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Candidates Number:..

AHMADU BELLO UNIVERSITY TEACHING HOSPITAL, ZARIA


MEDICAL INTERNS SELECTION INTERVIEW
MAY 30, 2006
INSTRUCTIONS: Please attempt all questions. You are expected to indicate True or
False in front of each of the five options given to each major question as appropriate.
Note that wrong responses will be penalized by deduction of marks.
1. The following structures are part of the vulva:
a.
Vaginal orifice
b.
Urethral meatus
c.
Labia minora
d.
Bartholins glands
e.
Vestibule
2. Pelvic tuberculosis is:
a.
associated with uterine enlargement
b.
associated with oligomenorrhoea
c.
more common in the Northern part of Nigeria than in the South
d.
usually secondary to a primary focus elsewhere
e.
a cause of pelvic pain
3. The mode of action of combined oral contraceptive pills
a.
Inhibition of ovulation
b.
Production of hostile cervical mucus
c.
Increased uterine motility
d.
Production of endometrial hyperplasia
e.
Prevention of implantation
4. Hyperemesis gravidarum is more likely to occur in:
a.
Pregnancy induced hypertension
b.
Molar pregnancy
c.
Multiple pregnancy
d.
Intrauterine fetal death
e.
Fetal tracheo-oesophageal fistula
5. The two most commonly prescribed oxytocic drugs in the third stage of labour:
a.
Syntocinon
b.
Methergin
c.
Syntometrine
d.
Ergometrine
e.
Hydrallazine
6. In Turners syndrome
a. A chromosomal structure of 45 XY is characteristic

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b.
c.
d.
e.

Secondary amenorrhea is usual..


Coarctation of the aorta may occur..
The ovaries are multicystic
Pubic hair is absent..

7. The following are useful for the treatment of endometriosis


a. Danazol
b. Duphaston
c. LHRH analogues
d. The oral contraceptives
e. Prednisolone
8. Radiotherapy for carcinoma of the cervix may cause
a. Vesico-vaginal fistula
b. Pyometra
c. Proctitis
d. Acute salpingitis
e. Ovarian failure
9. Cytotoxic drugs
a. the nitrogen mustard group of drugs are antimetabolic agents
b. Cyclophosphamide is an alkylating agent
c. Methotrexate is an antimitotic agent
d. Androgens have a beneficial effect in certain mammary gland cancers
e. No antibiotic so far developed has a cytotoxic or cytostatic action
10. Drugs in pregnancy
a. Digitalis does not cross the placenta
b. Hydrallazine causes constriction of the placental vessels
c. Methotrexate does not cross the placenta
d. Heparin crosses the placenta
e. Hexamethoneum crosses the placenta
11. The secretion of human growth hormone in the healthy subject is
a. From the basophil cells of the anterior pituitary
b. Increased by hypoglycaemia
c. Increased by stress.
d. Decreased by exercise in the fasting state
e. Reduced after the menopause.
12. Organisms associated with infection of the female urinary tract are
a. Escherichia coli
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Doderleins bacillus
d. Staphylococcus pyogenes
e. Proteus mirabilis

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13. Non-specific vaginitis may be caused by


a. Candida albicans
b. Trichomonas vaginalis
c. Neiseeria gonorrhoea
d. Gardnerella vaginalis
e. All of the above
14. Postmaturity may be associated with
a. Increased operative intervention
b. Increased incidence of hydramnios
c. High perinatal mortality rate
d. Increased incidence of congenital abnormality
e. Increased incidence of cephalo-pelvic disproportion
15. Common causes of death in eclampsia
a. Cerebrovascular accident
b. Renal cortical necrosis
c. Congestive cardiac failure
d. Pulmonary embolism
e. Hyperpyrexia
16. The following are features of neurocutaneous syndrome
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Shagreen patch
Vitiliginous lesions
Retinal phakoma
Erythema marginatum
Nevus flammeus

17. The following are common causes of convulsions in children


a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Acute bacterial meningitis


Hypoglycaemia
Severe anaemia
Hypothermia
Hypocalcaemia

18. With regards to acute epiglottitis in children


a. Haemophilus influenzae type b is the most common implicated
aetiological organism
b. The peak age of incidence is 1-3 years
c. Stridorous respiration and neck stiffness are common presenting features
d. It is an emergency and tracheostomy is usually required
e. Untreated, the mortality rate is about 20%
19. In the newborn

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a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

A birth weight loss of 10% in the first week of life is normal


Hearing ability is well developed
Widely distributed lanugo hair suggest full maturity
Stepping reflex is present
Cannot smile to social overtures

20. The following are recognized bleeding disorders


a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Eagle-Barrett disease
Idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura
Henoch-Schlein disease
Diamond-Blackfan disease
Christmas disease

