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Criminalistics Review Questions

1. There is freehand invitation and is considered as the most skilful
class of forgery
A. simulated or copied forgery
B. simple forgery
C. traced forgery
D. carbon tracing
2. Condensed and compact set of authentic specimen which is
adequate and proper, should contain a cross section
of the material from known sources.
A. disguised document
B. questioned document
C. standard document
D. requested document
3. Specimens of hand writing or of typescript which is of known
origin.
A. Letters
B. Samples
C. Exemplars
D. Documents
4. A document which is being questioned because of its origin, its
contents or the circumstances or the stories of its production.
A. disputed document
B. standard document
C. requested document
D. questioned document
5. The art of beautiful writing is known as
A. Drafting
B. Calligraphy
C. Art appreciation
D. Gothic
6. Any written instrument by which a right or obligation is
established.
A. Certificate
B. Subpoena
C. Warrant
D. Document
7. A type of fingerprint pattern in which the slope or downward flow
of the innermost sufficient recurve is towards the thumb of radius
A. ulnar loop
B. tented arch
C. accidental whorl
D. radial loop
8. The forking or dividing of one line to two or more branches.
A. Ridge
B. Island
C. Delta

bone of the hand of origin.

D. Bifurcation
9. The point on a ridge at or in front of and nearest the center of
the divergence of the type lines.
A. Divergence
B. Island
C. Delta
D. Bifurcation
10.The following are considerations used for the identification of a
loop except one:
A. Delta
B. Core
C. a sufficient recurve
D. a ridge count across a looping bridge
11.The process of recording fingerprint through the use of fingerprint
ink.
A. Pathology
B. Fingerprinting
C. Dactyloscopy
D. Printing press
12.The fingerprint method of identification.
A. Pathology
B. Fingerprinting
C. Dactyloscopy
D. Printing press
13.Two lines that run parallel or nearly parallel, diverge and surround
A. Ridges
B. Delta
C. Type line
D. Bifurcation

the pattern area.

14.A part of the whorl or loop in which appear the cores, deltas and
ridges.
A. type line
B. bifurcation
C. pattern area
D. furrow
15.Fingerprints left on various surfaces at the crime scene which are
not clearly visible.
A. plane impressions
B. visible fingerprints
C. rolled impressions
D. latent fingerprints
16.The impressions left by the patterns of ridges and depressions on
various surfaces.
A. kiss marks
B. finger rolls
C. thumb marks
D. fingerprints
17.Which among the following is not considered as a basic fingerprint

pattern?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Arch
Accidental
Loop
Whorl

18.The minimum identical characteristics to justify the identity
between two points.
A. Eighteen
B. Fifteen
C. Twelve
D. Nine
19.A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of
spirals around core axes.
A. whorl
B. double loop
C. central pocket loop
D. accidental
20.A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter on either side
of the impression by a recurve, and terminate on the same side
where the ridge has entered.
A. Loop
B. radial loop
C. ulnar loop
D. tented arch
21.A person allowed who gives his/her opinion or conclusion on a
given scientific evidence is considered
A. interrogator
B. expert witness
C. prosecutor
D. judge
22.The application of scientific knowledge and techniques in the
detection of crime and apprehension of criminals.
A. Law Enforcement Administration
B. Forensic Administration
C. Criminal Psychology
D. Criminalistics
23.Lens that is characterized by a thicker center and thinner sides.
A. concave lens
B. convex lens
C. negative lens
D. positive lens
24.The normal developing time of a paper or film.
A. 30-60 minutes
B. 20-30 minutes
C. 5-10 minutes
D. 1- 2 minutes
25.This part of a camera is used to allow light to enter the lens for
a predetermined time interval.
A. holder of sensitized material
B. view finder

shutter D. A. Cardiosphygmograph B. A.A part of a camera used in focusing the light from the subject A. C. Questions must be clear and phrased in a language the subject can easily understand. Kymograph 32. B. Cardiosphygmograph B.The following are specific rules to be followed in the formulation of the questions in a polygraph test except one. Pneumograph C.A component of the polygraph instrument which is a motor that drives or pulls the chart paper under the recording pen simultaneously at the rate of 6 or 12 inches per minute. A. lens C. Kymograph 30. A. view finder 26. Questions must be as short as possible. A. Galvanograph D. Pneumograph C. D. Pneumograph C. Questions must all be in the form of accusations 33. Kymograph 31. long lens C. Cardiosphygmograph B. Sodium Carbonate C.A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of its negative material.C. the mind . Forgery B. Questions must be answerable by yes or no. Galvanograph D. Hydroquinone 28. In “ polygraph examination”.Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer solution. wide angle lens 27. telephoto lens B. A. light tight box 29. normal lens D.A component of the polygraph instrument which records the breathing of the subject. the term “ examination” means a detection of A.A component of the polygraph instrument which records the blood pressure and the pulse rate of the subject. Emotion C. shutter D. Potassium Bromide B. view finder B. Galvanograph D. Sodium Sulfite D.

The deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant question. A type of primer with two vents or flash holes. The unstable rotating motion of the bullet is called A. The study of the effect of the impact of a projectile on the target. The pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight. Prepare subject for polygraph test B. This refers to the deflection of the bullet from its normal path after striking a resistant surface. Extractor B. A. deception 34. Forensic Ballistics 38. Gyroscopic action 39. Velocity D. A. Velocity D. Trigger 40. Bordan primer . The primary purpose of pre-test interview. Response D. Yaw C. Internal Ballistics C.D. Make the subject calm D. specific response C. Trajectory B. Stimuli C. The part of the mechanism of a firearm that withdraws the shell or cartridge from the chamber. Key hole shot 42. Mushroom C. Obtain confession C. Ricochet D. Striker D. A. Trajectory 41. Yaw B. Range C. Fear B. A. A. Ejector C. External Ballistics D. Explain the polygraph test procedures 36. reaction 37. A. A. A. Misfire B. normal response D. which appears to go beyond a person’s defensive power. It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger. Reaction 35. positive response B. Terminal Ballistics B.

This refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of the bore. extended standards D. Standards which are prepared upon the request of the investigator and for the purpose of comparison with the questioned document. Yaw C. Gyproscopic action 45. Boxer Primer 43. It is the measurement of the bore diameter from land to land. The name of a person written by him/her in a document as a sign . Questioned Document 48.B. swaging B. A. Rifling 46. A. breaching 44. Any stroke which goes back over another writing stroke. Charles Waite C. A document in which some issues have been raised or is under scrutiny. A. Mean diameter C. A. The following are characteristics of forgery except one: A. Void Document B. shading 51. Baterry Primer D. Illegal Document C. A. Trajectory B. Forged Document D. requested standards 50. A. A. Velocity D. Multiple Pen Lifts C. Calvin Goddard 47. It refers to the unstable rotating motion of the bullet. Patchwork Appearance 49. retracing A. Hans Gross B. relative standards B. rifling D. natural variation B. Albert Osborne D. Presence of Natural Variation B. rhythm C. collected standards C. Calibre B. He is known as the Father of Ballistics. Berdan Primer C. Show bad quality of ink lines D. Gauge D. ogive C.

mechanical erasure B. forged document C. pen emphasis D. Opinion B. Shading B. It is the periodic increase in pressure. inserted document B. A. compared document Answer: C 54. The detection and identification of poisons. . Obliteration D. An instrument that can be legally used in comparison with a questioned document. A. A. private document Answer: D 53. A kind of document which is executed by a private person without the intervention of a notary public. Collation C. A. private document B. its origin is known and can be proven. Signature D. magnetic erasure D. commercial document B. pen lift C. pen pressure Answer: D 58. public document D. A. chemical erasure Answer: A 57. standard document D. A. A. official document C. obliterated document Answer: B 56. razor blade or picking instrument. commercial document C. electronic erasure C. simulated document B. or of competent public official. A kind of document executed by a person in authority and by private parties but notarized by competent officials.of acknowledgement. A document which contains some changes either as an addition or deletion. Document C. public document D. by which some disposition of agreement is proved. altered document C. of the ink stroke. disputed document D. The process of making out what is illegible or what has been effaced. Decipherment Answer: D 55. official document Answer: C 59. A kind of erasure by using a rubber eraser. characterized by widening A. Comparison B. Handwriting Answer: C 52. sharp knife.

Fingerprint B. A. A forensic chemist is tasked to examine the chemical nature and A. LSD C. saliva C. “shabu” Answer: D 64. Coke B. Prisoners D. area of operation D. In forensic examination. A. prosecutor D. Demerol B. police line C. corpus delicti Answer: D 66. Who qualifies a forensic chemist as expert? A. urine Answer: D 61. A. area of responsibility Answer: A 65. body of the victim C. Caffeine C. The specimen that is preferably used in the determination of abused drugs in the body. criminology D. the chemist himself/herself Answer: B 63. body fluid D. Number restoration is necessary in determining whether there is tampering of serial number in A. Morphine D. The body of the crime. Explosives C.A. D. An area surrounding the place where the crime occurred. crime scene B. C. Typewriter B. nicotine Answer: C 67. a tip of the hair is examined to determine if it was composition of the following except one: . Evidence B. defense lawyer B. Blood D. Bank notes Answer: B 68. Bacteriology Posology Toxicology Chemistry Answer: C 60. Methamphetamine hydrochloride is commonly known as A. Firearm C. Heroin D. judge C. blood B. B. A. One of the following is a derivative of the opium poppy. Body fluids Answer: A 62.

A. Barberio’s Test C. Forensic Medicine B. C. Moulage D. Blood test Answer: C 70. Saliva test B. D. Lime B. Phenolphtalein Test Answer: C 75.A. Casting B. All of the following are accurate tests for the presence of alcohol A. Ultra-Violet Test Answer: A 74. A. Cementing C. Microscopic Test D. Florence Test B. Irritants C. Fecal test D. Extraction Answer: C 72. A. Dilution C. Soda C. Criminalistics D. A. The process in reproducing physical evidence by plaster moulds. A. Depressants D. Volatile poisons may be isolated by means of this process. Sticking Answer: C 73. Bend Folded Stretched Cut Answer: D 69. Florence Test B. A. Silica D. Poisons which produce stupor and less feeling. A. The test used to determine the presence of semen particularly in stained clothing. B. Takayama Test D. Distillation D. Barberio’s Test C. The application of chemical principles and processes in the examination of evidence. Dialysis B. Stimulants Answer: A in the human body except one: . It is the major component of a glass. Forensic Evidence C. Forensic Chemistry Answer: D 71. The test used to determine the presence of blood in stained material. Narcotics B. Gel Answer: C 76. Harger Breath Test C.

