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Q.

1)

Which of the following are virtual memory based caches? (Choose Three)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.

Q.2)

When a rule executes what is really executed? (Choose One)

A.
B.
Answer)
C.
D.

Q.3)

Rule Cache (Correct Answer)
Rules Assembly Cache (Correct Answer)
RuleResolution Cache (Correct Answer)
Lookup List Cache
Static Content Cache
Dictionary Cache

XML which is stored in the BLOB
Java code which is compiled from the XML stored in the BLOB (Correct
A class file which is stored in the BLOB
A serialized java object which is stored in the BLOB

Which statement best describes the Rules Assembly Cache? (Choose One)

A.
The Rules Assembly Cache is a disk based cache that stores the
generated XML and resulting class files, post compilation since what finally gets
executed is XML, not java code.
B.
The Rules Assembly Cache is a memory based cache that reduces
PegaRULES database traffic as it contains copies of rules recently accessed or
recently updated by developers
C.
The Rules Assembly Cache is a memory based cache that allows
Process Commander to rapidly identify compiled Java CLASS files that correspond to
compiled and assembled rules (Correct Answer)
D.
The Rules Assembly Cache is a memory based cache used by PRPC to
feed the Instance Cache as the Instance Cache is the instance of a given rule for
which code has been generated.

Q.4)

Where can you view the contents of the Rule Instance Cache? (Choose One)

A.
. Using the SMA you can view the contents of the instance cache which
are displayed in the form of an Excel file (Correct Answer)
B.
B. Using the Developer Portal you can view the contents of the
instance cache which are displayed in the form of an excel file and is accessed from
the tools > instance cache menu
C.
C. By viewing the XML files from the TEMPDIR\PRGenJava\XML directory
D.
. By viewing the XML files from the pzInsKey column by using JDBC
code

GE Internal

Q.5)

What determines which table a work object is persisted to? (Choose One)

A.
A. The Data-Admin-DB-Table record for the class group the work object
belongs to and the access group the current user belongs to
B.
B. The RuleSet the class belongs, and Data- Admin-DB-Table definitions
C.
C. The Data-Admin-DB-Table record associated to the class group the
work object belongs to (Correct Answer)
D.
D. The RuleSet the class belongs to

Q.6)
The BLOB is stored in the pzPVStream column of a table and contains the
data associated with the instance. Which two statements are false? (Choose two)
A.
Since it is a column in a table in a database, you can extract the BLOB
and use it in another system (Correct Answer)
B.
The blob contains the same clear text xml you see when clicking the
rule data or the View XML option in the clipboard (Correct Answer)
C.
The ? PzPVStream? Can be eliminated by use of simple tables (those
without embedded pages and page lists)
D.
The BLOB enables a single table to store complex data structures that
would normally require multiple tables in a normalized database.

Q.7) PegaRULES is installed on a multi-node system, and a copy of the various
caches is stored on each node. Each of these nodes must be updated with rule
changes. Which functionality in PRPC manages the update process? (Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
D.

Q.8)

Node- Pulse
Rule Cache
System-Update
System-Pulse (Correct Answer)

Which statements in regards to commits in PRPC are false? (Choose Two)

A.
All database updates require that the requestor holds a lock on the
object (Correct Answer)
B.
The system performs commits automatically when processing for a
submit operation of a flow action completes, for both connector and local flow
actions
C.
Commit operations can trigger the execution of Declare- Trigger rules
D.
Assuming distributed transaction is not configured and the deferred
operation list contains operations for only one database. When the system commits
all deferred operations for the requestor, if any of the writes fail, they all fail
E.
The deferred operations will be committed when you use the write-now
option with the obj-save method because this causes a commit to occur (Correct
Answer)

GE Internal

Q.9) PRPC can be installed using a WAR or EAR configuration. Which of the
following does NOT require an EAR configuration? (Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

JMS message services support need to be provided
Support for two-phase commits is required
Support for EJB services need to be provided
J2EE security is required
JSR-94 support is required (Correct Answer)

Q.10) Select the valid modes an Agent can have since PRPC 5.4? (Choose Three)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Normal
Legacy (Correct Answer)
Standard (Correct Answer)
Advanced (Correct Answer)
Modes are not required to be selected for Agents in PRPC 5.4

Q.11) Why does PRPC create a Data-Agent-Queue instance when you create a RuleAgent-Queue instance? (Choose One)
A.
Data- Agent-Queue instances are not locked so they allow you to
control the behavior of Agents in a locked RuleSet at runtime (Correct Answer)
B.
Data-Agent-Queue instances are created by PRPC to support the new
Queue For Agent functionality which was provided since PRPC v5.4
C.
Data-Agent-Queue instances are created automatically by PRPC
whenever the Queue-For- Agent method is used in an activity tep to queue work for
the Agent
D.
Data-Agent-Queue instances are data instances which are used by the
Queue Manager functionality to allow for concurrent access to a queued piece of
work by agents running on multiple nodes
E.
Data-Agent-Queue instances represent the master definition of PRPC
agents and have been deprecated as of PRPC v5.4 in favor of using Rule-AgentQueue

Q.12) Which statement is true regarding how locking works with covers? (Choose
One)
A.
By default, the cover does not get locked when you open a covered
object, but this is configurable
B.
By default, the cover is locked when you open a covered object, but
this is configurable (Correct Answer)

GE Internal

C.
The cover must always be locked when working on the cover or one of
its covered work objects because updates occur on the cover throughout processing
of the covered work objects
D.
Cover object locking is identical to that of other work objects, in that it
is only locked when it is opened by a requestor

Q.13) What purpose and effect does the Obj-Refresh-and-Lock method have?
(Choose One)
A.
It has no effect if a lock is held and has not expired (Correct Answer)
B.
It will reacquire a lock and will always refresh the contents of the object
from the Database
C.
If the lock is not held, the method will acquire a lock and always
replace the step page contents with the current values from the database
D.
This method has been deprecated as of PRPC 5.3 in support of the ObjBrowse method which handles refresh and locking automatically
E.
This method is highly efficient and will only refresh the object if the
content on the clipboard is older than the current state in the database and will also
force lockthe object regardless ofholds the lock

Q.14) What does the rollback method do? (Choose Two)
A.
Cancels/Withdraws any pending obj-save and obj-delete methods
(Correct Answer)
B.
Rollback is not supported by PRPC when using a WAR deployment. The
only way you can do a rollback is by using the compensating actions method
C.
Rollback is a way to rollback an object to a previous state using the
History instance for a work object
D.
Rolls back the deferred stack of operations for the specified page
(Correct Answer)

Q.15) What does the system pulse do? (Choose Three)
A.
It is used by PRPC to synchronize changes to the Data-Agent-Schedule
instances whenever a Rule-Agent-Queue instance is modified
B.
It invalidates rule caches on a per node basis using entries in the
pr_sys_updatescache table (Correct Answer)
C.
It processes changes to the Lucene indexes that support full text
searches (Correct Answer)
D.
It synchronizes the lookup list cache deletions and any rule-file-deletes
(Correct Answer)
E.
It is used by PRPC to send out information to PAL on a weekly basis so
that performance analysis can be performed over a period of time

GE Internal

Q.16) Which one of the following statements is true regarding the PRPC threading
model? (Choose One)
A.
PRThreads are similar to Java threads and the types include
STANDARD, DEVELOPER, and OPENPORTAL
B.
A PRThread is essentially a namespace which allows a Requestor to
have separate clipboard pages that do not interact with each other (Correct Answer)
C.
Multiple PRThreads can be executed concurrently depending on
whether multi-threading is enabled
D.
All of the above

Q.17) A customer implementation necessitates the usage of Message-driven beans.
Which of these platforms can the solution be deployed on? (Choose Two)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

JBoss (EAR Deployment) (Correct Answer)
WebLogic (WAR Deployment)
WebSphere (EAR Deployment) (Correct Answer)
Tomcat (WAR Deployment)
All of the above

Q.18) A PRPC installation has 3 nodes. An Agent rule has a single agent listed which
takes data from an external system. It would cause contention issues if it ran on
more than one node. What is the recommended way to ensure the agent only runs
in one cluster? (Choose One)
A.
Delete the Agent schedule on two nodes
B.
Disable the Agent schedule on two of the nodes, either from the Agent
Schedule rule form or using the System Management Application (Correct Answer)
C.
Disable the master agent on two nodes
D.
In your Agent activity call a decision table to verify host name of the
system (application)

Q.19) What four steps must be taken to unit test a connector within a flow when the
target interface/system is not yet available? (Choose Four)
A.
Create a Simulation activity (Correct Answer)
B.
Set the connector to simulate in the Simulation data instance and
specify the activity (Correct Answer)
C.
Use Tracer and set a breakpoint
D.
Define a Connect Simulation instance (Correct Answer)
E.
Test the flow with simulation enabled (Correct Answer)
F.
Create a new Integrator task

