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1. Which factor determines the depth of BSR in marine sediments?

a)
seafloor temperature
b)
depth of seafloor
c)
geothermal gradient
d)
all of above
2. Influx of higher order hydrocarbon makes the depth of BSR shallower. (True / False)
3.The probable cause of amplitude blanking above BSR is
a)
macroscopic squirt flow
b)
velocity of hydrate
c)
polarity of reflection
d)
none of above
4. Gas content in gas hydrate is
a)
thermogenic
b)
biogenic
c)
both
d)
none
5. The polarity of BSR is
a)
same as that of seafloor
b)
opposite to that of seafloor
c)
zero phase
d)
none
6. Geothermal gradient normally increases with depth (True/False)
7. The easiest way to recognize a BSR when
a)
it is parallel to the beds
b)
it cuts across the beds
c)
none
d)
both

8. Subsistence grant may be enhanced upto a maximum of :


a) 75%
b) 30%
c) 42%
d) cannot be enhanced under any circumstances
9. Deemed suspension can be ordered by the
a. any disciplinary authority
b. appointing authority
c. controlling officer
d. none of the above
10. Leave can be granted to the employee under suspension
a. yes
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b. no
c. may be
d. dont know
11. For claiming subsistence grant the monthly certificate is required as under
a. non employment elsewhere
b. medical fitness
c. conduct certificate
d. none of the above
12. Subsistence grant is payable under deemed suspension on
a. being released on bail
b. while continuing to be detained in police custody
c. on receipt of FIR
d. none of the above
13. suspension is dealt with under CDA rules defined in
a. rule 33
b. rule 38
c. rule 36
d. rule 34
14. Periodic review of suspension is required to carried out every
a. 6 months
b. year
c. month
d. none of the above
15. Major penalty action is initiated under rule
a. 38
b. 34
c. 36
d. 33
16. Minor penalty action is initiated under rule
a. 38
b. 34
c. 36
d. 33

33: Suspension
34: Nature of penalties both Major and minor
35: Disciplinary authority
36: Procedure for implementing major penalty.
37: Action on inquiry report
38: Procedure of imposing minor penalty
17. Nature of penalties are stipulated under rule 46: Appealing to authority
a. 38
b. 34
c. 36
d. 33
18. Appeal can be preferred only once
a. True
b. False
c. dont know
d. none of the above
19. CEA is admissible while under suspension
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a.
b.
c.
d.

True
false
dont know
none of the above

20. Inquiry may be held under minor penalty action


a. True
b. false
c. dont know
d. none of the above
21. Proforma S to be filed by executives in case of the
transactions exceeding
a) Rs.50,000/b) Rs.5,000/c) Rs.10,000/d) None of the above
22. IPR/MPR to be filed by employee on 1st Jan.of every
a) Odd year
b) Year
c) Dont know
d) None of the above
23.

The compulsory rate of contribution for the employees for CPF is of salary:
a. 9%
b. 10%
c. 11%d. 12%

24.

The employee cannot contribute more than the compulsory amount to their Provident
Fund Account:
(True / False)

25.

Nominee of the employee for Provident Fund must be a family member only:
(True/ False)

26.

The present rate of interest earned on Provident Fund accumulations is:


a. 8%
b. 8.5%
c. 9%
d. 9.5%

27.

Salary for Provident Fund contribution purposes means Basic+DA+HRA


(True / False)

28.

Non-Refundable Advance can be taken by the employee for treatment of serious


medical ailments:
(True / False)

29.

As per guidelines of Ministry of Finance and Company Affairs, the percentage of


investment in Central Govt. Securities must be atleast:
a.
20% b. 25%
c. 30%
d. 35%

30.

As per the guidelines of Ministry of Finance and Company Affairs, ONGC ECPF can
invest in TDRs of Public Sector Banks of duration less than one year:
(True / False)

31.

As per guidelines of Ministry of Finance and Company Affairs, ONGC ECPF can
invest in equity shares of PSU of Central Government.
(True / False)
3

32.

The Board of Trustees of ONGC ECPF consists of members including the


Chairman:
a.
4
b.
5
c.
6
d.
7

33.

What is the hydrocarbon range of gasoline fraction?


a. C1-C4
b. C5 C10 c. C11-C13
d. C14-C18

34.

Which is the formula to determine API gravity?


a.
[141.5/S.G 60F]- 131.5
b. [131.5/S.G 60F]- 141.5
c.
[141.5/S.G 60F]- 131.0
d. None of these

35.