21. The following are true of childhood cardiovascular disease in Zaria


a. Atrial septal defect is the least common
b. Polycythaemia is uncommonly associated with D-transposition of the
great arteries
c. Prostaglandin E1 can be used to maintain patency of ductus arteriosus
d. Rheumatic heart disease is a common cause of congestive cardiac failure
e. Ebstein anomaly of the tricuspid valve is a cyanotic heart disease
22. The following statements are true concerning nephrotic syndrome
a. Good selectivity index implies that the kidneys filtration mechanism is
still well preserved
b. Minimal change disease is associated with mild systemic hypertension due
to fluid retention
c. Serum cholesterol level is usually increased
d. One must establish a previous history of similar generalized body swelling
before making a diagnosis
e. Presence of red blood cells in the urine suggests greater disease severity
23. In Burkitts lymphoma
a.
b.
c.
d.

The peak age is 3-4 years


The mandible is affected in 50% of cases
The tumour typically metastasizes rapidly to the lungs and bone marrow
Generalized lymphadenopathy occurs in a similar manner as with other
lymphomas
e. Histology typically shows sheets of monomorphic histiocytes with the
malignant cells interspersed
24. The following statements are true of renal tubular acidosis
a. It is associated with hyperchloraemia
b. The distal type is more severe than the proximal type
c. The use of outdated tetracycline is an aetiological factor

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d. There is systemic acidosis
e. The prognosis is uniformly poor
25. With regards to insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
a. Peak incidence is between 1-3 years of age
b. The most commonly associated dehydration is hypernatraemic in nature
c. Laboratory findings include glucosuria, hyperglycaemia and metabolic
acidosis
d. Retinopathy is present in the majority of cases within 5 years of onset
e. Hypoglycaemic agents are the mainstay of treatment
26. The following infestations are acquired by the faeco-oral route
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Schistosomiasis
Enterobiasis
Strongyloidiasis
Amoebiasis
Ascariasis

27. A 3-year old child has been passing watery stools for the past 10 days. He had
been well until the onset of symptoms. His present weight is 13.1 kg.
a. The child has persistent diarrhoea
b. The child is most likely having severe dehydration
c. Features of muscle wasting are likely to be found on further clinical
examination
d. The child should be treated with chloramphenicol and metronidazole
e. Anti-diarrhoeal drugs are contraindicated
28. Munchausen syndrome by proxy is characterized by the following
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Significant mortality
Multiple hospitalization
Induced manifestation by caregiver
Ready admission of guilt by parents
Use of medications or toxins

29. In Down syndrome


a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Endocardial cushion defect is commonly seen


Hypotonia is a constant feature
Mental retardation is a constant feature
Children with the syndrome usually have three fontanelles
90% of them die within the first year of life

30. Signs of digoxin toxicity include


a. Nausea and vomiting
b. Hypersalivation
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c. Constipation
d. Yellow vision
e. Bradycardia
31.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
32.

The following are the cardinal features of intestinal obstruction


Abdominal pain
Constipation
Abdominal distension
Vomiting
Maelena stool
The following are benign conditions of the breast
A. Fibroadenoma
B. Galatocoele
C. Lipoma
D. Ductal carcinoma in situ
E. Fibroadenosis

33.Is an electrolyte (crystalloid) solution


f. 5% dextrose
g. Normal saline
h. Dextrans 40
i. 10% dextrose
j. None of the above
34. Is a cytotoxic drug used in breast cancer
a) Cyclophosphamide
b) 5 fluorouracil
c) Methotrexate
d) Cotrimoxazole
e) Anthracyline
35. Can cause intestinal obstruction
a) Inguinoscrotal hernia
b) Umbilical hernia
c) Adhesion bands
d) Tumours
e) Septicemia
36. The following are malignant tumours of the salivary gland
a) Adenocarcinoma
b) Sarcoidosis
c) Pleomorphic adenoma
d) Papillary cystic adenolymphomasum
e) Mucoid epidermoid tumour