GE Internal

Q.20) Which methods of service integration within PRPC requires the configuration
of a listener? (Choose Two)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

BPEL
HTTP
JMS (Correct Answer)
MQ (Correct Answer)
dotNet

Q.21) Which method of service integration within PRPC requires the configuration of
a listener? (Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

SOAP
BPEL
EJB
JMS (Correct Answer)
SQL

Q.22) Which two statements are false when using stateless services? (Choose Two)
A.
You are guaranteed to connect to a new application requestor each
time the service is invoked (Correct Answer)
B.
You cannot assume which application requestor you will connect to
C.
You must manually clear the clipboard of any data left on from previous
application requestors (Correct Answer)
D.
When invoked your service may or may not result in the creation of a
new application requestor

Q.23) What is the default error handling mechanism for connector rules generated
through the Connector wizard? (Choose One)
A.
The connector activity does not handle a failure in the connector;
processing is transferred to the ConnectionProblem flow (Correct Answer)
B.
The connector activity handles the result of the connector via a
Precondition on the step following the call to the connector
C.
The connector activity handles the result of the connector via a
Transition
D.
The connector activity does not handle a failure in the connector;
processing is transferred to the FlowProblems flow

GE Internal

Q.24) Which statement is true about running Connect- methods in parallel? (Choose
One)
A.
parameter
B.
Answer)
C.
the parallel
D.

Only Connect-SOAP and Connect- HTTP methods offer a RunInParallel
Many Connect- methods offer a RunInParallel parameter (Correct
The Connect- Hold is used with the RunInParallel parameter to wait for
connector(s) to finish
All Connect- methods offer a RunInParallel parameter

Q.25) Is it appropriate to use the RDB-Save method to save/update work object
instances to the PegaRULES database out of the box table structures? Select the
most appropriate answer. (Choose One)
A.
Yes, you can run SQL inserts and updates against the PRPC database
for any PRPC object and maintain proper data integrity
B.
Yes, but access via RDB-Save will be less efficient than an Obj-Save call
C.
No, because not all properties are distinct database columns and some
data may be lost (Correct Answer)
D.
No. The byte governor will prevent me from opening an RDB
connection to the PegaRULES database

Q.26) Compare SOAP and HTTP messaging protocols. Which of the statements
below are correct? (Choose Two)
A.
HTTP is a low- overhead alternative to SOAP (Correct Answer)
B.
SOAP is a more reliable protocol than HTTP
C.
SOAP is needed if I want to exchange XML messages
D.
HTTP services can be configured to process service requests
asynchronously (Correct Answer)
E.
HTTP connectors can be generated with the Connector and Metadata
accelerator

Q.27) Which two statements are true about testing services and connectors?
(Choose Two)
A.
Using tools that allow you to monitor traffic and interaction between a
SOAP client and service can be helpful in determining where the problem lies
(Correct Answer)
B.
Service invocation in PRPC cannot be traced because the requesto
does not exist before the service invocation
C.
When connect simulation is enabled for an MQ connector, the

GE Internal

connector itself is not tested (Correct Answer)
D.
The only way to simulate a connector when the service isn't available
is to comment out the Connect-SOAP method and replace it with an activity that
directly creates pages and properties as the connector would

Q.28) Which two statements are true about services and the Services Accelerator?
(Choose Two)
A.
The Service Accelerator generates service activities that allow services
to create or manage work
B.
The Service Accelerator generates a service rule for activities of your
choice, allowing you to invoke those activities remotely (Correct Answer)
C.
Services can be configured so that service requests that fail PRPC
processing are re-queued for another attempt (Correct Answer)
D.
The performance of long running service requests can be significantly
improved through requestor pooling

Q.29) What is the recommended way to configure Service endpoint URLs and other
connector specific information? (Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
D.

The requestor page
The process page
A declarative page (Correct Answer)
The primary page

Q.30) Which of the following is the best way to detect long-running services and
connectors in a production PRPC environment? (Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.

Use PAL
Use SMA
Use Tracer
Use the System Logs
Use the Alerts Logs (Correct Answer)
There is no way to detect long-running services or connectors

Q.31) Which two of these statements about Obj-* methods are correct? (Choose
Two)
A.
B.
Answer)
C.

Obj- methods can only access internal classes
Obj- methods must be used if PRPC locking is to be used (Correct
Obj- methods require that the referenced database table contains a

GE Internal

column named pzPVStream
D.
Specifying WriteNow on an Obj- method will always commit regardless
of other transactional settings
E.
Specifying WriteNow on an Obj- method is discouraged in favor of
allowing PRPC to dictate commit points as part of flow execution (Correct Answer)

Q.32) Not all connectors can be run in parallel. Which of the following can be run in
a parallel? (Choose Two)
A.
B.
C.
D.

1
2
3
4

Connect-EJB (Correct Answer)
Connect-FTP
Connect-File
Connect-SOAP (Correct Answer)

Q.33) Which two statements are true about RuleSet prerequisites? (Choose Two)
A.
RuleSet prerequisites as specified in the ? Requires RuleSet and
Virsions ? fields of the RuleSet form are enforced at run time
B.
Prerequisite RuleSets govern the creation of new rules during
development. (Correct Answer)
C.
RuleSet prerequisites are validated during export of application
archives
D.
When saving application rules, RuleSet prerequisites are validated.
(Correct Answer)

Q.34) Which one of the following techniques is most appropriate for specializing by
COUNTRY or STATE? (Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Class
Circumstancing
Class or Circumstancing (Correct Answer)
RuleSet (e.g. a separate RuleSet where rules apply to the same class)
RuleSet or Class

Q.35) Which one of the following techniques is most appropriate for specializing by
DATE? (Choose One)
A.

RuleSet Only (e.g. a separate RuleSet where rules apply to the same

B.
C.
D.

Class
Circumstancing (Correct Answer)
RuleSet and Class

class)

GE Internal

E.

Class and Circumstancing

Q.36) Which two of the following statements are true? (Choose Two)
A.
Work and Data classes should always go into separate RuleSets to
ensure reusability
B.
In most cases there is no need to separate Work from Data classes by
RuleSet as they are both part of the application (Correct Answer)
C.
Interface classes should go in a separate RuleSet because this
achieves the highest level of reuse and portability (Correct Answer)
D.
Interface and Data classes should be stored in the same RuleSet to
keep the number of RuleSets down
E.
Work, Data and Interface classes should be stored in the same RuleSet
to keep the number of RuleSets down

Q.37) Which two statements are true about the Application Accelerator (EAA)?
(Choose Two)
A.
The AA can create a framework layer and a corresponding
Implementation lyer in one run (Correct Answer)
B.
You need to generate framework and implementation layers in tw
separate AA runs
C.
The AA can create the Enterprise Organizational and Divisional Reuse
layers (Correct Answer)
D.
When generating a new implementation, I can pick the work classes in
the framework for which to generate the implementation classes

Q.38) Which statement is true about withdrawn rules? (Choose One)
A.
Withdrawn rules make reflecting a class a rule ?applies to? Easier
(Correct Answer)
B.
Setting a rule’s availability to ?withdrawn? is the same as setting it to ?
NO?
C.
Withdrawn rules remove all instances of the rule from the database
D.
Withdrawn rules are the same as blocked rules
E.
A withdrawn rule affects other rules in its ”applies to” class and any
parent classes

Q.39) Which one statement is valid for As-Of date processing and date qualified
circumstancing? (Choose One)
A.

As-Of date processing uses the rule whose date circumstance matches

GE Internal

a work object property
B.
As-Of date processing requires a RuleSet effective date, and date
qualified circumstancing uses the current system time
C.
As-Of date uses a property on the work object, and date qualified
circumstancing uses the current system time (Correct Answer)
D.
Date qualified circumstancing allows selecting rules based on a work
object property, and As- Of date processing uses the current system time

Q.40) primary reason for using the Enterprise Class Structure to reach reusability
goals is? (Choose One)
A.
To put most rules in the Enterprise Shared layer
B.
To create new classes for each type of specialization
C.
To consider the most appropriate class and RuleSet for each rule
(Correct Answer)
D.
To use it as is and do not try to alter it

Q.41) Which of the following is not a fundamental way to improve reusability?
(Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer)
E.