Alec Jeffries B. Deoxy Nucleic Acid Answer: B 84. The cause of death of a person who immediately died because of lack of oxygen for around 3 to five minutes. Molecular death C. Stupor D. William Reynolds D. DNA stands for A. circulation and almost all brain function of an organism. Deonatural Acid B. glass Answer: D 78. dry ice B.77. A. A. Liver Answer: A 81. Cellular Death D. A. persistent cessation of respiration. minimum of two weeks Answer: C 83. The study and identification of body fluids. Immunology Answer: B 79. Cells C. minimum of four weeks D. Asphyxia C. Somatic death Answer: D 82. Blood typing B. A. A. Blood B. The approximate time for the completion of one case for DNA Testing. Denaturalized Acid D. cartridge case C. Serology C. A. The circulating tissue of the body. Exhaustion Answer: B . Apparent death B. minimum of eight weeks B. Van Berkom C. A. gel D. Pharmacology B. The Geneticist from Great Britain who pioneered DNA testing and fingerprinting. Muscles D. Deoxyribonucleic Acid C. Lowell C. The complete. Henry Van Dyke Answer: A 85. A. Posology D. A supercooled liquid which possess high viscosity and rigidity. The test to determine whether blood is of human origin or not. continuous. Preliminary Test Answer: B 80. Confirmatory Test D. minimum of six weeks C. Stroke B. Precipitin Test C.

virgo-intacts B. A. coup injury D. Hematoma B. Sunburn Answer: C 87. lacerated wound D. Dislocation Answer: D 91. incised wound B. A. trench foot C. primary flaccidity C.86. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as club and stone. A discoloration of the body after death when the blood tends to pool in the blood vessels of the most dependent portions of the body and starts 20 to 30 minutes after death and is completed by 12 hours. rigor mortis Answer: A 88. The most serious burn involving skin. muscles and bones. moral virginity D. A condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain parts of the body which produces mechanical disruption of cell structure characterized by cold stiffening and diminished body. trauma C. livor mortis B. physical virginity Answer: A . gangrene Answer: C 92. A wound which if inflicted in the body so serious that it will endanger one’s life. causing death due to loss of fluids and electrolytes in the body and massive infection. A. First Degree Burn B. A. Sprain D. Third Degree Burn D. immersion foot B. maceration D. frostbite D. A condition of women who have had one or more sexual experience but not had conceived a child. nerves. Fracture C. mortal wound B. demi-virginity C. A displacement of the articular surface of the bone without external wounds. Second Degree Burn C. A. A. hack wound C. superficial wound Answer: A 89. punctured wound Answer: C 90. A.

rigor mortis Answer: B 94. A. A. Forensic Ballistics C. Simon’s Test Answer: C ` . Chemistry Answer: A 100. The scientific detection of deception. Toxicology D. physical evidence Answer: D 95. paraffin test D. A. diffusion lividity C. A. Forensic Ballistics D. testimonial evidence B. Instrument used in the measurement of temperature. Forensic Chemistry C. hyper lividity D. Dactyloscopy C. Things used by a person in the commission of a crime. Barometer C. Polygraphy B. A. Dactyloscopy C. ultra violet test C. Ballistics B. circumstantial evidence D. External Ballistics Answer: A 96. Thermometer D. The science dealing with the motion of a projectile and the conditions governing that motion. or objects left in a crime scene which are the subjects of criminalistics. The application of medical knowledge in the solution of crimes. ananometer Answer: C 99. Chemistry Answer: C 98. Endometer B. Forensic Science B. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the blood vessels or has diffused to different parts of the body. The science or art of obtaining images in scientific materials by the action of electro magnetic radiation rays. The test conducted to determine the presence of gunpowder residue in the hands of a suspect. A. Polygraphy B. hypostatic lividity B. A. hearsay evidence C. Photography D. Forensic Medicine Answer: D 97.93. diphenylamine test B. A. Terminal Ballistics D.

B 30. A 26. 17. 11. C 34. 22. 8. D 47. 6. C 45. 19. 3. 16. C 50. C 37. C 27. C 28. 18. B 46. 4. A 44. 12. C 39. D 33. 7. A 48. D 43. 13. 25. 23. 20. B 35. 14. 15. B 42. 9. D 29. D 31. D 41.Answers: Criminalistics Review Questions 1. B 36. A B B B A D D D A A A A B B D C D D B A D D A D C . D 40. 10. 2. C 38. 21. D 32. C 49. 24. 5.

Clientele B. operational plan C. The PNP has a program which ensures the deployment of policemen in busy and crime prone areas. A. and interpretation of all available information which concerns one or more aspects of criminal activity and which is immediately or potentially significant to police planning. It is the premier educational institution for the police. Information C. Foot patrol D. Senior Inspector Answer: B 4. Helicopter patrol Answer: C 5. Data D. a driver and intelligence agent B. patrol and visibility program D. police patrol program Answer: C 3. Senior Police Officer I B. strategic plan D.Time D. Philippine College of Criminology D. The amount and nature of the demands of the police service A. Police Officer III D. intelligence Answer: D 6. analysis. Investigation B. These are work programs of line divisions which related to the nature and extent of the workload and the availability of resources. A crew which is assigned to a mobile car usually consist of A.Law Enforcement Administration Review Questions 1. a driver and a recorder . which of the following will you recommend: A. Process Answer: C 2. a driver and traffic man C. administrative plan B. tactical plan Answer: B 7. evaluation. Since there are several types of patrol. This is called A. roving patrol program C. Inspector C. It is the product resulting from the collection.Purpose C. fire and jail personnel. Mobile patrol C. patrol deployment program B. A. Horse patrol B. police patrol is very necessary. Development Academy of the Philippines C. Philippine Military Academy B. Philippine Public Safety College Answer: D 8. All regional appointments of commissioned officers commence with the rank of: A. In busy and thickly populated commercial streets like those in Divisoria. A.

communication barriers D. spoils system Answer: C 13. C. or delaying illegal access to an installation. religious affiliation. his political inclination and/or party affiliation D. It is the circumspect inspection of a place to determine its suitability for a particular operational purpose. recorder and supervisor Answer: D 9. hazard Answer: C . his observations and experiences in the intelligence Answer: D 14. the intelligence agent is asked to discuss which of the following: A. a driver. C. Inspection B. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order Council from among the respected members of the community. It is a natural or man-made structure or physical device which is capable of restricting. Survey D. All of the following are members of the People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB). evaluation system C. A. two-party system B. determine. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglungsod/Pambayan D. his educational profile and schools attended B. perimeter barriers C. Surveillance C. wall C. In the de-briefing. address. barrier D. alarm B. A. It must have A. Any barangay Captain of the city/municipality concerned chosen by the association of the Barangay Captains. etc. merit and fitness are the primary considerations in the A. In the civil service system. B. Casing Answer: C 12. A bar member chosen by the Integrated bar of the Philippines (IBP) Answer: D 11. window barriers Answer:B 10. An industrial complex must establish its first line of physical defense. promotional system D. EXCEPT: A. the building itself B. his personal circumstances such as his age.D.

A. A. municipality.operations center D.tactical plan B. city. the manning levels of the PNP shall be approximately in accordance with a police-to-population ratio of: A.National Police Commission C. B. C.Securities and Exchange Commission B. Registration of a security agency must be done at the______. The provincial Governor shall choose the provincial Director from a list of ___________ eligible recommended by the Regional Director. The budget is a _________________ in terms of expenditure requirements. B. covert B. one (1) policeman for every one thousand (1.15. active D. Republic Act 6975 provides that on the average nationwide.work plan D. The cheapest form of police patrol. five (5) C.control plan Answer: B . Answer: C 18. overt C.field room Answer:B 19. Bicycle Patrol B.command post C. Foot Patrol C. In disaster control operations.financial plan C. three (3) B.Department of National Defense D. Helicopter Patrol Answer: B 21. D. Two (2) Answer: A 17. A. preferable from the same province. Motorcycle Patrol D. four (4) D. one (1) policeman for every one thousand five hundred (1.000) inhabitants. underground Answer: A 16.500) C. there is a need to establish a ______where telephones or any means of communication shall A.PNP Criminal Investigation Group Answer:D 20. What form of intelligence is involved when information is obtained without the knowledge of the person against whom the information or documents may be used. or if the information is clandestinely acquired? A. one (1) policeman for every five hundred (500) inhabitants.inhabitants. one (1) policeman for every seven hundred (700) inhabitants. A.ensure open lines of communication.

PNP Answer: D 27. The father of organized military espionage was: A.patrol Answer: A 23.District Director B. maintain your patrolmen at the station and just wait for calls for police assistance D. You are the Patrol Supervisor for the morning shift. Who among the following have summary disciplinary powers over errant police members? A.adequacy of resources of the police station C.managers B. Akbar B.training of station commander B. In all types of police stations.surveillant C. You don’t have enough men to cover all the patrol beats.Personnel D. Which of the following will you implement? A. Genghis Khan D.rank of the patrol commander D. assign roving mobile patrol with no foot patrol B.patrol Answer: D 24. Which of the following is the most common reason why informer can give information to the police? A.Chief. Alexander the Great C.traffic enforcement D.rabbit B. Frederick the Great Answer: B 29.traffic management D.Chief of Police D. It is the weakest link in security chain.22. there is a specific unit assigned to undertake this function in view of its importance. A.Barriers C.Provincial Director C.criminal investigation C.inspections Answer: C 25. assign foot patrol in congested and busy patrol beats but assign a roving mobile patrol to cover beats which are not covered by foot patrol Answer: B 28.monetary reward . The term used for the object of surveillance is a subject while the investigator conducting the surveillance is: A. A.salary rates of police personnel Answer: B 26.vice control B. It is a police function which serves as the backbone of the police service.wants to be known to the policeman B. assign mobile patrols only in strategic places C. Which of the following is considered as the most important factor in formulating an effective patrol strategy? A.

stop quickly. communications media Answer: B 37. never mind what happens to the paper C. Those who are charged with the actual fulfillment of the agency’s mission are ________. nurses and graduates of forensic sciences can enter the police service as officers through: A. On many occasions. foot patrol B. A. chemical. Communication and Electronic service D. Some of the instructions in foot surveillance are the following. To improve delegation.revenge Answer: B 30. require completed work D. retrace steps Answer: B 36. A. newspaper clippings C. management D. define authority and responsibility Answer: C 31. mobile patrol C. EXCEPT A. establish objectives and standards B. When the subject identifies or obtains knowledge that the investigation is conducting surveillance on him. cut out B. get out Answer: C 34. the bulk of the most valuable information comes from: A. supervision C. highway patrol D. Logistics Service B. Crime Laboratory C. line Answer: D 33. helicopter patrol Answer: A 35.as a good citizen D. business world B. watch reflection D. an underworld informant D. staff B. regular promotion . biological and physical nature. the latter is: A. What administrative support unit conducts identification and evaluation of physical evidences related to crimes.C. count the number of supervisor C. burnt out D. EXCEPT: A. Small alley like those in the squatters area of Tondo can be best penetrated by the police through: A. with emphasis on their medical. look behind B. window shop. drop paper. the following must be done. sold out C. Finance Center Answer: B 32. Highly qualified police applicants such as engineers.

What should be undertaken by a Security Officer before he can prepare a comprehensive security program for his industrial plan? A. security survey D. high-visibility patrol Answer: A 41.The thief’s desire to steal is not diminished by the presence of the police officer but the _______________ for successful theft is. Aviation Security Command Answer: C 42. Pedro is a thief who is eying at the handbag of Maria. He should adopt which of the following projects? A. Oplan Bakal C. lateral entry D. A. Oplan Sandugo D. A. intention D. security check C. Civil Relations Unit B. Traffic Operations Center C. attrition Answer: C 38. A. interrogation Answer: A 43. Complan Pagbabago Answer: A 39. A. A method of collecting information wherein the investigator merely uses his different senses. COPS on the blocks B. research D. drop subject Answer: C 44. if burnt out. directed deterrent patrol C. deception and lying in wait rather than upon high-visibility patrol techniques.B. In stationary surveillance. EXCEPT A. low-visibility patrol B. security conference B. He wants his subordinates to be drawn closer to the people in the different barangays. security education Answer: C 40. casing C. commissionship C. Traffic Management Command D. opportunity Answer: A . ambition B. avoid eye contact C. recognize fellow agent D. never meet subject face to face B. This patrol method utilizes disguise. the following must be observed. PO1 Santos Reyes is standing a few meters from Maria. observation B. decoy patrol D. It enforces all traffic laws and regulations to ensure the safety of motorists and pedestrians and attain an orderly traffic. feeling C. Police Inspector Juan Dela Cruz is the Chief of Police of a municipality.