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37. Pleomorphic adenoma is
a) a mixed tumour
b) An oxyntic adenoma
c) The commonest salivary gland tumour
d) Treated by radiation
e) May contain cartilage muscle, myxoid tissue
38. The oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the right by
a) Alkalosis
b) Hypothermia
c) 2, 3 DPG
d) Respiratory depression
e) Hyperthermia
39. The hazards of intra operative blood transfusion include
a) Coagulopathy
b) A shift in the oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve
c) Hypokalaemia
d) Metabolic alkalosis
e) Malaria
40. A stress fracture
a) Usually occurs in young adults
b) Is an avulsion injury?
c) Is due to repeated stressing of the bone
d) Is diagnosed with Technetium bone scan
e) Heals without callus formation
41. Acute haematogenous osteomyelitis
a) Causes ischaemia in the affected part of the limb
b) Is caused by tubercle bacilli
c) Spreads from a nearby lymph nodule
d) Is a common complication of the total hip replacement
e) Involves the metaphysis of the long bones
42. The following are associated with cleft lip and palate
a) Irradiation
b) Steroid therapy
c) Severe viral infection
d) Anticonvulsants
e) Antihistamine
43. Gastrointestinal fistula
a) Congenital fistula are commoner among the adult population
b) May be associated with imperforate anus in the new born
c) Can result from failure from closure of vitello intestinal duct

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d) Are never seen in the female population
e) May involve genitourinary system
44. CSF Rhinorrhea
a) Predisposes to meningitis
b) Occurs in about 25% of patients with middle 3rd fractures
c) Patients complains of sugary taste
d) Has high protein and low sugar content with
e) Persistent CSF leak over 10daya demanding a neurological opinion
45. Preoperative preparation of surgical jaundice patient include
a) Vitamin K
b) 10% glucose infusion
c) Prophylactic antibiotics
d) Urethral catheterization with adequate urinary production
e) ECG for all patients going for surgery
46. Hyperosmolar nonketotic diabetic coma is characterized by the following
a)
It is usually a complication of type 2 diabetes mellitus
b)
It is usually associated with severe dehydration and marked
hyperglycaemia
c)
Ketone bodies are elevated in the blood but negative in the
urine
d)
Requires mainly intravenous fluids and comparatively little
quantity on insulin for treatment
e)
Can be precipitated in a diabetic patient by severe infection.
47. Concerning hepatitis
a) Direct spread by non parenteral route does not occur in
hepatitis B
b) Skin rash and joint pains are more frequently associated
with hepatitis A infection than with hepatitis B
c) Hepatitis A symptoms are usually more severe and last longer than
hepatitis B symptoms
d) Chronic complications are seen more frequently in hepatitis
A than in B
e) All of the above are correct
48. Carcinoma of lung
a) There is no association between asbestosis and this disease
b) There is no association between the inhalation of radioactive and
bronchogenic carcinoma.
c) Peripheral signs manifest in the patient very early
d) Small cell anaplastic type is highly malignant
e) Horners syndrome is a feature

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49. Acute glomerulonephritis
a) Has a better prognosis in adults
b) May be complicated by nephritic syndrome
c) Has a high mortality in children
d) Is associated with haematuria
e) Follows streptococcal throat infection
50. The jugular venous pressure:
a) May be elevated in a patient with large ascites
b) Is useful in diagnosing tricuspid incompetence
c) Is affected by raised systemic venous pressure
d) Confirms the presence of mitral stenosis
e) Is measured from the manubrium bone
..
CIVILSERVICE QUESTIONS
51.

The following are types of leave that can be granted to a civil servant:
a) Annual leave
b) Maternity leave
c) Sabbatical leave
d) French leave
e) Mortality leave

52.

The following are circumstances that could lead to dismissal of a civil servant:
a) Wife beating
b) Divided loyalty
c) Drunkenness
d) Absenteeism
e) Divorce

53.

The following are punitive measures that can be taken against an erring officer:
a) Warning
b) Scolding
c) Interdiction
d) Jailing
e) Suspension

54.

The functions of a Registry include:


a) Opening of files
b) Take a custody of files
c) Indexing of documents in files
d) Receiving mails
e) Welcoming of visitors

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55.

Conditions under which a serving officer may be required to retire from service
include:
a) When an officer has served for 25 years
b) On ground of ill-health
c) On attaining the age of 80 years
d) Re-organization of the service
e) On account of public interest

56.

The following documents are needed for opening a file for newly employed
officer:
a) Bio-data of parents
b) Letter of appointment
c) Letter of acceptance
d) Medical certificate of fitness
e) Letter of assumption

57.

The means of official communication in the Civil Service include:


a) Letter
b) Courier..
c) Circular
d) Memorandum..
e) Meetings

58.

Allowances that are paid along with workers salary include:


a) Rent subsidy
b) Vehicle loan.
c) Utility allowance.
d) Meal reimbursement
e) Leave allowance

59.

60.

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS


Which of the following Nigerian States have reserves of crude oil?
a) Borno State
b) Bayelsa State
c) Cross River State
d) Oyo Sate
e) Ondo State
The official language in each of these countries is as matched with them:
a) Brazil: English
b) Argentina: Spanish
c) Mozambique: Portuguese
d) Tanzania: French
e) Cameroon: English & French

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