Thoroughly document all rules
Parameterize rules
Use a Dynamic Class Referencing design pattern
Limit your design to utilize no more than 8 different rule types (Correct
Use naming conventions when naming rules

Q.42) Withdrawn rules are important in reuse and specialization because? (Choose
One)
A.
It is the primary way to notify other developers that the rule should not
be reused
B.
It is the primary way to notify other developers that the rule can be
reused but should not be overridden
C.
It allows a developer to ?move? the rule to a more generic class in the
class structure (Correct Answer)
D.
It allows a developer to use an older version of the same rule (and the
same applies to classes)

Q.43) You want to restrict developers to save rules that apply to the MyApp-LoanJumboLoan class only in the JumboLoanRS RuleSet. How can you accomplish this?
(Choose One)

GE Internal

A.
B.
C.
D.

Use the Restrictions tab on the Class Definition form (Correct Answer)
Create an access rule
Lock the JumboLoanRS RuleSet
Create a series of activities and declarative expressions

Incorrect
Q.44) What are the benefits of the "framework layer" and why is it important?
(Choose Three)
A.
It allows you to collect all enterprise shared rules in a single layer
B.
It can be overridden with rules specific to an organizational division or
line of business (Correct Answer)
C.
It promotes reuse of application frameworks across the enterprise
(Correct Answer)
D.
It allows you to implement a common business process (Correct
Answer)
E.
It allows for simultaneous development across organizations

Q.45) What is the Int-class in the Divisional Reuse Layer used for? (Choose One)
A.
applications
B.
C.
divisions
D.

For generated connector classes and rules that are shared by all
within a division (Your Answer)
For classes and rules internal to a given division
For generated connector classes and rules that are shared across all
To internationalize an application

Q.46) Which of the following statements is false? (Choose One)
A.
The Enterprise Class Structure (ECS) allows building enterprise- grade
applications that are scalable and extensible
B.
Pega best practices call for all applications on PRPC v5 platform be
built using the Enterprise Class Structure (ECS)patterns
C.
The Enterprise Class Structure (ECS) provides the foundation for
superior application performance (Correct Answer)

Q.47) According to Pega best practices, in which class should rules that are
reusable across the work classes of all divisions reside? (MyCo stands for an
arbitrary company name and Div1 stands for an arbitrary division name) (Choose
One)
A.

Work-

GE Internal

B.
C.
D.

MyCo- (Correct Answer)
MyCo-WorkMyCo-Div1-Work

Q.48) What does PRPC do when executing a blocked rule? (Choose One)
A.
It writes a message to Log4J
B.
It only ignores the rule and continues to search for the next rule via
rule resolution
C.
It throws an exception (Correct Answer)
D.
It either ignores the rule or throws an exception depending on the
prconfig.xml settings

Q.49) Rules with circumstances rank ahead of unqualified rules
Two)

. (Choose

A.
except when the base rule flag is checked on the circumstanced rule
B.
even when the unqualified rule is in a higher RuleSet version (Your
Answer)
C.
except when the base rule flag is checked on the unqualified rule
(Correct Answer)
D.
only when the unqualified rule is in the same RuleSet version as the
circumstanced rules

Q.50) We can improve the reusability of a rule in PRPC in following ways: (Choose
Three)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

By using Application Profiler
By following naming conventions and documentation (Your Answer)
By using the Availability feature in the Rule form
By using parameters in the rules where possible (Your Answer)
E. By completing the History tab (Correct Answer)

Q.51) What rule will PRPC select if no circumstances match the current clipboard
data? (Choose One)
A.
The base rule (Your Answer)
B.
It will fail to find a rule that matches and throw a general ?nt found?
Exception
C.
It will choose the last version created as the best match.
D.
An @ baseclass default activity is called that returns no value and logs
the failure of the attempted call

GE Internal

Q.52) An activity rule has multiple circumstanced instances. All instances are in
RuleSet Xray:01-01-01 and have availability = Yes. Each rule has an as-of date
circumstance and a Date Range. The bananaGrownDate property of the work object
is 12th September 2008 and the system date is 20th September 2008. Which of the
following rule would be selected by rule resolution? (Choose one)
A.
bananaGrownDate – Date Circumstances (as-of) 09/12/2009, Date
Range 01/01/2009 to 12/31/2009
B.
bananaGrownDate – Date Circumstances (as-of) 09/13/2008, Date
Range 09/21/2008 to 09/30/2008
C.
bananaGrownDate – Date Circumstances (as-of) 09/01/2008, Date
Range 08/01/2008 to 09/20/2008 (Correct Answer)
D.
None of the above ? the base rule would be selected.

Q.53) What is true about Container-Managed and PRPC Managed authentication?
(Choose One)
A.
Container-Managed authentication disables the entire PRPC
authorization mechanism(s)
B.
Container-Managed authentication cannot be used when deploying a
PRPC WAR on Tomcat (Correct Answer)
C.
Container-Managed authentication eliminates the need to store the
Operator ID in PRPC (Your Answer)
D.
PRPC does not support Container-Managed authentication
Correct
Q.54) A user wants access to modify activity EstablishOperatorExternally in class
Code-Security, with the system level setting being 5. If the following class mappings
are the only part of that access role, which combination does NOT give the user
sufficient access rights?
A.
B.

(Choose One) A. B. C. D. (Your Answer)
DDD

Note : Screen shots are not added . Please read Security document.

GE Internal

Q.55) Which three statements are true about roles? (Choose Three)
A.
A role defines the levels of access to rules that apply to a class and
instances of that class (Your Answer)
B.
Roles can be created and modified using the Role Editor
C.
A role defines various levels of access to RuleSets and RuleSet versions
D.
Each Access of Role to Object rule may have zero or one privilege
E.
An Access When rule defines a test that the system performs to allow,
or disallow, a requestor to perform an operation on an instance of a specific class
(Correct Answer)
F.
An access group can only have one role applied at one time

Q.56) Which two statements are true about PRPC security? (Choose Two)
A.
B.
C.
D.

An access group can reference one or more access roles. (Your Answer)
A production level of 0 identifies an experimental system
Security in PRPC can be controlled at a class level (Your Answer)
A user’s RuleSet list is a proper mechanism to control access to rules

Q.57) A user's access group has two roles listeD. ? RoleA and RoleB (in that order).?
RoleA has the "Open Instances of Data-Admin- Operator-ID" set to 0, and RoleB has
it set to 5. Assuming there is no Access Deny rule, will this user be able to open an
operator instance on a production system and why? (Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
D.

Yes, the higher of the two production levels wins
Yes, access roles are applied until a role grants access (Correct Answer)
No, if any role is set to 0, access is not granted
No, all access roles must grant access

Q.58) Where do you configure the authentication timeout in PRPC? (Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
D.

In
In
In
In

the
the
the
the

web.xml file
prconfig.xml file
access group (Your Answer)
Rule-Admin-System-Settings

Q.59) If an Access Role to Object and an Access Deny rule are defined on the same
class, which rule takes precedence with respect to security? (Choose One)
A.
B.
C.

Access Role to Object
Access Deny (Correct Answer)
PRPC prevents them from both being applied to the same class

GE Internal

D.

None ? they are both applied

Q.60) A user has an access role that allows them Level 5 access to modify instances
of the MyCo-Work- PolicyApp-Endorse class. Which rule type should you use to
disallow access to instances of the MyCo-Work-PolicyApp-Endorse class? (Choose
One)
A.
B.
C.
D.

Access
Access
Access
Access

Settings
Role to Object
Deny (Correct Answer)
Privilege

Correct
Q.61) (True of False) Even if you use a centralized directory (LDAP) and/ or identity
management system for authentication, you need to store Operator IDs in PRPC.
(Choose One)
A.
Answer)
B.
C.
D.

True, Even requestor in PRPC needs an associated Operator ID (Your
True, You need the Operator ID to bind to the LDAP directory.
False, You use the LDAP User ID instead of the Operator ID
False, This is only needed if you? Re reporting off of PRPC’s database

Q.62) There are two session-related timeouts that are configurable in PRPC, the
authentication timeout and the requestor timeout. Which statement is true?
(Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
D.

Authentication timeout should be set to occur first (Correct Answer)
Requestor timeout should be set to occur first
Both timeouts should be set to the same value
With passivation enabled, the authentication timeout should be set to

0
Correct
Q.63) Access groups cannot be referenced from which one of the following objects?
(Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
D.

Operator ID
WorkGroup (Your Answer)
Organization
Division

Correct

GE Internal

Q.64) Which one rule type cannot be associated with a privilege? (Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correspondence
ListView
Decision Table (Your Answer)
Flow

Correct
Q.65) A user has the following class access mappings: ? MyCo-App-Work Modify
Rules = 3 ? MyCo- App-Work-CaseCreate Modify Rules = 5 ? MyCo-App-WorkCaseDelete Modify Rules = 0 Which three statements below are correct? (Choose
Three)
A.
The user can modify rules
Development system (Your Answer)
B.
The user can modify rules
an Experimental system
C.
The user can modify rules
Test system (Your Answer)
D.
The user can modify rules
Production (Your Answer)

in the MyCo-App-Work-Research class on a
in the MyCo-App-Work-CaseDelete class in
in the MyCo-App-Work- CaseCreate class in a
in the MyCo-App-Work-CaseCreate class in

Incorrect
Q.66) Given the diagram below, what type of rule is canPerform? (Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
D.

Access
Access
Access
Access

Privilege
Settings
When (Correct Answer)
Deny

Correct
Q.67) Can the out-of-the-box (OOTB) PRPC Access Roles be modified? (Choose One)
A.
B.
customize
C.
D.