In the police work. data gathering B. BJMP. Dogs have an acute sense of _______________ thus. bicycle Answer: B 51. hearing C. reward or commission. A. Narcotics Trafficking D. research B. PNP or any law enforcement agency of the . interview Answer: B 48. A. eating D. provincial guards. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records Management D. patrol car D. interrogation D. Inspector C. Graduates of the Philippine National Police Academy (PNPA) are automatically appointed to the rank of: A. Senior Superintendent B. Human Cargo Trafficking C. undercover operation C. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine Development C. drinking Answer: A 49. motorcycle B. casing D. field inquiry C. Which of the following is most ideally suited to evacuation and search-and-rescue duties? A. surveillance Answer: C 52. their utilization in tracking down lost persons or illegal drugs. A method of collection of information wherein the investigator tails or follows the person or vehicle. Economic resources Answer: C 50. helicopter C. PNP Directorate for Plans B. Senior Police Officer 1 D. PNP in-service training programs are under the responsibility of the: A. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership Answer: C 47. Superintendent Answer: C 46. other than members of the AFP. smell B. Logistics B. this is called: A. One way of extending the power of police observation is to get information from persons within the vicinity.45. A. Intelligence on _________________ makes heavy use of geographic information because law enforcement officials must know exact locations to interdict the flow of drugs. This is a person who does detective work for hire.

straightway C. Medium D. Undercover Answer: C 53. The uprightness in character. helicopter patrol Answer: B 57. honesty and freedom from moral delinquencies is referred to as A. Strategic C. Which of the following is the oldest type of patrol? A. counter clockwise D. short Answer: B 58. extra office C. Without air force capability. horse B. Intermediate B. regular operating programs D. low profile theory B. free-wheeling Answer: A 55. clockwise B. team policing Answer: A 56. moral Answer: A 54. soundness of moral principles. special operating programs Answer: C 59. A. high visibility C. Which theory of patrol state that police visibility increases the opportunity to apprehend criminals by soothing them and letting them believe that their crimes will not be detected? A. patrol operation that covers large park areas. foot C. meeting unusual needs B. bike patrol B. canine D. Which of the following refers to the long range planning? A.government. police Answer: B . integrity B.What patrol pattern have you applied? A. Private detective D. “Tiktik” C. Going east while foot patrolling and turning right after reaching the end of your beat and turning right after reaching the other end of the road and again turning right until you completed the cycle by reaching back to your origin of patrolling. discretion D. loyalty C. horse patrol C. The operational plan which is designed to met everyday or year round needs is called A. marine patrol D. Secret Agent B. theory of omnipresence D. grassy fields or wooded areas requires the use of A.

R. R. senior superintendent C. Criminals can hear the sound of the helicopter coming and so element of surprise is lost which is one of the ________ of air patrol: A. advantages B. 1174 D. Inspector B. All but one are the primarily line operation in police organization A. eviction D. Which of the following laws established the Police Organization under the DILG? A. horse C. called for service D. patrol officer . and the control of unruly crowds and riots? A. disadvantages D. vulnerability Answer: C 63. Answer: D 67. capacity C. features C. chief superintend Answer: C 62. traffic Answer: C 65. burglars hiding in large buildings or stores. The act of expelling a squatter by the legal process is called: A. patrol B. crime prevention C. ability B. Who is the most important officer in the police organization? A.A. asst. R. chief D. tear down Answer: C 61. What is the patrol used to locate prowlers. records C. squadron C. Which of the following words has the same meaning as the word credibility? A. 6975 Answer: D 68.A. bicycle D. 8551 C. dog . criminal apprehension Answer: C 64. demolition B.A. observation B. investigator B. import Answer: C 66.60. foot B. believability D. Which of the following is not a commissioned officer? A.A. 5487 B. investigation D. R. Which of the following best defines the word self-reliant? A.

multiple cover C. DILG B. artificial B. chain of command B. none of these Answer: A 74. When we say that a commander is directly responsible for any act or omission of his subordinates in relation to the performance of their official duties. DFA Answer: C 75. Governors and mayors. What is the optional retirement for officers and new officers of the police service? A. Delegation of Authority Answer: A 72. Chain of Command B. Unity of Command D. upon having been elected and having qualified as such. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint against the members and officers of the PNP. radio D. 30 years D.are automatically deputized as representatives of the A. The Chief of Police Answer: B 69. DILG B. Which of the following is the oldest warning device? A. PLEB D. DND C. traffic officer D. A. NAPOLCOM B. A. horn C. cover within a cover Answer: C 71. trumpet B. 15 years B. Span of Control C. we are referring to: A. IAS Answer: C 76. 20 years Answer: D 73.C. What type of cover uses actual or true background? A. NAPOLCOM C. PLEB D. DND C. NAPOLCOM D. delegation of responsibility . siren Answer: A 70. natural D. It is constitutionally and legally mandated to administer and control the Philippine National Police. 25 years C. What is the principle of organization suggesting that communication should ordinarily go upward and downward through establish channels in the hierarchy? A.

no one should exercise all the authority for making decisions. to be reckoned from the date of his original appointment in the police. 2 percent B.This refers to A. Gen. restriction C. In the history of our police force. off limits C. The act of temporarily denying an officer the privilege of performing his police duties in consequence of an offense and violation of rules and regulations. unity of command D. jail or other allied services? A. reprimand Answer: C 82. Community Oriented Policing System (COPS) Answer: D 78. Criminology Board Examination D. This term refers to the period when a police officer is actively engaged in the performance of his duty. on call D. A. The credential extended by the Civil Service Commission/National Police Commission for the purpose of conferring status for permanent appointment in the police service. who was the first Director General of the Philippine National Police (PNP)? A. Command responsibility D. delegation of authority Answer: D 79. police eligibility Answer: E 83. command responsibility C. off duty B. a police officer is entitled to a longevity pay equivalent to how many percent (%) of his monthly basic salary for every five years of service. suspension D. police credibility B. Cesar Nazareno . A. Police Visibility D. span of control Answer: C 77. fire. Comparative Police System C. 5 percent C. police visibility C. 10 percent D. Integrated Police System B. A. chain of command B.C. Also. police patrol examination E. dismissal B. on duty Answer: D 81. A. Under RA 6975. A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the community in the maintenance of peace and order by police officers. 15 percent Answer: C 80. No person in an organization can do all the tasks necessary for accomplishing group objective.

BJMP B. Chief Superintendent B.B. CIDG B. A. Chef Inspector C. 25% B. 10% D. A. Gen. PPSC Answer: D 85. Gen. It exercise supervision and control over all city and municipal jails. Department of Justice D. Chief Superintendent B. Gen. Bureau of Prisons C. Director General C. The annual reservation percentage quota for women in the PNP A. A. It exercise supervision and control over the provincial jails. A. 20% Answer: C 91. Director D. Which of the following administers and attends to cases involving crimes against chastity? A. Under the law. DSWD C. PNTC D. Local Government Answer: A 90. Women’s Desk D.the city/municipal jail warden should have a rank of __. A. 5% C. Umberto Rodriquez D. Inspector B. Director General C. Bureau of Prisons C. Senior Inspector D. Raul Imperial C. The premier educational institution for the training. The required rank for the head of the Fire Bureau. The required rank for the Chief of Jail Bureau. PNPA B. Department of Justice D. Director D. human resource development and continuing education of all the personnel of BJMP. Deputy Director General Answer: C 89. Superintendent Answer: C 86. Recaredo Sarmiento Answer: A 84. BJMP B. A. PCCR C. BFP and PNP. Provincial Government Answer: D 88. Homicide Division Answer: C . Deputy Director General Answer: C 87.

The head of a local peace and order council is the __. The orderly and organized physical movement of elements or units of the PNP.92. assignment D. They are automatically deputized as NAPOLCOM representatives to exercise supervision and control over PNP units. judge B. The number of eligible for which the Regional Director may recommend for Provincial Director to the governor is __. A. NBI B. Regional Directors B. Chief of Police B. A. COMELEC D. of the PNP for the purpose of protection of lives and properties. assignment D. A. employment B. Judges C. Local Government Executives D. mayor D. deployment C. They have the authority to recommend to the Provincial Director the transfer. Priests C. designation Answer: A 96. A. 4 Answer: B 99. A. DILG Answer: C 98. Nick Bartolome D. deployment C. chief of police C. A. 5 D. Nicanor Bartolome Answer: C . 3 C. designation Answer: B 97. One of the following exercises control and supervision over the PNP units during elections. Nicanor Bartome B. Fiscals Answer: C 93. employment B. enforcement of laws and maintenance of peace and order. Chiefs of Police D. governor Answer: C 95. Mayors Answer: D 94. Nicanor Bartomeo C. Ombusdman C. reassignment of PNP members outside of their town residences. The utilization of units or elements. A. Who is the current Chief of the PNP? A. 2 B.

40 years old Answer: A 103. 30 years old C. The current PNP deputy director General for Administration is A. PNP SAGSD B. DND D. Security Education C. It refers to means and ways that personnel and employees making them security conscious. Access to the object of protection D. Fence C. NAPOLCOM C. NAPOLCOM chairman D. Minimum age requirement for security manager or operator of a security agency.100.Locks.Window barriers D. Alexander Roldan Answer: A 101. DILG Usec C. Security Seminar Answer: B 106. A. Opportunity to the object of protection C. Registration of a security agency as a corporation must be processed at what particular government agency. Perimeter barriers B.As criminologists.it refers to A. A. Entry points where security guards are located Answer: A 107. B. SEC Answer: D 102. Physical security is a system of barriers placed between the potential intruder and the object matter to be protected. A. Security Investigation D. Opportunity to commit the offense B. Chief PNP B. DILG Secretary Answer: A 104. Barriers D. Wall B. He exercises the power to revoke for cause licenses issued to security guards. Emilito Sarmiento C. 35 years old D. Criminal instinct to surface in the potential offender Answer: C . Refers to a natural or man made structure which is capable of delaying illegal access to facility. Rommel Heredia D. 25 years old B. The building itself C. Beach fronts Answer: C 105. A. Security Promotion B. A. Door.this is simply a denial of A. Industrial management must establish the first line of physical defense. Arturo Cacdac Jr.

The exterior and interior parallel area near the perimeter barrier of an industrial compound to afford better observation and patrol movement is known as A.This man is using A.protective lighting and ______ system are known in industrial security as physical security. PNP SOSIA B. Danger area D. Top Guard D. This is an additional outward inclined fixed structure usually barbed wires placed above a vertical fence to increase physical protection from intruders of a certain area. Mayors office C. Perimeter barriers. Patrol lane zone Answer: B 112.In England. Personnel Answer: D 109. Barriers D. Exclusive area Answer: B 115. Geese D. Accounting Answer: A 110. Protective guarding in a compound can be done by the use of electronic hardware. Security Guards B. Twilight zone D. Duck Answer: C 113. A. Top Tower Answer: C 111. PNP FEO D. Doberman B. Manager C. First measure undertaking before a comprehensive security program for an industrial plan could be developed. Tower Guard C. Guarding B.this particular place is referred to as A. Restricted area C.human guards and even animals. Weakest link in the security chain. A. Security education . The government agency that issues licenses for private and government security guard is A. Relieving D.an owner to protect his compound used this and they are not only effective but also the cheapest to maintain. Cellar Guard B. Clear zone C. Protective zone B. A. Reporting C.this is known as A. Tame Tigers C.108. Compromise area B. If access is limited only to unauthorized personnel. PNP SAGSD Answer: D 114.

Whether to put up its own security guard organic to the firm or hire contractual agency guards have their individual merits and disadvantages. Security Audit Answer: B 117. Vulnerability C. Security check C. In an industrial firm there is a need for document security. Authorized handlers . As a security officer. Dry run D.B. A security agency owner Answer: A 119. Prepare a disaster or emergency plan for these hazards for the firm Answer: D 120.In order to reduce the disastrous effects of these natural hazards you will A. Answer: D 122. A security consultant not connected to or owning a security agency B.As security officer. Not take any concern of such hazards D. A security of a plant or industrial fim is also known by other terms except A. Risk Assessment D. Agency guards D. Practical exercise or test of a plan or activity to determine its effectiveness is called A. Sham drill B. To weed out undesirable employees B. Body guards Answer: D 118. A police officer D.To determine which type of guarding system an industrial firm will require management must consult A. Preclude assignment to sensitive positions for those who are security risks.Document security is not a protection of vital records from A. Evacuation plan Answer: C 121. To determine the character and reputation of certain employees secretly tagged as risks. Fire drill C. Today there are 3 categories of security guards belonging to the blue army. A military intelligence officer C. D. Security survey D. Company guards C. Alert your guards when hazards occur C. Call PAGASA and inquire when the next storm is coming B.you can advice management on this aspect although this is not totally your assigned work.earthquakes. To check loyalty of employees to the organization C. Security Inspection Answer: C 116.you can not prevent nor protect natural hazards like storm. Robbery evaluation B. The main reason for a personnel security investigation is A.floods and the like. A. Government security guards B.

