't pick it up if the toy falls C. Stomatocytis C. Prophylaxis against gonocotxal ophthalmia E. At age of 6 months he turns from prone to supine D. Grasp reflex: A. Is present from birth to 3-4 months B. Suction and aspiration of upper airway B. thumb-forefinger grasp E. Elliptocytosis. Place the infant on a cold and sterile field D. Flexion of superior limbs B. Clean the skin with a sterile cotton smooth in Vaseline and remove the blood spots and the amniotic fluid 29. In supine position the normal posture of newborn's limbs are: A. The assessment and care in the delivery room consists in: A. Tachycardia D.22. after it sops pulsing (especially at those with isoimmurtiration and at those who need resuscitation) C. Feeding C. Language development of the infant and child: A. Coma E. Which can be observed in hydrocephaly. A-thalassemia 23. D. At age of 3 months he syllabify ba. Gastric ulcer D. Di. At age of I month he is able to hold his head erect for a few hours B. The clinical features of periventricular/intraventricular hemorrhage may include: A. Tachypnea 25. No answer is correct 24. Extension of inferior limbs E. This reflex is elicited by placing a finger or an object in the open palm of each hand and the normal infant will grasp the finger or the object and will attempt removal if the grip is reinforced C. The necrotizing enterocolitis risk factors are: A. hereditary spherocytosis B. corpus striatum lesions 26. Chronic pancreatitis E. Syndrome Blackfan — Diarpond D.

The choice of the first food diversification is depending on development particularities of babies C. Mitral regurgitation E. C. Ventricular septal defects D. Solid and semisolid food is given with the teaspoon D. Is a inflammation of the small airways E. Birth asphyxia C. chicken liver E. Jitteriness D. Is recommended that only one food is introduced a week 31. Which are the causes of heart murmurs in infants presenting Ito 6 weeks of age: A. Distended abdomen. New food should be introduced even if the baby is not healthy B. At 3-4 months: .30. Continuing therapy is based on culture and sensitivity results. Vomiting D. Monitoring for antibiotic toxicity is important especially for aminoglycosides and vancomycin. D. ham without fats C. mixed meat balls (in soup). Cardiogenic shock may occur in: A. Are at increased risk infants born of diabetic mothers. In the antibiotic therapy in neonatal sepsis: A. Hypoplastic left heart 33. Any amount of bile-stained residual B. C. cheese dumpling. At 6 months: fruit juice D. Is the most common chronic lung disease in children. Foods used in diversification are: A. Tricuspid regurgitation C. The following sentences regarding respiratory distress (RDS) are true: A. Bread 32. Lean white fish meat. Feeding intolerance E. E. Is produced by an inadequate releasing of pulmonary surfactant.yolk of egg boiled. Symptoms suggesting infection or sepsis. Hypercalcemia and hyperglycemia associated with hyponatremia E. . Theophylline toxicity includes all of the following signs EXCEPT: A. In early onset neonatal sepsis the therapy usually begin with a third generation cephalosporin. A residual of undigested formula or breast milk less than 1-2 cc/kg C. Seizures 35. At 6 weeks: cream. Liver injury D. D. 37. such as increasing frequency of apnea/bradycardia episodes 34. Tachycardia B. The incidence of RDS increases with decreasing gestational age. At 6 months: . Arrhythmias B. especially if bowel loops are visible E. Bradycardia C. Patent ductus arteriosus 36. The baby must eat all portion of the food E. B. At 5 months: egg. Isn't begun before definition of an etiologic agent.vegetables soup with 3 — 5% flour without gluten B. General principles of diversified feeding are: A. The following findings should alert you to the possibility of GI pathology: A. Yoghurt. When group 13 streptococci is documented as the causative agent Vancomycin is the drug of choice. Semilunar valve stenosis B. B.