No, all of these roles are in locked RuleSets (Your Answer)
Yes, out-of-the-box roles are starter roles that are supposed to be
No, out-of-the-box roles should be overridden in application RuleSets
Yes, the Role Editor allows you to modify all roles

Q.68) An activity (MyCo-Div1-.SaveQuote) is associated with the following
privileges: ? mayQuote? maySaveA user has the maySave privilege but not the
mayQuote privilege. Can the user run the activity? (Choose One)
A.
No, the user must have all of the privileges listed on an activity to
execute the activity
B.
Yes, all shared rules can be executed by applications across the

GE Internal

enterprise
C.
Yes, if the user has any of the privileges listed on an activity, they may
execute the activity (Your Answer)
D.
Yes, privileges on an activity only control design-time restrictions
Correct
Q.69) How would you determine whether a requestor holds a specific privilege?
(Choose One)
A.
Interrogate the Declare_PrivilegeName page on the clipboard
B.
Make use of the PublicAPI.- tools.GetPrivilege(Requestor).Rolename
method
C.
Make use of the function: - @ (PegaRULES:Default).HavePrivilege("tools", privname, privAppliesTo, pagename) (Your
Answer)
D.
Use a section of Java and utilize the out-of-the-box (OOTB)
ListRequestorPrivilege(Role r) method

Q.70) Using the Access Role editor, you are able to

(Choose Three)

A.
get a tabular overview of all Access of Role to Object rules that make
up an Access Role (Your Answer)
B.
create new privilege rules
C.
view Operators mapped to selected Role
D.
copy permissions to another role (Correct Answer)
E.
create a new role (Your Answer)
F.
view Access Deny rules to a class

Q.71) Which statement is false about Rule-HTML-Property instances? (Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer)

Rule-HTML-Property
Rule-HTML-Property
Rule-HTML-Property
Rule-HTML-Property

instances
instances
instances
instances

can be circumstanced
belong to a RuleSet version
can accept parameters as input
have an Applies To class (Correct

Q.72) In which order does validation occur on a standard flow action? (Choose One)
A.

Client Side Validation, Post Processing Activity, Validate Rule on Flow

Action
B.
Client Side Validation, Validate Rule on Flow Action, Post Processing
Activity (Your Answer)
C.
Validate Rule on Flow Action ,Client Side Validation, Post Processing

GE Internal

Activity
D.

You can change the order per screen

Correct
Q.73) Which two of the following tools are primarily designed to help debug and
develop the user interface layout for an application? (Choose Two)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Rules Inspector (Your Answer)
Tracer
Style Viewer (Your Answer)
Pre Flight
Profiler

Correct
Q.74) Which two statements are true regarding screen flows? (Choose Two)
A.
Define a single harness for the entire screen flow. (Your Answer)
B.
Each step in the screen flow can be routed to different worklist or
workbasket
C.
Defer committing changes until the end of the screen flow, if
configured to do so in the start shape with Save Later set to true (Your Answer)
D.
Each assignment in a screen flow allows for you to add more than one
flow action

Q.75) Which one statement best explains how you can control navigation within a
screen flow? (Choose One)
A.
Each step in the screen flow allows you to determine if you can jump to
this step or if you can only jump back after it has been completed (Correct Answer)
B.
Screen flows only support assignment shapes thus always have a predefined number of steps to complete
C.
The harness defines if you are able to jump forward to future steps in a
screen flow
D.
Screen flows always force the end user to walk through the flow in
sequential order without the ability to jump from one screen to another
Correct
Q.76) Which client side events are supported within PRPC? (Choose Three)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

OnChange (Your Answer)
OnMouseout
OnClick (Your Answer)
OnBlur (Your Answer)
OnFocus

GE Internal

Incorrect
Q.77) According to Pega?s best practice what is the recommended way to
implement a solution in this example. You have a list of purchase orders on the
screen, each with a price. As you change the price the Grand Total should
automatically be updated. (Choose One)
A.
Put an OnChange client event on each of the price inputs and have it
use the refresh section event to call an activity to calculate the Grand Total
B.
Build a Declarative expression to calculate the Grand Total and use the
CalculatedValue HTML-Property on the Grand Total property when displaying it
(Correct Answer)
C.
Build a Declarative expression to calculate the Grand Total and refresh
the section when inputs change
D.
Use OnChange client events on the input elements and have them
alter the value in the Grand Total property

Q.78) Which statement is true regarding the initial harness that displays for a work
object? (Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
objects and
D.
flow rule

The initial
The initial
The initial
is required
The initial

harness is defined in the pyDefault model
harness is defined on every flow
harness is only defined for flows that create new work
harness can be skipped and this is configurable from the

(Correct Answer)
Correct
Q.79) Which of the following are false? (Choose Three)
A.
B.

Repeating list displays are only for page lists (Your Answer)
You can display lists as row or column lists (Top to Bottom or Left to

Right)
C.
You can only display a list as a row repeating list display (List goes from
top to bottom) (Your Answer)
D.
There is no support for tabs when displaying repeating lists (Your
Answer)
E.
A section rule can be used to specify how items of the repeating list
are displayed
Correct
Q.80) Which four of the following are provided as out-of-the-box (OOTB) widgets
when creating user interface rules? (Choose Four)

GE Internal

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.

A. List-to-List (Your Answer)
B. Sliders
C. Dynamic Select (Your Answer)
D. Toolbar
E. Auto Complete (Your Answer)
F. List View (Your Answer)

Correct
Q.81) Which layouts are provided out-of-the-box (OOTB) when building forms?
(Choose Two)
A.
B.
C.
D.

Carousel Layout
Accordion Layout (Your Answer)
Tabbed Layout (Your Answer)
Concertina Layouts

Incorrect
Q.82) Which one statement describes the best practice for branding an application
to meet a company’s style requirements? (Choose One)
A.
Use the Application Skin wizard and then use inline styles on the user
interface rules
B.
Use the Application Skin wizard and then modify the generated skin
when needed, try to limit inline styles (Correct Answer)
C.
Only use the style viewer and make changes to the out-of-the-box CSS
files and your own RuleSets
D.
Use inline styles to change displays to meet corporate standards

Q.83) Which are best practices when designing user interface rules so they can be
re-used? (Choose Two)
A.
By building all displays within cells of layouts it will allow you the
granularity needed to re-use the rule
B.
By building section rules or HTML-Property rules with parameters it will
allow you to re-use these display rules more frequently within an application (Your
Answer)
C.
By grouping related data into section rules, you can re-use these
sections throughout the application and control if they should be updateable or
read-only in the parent section (Your Answer)
D.
The best practice for re-using user interface rules is to assure it is in
the right part of the class structure
Correct
Q.84) Where do you configure the label that displays in the drop down at an

GE Internal

assignment (i.e. the list of available actions)? (Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
D.

It
It
It
It

is
is
is
is

set
set
set
set

within the Assignment shape on the flow
by the short description from the flow action rule (Your Answer)
by the usage on the history tab on the flow action rule
by a parameter in the pre-activity on the flow action

Incorrect
Q.85) Which features allows the worklist to display additional data from the work
object? (Choose Two)
A.
The JOIN feature on List Views now lets you join the assignment table
to the work object table to add exposed columns to the worklist display (Correct
Answer)
B.
The JOIN feature on List Views now lets you join the assignment table
to the work object table to retrieve any element from the work object
C.
The Smart Info hover over lets you display a Section rule to show
additional work object information (Your Answer)
D.
Alter the getContent activity to write custom code to look through
items on worklist to perform additional lookups on the work table
Correct
Q.86) When working with User Interface rules such as Sections, it is possible to save
them in the ?work? or ?data? portions of the class structure hierarchy. Is the
following statement true or false? Saving Section rules in the ?data? portion of the
hierarchy is usually better because the rules can then be reused wherever its
associated data is used, without having to worry about correct property referencing.
A.
B.

True (Your Answer)
False

Incorrect
Q.87) Which tools gives you the broadest picture of your system’s overall health?
(Choose Two)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

PAL
Profiler
System Management Application (SMA) (Your Answer)
DBTrace
Autonomic Event Services (AES)

(Correct Answer)
Incorrect
Q.88) Which two actions help to optimize your database or promote effective SQL
statements? (Choose Two)

GE Internal

A.
Partition the database (Correct Answer)
B.
Avoid arithmetic operations or functions in the SELECT clause
C.
Write queries that operate on large results sets but only display small
amounts of data
D.
Create and use indexes effectively (Your Answer)
E.
Avoid using Where clauses
Incorrect
Q.89) What are three performance impacts of having an extremely large work
object? (Choose Three)
A.
Slower persistence to database as the BLOB needs to be compressed
(Your Answer)
B.
Garbage collection impacts when object is released (Correct Answer)
C.
Large clipboard page footprint (Correct Answer)
D.
Large work objects waste space in the instance cache
E.
E. Large work objects are stored as XML files on the file system and will
lead to ?out of disk? errors if they are not purged frequently
Incorrect
Q.90) The PAL indicators that refer to the ?stream? are measuring what? (Choose
One)
A.
B.
C.
D.