Proprietary system C. There are many types of electronic and electric protective devices available for security buildings. Compromise or destruction D.inventory shows that pilferage is rampant in the warehouses. Unauthorized access Answer: A 123. Local alarm system Answer: C 128. Central alarm system D. Key management Answer: C 126. key control D. Theft or loss C. Each building or compound requires particular electronic/electrical protective devices D. The management of keys used in plant office or business organization to prevent unauthorized access is referred to as A.storehouses and compounds. File room C. Security key control B. Physical security Answer: D 127. Deploy intelligence men in pilferage prone areas to catch the culprit C. Electronic/electrical devices eliminate human guards Answer: C 125.B. Prepare your protective plans and confer with management for their immediate implementation D. Lock control C. Computer security B.One of the ff: is true A. Personnel security C. in height with enough ventilation and fire proof of at least one hour. Protective cabinet B. Vault D. It is defined as system of barriers placed between the matters protected and the potential intruder A. It is installed as part of the building which holds up to 10.What will be your choice of action A.000 cubic meters of essential items. Electronics/electrical devices provide total protection for the place to be safeguarded B. Document security D. Auxiliary system B. This type of alarm system utilizes a station located outside the compound A. Safe Answer: B . A. To resign if you have failed your job B. Tighten checking at exists of vehicles of the compound/complex Answer: B 124. Types of alarms needed can best be given by the dealers of said devices C. As a security chief of an industrial firm.At least 12 ft.

Business license B. A. One who steals due to his inability to resist the unexpected opportunity and has little fear of detection. A fact-finding prove to determine a plant adequacy and deficiency all aspects of security with the corresponding recommendation. Private detective B. All of them Answer: D 135. 5487 governs the operation of A. A. Company security C. Relative vulnerability C. No. Man made barriers C. PAOPAD Answer: B 132. Systematic .grill etc. It is the susceptibility of a plant or establishment to damage. Physicalo barriers D. It refers to the importance of the establishment with reference to the national economy and security. Risk analysis B. PADPAO C. Security audit B. Structural barriers B. Anyone provided he knows the job C. A. The association of all licensed security agencies operators A. Risk assessment D.129. Risk assessment C. Private security forces/agencies D.Who among below can own or operate security agency? A. Barrier which includes but not limited to wall. All of them Answer: C 134. A licensed issued to operate security agency or company forces.fences. Risk analysis B. Relative criticality Answer: D 131. Security inquiry D. PODPAO D. Relative vulnerability D.A. A. A. POAPAD B. A. License to engage in business C. Relative criticality Answer: C 130.loss or disruption of operations due to various hazards. All of them Answer: A 133. Security survey C. An alien but living in the Philippines D. R. A Filipino citizen B. License to operate D. Natural barriers Answer: B 137. Security operations Answer: B 136.

90 degrees Answer: A 141. 45 degrees D. Natural D. ID C. Insider Answer: C 138. Human hazard Answer: D . Electronic hazard B. In a close-in security formations. An authenticated list of personnel given to security allowing entry to compound or installation or part thereof. Fire extinguisher C. A. 180 degrees C.disaffection and subversive activities. cliffs. Pass system B. A. Access list D. Detect B. ravines. natural hazard C. ID D. Duress code Answer: C 144.disloyalty. Deterred C. Outsider C.It includes sabotage. A. 360 degrees B. Human C. Fire pump Answer: A 142. Duress code B. Fire hydrant D.espionage. cliffs. Provide D.B. a one man security covers A. Impeded Answer: A 143. Energy B. A. The act or condition affecting the safe operation of the facility caused by human action. Stand pipe B. Pass system C.pilferage and theft. Animals Answer: C 139. A. Casual D. etc.accidental or intentional. Artificial hazard D. A barrier which includes but not limited to mountains.Intrusion alarm devices are designed to ______ and not prevent criminals from trespassing and should be used normally as an independent adjunct and not a replacement of the human guard forces. Issued by the security guard for personnel to be admitted to the company. A. A mechanical device of supplying water which can be manual or motor driven. Access list Answer: B 140.

Steel cabinet D. Top pipe D. AFP and PNP retirees B. All of the above Answer: D 151. Who among below are exempted from pre-licensing training? A. Drawer C. The revised rules and regulations governing the organization and operation of private detective and private security agencies and company security forces throughout the country. A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistant container usually a part of the building structure used to keep and protect cash.145. All of them Answer: D 146. A. Contract service B. Telephone B. AFP and PNP veterans D. Graduate of ROTC basic or advance C. International law C. Concrete coffin Answer: B 149. Vault C. Steal or plastic pipes located in the building from the lowest to the top floor with water under pressure for use in case of fire. A. Basket B. Tenure of security personnel is based on A. Service contract . Steel cabinet B.it is called A. A. A metallic container used for the safekeeping of documents or small items in an office or installation. Tenure provided by the labor code Answer: B 152.document and negotiable instruments. Security law Answer: A 147. Paging system C. Private law D. Lowering pipe B. Basket D. Stand pipe Answer: D 150. A. Before private security agencies render security services to its clients. Safe Answer: D 148. Wet pipe C. Radio D. The service contract between the agency and the client C. Example of the Security Communication system. Private security law B. A. Can be extended by the client B.there must be a contract that must bind them. Labor only contracting between the agency and the guard D.

PSI Answer: D 158. BI Answer: D . Security guard C. BI Answer: B 159. It is an inquiry into the character. A. A. Government security unit D. Personnel security D.inactive or retirees B. All of them Answer: D 154. NAC D. Consist of the investigation of the background of an individual but limited only to some of the circumstances of his personal life which are deemed pertinent to the investigation. PBI C. PSI B. Private security unit Answer: B 155. Security contract D. A. B only D. LAC C. Employee security C.discretion and loyalty of individual in order to determine a persons suitability to be given security clearance. Insular security force B. A. Filipino citizen D. A security force maintained and operated by any private company for its own security requirements only. CBI D. A thorough and complete investigation of all or some of the circumstances or aspect of a persons life is conducted. A. PBI C. Commissioned officer of AFP or PNP. A person who offers or renders personal services to watch or secure a residence or business establishment or both is A. PSI B.C. CBI D. At least 25 years of age C. Both A and C Answer: C 157. Security service contract Answer: D 153. Security personnel B. Watchman B. Which below is a qualification for the operator or manager of security agency. BI B. B and A Answer: D 156. Company security force C.reputation. Include all the security measures designed to prevent unsuitable individuals or persons of doubtful loyalty to the government from gaining access to classified matter or to any security facility and to prevent appointment or retention as employees of such individuals. A.

furnishes or post any security guards to do its functions. Spot magnetized identification pass D.who contracts recruits.association. CBI D. Personal prestige D. Cosnsist of the investigation of the background of a person particularly all the circumstances of his personal life A. Private security agency Answer: C 165. Multiple pass system B. A. Jealousy B. Moral D.160.partnership. Government security unit D. Firearm license . Officer in charge B. Before a security guard can practice his profession. Character B. Government security unit D. Close relative in foreign land D. Character C. Weakness that makes people susceptible to pressure A. Any person. Assistant detachment commander Answer: B 168. Insular security force B. Weakness of character C. Motives that cause people to be disloyal A.trains.What is this license? A. Revenge C. A security unit maintained and operated by any government entity. Company security force C. Reputation Answer: B 163. Shift in charge C. All of them Answer: D 164. Loyalty Answer: C 162. Shall be responsible to the detachment commander as far as his shift is concerned.firm or private corporation. Private security agency Answer: D 167.which is the least expensive and least secure personnel control identification system? A. Single pass or badge system Answer: D 161. Security guard on duty D. Integrity B. Group pass and badge system C.he shall possess a valid security license. Insular security force B. BI Answer: C 166. PSI B. Company security force C. Factors considered in background investigation except: A. PBI C. Among the following. A. A.

Classified C.this category is reserved for the nations closest secret and is to be used with great reserve. These are information and material. A. Information security C. 3 C. A. Documents security Answer: D 172.B. Secret matters C. Reclassify B. Criticality C. 2 years D. Personnel security D. Refers to assigned information by one of the four classification categories A. 1 year Answer: D 171.the unauthorized disclosure of which would cause exceptional grave damage to the nation. Vulnerability B. Declassify D. Reclassify B. Confidential matters D. Security guard license Answer: D 169. Restricted matters B. License to operate C. Compromise Answer: D 175. Declassify D. probability D. Refers to the administrative determination that an individual is eligible for access to classified matter. 2 D. Security clearance Answer: B 173. 3 years C. 4 B. How many firearms issued for every two guards employed by the security agency is allowed by law? A. 4 years B. 1 Answer: D 170. Means loss of security which results from an unauthorized persons obtaining knowledge of classified matter. Top secret matters Answer: D . Security clearance Answer: D 174. Classified C.economically or from a security aspect. Top secret B. A. The aspect of security which involves the application of security measures For the protection and safeguarding of classified information A. Drivers license D. Firearms of security agency should be covered with firearms license issued by the PNP through its Firearm Explosive Division under the civil security group renewable every A.politically.

Transmission security B. Communication security D.a pattern for machine or device or a list of customers.cause serious injury to the interest or prestige of the nation or of any governmental activity or would be of great advantage to a foreign nation. Patents D.the unauthorized disclosure of which while not endangering the national security would be prejudicial to the interest or prestige of the nation or any government activity or would cause administrative embarrassment or unwarranted injury to an individual or would be of the advantage to a foreign nation. Transposition system B.a process of manufacturing. A. Top secret matters Answer: C 178. It is information that in some special way relates to the status or activities of the possessor and over which the possessor asserts ownership. Cryptographic security C. Concealment . Restricted matters B. A. That component of communication security which results from the provisions of technically sound crypto system and their proper use. It is the protection resulting from the application of various measures which prevent or delay the enemy or unauthorized persons in gaining information through communication. These information and material. A system which uses words as the smallest element. Transmission security B. A. Patents D. Secret matters C.the authorized disclosure of which would endanger national security. All of the above Answer: B 182. Confidential matters D. Transmission security B. Restricted matters B. A. Top secret matters Answer: B 177. A. A. All of the above Answer: C 181. Proprietary information Answer: D 179. Secret matters C.treating or preserving materials. These information and material.176. Trade secret C. Code C. A. Trade secret C. Proprietary information Answer: B 180. Cryptographic security C. Confidential matters D. It maybe a formula for a chemical compound. Transmission security B. Communication security D.

Cipher Answer: B 183. Calamity . June 31. 2009 D. Risk spreading C. Cipher Answer: D 184. What date is the Republic Act No. None of the above Answer: B 190. A. Security hazard D.2 or 3 characters at a time. Transposition system B. Criticality Answer: D 186. 5487 or the private security agency law passed? A. It is the potential damage or loss of an asset. A. It is an act of spying. Concealment D. Casual pilferage B. Pilferage D. Systematic pilferage C. Criticality Answer: B 185. A. Risk avoidance Answer: C 187. Pilferage D. Espionage C. One who steals with pre conceived plans and takes always any or all types of items or supplies for economic gain. June 7. pilferer D. Adversary B. A natural hazards or acts of god. Risk avoidance D. It is one of the most annoying and common human hazards which security has to deal with. A. 1969 Answer: B 191. A. Risk C. A system that manipulate 1. None of the above Answer: C 189. 1969 C. A. 1999 B. Risk C. Eliminating or removing the risk totally from the business. Saboteur B. June 13.government or industrial environment for which the risk manager has responsibility. Security hazard D. Sabotage Answer: B 188. A. Risk self-assumption B. Casual pilferage B. It is the impact of a loss as measured in financial terms. A.D. Adversary B. Code C. June 13. Systematic pilferage C.