API gravity of crude oils depends on the content of:


a. CQH
b. NSO
c. Larger molecules than C2O
d. All the above

36.

Crude oil price depends on which factor?


a. API Gravity
b. Pour point
c. Distillation
d. None of these

37.

What is called sour crude?


a. Sulfur > 1%
b. Sulfur <1%

c. H2S

d. CO2

38.

What is called sweet crude?


a. Small amount of H2S b. Small amount of CO2
c. Sulfur <0.5%
d. Contains all of above

39.

The price of sweet crude is more than sour crude. Why?


a. High sulfur
b. Low sulfur
c. High API

d. Low API

40.

The commercial value of crude oil is low for API of > 50. Why?
a. High gasoline
b. Low gasoline
c. Both of these
d. None of these.

41.

The water content of crude oil acceptable by refinery.


a. 5-10%
b. 0-5%
c. >1%
d. <1%

42.

The wax content of the crude oil depends on:


a. More paraffin
b. Less paraffin
c. More aromatics

43.

The total life span of a CBM project is usually:


a. 20 years b. 30 years c. 40 years

44.

Which of the following best describes Coal Bed Methane:


a. Natural gas
b. Unconventional source of energy

d. More NSO

c. Biogas

45.

Which of the following country is the leader in Coalbed Methane Exploration and
Production:
a. United Kingdom b. United States of America
c. China

46.

The first well to flow Coalbed Methane in India is located in:


a. Raniganj Coalfield
b. Jharia Coalfield c. Bokaro Coalfield
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47.

The total number of CBM Blocks presently held by ONGC, either jointly or in standalone capacity including nomination-blocks are:
a. Seven
b. Eight
c. Nine

48.

Methane gas within coal dominantly occurs as:


a. Adsorbed gas Dissolved gas
c. Free gas

49.

The Pilot or appraisal phase (Phase-II) of a CBM project establishes the:


a. Existence of coal
b. Producibility of CBM and Customer base
c. Quality of the gas produced

50.

CBM gas is produced from a well:


a. Through tubing b. Through annulus

c. By other arrangements

51.

The CBM gas production in USA constitutes about:


a. 3-4% of the total gas production
b. 5-6% of the total gas production
c. 8-10% of the total gas production

52.

Coalbed Methane Exploration in ONGC is for:


a. AMM
b. CMM
c. VCBM

53.

SRP mode of Artificial lift is not used in offshore because of :


i.
High cost
ii.
Low discharge
iii.
Space limitations
iv.
None of the above

54.

81.
Raising of GRVs are not necessary for petty purchases of consumables up to:
a. Rs. 500
b. Rs.1500
c. Rs.2500 d. Rs.5000

55.

What are the mode of Artificial lift operation to lift the oil?
a. SRP only
b. Electrical submersible pump only
c. Gas lift only
d. All the above

55.

In Mumbai offshore which is most economically viable mode of oil production:


a. SRP only
b. Electrical submersible pump only
c. Gas lift only
d. All the above

56.

In GGS (Group Gathering Station) oil and water is being separated in:
a. bath heater
b. Heater treater c. in both

57.

SRP pump is suitable to lower/ install to lift oil where:


a. Sand problem occurs b. Wax problem occurs c. in both cases

58.

Before Gas injection to well (in annulus) to lift oil through Gas lift valve:
a. It is compressed and then to be injected b. It is injected as such produced from
installation c. Either of the case may apply

59.

In oil wells flow rate is being regulated:


a. Through Bean (Restriction) in flow line in high producing wells.
b. by putting orifice in flow line
c. both are incorrect.
5

60.

Water produced from wells after separation in GGS/ Offshore installation is being
used for:
a. Water injection
b. Insitu combustion
c. in Gas injection

61.

The purpose of expansion joint in a tubing string with packer is:


a. To provide means for wire-line operations
b. Selective stimulation
c. To nullify the stress on packer due to tubing movements

62.

The main disadvantage in using drilling mud as a completion fluid is:


a. Unstable with temperature variation
b. Highly damaging to formation due to invasion by filtrate and/or solid particles
c. Highly corrosive

63.

The purpose of sliding sleeves is:


a. To establish communication between annulus and tubing
b. To nullify stresses on the tubing string
c. To prevent tubing leakages
Which of the following is not a type of artificial lift technique?
a. SRP
b. Gas lift
c. EOR
d. ESP

64.