The HTML data going to the browser
Any processing of requests and responses via Services
Reading and writing data in the database
Database operations pertaining to the BLOB (Correct Answer)

Incorrect
Q.91) What is the Byte Governor alert (PEGA0004) and how does it work? (Choose
Two)
A.
It is a critical alert that can take the form of an alert or an error
(Correct Answer)
B.
It is triggered when the total number of bytes sent to the browser in an
interaction exceeds a byte count threshold
C.
It is triggered when the total number of bytes read from all queries in
an interaction exceeds a byte count threshold (Correct Answer)
D.
It is triggered when the total number of bytes saved to the database in
an interaction exceeds a byte count threshold
(Your Answer)
Correct
Q.92) Where do you customize the thresholds for alerts? (Choose One)

GE Internal

A.
PRLOGGING.XML
B.
Rule-Admin-System-Settings
C.
PRCONFIG.XML (Your Answer)
D.
You cannot customize the thresholds; the defaults are fine and do not
need to be adjusted
Correct
Q.93) Which tool is best to use if you want to compare PRPC Errors with Alerts, as
well as the JVM Garbage Collection Log? (Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
D.

PLA ? PegaRULES Log Analyzer (Your Answer)
AES ? Autonomic Event Services
SMA ? System Management Application
Excel

Correct
Q.94) Your application just went into production and the users are complaining that
response times are terrible. Your best initial action should be? (Choose Two)
A.
Use the PLA ? PegaRULES Log Analyzer to analyze ALERTS, System
Logs, and the GC (Garbage Collection) (Your Answer)
B.
Run PAL on every screen in the application
C.
Run Pre-Flight
D.
Check the Pega Alert logs (Your Answer)
Correct
Q.95) Which one of the following are true about DB Trace and Application Profiler?
(Choose Two)
A.
They are essentially the same thing, it?s a personal preference as to
which to use
B.
You can see Activity rule executions only in the Application Profiler
C.
To see where database actions are taking place, the Application Profiler
provides more detail than DBTrace (Your Answer)
D.
The Application Profiler is the better tool to see step-by-step where the
elapsed and CPU time is being spent (Your Answer)
Correct
Q.96) Why is allowing instances to be stored in a default table (pr_other) a poor
design practice? (Choose Two)
A.
The default table does not contain adequate indexes and columns for
performance (Your Answer)
B.
The default table does not have adequate exposed columns (Your
Answer)

GE Internal

C.
D.
E.

The default table names are too generic
The default table is too small to hold all of your data
Because the Preflight tool will flag it as bad practice

Incorrect
Q.97) Which three of the following measurements are used by the alerts reported to
the PRPC Alert log? (Choose Three)
A.
The overall time elapsed from when a user triggers Client Side
JavaScript
B.
The time spent executing Declarative expressions
C.
The time for a response from a web service called using the ConnectSOAP method (Your Answer)
D.
The time for a database query to execute and return results to PRPC
(Your Answer)
E.
The size of the HTML stream returned to the user/browser (Correct
Answer)
Correct
Q.98) Which one of the following statements is true? (Choose One)
A.
The overall size of a PRPC work object impacts the time it takes to
compress and store the object in the database (Your Answer)
B.
During List View execution, PRPC will only retrieve/expand the BLOB if
the properties retrieved are not exposed
C.
During List View execution, PRPC will only retrieve/expand the BLOB if
the properties used in the generated Where clause are not exposed
D.
PRPC only retrieves/expands the BLOB via the use of the Obj-Open and
Obj-Open-By-Handle methods
E.
By default the PRPC BLOB is stored in an encrypted format in the
database
Incorrect
Q.99) Which of the following statements are true regarding PRPC and garbage
collection? (Choose Two)
A.
Effective clipboard management is one of the best ways for an
architect to reduce an applications memory footprint and time spent in performing
garbage collection (Your Answer)
B.
When available, additional JVM heap space may or may not improve
the time spent in garbage collection (Correct Answer)
C.
As PRPC architects it is important to set properties to null so that they
can be discarded as part of garbage collection
D.
As long as reporting is done by a 3rd party tool garbage collection will
have minimal impact on the performance of a PRPC application
Incorrect

GE Internal

Q.100)
Given the following situation: A BPM application was deployed into
production nine months ago and was performing well initially. Now, users complain
of slow response times on certain screen interactions irrespective of the time of day.
Which one of the following statements is most likely to be accurate as to the root
cause of this issue? (Choose One)
A.
Over time more rows have been added to work, history, assignment
and operator tables and inefficient queries against those tables are taking longer
than they did 9 months earlier (Correct Answer)
B.
A memory leak in the configuration has led to more and more garbage
collection over the past nine months
C.
If the PRPC application server has not be restarted recently it is likely
the case that the PRPC caches have filled up and are not being utilized well
D.
As new rules have been added to the PRPCrule base, the database
containing the rules needs to be properly indexed and tuned so that frequent access
to the rules is made as efficient as possible
Incorrect
Q.101)
Which two statements are false about the Log-Message method?
(Choose Two)
A.
You can force a stack trace
B.
You can specify the filename where you want to write the message
(Correct Answer)
C.
It allows you to avoid using Java steps to write to the PageRULES log
D.
You can add a message that will show up in Tracer
E.
It always uses the Debug log level (Your Answer)
Incorrect
Q.102)
Which one of the following is not a refactoring tool provided by PRPC?
(Choose One)
A.
Renaming a class and propagating the name change through the
hierarchy and rule references
B.
Converting a Map-Value into a Decision Table (Correct Answer)
C.
Search and replace of a string in all rules
D.
Merging one RuleSet into another
Correct
Q.103)

Which feature is available when using Tracer? (Choose One)

A.
You can set a breakpoint for a specific step within an activity
B.
Open an named clipboard page to display current data
C.
Select which requestor session you wish to trace, using the SMA tool
(Your Answer)
D.
Re-run a specific set of steps with updated data

GE Internal

Correct
Q.104)

How can you debug an agent using Tracer? (Choose One)

A.
There is a way to select the agent and force its execution
B.
You can trace a given requestor by delaying an agent in SMA (Your
Answer)
C.
You can set a break point in the activity that the agent runs to have
Tracer pick it up
D.
You can set a log-message step in the activity the agent runs to have
Tracer find the activity
Incorrect
Q.105)
Which two statements are true regarding configuring log files in PRPC?
(Choose Two)
A.
You cannot configure within an Activity rule to which log file you want
to write errors (Correct Answer)
B.
You are able to configure within SMA which rules write to which log files
C.
You can update prlogging.xml file to change the default PegaRULES log
file names
D.
You can update the prlogging.xml file to change the log file names, roll
over settings and even add new log files for specific rule type and class within PRPC
(Your Answer)
Correct
Q.106)
Which of the following caches maintains references to the java class
generated when a Flow rule is executed against a work object for the first time?
(Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
D.

Rules Assembly cache (Your Answer)
Rule cache
Lookup List cache
Personal cache

Incorrect
Q.107)
All of the following are ways in which you can access system logs
except: (Choose Two)
A.
B.
C.
and Tracing
D.
E.

From the Developer menu selecting; Tools > Log Files
Clicking the Save icon from the Tracer tool (Your Answer)
From the System Management Application menu selecting ; Logging
> Log Files
Remote logging using log4j
Through the prdbutil interface (Correct Answer)

GE Internal

Incorrect
Q.108)
You are unit testing your flow and have meticulously clicked ?Add
Reading? at every transition. The result is below. Is this a fair reflection of the likely
performance of your flow? (Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
assembly

Yes, there?s nothing wrong with it
No, it shows clear performance issues (Your Answer)
No, you should run it again; these results have been skewed by rules

(Correct Answer)
Incorrect
Q.109)
One)
A.
B.
classes and
C.
Answer)
D.
debug
E.

Which one of the following statements about logging is false? (Choose
All log messages are written to either the Alert log or the Pega log
Log severity level can be configured for rules, rule types, activities,
packages
The alert threshold settings are configured in prlogging.xml (Correct
The severity levels of logging are:fatal, error, alert, warn, info, and
Daily rolling logs are configured in prlogging.xml

Incorrect
Q.110)
Which two of the following statements are true about Summary Views?
(Choose Two)
A.
Summary View reports provide a multi-level report display with drilldown capabilities (Your Answer)
B.
The ?drill down? capability provides only the ability to invoke another
Summary View rule
C.
Because of the aggregate first-level display, Summary Views allow you
to report on very large report sets of 10,000 rows or more (Correct Answer)
D.
Summary View rules generate HTML and JSP for display that can be
further customized
Correct
Q.111)
Which three out-of-the-box (OOTB) features do List Views provide?
(Choose Three)
A.
B.
C.
D.