Polyuria D. Hepatitis C. = 34-36 cm E. Hypotonia (head is balanced) D. Hypoglycemia is defined by a bloodsugar less than: A. No answer is correct. Length= 49-52 cm D.38. 40 mg/di B. Prophylaxis of hemorrhagic disease using vitamin K! Prophylaxis of rachitism by administration of vitamin D3 or D2 immunization with BCG before leaving the hospital. Hypotonia and poor feeding E. The definition of acute renal failure requires: A. The newborn with an APGAR score of 5 and lower requires the following special procedures: A. They don't need any special procedures B. Hypertonia of napes muscles (head is hyperextended during this maneuver) E. E. The assessment and care in the newborn ward consist in: A. The active contraction of the neck's flexor muscles of the newborn estimates: A. Jitteriness and irritability B. Fever D. Absence of urinary output B. Birth weight = 2900-3200 grams C. Gender identification B. Cardiac resuscitation if the pulse is < 60/min or absent E. All of the following are symptoms of hypoglycemia A. 60 mg/d1 D. Complete physical examination C. Alphal-antitrypsin deficiency D. 39. Convulsion 44. Appropriate diagnosis and estimation of a possible pathology D. Intubation and mechanical ventilation if there is no spontaneous respiration 42. The most common cause of obstructive cholestasis is: A. Congenital bile duct abnormalities . 43. No answer is correct. Hypotonia (head is hyperextended during this maneuver) B. Apnea and cyanosis C. Increase in serum creatinine E. No answer is correct 40. 70 mg/d1 E. Hypertonia of napes's muscles (head is balanced) C. Oliguria C. Decrease in serum creatinine 41. Oxygen D. 50mg/d1 C. Gestational age: 38-40 w B. 80 mg/di 45. Head Scum. Defining characters of the term newborn are: A. Cholelithiasis E. Continuous catheter and mechanical suction of the upper airway C. Biliary atresia B.

Bradycardia E. B. D. 110 mg/di 120mg/d1 130 mg/di 140mg/d1 150mg/di 50. Radionuclide scan after feeding marker C. Packed red blood when hematocrit is less than 40 D. The following laboratory tests are required in a clinically apparent hemostatic problem: A. D. Tachycardia B. Weak pulse 47. Platelet count B. Phenytoin C. responsiveness are decreasing. Hyperglycemia in a premature infant is defined as a serum blood glucose level more than: A. Brain-system auditory evoked potentials D. Leukocyte count E.46. Oximetry 49. Hypotonia E. E. EKG. maximum 15 ml/kg Transfusion should be made when activity. Echo B. Reticulocytes count D. Alternative transfusion of packed redcell and Plasmanate when hematocrit 4070 B. Diarrhea 52. B. Symtoms of shock are: A. For the evaluation of neonatal apnea we may use: A. Tachypnea D. feeding. Urine output is approximately 1-2 muvkg/h C. Hemoglobin C. In the hypovolemic shock for volume expansion are used : A. sy Transfusion should be made only in mptomatic infants Transfusion should be made in absence apneie episode Transfusion should be made when baseline heart rate decreases more than 20 bpm Packed RI3C's should be given in a dose of 10 ml/kg. Cold extremities D. Glucose(dextrose) D. The symptoms of acute hypocalcaemia are : A. Phenobarbital E. Arrhytttmias C. C. E. Partial thromboplastin time 53. Polygrafic study E. Diazepam B. Pirimidone 48. The following sentences regarding RBC transfusion are true: A. Dextran E. Fresh frozen plasma C. The urgent treatment of repeated seizures caused by hypoglycemia is made with: A. Seizures B. Plasmanate or albumin when hematocrit is over 50 % . 51. C.

Teophy 'line F.5 mg/m1 C. Female newborns C. Diazepam E. Vestibular stimulation. For the treatment of apnea of prematurity we use: C. Dopamine D. Postnatal Phenobarbital E. NEC must be differentiated from: A. Intercranial hemorrhage E. Optimal management of labour and delivery 60. Tactile stimulation cutaneous D. Meconium ileus E. 1. Prevention of prematurity D. Catteine-oxalate G.5 mg/ml D. Hyperglycemia B. bump-beds or water beds 55.5 mg/di B. Antenatal administration of vitamin E to women in premature labour C. Urinary catheters D. Etiology of neonatal seizures are: A. Urinary tract obstructions E. Bilirubin concentration (total/direct) establishes the diagnosis of conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia if direct fraction is greater than: A. Antenatal corticosteroids B. Hypocalcemia 59. Sepsis associated with abdominal ileus B. 1 mg/ml E. Prenatal interventions in periventricular and intraventricular hemorrhage may include the following: A. Neurogenic bladder 58. Naloxone E. 2. The risk factors for UTI are: A. Narcane C. Hypopotassemia D. Feeding intolerance C. For the treatment of septic shock are used: A. 035 mg/ml 57. Diazepam . 0. Intercranial infections C. Infectious enterocolitis 56. Pneumonia associated with abdominal ileus D. Male newborns B. Hydrocortisone B.54.

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