Possible maximum loss Answer: B 197. Batman D. A.this is only done after the completion of security survey. Risk transfer D. Limited area C. Pass system B. A. A. Phenomenon C. Clear zone C. Debriefing D. Risk reduction B.destroyed or both. Protected area Answer: B 193. Tower guard D. Superman B. Possible maximum loss Answer: D 196. Disaster D. Multi pass system Answer: C .A conference similar to entrance conference. Entrance conference B. A.safe crackers and penetrators of restricted rooms or area. Pass exchange system C. The badge or pass coded for authorization to enter specific areas is issued to an employee who keeps it in his possession until his authorization terminates. Risk transfer D.B. Single pass system D. Peterpan C. Peterman Answer: D 198. Top guard Answer: D 194. Risk reduction B. Briefing C. It is the lost that would be sustained if a given target or combination of target where totally removed. Force majeure Answer: D 192. Restricted area D. Guard house B. A term used in England for lock pickers. A. Probable maximum loss C. A. Refers to the amount of loss a target would be likely to sustain through theft and robbery. A. A restricted area where visitors are limited in movement and are usually escorted. Exit conference Answer: D 195. Probable maximum loss C. Exclusive area B. A structure placed above a vertical fence to increase protection from intruder.

A warrant of arrest was issued against Fred for the killing of his parents. Auxiliary alarm B. Usurpation Of Authority D. Proprietary system C. What was the crime committed by PO3 Bagsik? A. Qualified Seduction C. with evident premeditation and treachery killed his father. Charlie had sexual relation with Jane. Lito. Lito slapped Prof.199. Homicide D. Company owned alarm system with a unit in the nearest police station so that in case of need.Jane loves Charlie very much. Berto.Fred gave him 1 million pesos to set him free. Corruption of Public Officials B. Auxiliary alarm B. Local alarm system D. What was the crime committed by PO2 Tapang? A. Slight Physical Injuries D. Qualified Homicide Answer: B 2. Murder B. A. A. the 14 year old daughter of Lea. Proprietary system C. Violation of Domicile C. When PO2 Tapang tried to arrest him. Jose gave a failing grade to one of his students. Corruption of Public Officials Answer: B . PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy against the latter’s will on suspicion that Bitoy keep unlicensed firearms in his home. Direct Bribery C. PO2 Tapang refrained in arresting Fred. Central station station system Answer: A 200. Indirect Bribery B. Rape Answer: B 4. Direct Assault C. Consented Abduction D. Prof. Grave Coercion 5. Forcible Trespassing Answer: B 3.What was the crime committed by Charlie? A.They live together with the children of Lea from her first husband. Local alarm system D. What was the crime committed? A. What was the crime committed by Lito? A. Jose on the face. Central station system Answer: C Criminal Jurisprudence Review Questions 1. Trespass to Dwelling B. Simple Seduction B. Charlie and Lea had been married for more than 6 months. When the two met the following day. direct call is possible. The system consists of ringing up a visual or audible alarm system near the object to be protected. Parricide C.

sufficiency of evidence Answer: C 8. Appellate Jurisdiction B. jurisdiction B. A. General Jurisdiction C. Factum probans means __.A person designated by the court to assist destitute litigants. jurisprudence C. RA 6975 Answer: C Answer: C . Exclusive Jurisdiction Answer: C 10. Suicide note D. culture Answer: C 9. Dead man statute Answer: D 7. Which of the following is not covered by the Rules on Summary Procedure? A. A. ultimate fact C. Original Jurisdiction D. BP. Violation of traffic laws C. Attorney at law D. Qualified Bribery Answer: D 6. A. preponderance of evidence B.22 D. bench 13. The authority of the court to take cognizance of the case in the first instance. Special counsel Answer: A 11. evidentiary fact D. A. heritage C. Ante mortem statement C. A. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to be exercised.D. RA 8353 C. The penalty does not exceed six months imprisonment Answer: C 12. Attorney on record C. Which of the following is the exemption to the hearsy rule made under the consciousness of an impending death? A. The penalty is more than six months of imprisonment D. A. venue D. Parol Evidence B. pedigree D. inheritance B. Counsel de officio B. RA 6425 B.The Anti-Bouncing Check Law. Violation of rental laws B. It refers to family history or descent transmitted from one generation to another.

violation of domicile B. The unauthorized act of a public officer who compels another person to change his residence. charivari C. grave coercion C. A. A medley of discordant voices. qualified theft B. immorality 21. 15-18 years old B. expulsion D. robbery C. The deprivation of a private person of the liberty of another person without legal grounds. between 9 and 15 years old Answer: C Answer: C . concubinage B. by means of force and intimidation. direct assault D. whether right or wrong. An offense committed by a married woman through carnal knowledge with a man not her husband who knows her to be married. The taking of another person’s personal property. A. adultery D. arbitrary detention C. A. bigamy C. theft D. 18-70 years old C. A. prostitutes C. Felony committed when a person compels another by means of force. direct assault Answer: C 19. Tumultuous B. a mock serenade of discordant noises designed to annoy and insult. forcible detention Answer: A 20. with intent to gain. A. vagrants Answer: D 17. slander by deed Answer: B 16. These are persons having no apparent means of subsistence but have the physical ability to work and neglect to apply himself or herself to lawful calling. Pimps B. violence or intimidation to do something against his will. gang members D. A. grave threat B. 9 years old and below D. although the marriage can be later declared void. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime. malicious mischief Answer: B 15.14. forcible abduction D. A. sedition D. illegal detention B. A. scandal Answer: B 18. arbitrary detention C.

A. public crimes Answer: A 26. commutation C. A. A. prescription of prosecution C. gang B. Felony committed by a public officer who agrees to commit an act in consideration of a gift and this act is connected with the discharge of his public duties. indirect bribery Answer: B 27. conspiracy C. amnesty D. prescription of crime B. accessories 23. Accomplices B. mala prohibita B. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs of the society. cruelty Answer: B 29. evident premeditation C. principal actors D. The willful and corrupt assertion of falsehood under oath of affirmation. qualified bribery B. Suspects C. falsification C. estafa D. A. Deliberate planning of act before execution. A. prescription of penalty Answer: A Answer: D 24. libel B. slander Answer: C 28. Pardon B. prescription of judgement D. band D.22. A. Those who. administered by authority of law on a material matter. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted together in the commission of a crime. perjury D. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty is suspended. ignominy D. Treachery B. mala in se C. not being principals cooperate in the execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts. A. private crimes D. piracy Answer: C . reprieve Answer: D 25. A. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the final sentence after the lapse of a certaintime fixed by law. direct bribery C.

If the accused refuse to plead. Misfeasance B. at any time before his arrest B. or make conditional plea of guilty. furnished by him or a bondsman. trial 37. any time before entering his plea D. entrapment C. inducement D. aggravating circumstances C. only after entering his plea C. a plea of mercy D. conditioned upon his appearance before any court as required under the conditions specified by law. The process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a criminal case work out a mutually satisfactory disposition on the case subject to court approval. a plea of surrender Answer: A 35. evident premeditation Answer: B 34. Negligence B. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to. A. The security given for the release of a person in custody. imprudence C. A. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law breaker in the execution of his criminal plan. A. Arraignment B. a plea of guilty C.30. A. plea bargaining C. preliminary investigation D. Monday morning Answer: C 36. One of the following is an alternative circumstance. omission D. Insanity B. At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or information? A. act 31. what shall be entered for him? A. intoxication C. Subpoena B. passion or obfuscation D. instigation Answer: C Answer: B 32. Absolutory causes D. A. a plea of not guilty B. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of public policy and sentiment there is no penalty imposed. A. impossible crimes B. Complex Crimes Answer: C 33. recognizance Answer: B .

plea bargaining Answer: C 41. When the witness states that he did not see or know the occurrence of a fact. secondary evidence B. A. preliminary investigation D. A. prima facie evidence C. A. A. warrant Answer: C 38. arraignment C. and the imposition of the proper penalty and A. Arraignment D. A. Trial B. documentary evidence B. material evidence D. for the purpose of determining such issue. secondary evidence D. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived from conventional symbols. best evidence Answer: C Answer: B 43. It is that which. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts. The examination before a competent tribunal. trial B. A. corroborative evidence C. bail D. standing alone. judgment Answer: A 39. pre-trial B. according to the laws of the land. real evidence Answer: A 44. testimonial evidence C. best evidence 42. Judgment Answer: D 40. pre-trial D. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well founded belief that an offense has been committed and the offender is probably guilty thereof and should be held for trial. corroborative evidence D. Pre-trial C. corroborative evidence D. Arraignment C. prima facie evidence C. negative evidence Answer: D .C. by which ideas are represented on material substances. The adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or is not guilty of the offense charged. secondary evidence B. positive evidence B. of the acts in issue in a case. such as letters. unexplained or uncontradicted is sufficient to maintain the proposition affirmed.

A. A. American penal code D. mistake of facts C.45. witnesses C. complex crime 52. informers 47. judicial question Answer: C 50. A. infanticide C. Spanish penal code B. Suspects B. The RPC was based on the A. mysterious homicide C. used or intended to be used as means in committing an offense B. A. of human fetus before the natural time of birth which results in death. Japanese penal code Answer: A 51. death under exceptional circumstances D. tumultuous affray Answer: D 49. The unlawful destruction or the bringing forth prematurely. juridical question C. can make known their perception to others. A. All persons who can perceive and perceiving. stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the offense C. 36 hours Answer: B . An act or omission which is a result of a misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not intentional. alarm and scandal B. Felony committed when a person is killed or wounded during the confusion attendant to a quarrel among several persons not organized into groups and the parties responsible cannot be ascertained. parricide Answer: D Answer: B Answer: A 48. English penal code C. legal question B. A question which arises in a case the resolution of which is the logical antecedent of the issue involved in said case and the cognizance of which pertains to another tribunal. victims D. prejudicial question D. murder D. impossible crime B. accidental crime D. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not more than…. abortion B. Personal property that can be subjects for search and seizure. all of the above 46. A. subject of the offense D. A.

duty C. One who is deprived completely of reason or discernment and freedom of the will at the time of the commission of the crime. fate C. A. destiny 59. 72 hours Answer: D 53. writ 60. The law which reimposed the death penalty. RA 7659 D. complex crime D. compound crime B. A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense. A. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its owner or author A. accident D. RA 8553 C. accidental crime Answer: B 55. insanity C. 48 hours D. lies beyond the bound s of humanly foreseeable consequences. Something that happen outside the sway of our will. guilt D. discernment B. RA 5425 B. any peace officer or other public officer charged with the enforcement of the law violated. A. fortuitous event B. epilepsy D. ignorantia legis non excusat B. A. information C. imbecility 57. RA 8551 Answer: C 56. impossible crime C. imputability 58. Ignorance of the law excuses no one from compliance therewith.subscribed by the offended party.B. 24 hours C. subpoena B. res ipsa loquitur D. A. complaint D. A. An act which would be an offense against persons or property if it was not for the inherent impossibility of its accomplishment. parens patriae C. and although it comes about through some acts of our will. This right of the accused is founded on the principle of justice and is intended not to protect the guilty but to prevent as far as Answer: D Answer: D Answer: C Answer: C . dura lex sed lex Answer: A 54. responsibility B.

Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the crime any of all the conditions that would make an act voluntary and hence. and hence. quasi-recidivism 66. right to remain silent D. justifying D. The law hears before it condemns. practices. he incurs no criminal and civil liability. special laws C. alternative C. masochism Answer: B 65. exempting B. justifying D. right to due process of law B. treachery C. penal laws B.human agencies can the conviction of an innocent person. A. habitual delinquency C. Alevosia means A. A. ex post facto law B. When the offender enjoys and delights in making his victim suffers slowly and gradually. proceeds upon inquiry and render judgment after a fair trial. right against self-incrimination 61. A. causing him unnecessary physical pain in the consummation of the criminal act. aggravating Answer: A 63. evident premeditation D. Craft B. Recidivism B. Known in other countries as the body of principles. One. though there is no criminal liability there is civil liability. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance with the law. treachery D. cruelty 67. A. Ignominy B. A.usages and rules of action which are not recognized in our country. aggravating Answer: C 64. reiteracion D. common laws D. presumption of innocence C. equal protection of the law Answer: A Answer: B . alternative C. A. cruelty C. Exempting B. statutory laws Answer: B Answer: C 62. A. who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been previously convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal Code.

Secondary D. A method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of persons alleged to have committed a crime. robbery. These questions suggest to the witness the answers to which an examining party requires. Recidivist B. A. Conclusive Answer: D 71. Conclusive Answer: D 70. Accessories C. A. Primary B. Criminal Law B. slander by deed . he is found guilty of any of the said crimes a third time or oftener. 10 years D. and or their punishment in case of conviction A. A. A. Persons who take direct part in the execution of a crime.C. Primary B. A. estafa or falsification. quasi-recidivist C. 40 years Answer: A 74. misleading C. A crime against honor which is committed by performing any act which casts dishonor. The period of prescription of crimes punishable by death. A. hearsay Answer: A 72. habitual delinquent D. libel B. rule of law D. 15 years C. A. Criminal Jurisprudence Answer: C 73. Principals Answer: D 75. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his release or last conviction of the crime of serious or less serious physical injuries. leading B. Best C. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome. stupid D. Criminal Procedure D. or contempt upon another person. discredit. 20 years B. Criminal Evidence C. hardened criminal Answer: D Answer: C 69. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome. due process of law 68. Best C. Secondary D. theft. Accomplices B. Instigators D.

10 days D. A. shall commit a new felony before beginning to serve such sentence. illegal detention B. The detention of a person without legal grounds by a public officer or employee. Police Officer D. A. In its general sense. quasi-recidivism B. after having been convicted by final judgment. reiteracion D. Sedition B. screen name Answer: C 79. subpoena B. affidavit Answer: D 78. A. 30 days B. Any other name which a person publicly applies to himself without authority of law. nonfeasance D. Municipal Councilor Answer: C 81. Coup d’ etat Answer: A 82. Treason D. warrant D. The improper performance of some act which might lawfully be done. incriminating innocent person D. A. intriguing against honor Answer: B 76. arbitrary detention . A. A. dereliction Answer: B 77. The length of validity of a search warrant from its date. Municipal mayor B. common name C. writ C. A special aggravating circumstance where a person. A.C. fictitious name D. Which of the following is not a person in authority? A. or while serving the same. made upon oath before an authorized magistrate or officer. charivari Answer: A 80. A sworn statement in writing. Rebellion C. malfeasance C. it is the raising of commotions or disturbances in the State. 15 days C. alias B. recidivism C. Private School Teacher C. 60 days Answer: C 83. misfeasance B.

Crimes that have three stages of execution. A. rebellion D. A building or structure. A. Rape Answer: C 88. A breach of allegiance to a government. unauthorized detention Answer: B 84. A. Dura lex sed lex D. It means mistake in the blow. Error in personae C. The mental capacity to understand the difference between right and wrong. sanctuary B. Estafa B. treachery B. A. A. Dura Lex Sed lex D. exclusively used for rest and comfort. Accomplished answer: C 91. Conspiracy D. Consummated D. Conspiracy to commit this felony is punishable under the law. Felony 92. treason B. Aberratio Ictus B. compulsory detention D. Mistake of facts C. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is intended. A. dwelling Answer: D 86. Rebellion D. prison C. Absolutory Cause B. A. Praeter Intentionem Answer: D 89. espionage C.C. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are present. premeditation C. Attempted B. A. Answer: B . Error in Personae C. An act or omission which is the result of a misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not intentional. Frustrated C. Aberratio ictus B. Murder C. committed by a person who owes allegiance to it. jail D. Praeter Intentionem Answer: A 90. discernment Answer: D 87. recidivism D. coup d’ etat Answer: A 85.

Felonies where the acts or omissions of the offender are malicious. Acts and omissions punishable by special penal laws. Offenses B. What was the crime committed? A. It indicates deficiency of perception. Culpable B. Seizure C. A. Child rape B. A. D. Material Formal Seasonal Continuing 93. Statutory Rape Answer: C Answer: C . a 19 year old man had sexual intercourse with her 11 year old girlfriend without threat. B. A. Penal Law Answer: A 98. Inference 95. Ex Post Facto Law D. General B. A character of Criminal Law. Robbery B. C. Territorial C. Farm Theft C. Diligence C. making it binding upon all persons who live or sojourn in the Philippines. Qualified Rape C. Detention 99. Arrest D. Imprudence D. A. Qualified Theft D. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of an offense. Prospective D. A. Misdemeanors C. Negligence B. What was the crime committed? A. Felonies D. Intentional C. Ordinances Answer: A 96. A legislative act which inflicts punishment without judicial trial. Pedro stole the cow of Juan.A. Inculpable 94. force or intimidation. Bill of Attainder B. Retroactive Answer: A Answer: B Answer: A Answer: A 97. Deliberate D. Simple Theft 100.Pedro. Bill of Rights C. A. Search B.

reduce the sentence and extinguish criminal liability. in his presence. C. accounting. D.G. D. None of these Answer: C Correctional Administration Review Questions 1. Property and supply branch D. Classical School C. Executive Department B. counseling and leadership techniques D. His bedding's.I. The trick and treat techniques B. It is the authority of the President of the Philippines to suspend the execution of a penalty. which is not included? A.J Answer: C 3.P.O. is under the administration of the: A. budgeting. Mess services branch Answer: A 7.P.N. The B. Budget and finance branch B.Executive clemency C.M. Recreation D. Meeting B. Parole B.J.The manipulative techniques Answer: A 4. A. Pardon D. General services branch C. Positivist Answer: B 5. There are three (3) casework techniques applied by the parole officer. A. Counseling Answer: D 6. The basis of this old school of penology is the human free-will.D. This helps the prisoner/detainee in the resolution of his problems A. lockers and personal belongings may also be opened at anytime. D. and other activities related to financial services. A. This practice is known as: . It consolidates and prepares financial reports and related statements of subsistence outlays and disbursements in the operational of the jail. Penology School B. Neo-classical D. P. Working C. whenever possible.President’s clemency Answer: B 2.The guidance.L.The executive techniques C. Takes charge of financial matters especially in programming. Operation conducted by the BJMP wherein a prisoner maybe checked at any time.

Delinquency C. A person who is detained for the violation of law or ordinance and has not been convicted is a A. Amnesty D. The following are the justifications of punishment.P. EXCEPT A. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following instances. supervision. penalty D. Commutation B. after conviction D. Brigandage C. A. conviction B. Municipal Prisoner D. probation D. Rape D. Recidivism B. City Prisoner Answer: A 11. punishment Answer: B 13. Redress . Check and balance S. Quasi-recidivism D. before conviction B. and rehabilitation of the convicted offender. EXCEPT A. C. It refers to commission of another crime during service of sentence of penalty imposed for another previous offense. D. B. corrections C. Amnesty B. Pardon Answer: B 12. Which of the following instances Pardon cannot be exercised? A. This is a procedure which permits a jail prisoner to pursue his normal job during the week and return to the jail to serve his sentence during the weekend or non-working hours. Impeachment Answer: D 9. City prisoner Answer: C 10. before trial C. A. The following are forms of executive clemency. It is that branch of the administration of Criminal Justice System charged with the responsibility for the custody.O. Deterrence C. Murder B. Inventory Operation Greyhound Answer: D 8. Provincial Prisoner C. A. delayed sentence Answer: D 15. Retribution B. Detention Prisoner B. Reform model C. during service of sentence Answer: B 14.A. A. good conduct time allowance C.

For a convicted offender. A.D. Application from C. Recommendation from C. Pardon is exercised when the person is __. Exemplary D.R. already convicted B. Protection B. about to be convicted D. P22. Incarceration Answer: B 19.H. For amnesty to be granted. Fine B. Prison Inspector Answer: D Answer: A 21. Director B. None of these C. A. The head of the Bureau of Corrections is the A. Giving punishment to a person so to serve as an example to others is the theory of A. Recommendation from U. not yet convicted C.Education programs D.00/day D. Which program plays a unique role in the moral and spiritual regeneration of the prisoner? A. Secretary of the DND C. C. None of these B.Religious programs Answer: D 22.R D. Expiration or atonement 16. Chief of Executive D. A. Concurrence of the congress 20. Social defense C.00/day Answer: B 23. Treatment C.Work programs C. Punishment B. serve the sentence Answer: C Answer: A 17. there should be __. Self-defense B. Lethal injection D. P19.N. It is a penalty wherein a convicted person shall not be permitted to enter the place designated in the sentence or within the radius therein specified. which shall not be more than 250 and not less than 25 kilometers from the place designated.H. A. Equality Answer: C . Deterrence C. B. A. Enjoyment D.Stoning Answer: B 18. The idea that punishment will be give the offender lesson by showing to others what would happen to them if they have committed the heinous crime. probation is a form of __.

provide an opportunity for the reformation of a penitent offender B. The purpose of the decree on probation shall be to A. Excessive number of escapes B. Amnesty Answer: A 31. Reprieve B. prevent the commission of offenses C. Section 10 paragraph (B) of the Philippines Constitution. Lack of adequate funding Answer: D 26. General Services Branch B. Legislative Answer: C 30. Justice B. Budget and Finance D. Requirement Answer: A 32. Overcrowding C. the most common problem of the National Prison is A. Parole is a matter of ___. Chief Executive D. The temporary stay of execution of sentence is called A. Personal C. Pardon C. pardoning power is vested with the A. A. Privilege B. This branch takes charge of the preparation of the daily menu. Medical condition Answer: B 28. Sex of offenders D. All of these Answer: D 25. A justification of penalty which states that nobody can assume the suffering for a crime committed by others. Mittimus Computing Branch C. Grace D. A. Judiciary C. Right C. In the Philippines. These are the factors considered in diversification. Mother of offender C. A. promote the correction and rehabilitation of an offender by providing him with individualized treatment D. Mess services Branch Answer: D 29. Disagreement about their mess D. A. Legal D.24. Certain Answer: B 27.It maintains a record of daily purchases and consumption and submits a daily report to the warden. Age of offenders B. Department of Justice B. EXCEPT. makes foodstuff purchases. Under Article VII. prepares and cooks the food and serves it to the inmates. Communication D. This group consists of chronic troublemakers but not as .