Pagination (Your Answer)
Defining thresholds
Single or multi-selection (Your Answer)
Trend Reporting

GE Internal

E.

Class Joins (Your Answer)

Incorrect
Q.112)
Three)

Which three statements are true about List View reports? (Choose

A.
A List View report can be displayed in a flow action
B.
Both developers and managers can create and update List View rules
(Your Answer)
C.
In an activity, a List View rule can be executed to provide searching
and sorting, with no display, as an efficient alternative to the Obj-List method
(Correct Answer)
D.
List View reports can only run queries against PRPC assignment and
work object tables

Q.113)
Pick the one most appropriate statement about PRPC reporting.
(Choose One)
A.
PRPC is an excellent reporting solution and is recommended for
reporting instead of purchasing expensive Business Intelligence reporting software
B.
You can always get the reporting data you need by exposing properties
as database columns
C.
If the reporting data is stored in sources other than PRPC, you need to
create connectors to retrieve the data from the source system
D.
PRPC reporting is highly optimized; the impact of running large reports
in a production system is negligible
E.
PRPC includes powerful Business Activity Monitoring reports that
provide business managers with real-time and historical information to measure and
manage business process performance (Correct Answer)

Q.114)
Which three statements are true about the out-of-the-box (OOTB) PRPC
reports? (Choose Three)
A.
A database view can simplify reporting, especially with properties from
two or more classes that are in separate class groups (Correct Answer)
B.
Reports in the Monitor Processes category support day-to-day
monitoring of the backlogs of work that has arrived but is incomplete (Correct
Answer)
C.
Reports in the Analyze Performance group analyze which flow actions
were selected how often, by assignment, and the timeliness of the selection
(Correct Answer)
D.
Analyze Performance and Analyze Quality reports cover only
unresolved work objects
E.
Monitor Assignments and Monitor Processes reports cover resolved
work objects only

GE Internal

F.
The Final Conflicts report allows developers to identify rules in the
current application RuleSet version that conflict with previous RuleSet versions

Q.115)
Which two of the following statements are true about exposing BLOB
data? (Choose Two)
A.
Declare Expression or Declare Trigger rules can be used to copy a
single embedded property to a top-level property, and this top-level property can be
exposed (Correct Answer)
B.
Declare Index rules can be used to expose many, or all, of the items in
an embedded list or group (Correct Answer)
C.
Ask your DBA to create a database-level index, because this is a good
mechanism to expose embedded properties
D.
Exposing a new property with the Modify Database Schema wizard will
automatically populate all rows of the respective database column ? both for new
rows and existing ones

Q.116)

Which two statements are true about SmartInfo displays? (Choose Two)

A.
May utilize input fields
B.
SmartInfo can display as a popup window or ill automatically populate
all rows of the respective database embedded (Correct Answer)
C.
The SmartInfo feature is part of Client-Side processing and handled
completely by the browser
D.
The SmartInfo display can contain images (Correct Answer)

Q.117)
Which three statements are true about Summary View and List View
reports? (Choose Three)
A.
Summary View reports allow you to drill down to another Summary
View report (Correct Answer)
B.
Summary View reports allow you to drill down to a detailed view
(Correct Answer)
C.
Both summary views and list views provide client side and server side
filtering capabilities in addition to the database “where” clause
D.
List views allow you to pass in parameter values to be used as
selection criteria (Correct Answer)
E.
Parameters can be used to override selection criteria that are hardcoded in a summary view

Q.118)

Which two statements are true about the Report Wizard? (Choose Two)

GE Internal

A.
The Report Wizard can only be used to create reports on work
B.
Using the wizard will ensure best possible performance of your report
C.
You can use the Report Wizard to delegate created reports to an access
group (Correct Answer)
D.
You need a special privilege to run the Report Wizard (Correct Answer)

Q.119)

Which two statements are true about reports? (Choose Two)

A.
List View and Summary View rules allow you to present the results in
segments, known as pages
B.
The criteria specified in Filter By become part of the SQL WHERE clause
C.
Paging improves response time and reduces the size of the clipboard
(Correct Answer)
D.
The report display generated by a list view can be embedded in a
section
(Correct Answer)

Q.120)
Two)

Which two statements are true about the getContent activity? (Choose

A.
The getContent activity should not be replaced as it provides highly
optimized retrieval of reporting data
B.
You can customize the getContent activity by creating a copy of the
same name in your application RuleSet
C.
Creating a custom getContent-like activity that is specified as the
report source allows you to fetch data from sources other than databases (Correct
Answer)
D.
Data can be fetched from an external database table so long as the
key of the table is mapped to the pxInsHandle property (Correct Answer)

Q.121)

Which two statements are true about reports? (Choose Two)

A.
Summary views allow you to drill down into another Summary View,
List View, or a Detailed View (Correct Answer)
B.
Both List View and Summary View rules can use an override sort
function
C.
Both List View and Summary View rules can use class joins to reference
properties from multiple classes (Correct Answer)
D.
Only List View rules may use parameter

Q.122)

Which of the following is true? (Choose One)

GE Internal

A.
You can test the persistence connectivity for a class on the Class rule
form, on the associated Data-Admin-DB-Table record, as well as on the Class
Structure Viewer
B.
All four foundation classes (Rule-Obj- Class, Data-Admin-DB-Table,
Data-Admin-DB-Name, Data-Admin-DB-ClassGroup) must be stored in pr4_rule table
C.
One can use Obj- methods to the PRPC database to read/write data to
the work-object tables without impact on data integrity (Correct Answer)
D.
Process commander searches the Data-Admin-DB-Table using the
pattern and direct inheritance mechanism to find the table that stores the instances
of a given class

Q.123)
Which one action should you not take when designing for rule
delegation? (Choose One)
A.
Choose rule names and property names that are meaningful in the
business context tion?
B.
Identify which rules are useful to delegate to managers for
maintenance
C.
Ensure that the RuleSet(s) that contain the delegated rules are part of
the Application Rule, not the Production RuleSet list (Correct Answer)
D.
After initial testing, copy the rules into a RuleSet containing only the
delegated rules so that later changes can be segregated from the rest of the
application
E.
Make sure the delegated RuleSet is locked

Q.124)
Which groups of rule types use Functions Alias rules on their rule
forms? (Choose One)
A.
Decision trees, Map values and Decision tables
B.
Declare expressions, activities and Rule-Access-When
C.
Decision trees, Map values, and Rule-Declare- Constraint (Correct
Answer) (Refer Funcation Alias doc in PDN / Help)
D.
Decision trees, When rules, and Declare expressions

Q.125)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Which two of the following are Declarative rules? (Choose Two)
Rule-Declare-DecisionTree
Rule-Declare- DecisionTable
Rule-Obj-MapValue
Rule-Declare-Expression (Correct Answer)
Rule-Declare-OnChange (Correct Answer)

GE Internal

Q.126)
Which one of the following rules can use backward chaining as a
method of propagation? (Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Rule-Declare- Expression (Correct Answer)
Rule-Declare-OnChange
Rule-Declare-Constraints
Rule-Declare-Trigger
Rule-Declare-CaseMatch

Q.127)
During the execution of a Rule-Declare-OnChange will declarative
expressions execute? (Choose One)
A.
B.

Yes
No (Correct Answer)

Q.128)
Which one of the following rules allows you to copy the previous value
of one property to another property if you want to audit property level changes?
(Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Rule-Declare-OnChange
Rule-Declare-Trigger (Correct Answer)
Rule-Declare-Expression
Rul-Declare-DecisionTree
Rule-Obj-MapValue

Q.129)
Choose three times when a Thread level Declarative page is removed
from memory? (Choose Three)
A.
setting
B.
C.
D.
E.

When the user does not refer to it for a duration more than the timeout
When
When
When
When

the
the
the
the

user logs out (Correct Answer)
user session expires (Correct Answer)
application server is brought down (Correct Answer)
SMA is used to ?refresh? a declarative page

Q.130)
As part of a BRE implementation, is it possible to execute unordered
rules dynamically if given a set of conditions that statE. execute all Decision rules
when State is Ohio, and audit as to which rules get executed? (Choose One)
A.
No PRPC has no (out-of-the-box (OOTB) facilities to support this and we
will have to build something custom to support this

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B.
Yes, you can do this using a List View in conjunction with a RuleDeclare-Collection (Correct Answer)
C.
Yes, you can do this using a Summary View in conjunction with RuleDeclare-Collection
D.
Yes, you can do this using a Rule-Declare-Expression in conjunction
with a Rule- Declare- CaseMatch
E.
Yes you can do this using a Rule-Declare-Trigger in conjunction with
Rule-Obj-MapValue

Q.131)
If you created a Rule-Declare-Expression rule on a target property A
first, will PRPC let you to use property A in the left hand side of a Property-Set in a
new activity? (Choose One)
A.
B.