65. Which of the following is not a type of completion equipment


a. Production tubing
b. X-mas tree
c. Blow out Preventor (BOP)
66.

A healthy well does not


a. Maximize ultimate recovery
b. Maximize total costs over well life
c. Reduced time and cost for maintenance.

67. Which of the following is not a type of well in oil industry


a. Sub sea wells
b. Horizontal wells
c. Drinking water well
d. Insitu Combustion Well.
68.
69.

Perforations in a well are not done by:


a. Bullet perforating gun b. Jet perforating gun

c. Double barrel gun

Which of the following cannot be a well completion fluid


a. Drilling mud
b. Brine
c. Nitrogen

70. Which of the following is not a quality of a healthy well


a. Good cementation
b. Integrity of tubing and casing
c. Good production of water
d. Good condition of X-mas tree
71. Demulsification is used in processing of Oil/ Gas in GGS for:
a. Removing sand from liquid
b. Avoiding the wa x deposition in tubing/ pipelines
c. Separation of oil & water
72.

Artificial lift methods are used in case of:


a. Oil Production only
b. Gas production only
c. both
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73. Gas produced from gas field contains:


a. Gas, Water, condensate
b. Gas, Water vapour, condensate
c. Gas, Water vapour, condensate in vapour phase.
74.

75.

A packer is used in:


a. Gas lift wells

b. SRP well

c. ESP wells

Open tenders are invited for cases above:


a. Rs. 5 lakhs
b. Rs. 10 lakhs
c. Rs. 15 lakhs

d. Rs. 25 lakhs

75.

EMD/ Bid Bond is required to be submitted by the firms:


a. For satisfactory execution of the Contract.
b. For ensuring the eamestness of honouring the bid commitment
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above.

76.

Security deposit/ Performance Bond is required to be submitted by the firms:


a. For satisfactory execution of the Contract.
b. For ensuring the eamestness of honouring the bid commitment
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above.

77.

Excise duty is levied by:


a. Central Govt.
b. State Govt.

c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of these

In term PEL/ML, ML stands for:


a. Material lease
b. Mining lease

c. Material lost

78.

d. None of these

79.

The basics of tendering in PSUs are:


a. Laid down procedure
b. Equal opportunity to all the bidders
c. Fairness
d. All of the above

80.

On the actions of Tendering by PSUs, the judiciary applies which of the following
checks:
a. Bonafide (No malafide) b. Bias or favour
d. None of the above

c. Both (a) and (b)

81.

Governance is setting the


a.
guidelines and framework for achieving results
b.
guidelines and framework for achieving profits
c.
guidelines and framework for employees to follow,
d.
All of the above.

82.

The guiding principles of Corporate Governance are


a.
Social responsibility, communication & Delegation of Power,
b.
Transparency, Accountability, social responsibility, communication and ethics
c.
Code of Conduct,
d.
All of the above.

83.

The term corporate governance was coined by the,


a.
Cadbery Committee (U.K.) in its report (submitted in December, 1992)
7

b.
c.
d.

Cadbery Committee (USA) in its report (submitted in December, 1990)


Company Law Board of UK,
HRM experts like Susan M. Field.

84.

Corporate Governance is the realization on the part of the Directors of the Company
that they are accountable and this must be made
a.
widely known to all the Board of Directors
b.
widely known to all the employees
c.
widely known to all the stake holders
d.
All of the above.

85.

The Board of Directors of ONGC currently consists of


a.
6 Executive Directors+ CMD/ 9 Non-Executive Directors
b.
8 Executive Directors+ CMD/ 9 Non-Executive Directors
c.
7 Executive Directors+ CMD/ 8 Non-Executive Directors
d.
7 Executive Directors+ CMD/ 10 Non-Executive Directors

86.

Which of the following are Committees formed in ONGC under Corporate


Governance:
a.

Human Resources Management Committee

b.

Project Appraisal Committee

c.

Share Transfer Committee

d.

Business Development & Overseas Operations Committee

e.

All of the above

87.

For governance to be effective, a company needs to be sensitive to


a.
Employee Welfare
b.
Employee attitudes to corporate ethics
c.
Policy Guidelines
d.
SEBI guidelines, Companys Act and other statuary provisions.

88.

ONGC, was vested with enhanced autonomy/delegation of powers in


a.
July 1997
b.
July 1999
c.
July 1998
d.
July 2001

89.

Name any Four Major Corporate scams in the recent past in India?

US-64, Shaw Wallace, ITC, Tata Finance, Reliance Power, Enron

90.