President B. not exempted Answer: D 35. partially exempted B. Reprieve D. A. A. Pardon B. City prisoner Answer: D 40. Amnesty B. ___ is an act of grace and the recipient is not entitled to it as a matter of right. National or Insular prisoner D. Department of Justice C. Among the following. A. Parole C. maximum security prisoners B. The Head of Bureau of Corrections is also the A. A. Department of Health Answer: B 39. A recipient of absolute pardon is ________ from civil liability imposed upon him by the sentence. aggravate his behavior Answer: C 38. none of these Answer: B 37. Board of Pardons and Parole C. Department of the Interior and Local Government D. They are not allowed to work outside the institution. A. Chief of the Bureau of Corrections . super security prisoners C. challenge B. exempted C. none of these C. Detention prisoner C. Commutation C. Director of Prison D. Department of Social Welfare and Development B. It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier sentence to a less serious one or a longer term to a shorter term. In probation system’s philosophy and concept. medium security prisoners Answer: A 33. conditionally exempted D. none of these Answer: B 36. which has the authority to grant parole? A. The Bureau of Corrections is under the _____. Municipal prisoner B. Probation D. it is stated that the individual has the ability to ____ and to modify his anti-social behavior with the right kind of help.dangerous as the super security prisoners. A person who is sentenced to serve a prison term of over three (3) years is a _________________. change D. minimum security prisoners D. A. Court Answer: B 34. A.

classification D. Which is a place of confinement for persons awaiting trial or court action and where the convicted offenders serve short sentences or penalty of imprisonment? A. gender. To stand trial C. Punishment D. age. Detention Cells Answer: A 45. Superintendent of the Bureau of Corrections D. What is the primary purpose of imprisonment? A. BJMP B. Safe-keeping Answer: A . Mittimus B. etc. safe-keeping C. criminal record. Director of the Bureau of Corrections C. Which of these refers to the assigning or grouping of offenders according to their sentence. Detention Mittimus C. Detention Warrant Answer: C 46. Provincial and sub-Provincial Jails B. Provincial Government C. Provincial Jails were first established in 1910 under the American Regime. DOJ D. None of these B. who supervises and controls the said jails? A. custody B. What is the type of Jails under the Supervision of the BJMP? A. caring Answer: A 47. health. City and Municipal Jails C. At present. The maintenance or care and protection accorded to people who by authority of law are temporarily incarcerated for violation of laws and also those who were sentenced by the court to serve judgment is called – A. Jail B. Security D. nationality. Lock up Jails D.? A. Penitentiary D. Lock-up C. Insular Jails Answer: B 42. Which is a warrant issued by the court bearing its seal and signature of the judge directing the jail or prison authorities to receive the convicted offender for service of sentence or detention? A. Municipal or City Mayor Answer: B 43. Sentence Mittimus D. Custody C.B. Socialization Answer: A 44. Warden Answer: B 41. Rehabilitation and Reformation B.

Stripe Orange D. He has taken the process of identification. Under the prison service manual. Camp Sampaguita D. fingerprint and photograph B. Medium Security Prison Answer: C 55. When an inmate is given a “shakedown” before admission. Amnesty B. Maximum Security Institution D. who is charged for the hearing of disciplinary cases in prison? A. earned good behavior while serving prison term D. Under the prison rules. deterrence C. He has been examined for contraband C. Brown C. NBP B. In the New Bilibid Prison. NBP Main Prison B. earned good conduct time allowance credit B. it means: A. serve minimum sentence C. An inmate maybe granted parole if he A. The institution for dangerous but not incorrigible prisoners in the Philippines is the A. Medium Security Institution C. Pardon D. The act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in the state which exempts an individual from the punishment which the law imposes or prescribes for his crime.48. Classification Board B. Parole Board . Minimum Security Institution Answer: B 49. all medium security prisoners are confined at the A. Aside from protecting the public. confinement of Offender Answer: A 54. Probation Answer: C 50. extended by the President thru the recommendation of the Board of Parole and Pardon is called A. imprisonment has for its latest objective. the A. Camp Bukang Liwayway C. His commitment paper are delivered to record clerk D. reformation of offenders B. all of these Answer: D 53. Blue Answer: A 51. Parole C. All of these Answer: B 52. the prescribed color of prison uniform for maximum security prison is A. record. Orange B. segregation of offender D.

The form of conditional release that is granted after a prisoner has served a portion of his sentence in a correctional A. this is credited as the oldest code prescribing savage punishment but in fact ___ is nearly. The following are the duties of the custodial force in prison. It must be equal for all persons D. Escort of inmates or prisoners C. no proxy. Code of Draco Answer: B 61. Imprisonment B. which of the following is a function of the Custodial Division? A. Escort inmates C. The consequence must be in accordance with law. The guilty one must be the one to be punished. escape or riot is in progress or has . Palawan B. Parole D. Detention Answer: A 59. In Babylon. As a rule. Justinian Code D. Conviction D. Conduct disciplinary hearing Answer: D 63. B. Inspect security devices D. The penalty imposed for offenders must be certain. when a jailbreak. Answer: B 62. Zamboanga C. Sumerian Code C. A. 100 years older A. Trial C. Probation C. Disciplinary Board Answer: D 56. Keeping of records D. Censor offender’s items B. The Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm.C. a National Penitentiary in the Philippines under the BUCOR is located in ____. Occidental Mindoro Answer: D 60. except: A. Administrative Board D. This means that: A. In jails or prisons. None of the above Answer: B 58. Davao D. The putting of offenders in prison for the purpose of protecting the public and at the same time rehabilitating them by requiring the latter to undergo institutional treatment program is referred to as: A. Conditional pardon B. Supervision of prisoners B. Commutation Answer: C 57. No one must escape its effect C. about 1990 BC. Hammurabic Code B.

may be granted for another probation D. The attempt to prevent future crimes through fear of punishment. which grants probation to prisoner sentenced to term in prison of not more than six (6) years? A. Retribution B. Affiliation Guidance B. Notify the nearest police precinct D. Deterrence C. plug off the escape routes B. A. Incapacitation D. sound the alarm B. prosecution C. Those who have been once on probation under the Probation Law: A. are disqualified to apply for probation C. RA 698 C. A. Retribution B. to give warning shots Answer: A 65. This pillar/component of our criminal justice system has been regarded the weakest pillar due to its failure to eliminate recidivism and habitual offenders. PD 968 D. law enforcement B. PD 869 Answer: C 66. call the warden or the director Answer: A 64. protect the other inmates D. are qualified to apply for probation B. the officer at the control centers shall immediately: A. The traditional goal of penology is A.just been perpetuated in the jail. PD 603 B. Incapacitation D. Rehabilitation Answer: B 70. Deterrence C. should be confined in prison Answer: B 68. correction Answer: D 69. Probation Guidance Answer: C 67. to shoot the escapees C. Which of these is known as the Adult Probation Law. locked prisoners in their respective cells C. Supervision D. Rehabilitation Answer: B . all members of the custodial force shall immediately issued firearms and assigned to critical posts to: A. court D. Pre-sentenced Investigation C. In case of mass jailbreak. The continuing relationship between probation officer and probationer is known as – A.

Common jails D. Bureau of Corrections C. The task of changing an offender’s attitude so that he or she may not commit another crime in the future. Bureau of Corrections C. Provincial Government D. Bureau of Corrections D. the Correctional Institution for Women (CIW). city and municipal jails to implement a better system of jail management nationwide A. Workhouses C. Incapacitation D. Retribution B. They were known as Bridewells. Provincial Government D. and Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm are all under this agency. A. provided housing and support for older and poorer persons. that is. Rehabilitation Answer: A 73. Department of Justice Answer: B 78. Incapacitation D. Deterrence C.71. BJMP B. A. Parole and Probation Administration Answer: A 75. and detained vagrants. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm. It exercise supervision and control over provincial jails. Bureau of Corrections C. It direct. The New Bilibid Prison. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology B. Deterrence C. Parole and Probation Administration Answer: B 77. A. An agency under the Department of Justice that is charged with custody and rehabilitation of national offenders. Department of Justice C. supervise and control the administration and operation of all district. A. those sentenced to serve a term of imprisonment of more than three (3) years A. A. Rehabilitation Answer: D 72. The idea that re-entry of an offender should be in the mainstream of society rather than the usual abrupt re-entry at the end of a prison sentence. which started in 1553 and served as training schools for delinquent youths. BJMP B. An attached agency of the Department of Justice which provides a less costly alternative to imprisonment of offenders who are . House of Corrections B. BJMP B. Reintegration B. Penal colonies Answer: B 74. Provincial Government D. Parole and Probation Administration Answer: C 76.

Auburn Prison Model C. Halfway houses Answer: A 85. city prisoners D. Auburn Prison Model C. Prisoners whose sentences are more than three years to capital punishment are considered A. Halfway houses B. A. Halfway Houses Answer: B 83. Work Release D. Halfway houses Answer: C 84. Pennsylvania Prison Model B. provincial prisoners C. A prison model where incarcerated persons are allowed to work outside the institution that houses them. municipal prisoners B. Halfway Houses Answer: A 82. A. Bureau of Corrections C.likely to respond to individualized community based treatment programs. insular prisoners Answer: A 81. BJMP B. Penal colonies C. Provincial Government D. A. Probation B. Parole D. A correctional institution that has the authority to detain persons awaiting trial or adjudication or confine convicted offenders for a short period of time. Work Release D. A prison model which sought penitence (hence the term penitentiaries) through total individual isolation and silence. Parole and Probation Administration Answer: D 79. Work release C. A. Work release C. provincial prisoners C. insular prisoners Answer: D 80. Parole D. Probation B. city prisoners D. Prisoners whose sentences are from one day to six months are A. Jails . municipal prisoners B. A. An alternative to incarceration granted after a convicted person served a part of his sentence and is allowed to complete a sentence at large. Pennsylvania Prison Model B. subject to restrictions and supervision. An alternative to incarceration that allow convicted persons to remain at large and under varying degrees of restriction and supervision and certain conditions imposed by the granting court. A.

What is the type of penalty described? A. Bond . Probation B. A prisoner serving a term of six (6) years and up C. A. Integrated C. including those who are waiting their death sentence. Psychological Theory C. Traditional Answer: C 92. Institutional B. Prison Answer: D 87.D. Classical Theory Answer: D 90. Halfway house B. an indeterminate sentence D. Pardon C. Biological Theory D. Farm house C. A prisoner serving a term below six (6) years B. Community – based D. A prisoner serving a term of three (3)years and one (1) day up Answer: C 89. a corporal punishment B. A prisoner serving a term of six (6) months and one (1) day to three (3) years D. A. a determinate sentence C. This theory in criminology states that people are totally responsible for their behaviors and the stress is more on the effect of their felonious act than upon the criminal. Parole Answer: C 91. Who among the following is a provincial prisoner? A. A. A minimum and maximum amount of time to be served in prison is referred to as A. RA 9165 C. A correctional institution that has the authority to detain convicted offenders for longer or extended period of time. The Parole and Probation Administration administers the _____ Correctional Program. The law creating the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology. RA 8551 B. Amnesty D. A. Which of the following is an executive clemency that requires the concurrence of congress? A. Positivist Theory B. Jail D. RA 4890 Answer: C 88. Pedro was required to provide financial remuneration for the losses incurred by the victim. a capital punishment Answer: C 93. RA 6975 D. All of these Answer: C 86.

Which agency performs the evaluation of prisoner’s fitness and qualifications for the grant of pardon or parole? A. Answer: B 98.B. Rehabilitation center B. What crimes apparently have no complaining victims such as gambling. Jail Management Law . confinement retribution. The ________ theory in crime causation focuses on the criminal disorders. Articles 1706 . None of the above Answer: D 97. retribution. Make periodic report B. Victimless crimes Answer: D 96. prostitution and drunkenness? A. Retribution C. incapacitation. What kind of program employs prisoners in various product or good producing tasks? A. Administrative Answer: C 95. Stay away from bad associates. Prison Answer: B 101. Deterrence. Restitution D. rehabilitation C. Life imprisonment D. Punishment. A. The Supreme Court automatically reviews the cases of criminals convicted and meted out the penalty of A. treatment B. Remuneration Answer: C 94. What correctional institution houses accused persons awaiting trial? A. punishment treatment D. Industrial D. Death C. Age Reform C. 12 years 6 months and one day B. Age of Discernment D. chromosomes irregularity and abnormal brain activity. Deterrence. Complex Crime B. Operational C. Halfway house D. Which of the following should a probationer avoid? A. Correction Law B. Go and play in the gambling den C. Blue Collar crimes D. Age of Reason Answer: A 100. Jail C. Work regularly to support family D. None of these B. Compound Crime C. 6 years one month and one day Answer: B 99. Retribution.1727 of the revised Administrative Code as amended is known as A. Agricultural B.