Yes
No (Correct Answer)

Q.132)
The calculation types (e.g. Sum Of, Value Of, etc) available in a Declare
Expressions rule are ____________________? (Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
D.

Dependent
Dependent
Dependent
Dependent

on
on
on
on

the ?applies to? class of the rule
if the expression is context-free or context sensitive
the type of the input properties
the type of the target property (Correct Answer)

Q.133)
Which of the following is a difference between a Declarative Page
defined as Node level versus Thread level? (Choose One)
A.
Node level pages are read-only and thread level are not
B.
Thread level pages can use a when to determine when the page needs
to refresh, node level cannot (Correct Answer)
C.
Only Node level pages must be named Declare_Node_
D.
Node level pages are loaded when PRPC starts up and thread level
pages are loaded when the user logs in

Q.134)
Rule-Declare-OnChange rules are different from Rule-DeclareExpressions in that? (Choose One)
A.
OnChange rules can directly execute an activity in a background
process rather than set a single property
B.
Expressions allow configuring of the execution context to any, top
level, or only specific pages (Correct Answer)
C.
OnChange rules fire when designated properties change on the

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clipboard as opposed to expressions which require a database commit
D.
OnChange rules ONLY use backward chaining to track changes whereas
expressions can use either forward or backward chaining

Q.135)

Which of the following is true? (Choose One)

A.
Decision Tables can call only Decision Trees without having to use a
utility function
B.
Decision Trees can only call other Decision Trees without having to use
a utility function
C.
Decision Trees can call other Decision Trees, Decision Table or Map
Values without having to use a utility function (Correct Answer)
D.
Decision Tables can call other Decision Tables, Decision Trees or Map
Values without having to use a utility function

Q.136)
(True or False) Decision tables can associate a privilege with the ability
to edit each individual cell.
A.
B.

True
False (Correct Answer)

Q.137)
A Rule-Declare-Page named Declare_RichieTest is of page scope
Thread. It has a Refresh period of five minutes and no timeout. There is also a ?Page
is fresh when? rule ?CodIsInStock? based on a True/False property CodIsInStock
Consider this sequence of events:? Declare_RichieTest is first accessed and loaded
at 14:34? CodStock is set to false at 14:38? Declare_RichieTest is next accessed at
14:45When is the Declare_RichieTest page loaded again? (Choose One)
A.
B.
C.
D.

Q.138)

14:45 (Correct Answer)
14:39
14:38
Never, once loaded the page is never reloaded

Which of the following is false about Declarative Pages? (Choose One)

A.
Load Activity type must be set to "LoadDeclarativePage"
B.
Only Node level declare pages prompt you to configure an Access
Group. If left blank, Requestor Access Group is used (Correct Answer)
C.
Refresh conditions can be configured on rule form
D.
Only Thread pages may utilize the ?Refresh Page When? option to
refresh the page
E.
Cannot be directly saved to database

GE Internal

Q.139)
Which three statements are true about primary and step pages within
activities? (Choose Three)
A.
A primary page acts as the context for the entire activity (Correct
Answer)
B.
A step in an activity where the Step Page column is blank indicates
that the step page is the primary page (Correct Answer)
C.
When iterating through embedded pages, each instance of the
embedded page becomes the step page for that step (Correct Answer)
D.
When an activity calls another rule, the primary page of the calling
activity becomes the primary page of the called rule
E.
The primary keyword always refers to a top-level page

Q.140)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
H.
I.
J.
K.
L.

What are the 6 R's? (Choose Six)
A. Repeat
B. Reply
C. Reserve
D. Report (Correct Answer)
E. Re-examine
F. Receive (Correct Answer)
G. Return
H. Resolve (Correct Answer)
I. Respond (Correct Answer)
J. ROI
K. Route (Correct Answer)
L. Research (Correct Answer)

Q.141)
When is it appropriate to use a sub-flow shape instead of a spin-off flow
shape? (Choose One)
A.
When you wish to run calculations in a separate thread from the
current process
B.
When you wish to perform work on a different work object
C.
When you want to transfer control to another flow rule (Correct
Answer)
D.
When you wish to route work to a different department while
continuing down the current process path

Q.142)
Which two of the following statements are true about the Split-For-Each
and Split-Join shapes? (Choose Two)

GE Internal

A.
Both shapes allow you to continue processing when ANY or ALL of the
sub processes complete (Correct Answer)
B.
Split-Join allows you to execute different sub-flows whereas Split-ForEach calls the same process on different pages (Correct Answer)
C.
Split-For-Each allows you to execute different sub-flows whereas SplitJoin calls the same process on different pages.
D.
Both shapes create separate Threads for sub- processes they create
E.
Split-For-Each can only be used when iterating over a list of work
objects

Q.143)
Which one of the following statements is true about the
implementation of PRPC?s Spin-Off flow behavior? (Choose One)
A.
Spin-Off flows are executed in the current requestor in a serial manner;
however they do provide business parallelism by allowing multiple users to have
assignments on the same work object (Correct Answer)
B.
Spin-Off flows achieve greater throughput by allowing assignments to
be worked on by multiple users at the same time by obtaining a separate lock for
each sub-process
C.
Spin-Off flows create separate Threads which allow for faster
processing of assignments and calculations
D.
Spin-Off flows create separate requestors so that work can be assigned
to different users

Q.144)
Which two of the following statements are true regarding the use of
Draft Flows? (Choose Two)
A.
Draft flows allow users to directly capture processes without requiring
referenced rules to be completed (Correct Answer)
B.
Draft flows can be executed to demonstrate the process (Correct
Answer)
C.
Draft flows can only be executed if a previous, non-draft-mode version
exists
D.
Once a flow is checked in it cannot be marked as a draft flow. You can?t
change the status of a checked in rule, can you?
E.
Draft flows can only be executed if the flow actions they reference
have been created

Q.145)
Which one of the following statements are true regarding passing page
references to activities? (Choose One)
A.
Both page name parameters and prompt pages provide a way to pass
a page reference to an activity so page names don?t need to be hardcoded (Correct

GE Internal

Answer)
B.
Page name parameters can only be used to pass top-level pages
C.
Page names parameters create aliases for pages that can be used by
any rule that is executed after an activity
D.
Passing pages by reference requires java code

Q.146)

Which two of the following statements are true? (Choose Two)

A.
Assignment and work object SLAs allow for separate service levels to
be defined on individual tasks and overall work resolution (Correct Answer)
B.
Work object SLAs are normally specified in a model but can be
modified during subsequent processing (Correct Answer)
C.
Work object SLAs can only be set during work object creation
D.
Assignment SLAs default to the work object SLA if not specified
E.
Work object SLAs are defined on the start shape of a flow and are
overwritten by SLAs on individual assignments

Q.147)
Which one of the following is true about the concepts of push and pull
routing as implemented in PRPC? (Choose One)
A.
Assigning work to a worklist is an example of push routing and using
get next work to grab work from a workbasket is an example of pull routing (Correct
Answer)
B.
Assigning work to a worklist is an example of pull routing and using get
next work to grab work from a workbasket is an example of push routing
C.
Using a load balancing algorithm to assign work to individual operators
is an example of pull routing
D.
A single application should only use one type of routing, push or pull

Q.148)
Out of the Box Get Next Work functionality is NOT useful in solving
which one of the following business problems? (Choose One)
A.
The "cherry-picking" of easy work selected first from workbaskets
causing some work to not be done in a timely manner
B.
Retrieving work based on highest urgency
C.
Evenly distributing work to all members of a team (Correct Answer)
D.
Retrieving work from one or more workbaskets or worklist

Q.149)
Two)
A.

Which two of the following statements are true about covers? (Choose
Covers cannot cover another cover (Correct Answer)

GE Internal

B.
By default, only one covered item that belongs to the same cover can
be processed at a time (Correct Answer)
C.
Covers cannot belong to a folder
D.
Covers can only cover 10 objects or less
E.
The links between a cover and its covered objects is stored using
foreign keys in the database

Q.150)
Two)

Which two of the following statements are true about folders? (Choose

A.
B.
C.
contains
D.
E.

Folders can contain two covers (Correct Answer)
A folder can contain another folder (Correct Answer)
A folder contains an embedded page of all the work objects that it

Q.151)

Work parties are

A.

A folder cannot have a process run on it
A folder does not have a status

. (Choose One)

stored in a page list with the subscript representing the priority of the

party
B.
stored in a value group with the subscript representing the identity of
the party
C.
data instances that are linked to work objects as attachments
D.
roles with potentially multiple occurences that participate in a work
object (Correct Answer)

Q.152)
Which one of the following actions could set different urgency values
for a work object and an assignment on that work object? (Choose One)
A.
An assignment?s SLA has an urgency escalation (Correct Answer)
B.
An update to the work object urgency occurs when a lock is not
obtained on the assignment
C.
An update occurs to the assignment SLA and the pyUrgencySync
property is set to false
D.
This cannot occur as a rule-declare-trigger is used to keep the values in
sync

Q.153)
Which one of the following statements is true about work lists and
workbaskets? (Choose One)
A.