Write any 2 major roles of Board of Directors?


Vision, Mission and Objective Setting
Succession planning
Building Competencies
8

91 Write any 4 main HR functions?


Recruitment and selection
Training and development
Career planning and succession planning
Reimbursement of claims

92

Which are the Allied disciplines of HR? (Write any Four).


Medical
Fire
Security
Legal
IR
Corporate Communication

93

Define Q-1 Qualification as per R&P Regulations?


Msc, BE, CA with 60% of marks

94

Which are critical HR issues before the Company? (Write any Three).
Higher Attrition rate
Retention at E-4 level
Stagnation at middle level
Mismatch berween level and competencies

95

What measures can be taken to improve HR functions? (Write any 2).


Training of the executives
Policy modification

96

What is the total Manpower in ONGC as on 01.03.2006?


~35000

97

What do you understand by the term Vision?


Or
What is the Key theme of HR Vision of ONGC?

To attain organizational excellence by developing and inspiring the true potential of the
companys human capital and providing opportunities for growth well being and enrichment

98

What is the theme of HR Mission of ONGC?

To create a value and knowledge base organization by enculcating a culture of


learning innovation and team working and aligning business priorities with aspiration of
employees leading to development of an empower responsive and competent human capital.

99

What do you understand by the term HRM? (Write in One/ Two sentences).

Human Resource Management- Its a module of ICE which looks after true potential of
human capital for organizational excellence.

100.

Write HR dimensions applicable in all other functions of an organisation?

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101

102

103

104

105

106

107

108

109

110

Which of the following statement is true about a Jack up rig:


a) It can operate in any water depth
b) It can operate up to 1000 m water depth
c) Its use is limited to 100 m water depth
Which of the following statement is true about an Independent Leg Jack up rig:
a) All three legs can be lowered and raised independently
b) All three legs are lowered and raised together only
c) Legs are fixed and can not be lowered or raised
Which of the following statement is true about a Mat type Jack up rig:
a) All three legs can be lowered and raised independently
b) All three legs are connected together and lowered and raised
together
c) Legs fixed and can not be lowered or raised
Dynamically Positioned (DP) drill ships can operate in
a) Water depth up to 100 m
b) Water depth up to 1500 m
c) Water depth up to 3000 m
The most sturdy rig for cyclonic weather and rough sea area is:
a) Jack up rig
b) Semi submersible rig
c) Drill ship
The rig suitable for a far off location and with a large capacity to hold consumables
on deck:
a) Semi submersible rig
b) Drill ship
c) Jack up rig
Which of the following type of rig experiences lesser affect of rough sea and has
much lower operational downtime due to rough sea and bad weather:
a)
Drill ship
b)
Semi submersible rig
Deep water drilling programme of ONGC is called
a)
Sagar Unnati
b)
Sagar Super Unnati
c)
Sagar Vridhdhi
d)
Sagar Samridhi
Which of the following statement is true about a Mat type Jack up rig:
a)
It is suitable for jacking up in hard sea bed
b)
It is suitable for jacking up in highly uneven sea bed
c)
It is suitable for jacking up in very soft and even sea bed
d)
It is suitable for jacking up in sea bed congested with
pipelines & debris
The two types of system for positioning floaters on location is:
a)
Independent leg and mat type
b)
Anchor mooring and Dynamically positioning
c)
Legs along with anchors
d)
No system required

11

111. Indicate whether expenditure on following activities is Plan expenditure or Non


Plan expenditure :
a. Expenditure incurred on Exploratory wells which have proved dry.P
b. Expenditure on Survey activityP
c. Purchase of New Logging unitor which no provision was kept at budget stage.
P
d. Expenditure on marketing of oil & gas.NP
112.Total Capex of ONGC for 2005-06 was :a. Rs 1000 Cr
b. Rs 5000 Cr
c. Rs 10000 Cr
d. Rs 15000 Cr
113. In ONGC, budget is prepared on :a. Cash Basis
b. Accrual Basis
114. At what stage budget is utilized:
a. Creation of Purchase Requisition
b. Placement of Purchase Order
c. Opening of Letter of Credit.
d. Supply of materials/ Utilisation of Services
115. write the full forms of :a. BDP
b. RE
c. BE
d. CBE
e .FCNR
116.ONGC has taken credit rating from which of the following rating agencies:a. Moodys
b. Crisil
c. ICRA
d. All above
117.Indicate true or false for the following statements regarding re appropriation powers:
a. Reappropriation powers are not delegated below Directors level T
b. Reappropriation from Plan to Non Plan expenditure is allowed. F
c.Un utilized funds of one year can be reappropriated to meet the requirements of
funds in next year. T
d.Funds can be reappropriated from one work center to another with the approval of
competent authority. F
e.Power of unbudgeted expenditure are the same as that for reappropriation from one
head to another. F

118.Write the full form of the following:a. NPV


b. IRR
12

c. TDR
d. CAG
e. FBT
119.What is the minimum IRR for acceptance of the projects:a. 8%
b.10%
c.12%
d.14%
120.Total Subsidy (discount) shared by ONGC for under recoveries by Oil Marketing
Companies during FY 2005-06 is Rs_________Cr.
121.Total Paid up capital of ONGC is Rs _____________Cr.
122.No. of Navratna Directors on ONGC Board____4______.
123.In new BDP2004, powers of expenditure sanction have been broadly vested with
a. designation of employee
b. position in CRC structure
124.While sanctioning expenditure, sanctioning authority has to ensure certain rules of
Properiety. Name them:-

125.ONGC accounts are audited by three different agencies. Name them:-

126.As per SEBI guidelines for listed companies, ONGC is required to declare its
results :a.monthly
b.quarterly
c.half yearly
d.annual
127. Under package insurance policy of ONGC, Assets are insured at:a. Original Purchase value
b. Book value (Depreciated net block)
c. Replacement value

127. Under income tax act, depreciation benefit is allowed for reduction in taxable income
on:13

a. Purchase of Assets
b.On actual payment on purchase of Assets
c.On commissioning of Assets (Assets put to use)
d.On Assets kept in Stock (Capital items on stock)
128. Expenditure on Dry wells is allowed as deductible expenditure from business income
of ONGC on:a.On completion of target depth of drilling
b.On declaration of well as dry
c.On surrender of PEL (Production Exploration Licence)
d.On conversion of PEL to Mining Lease (ML)
129. Investment power delegated to C&MD and Director (Finance) is upto:a. Rs 1000 Cr
b. Rs 5000 Cr
c. Rs 10000 Cr
d. Rs 20000 Cr
130. Individual Banks exposure limit for investment of surplus funds by ONGC is :a. upto 2% of Net Worth of each Bank
b. upto 5% of Net Worth of each Bank
c. upto 10% of Net Worth of each Bank
d.upto 20% of Net Worth of each Bank
131.What is the Debt Equity ratio for ONGC:a.<0.10
b.0.20
c.0.50
d.1.00
132. Surplus funds of ONGC are invested in:a.Mutual Funds
b.In Shares of A category companies
c.Short term deposits with the Banks
d. All above.
133.Which of the following is not an economic indicator?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Net Present value


Economic Rent
Internal Rate of Return
Payback Period

134.Sum of the present values of the annual net cash flow is the
a) NPV (Net Present Value)
b) NCF (Net Cash Flow)
c) Net Capital Expenditure
d) a) and c) both

14

135.In the Present Value Formula


PV= FVn / (1+r)n
(1+r)n is known as
a) Discount Rate
b) No. of years
c) Future value of a payment
d) Discount Factor
136.The NPV ---------------- when discount rate increases
a)
b)
c)
d)

Increases
Decreases
Remains same
Is unaffected

137.When NPV @ 12% discounting is US$ 100 MM, it means project earns
e)
f)
g)
h)

<12% rate of return


US $ 100 MM$ + 12%
US $ 100 MM$ - 12%
US $ 100 MM

138.If the project start is delayed


a)
b)
c)
d)

NPV will decrease


NPV will increase
NPV will not be affected
None of the above

139. IRR is
a) The discount rate for which all discounted negative cash flows are more
than all discounted positive cash flows
b) The discount rate for which all discounted negative cash flows are less than
all discounted positive cash flows
c) The discount rate at which the NPV becomes zero
d) None of the above
140.A discounted cash flow is
a) A cash flow adjusted for the time value of money
b) A form of present value analysis
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above
141.Takes time into account
a)
b)
c)
d)

IRR
NPV
Pay Out Period
All of above
15

142. A typical net cash flow looks like following, the 2 nd phase of negative cash flow at
the end of project life is due to
a)
b)
c)
d)

Capital Expenditure
Operating Expenditure
Abandonment cost
All of the above

+ve

Net
Cash
Flow
Time
-ve

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