Work can only be routed to a work list if a data-admin-operator-id

GE Internal

exists for the specified worklist (Correct Answer)
B.
GetNextWork only uses workbaskets when determining which work to
process
C.
Workbaskets automatically notify all eligible operators that new work
exists
D.
Work can only be routed to a workbasket if a data-admin-operator-id
exists for the specified workbasket

Q.154)
Which one of the following statements is true about work object history
in PRPC? (Choose One)
A.
History is automatically added during key events, such as SLA
deadlines as well as by application specific rules (Correct Answer)
B.
History is automatically deleted from the PRPC database when the
associated work object is resolved
C.
History is only added by application specific rules
D.
History is stored as a page list inside the work object so it can be easily
displayed in the harness

Q.155)
Which of the following is true about out-of-the-box (OOTB) work history
tracking in PRPC? (Choose Three)
A.
History is added when a Service Level Agreement (SLA) is processed by
the SLA Agent (Correct Answer)
B.
The Log-Message method can be used to add the history to the work
object
C.
By default history is written to database table ?log_history? (Correct
Answer)
D.
Reviewing a work object adds an entry in Work History table
E.
Audit notes on flow shapes are recorded in Work History (Correct
Answer)
F.
The level of history recordedcannotbe controlled

Q.156)
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which statement IS TRUE about Folders? (Choose One)
Folder objects are stored in the PC_LINK_FOLDER table
A folder cannot be resolved when foldered objects are still unresolved
Folders can contain covers (Correct Answer)
As a best practice, a folder should contains 20 or less objects

Q.157)
In the context of Correspondence, identify the statement that is false?
(Choose One)

GE Internal

A.
Correspondence can only be sent to users who are defined as
operators in PRPC (Correct Answer)
B.
You cannot add notify shapes to the Integrator shape in your process
for correspondence
C.
Sending emails on a work object is supported out-of-the-box (OOTB) as
long as PRPC can connect to a mail server
D.
It is possible within PRPC for a user to modify the correspondence text
within a flow action

Q.158)
Which of the following statements are true about routing in PRPC?
(Choose Three)
A.
Users should be free to choose their next work assignment from those
listed in their workbasket
B.
The GetNextWork algorithm can be amended by modifying a Decision
tree (Correct Answer)
C.
GetNextWork will always check the users? Work List before it checks
any WorkBaskets
D.
The behavior of GetNextWork is controlled by flags set on the Operator
ID rule (Correct Answer)
E.
Operators can nominate substitutes to receive their assigned work
when they are unavailable (Correct Answer)

Q.159)
Which statement is true about creating a Rule-Admin-Product ZIP file?
(Choose One
A.
You must specify the URL of the target system before generating the
zip file
B.
RuleSet versions must be locked
C.
You need to include major, minor and patch RuleSet versions
D.
You must create a When rule to include data instances
E.
All rules being referenced in the Product should be checked-in,
otherwise errors will be reported
(Correct Answer)

Q.160)
A.
B.
C.
D.

When are RuleSet prerequisites important? (Choose One)
In both development and run-time
In run-time only
In development only (Correct Answer)
None of the above

GE Internal

Q.161)
The customer wants to rollback a recently deployed Rule-AdminProduct which was imported into a target production system. What are the best
ways to solve this problem? (Choose Two)
A.
By doing an export of the RuleSets from the target production system.
An export also deletes the rules which were packaged
B.
By taking a DB backup before the import on the target system and
restoring from the DB backup in case a rollback is desired (Correct Answer)
C.
By explaining to the customer that even though the new rules are in
the target system we can control which rules are executed through the access
groups (Correct Answer)
D.
There is no way to do this in the product or outside of the product
currently
E.
By selectively deleting the imported rules by logging into the target
system
F.
By selectively executing delete operations on the database and hope
that you deleted everything

Q.162)
Should you specify Agent Schedule instances as part of your RuleAdmin-Product definition? (Choose One)
A.
YES otherwise none of your agents will work
B.
NO the Agent Schedule instances will be automatically created by the
target PRPC system (Correct Answer)

Q.163)
If user A is working in version 01-01-02 and user B is working in
version 01-01-03 of the same RuleSet, and if user A modifies an activity in his
version which user B is also working on in his version, what does PRPC do ? (Choose
One)
A.
This situation will never occur as PRPC will never allow you to check
out the activity in version 01-01-03 if it has been checked out in version 01-01-02
B.
PRPC will flag the activity in version 01-01-03 with a merge flag which
user B will have to manually resolve by responding to changes that user A
introduced similar to how other SCMS / RCS systems such as ClearCase work
C.
PRPC will not warn User B if User A modifies the activity in a lower
version of the same RuleSet (Correct Answer)
D.
PRPC will warn User B if User A modifies the activity in a lower version
of the same RuleSet by displaying a yellow warning at the bottom of the rule

Q.164)
When adding the data portions to the Rule-Admin-Product, all of these
classes should be included except one. (Choose One)

GE Internal

A.
B.
C.
D.

Data-Admin-Organization
Data-Admin-WorkBasket
Data-Agent-Queue (Correct Answer)
Data-Admin-Operator-AccessGroups

Q.165)
(True or False) RuleSet prerequisites are not part of rule resolution.
(Choose One)
A.
B.

True (Correct Answer)
False

Q.166)
Which of the following statements are true about service packages?
(Choose One)
A.
Service Packages allow you to configure error handling
B.
Service Packages allow you to specify the page name that is created
on the clipboard upon an external request
C.
Services Packages allow you to configure a requestor pool for when
they are stateless and unauthenticated (Correct Answer)
D.
Service Packages allow you to either execute the service
synchronously or queue for later execution

Q.167)
One)

In the context of flow actions, identify the false statement. (Choose

A.
The likelihood value of flow actions is used to determine the order of
presentation of user choices on the Perform Harness
B.
A local flow action may change the status of the work object
C.
By default, local actions are displayed when buttons are used for the
Connector flow actions (Correct Answer)
D.
Two flow action connectors can have the same likelihood

Q.168)
Which two statements are incorrect in regards to Java stack traces and
PRPC? (Choose Two)
A.
They are thrown only to log files when an internal engine class file
throws and exception (Correct Answer)
B.
They are helpful in debugging because it shows you the entire
execution process up until the point of error
C.
They can be found in the log file, or within the application (on the
screen) depending upon where the exception was thrown

GE Internal

D.
They are thrown only when you call the Log-Message and check the
generate stack track checkbox (Correct Answer)

Q.169)
Which of the following rules fit the ?Build for Change? paradigm and
are best candidates for being delegated to business users? (Choose Four)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.

Rule-File-Text
Rule-Declare-Casematch (Correct Answer)
Rule-Declare-Constraints (Correct Answer)
Rule-Declare-DecisionTree (Correct Answer)
Rule-Edit-Validate
Rule-Obj-when (Correct Answer)

Q.170)
Route work to the operator specified in the .RecommendedOperator
property, if the property has a value. Otherwise route work to the ?
GeneralWorkBasket?. Which one of the following approaches is most valid? (Choose
One)
A.
Assigning work to a worklist is an example of push routing and using
get next work to grab work from a workbasket is an example of pull routing (Correct
Answer)
B.
Assigning work to a worklist is an example of pull routing and using get
next work to grab work from a workbasket is an example of push routing
C.
Using a load balancing algorithm to assign work to individual operators
is an example of pull routing
D.
A single application should only use one type of routing, push or pull

Q.171)
Which three of the following statements are false regarding the PRPC
log files? (Choose Three)
A.
The Alert Log contains garbage collection details to help support
performance monitoring (Correct Answer)
B.
The Pega Log details the internal runtime exceptions thrown by the
Application Server (Correct Answer)
C.
The Pega Log contains messages created by the Application Server
D.
The Log Usage Log contains details on how the system is being used
(Correct Answer)
E.
The Alert Log contains only alerts and supports performance
monitoring

Q.172)
Which two of the following statements regarding the Prefight tool are
false? (Choose Two)

GE Internal

A.
Rules identified by the Preflight tool cannot be run in Production unless
corrected (Correct Answer)
B.
The Preflight tool checks the Preflight table to find which rules have
warnings on them (Correct Answer)
C.
The Preflight tool is flexible and allows for you to create your own
custom warnings on rules, possibly to implement additional best practices for a
client
D.
An activity that has a Java step is an example of a rule that would be
identified by the Preflight tool

Q.173)
Which of the following statements are true? Service packages
. (Choose Two)
A.
Answer)
B.
C.
clipboard
D.

are instances of the data class Data-Admin-ServicePackage (Correct
do not need to be deployed to other environments
assess incoming messages and write input parameter values to the
are used to publish deployment artifacts (Correct Answer)

GE Internal