Exile B. abolish D. The process of determining the needs and requirements of prisoners for assigning them to programs according to their existing resources is called: A. diversification D. which was incorporated into the Justinian Code. The meaning of the word oblivion is A. Instrument of Restraint B. keep in check or under control is the A. The mechanical device or contrivance. Metallic chains Answer: A 103. quality control Answer: C 107. class of persons C.C. . social degradation C. The imprisonment a convicted offender may serve. public execution B. a criminal may be sent away from a place carried out by prohibition to coming against a specified territory.00 a day subject to certain rules. None of the above Answer: A 105. Treatment Board Answer: A 104. During the 16th up to the 18th century. at the rate of PhP8. quarantine C. public trial Answer: B 108. Iron leg Lock C. Subsidiary imprisonment B. classification B. community based treatment Answer: A 106. One of the following represents the earliest codification of the Roman law. Prison Law D. forgetting completely B. Board of Custody C. This is an ancient form of punishment called: A. for failure to pay a fine and if ordered to do so by the judgment is referred to as A. Banishment D. Secondary imprisonment C. Transportation C. Preventive imprisonment D. Classification Board B . Parole and Probation Law Answer: C 102. banishment D. the type supervision and degree of custody and restriction under which an offender must live in jail? A. tools or implement used to hold back. Who is tasked with the gathering and collecting of information and other data of every prisoner into a case study to determine the work assignment. Public humiliation or public exhibition also mean: A. Public trial Answer: C 109. Diagnostic Board D. Handcuffs D.

New Bilibid Jail D. After 10 days from the promulgation of the sentence. What law renamed the Bureau of Prison to Bureau of Correction during the Aquino administration in the Philippines? A. Manuel Montesimos Answer: A 115. the old Bilibid Prison is now being used as the Manila City Jail. the City of Manila exchanges its Muntinlupa property with the Bureau of Prisons originally intended as a site for boys’ training school. In the history of correction. Robert Peel C. he recommended the following: single cells for sleeping. The concept follows that the victim’s family or tribe against the family or tribe of the offender. Today. C. not liable for evasion of service of sentence . Twelve Tables Burgundian Code Code of Draco Hammurabic code Answer: A 110. Solitary system B. hence “blood feuds” was accepted in the early primitive societies. The sheriff of Bedsfordshire in 1773 who devoted his life and fortune to prison reform.A.O 727 B. “Tandang Sora State” C. E. Alexander Macanochie was the one who introduced the __ of correction A. E. Mr.After his findings on English Prisons. Retaliation means: A. Congregate system Answer: C 111. liable for evasion of service of sentence B. John Howard B. In 1936. segregation of youth. considered as an escaped prisoner C. thinkers during the reformatory movement were the major influences of today’s correctional system. Retaliation is the earliest remedy for a wrong act to any one (in the primitive society). provision of sanitation facilities. All of these Answer: A 113.O 104 Answer: B 112. Tooth for a tooth C. “ May Halique Estate” B. William Penn D.O 645 D. D. he escaped from his place of confinement. famous as the : A. Personal Vengeance B. B. segregation of women. and abolition of fee system by which jailers obtained money from prisoners. Marked System D. Irish System C. Eye for an Eye D. A. Cruz was convicted of the crime of murder.O 292 C. He maybe A. Muntinlupa Jail Answer: A 114. E. E.

Bridewell Workhouse B. recidivist B. Retribution Answer: D 121. quasi-recidivist C. The purpose of commutation of sentence is to: A. restore the political and civil rights of the accused D. for all intents and purposes. Bantog was convicted for the crime of infanticide.This is one justification of punishment called: A. After serving her sentence she committed again the same crime. One of the following is an admission procedure which involves the frisking of the prisoner. all of the above Answer: D 122. Super Maximum Security Prisoners B. none of these Answer: D 120. Maximum Security Prisoners C. Ms. a basketball player. The punishment should be provided by the state whose sanction is violated. arbitrary detention B. A. Ramon. Identification B. mentally retarded person Answer: A 117. do away with the miscarriage of justice B. Burgundian House D. A. Wulnut Street Jail C. Incapacitation C. Atonement B. to afford the society or individual the opportunity of imposing upon the offender suitable punishment as might be enforced.C. habitual delinguent D. minimum security prisoners Answer: B 123. arrested Berto for some legal ground but he failed to file a complaint against the latter with in the prescribed period of filing. Offenders should be punished because they deserve it. illegal arrest D. If the warden is taken as the hostage.D. What crime did Ramon committed? A. The Camp Sampaguita of the national Bilibid Prison houses A. no crime committed Answer: B 118. The only early Roman place of confinement which was built under the main sewer of Rome in 64 B. All of these Answer: A 116. Minimum Security Prisoners Answer: C 119.Ms. Searching C. Deterrence D. he ceases to exercise authority and the next in command or the __________ officer present shall assume the . Medium Security Prisoners D. Briefing/Orientation D. illegal Detention C. Ines Bantog maybe considered as a A. break the rigidity of the law C.

England B. Jeremy Bentham . 60 days B. a reformatory for delinquent boys A. Reprieve C. What is the country. Good aberrance C. judicial reprieve.command. Samuel Romily D. Who is the Father of Philippine Probation? A. Assistant C. originated probation. and abjuration offered offenders a degree of protection from the enactment of A. soft sentences C." also known as good aberrance. Recognizance B. None of these Answer: D 126. whose early schemes for humanizing the criminal justice under it’s common law. "Security for good behavior. 15 days D. John Howard Answer: B 131. harsh sentences B. the court shall resolve the application for probation not later thanA. Who among the following was the builder hospice of San Michelle. 5 days C. Greece D. Paying in cash D. code of Hammurabi Answer: A 129. Benefit of clergy. sanctuary. Jose Lacson B. 45 days Answer: B 125. Montesquieu B. Benefit of the Clergy D. United States C. different practices were being developed. Upon receipt of the probation officer investigation report. Penance Answer: D 128. Which of the following does not belong to the common law practices to which the emergence of probation is attributed? A. France Answer: A 127. A. Collateral Answer: B 130. Most senior D. The advocate of ultimate prison known as “the Panopticon” was A. Pope Clement XI C. Juan Ponce Enrile C. Penalizing B. Veteran B. was much like modern bail. Custodian Answer: C 124. Antonio Torres D. A. particularly in Massachusetts. criminal liabilities D. In the United States. A.

B. Samuel Romily
C. Walter Crofton
D. John Howard

Answer: A

132. The founder of the Classical School of Criminology and published
a short treaties “ On Crimes and Punishments” which contains
his reformatory ideas was
A. Jeremy Bentham
B. Cesare Lombroso
C. Cesare Beccaria
D. Enrico Ferri
Answer: C
133. Diversification means
A. Proper integration of prisoners
B. Proper classification of prisoners
C. Proper segregation of prisoners
D. Welfare of prisoners

Answer: C

134. Filipino female national prisoners are confined at the
A. Mental hospital
B. CIW
C. Manila City Jail
D. Iwahig Penal Colony
Answer: B
135. An offender who surrenders from escaping because of calamity
immediately 48 hours after the pronouncement of the
passing away of calamity shall be granted
A. 1/5 reduction of sentence
B. ½ reduction of sentence
C. 2/5 reduction of sentence
D. 2/6 reduction of sentence
Answer: B
136. What is the name of the prison institution situated in
Zamboanga, named after Capt. Blanco of the Spanish Royal
Army?
A. Old Bilibid Prison
B. Sablayan Prsions and Penal Farm
C. San Ramon Prison & Penal Farm
D. Iwahig Penal
Answer: C
137. A branch or division of law which defines crimes, treat of their
nature and provides for their punishment
A. Remedial law
B. Criminal law
C. Civil law
D.Political law
Answer: B
138. One who investigates for the court a referral for probation or
supervises a probationer or both
A. police officer
B. probationer officer
C. intelligence officer
D. law enforcer
Answer: B
139. Post sentence investigation report must be submitted by the
probation officer to the court within
A. 20 days

B. 30 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days

Answer: C

140. Parole in the Philippine is governed by the
A. determinate sentence law
B. Indeterminate sentence law
C. Board of pardon and parole
D. Parole and probation administration Answer: B
141. A detention jail in Philadelphia but it was converted into state
prison and became the first American penitentiary.
A. Auburn Prison
B. Walnut Street Jail
C. Pennsylvania Prison
D. Bride Well
Answer: B
142. The system of prison were the confinement of the prisoners in
single cells at night and congregate work in stop during the
day.
A. Pennsylvania prison
B. Auburn prison
C. Elmira reformatory
D. Alcatraz prison
Answer: B
143. Under the rules, the chairman of the classification board and
disciplinary board for jails should be
A. Warden
B. Assistant warden
C.Custodial officer
D. Security officer
Answer: B
144. A special group of prisoners composed of incorrigible, intractable
and dangerous persons who are so difficult to manage inside
prisons.
A.Medium Security prisoners
B. Maximum security prisoners
C. Super maximum security prisoners
D. Minimum Security Prisoners
Answer: B
145. One of the following is considered as the corner stone in
reformation n which includes all the life experiences which
shape a persons attitudes and behaviors.
A. Recreational program
B. Religious program
C. Educational program
D. Work program
Answer: C
146. It involves supervision of prisoners to insure punctual and
orderly movement from the dormitories, place of work, hospital
and churches in accordance with the daily schedules.
A. Control
B. Custody
C. Discipline
D. Inspection
Answer: A
147. It is a special unit in prison where by newly arrived prisoners
will be admitted for diagnostic examination, observation

A.
B.
C.
D.

Reception and Diagnostic Center
Medium Security Compound
Maximum Security Compound
Minimum Security Compound

Answer: A

148. Under the jail rules, the following are authorized disciplinary
measures imposable to inmate offender except
A. Reprimand
B. Cancellation of visiting privilege
C. Cancellation of food allowance
D. Extra fatigue duty
Answer: D
149. The principle of an “eye for an eye” “tooth for a tooth” doctrine
is common among ancient laws, specifically t
A. Code of Draco
B. Hammurabic Code
C. Summerian Code
D. Code of Solomon
Answer: B
150. “Lex Tallionis” means
A. Punishment
B. Law of retaliation
C. Retribution
D. Suffering

Answer: B

151. These were abandoned or unusable transport ships use to
confine criminals during the early period of treating criminal
offenders.
A. Hulks
B. Gaols
C. Transportation
D. Galleys
Answer: A
152. He wrote his book “State of the Prisons” and he was also
considered as the great prison reformer.
A. John Howard
B. John Augustus
C. William Penn
D. Domets of France
Answer: A
153. The first house of correction in London England was the
A. Bridewell Workhouse
B. Walnut Street Jail
C. Mamertine Prison
D. Panopticon
Answer: A
154. ___ - known as the “Rock” build in San Francisco Bay
A. Walnut prison
B. Alcatraz prison
C. New York prison
D. Red Rock penitentiary
Answer: B
155. Anything that is contrary to prison or jail rules and regulations
are considered
A. Firearms
B. Contrabands
C. Greyhounds

Revenge C. Long. Department of Interior and Local Government D. Solitary system C. conviction Answer: D 163. Galleys C. sentenced to death by means of Lethal injection was A. single decked ships propelled by sails. This referred to as the: A. The following are considered as discretionary conditions of probation except A. BJMP Answer: B 158. The first convict in the Philippines. Cooperate with the program of probation Answer: C 161. a type of ship used for transportation of criminals in the 16th century. Which is considered the forerunner of parole? A. Drinking intoxicated liquor to excess B. Summary C. Department of Finance B. A. Penalty D. A. All of the above Answer: C 157. It is the suffering that is inflicted by the state for the transgression of a law for the purpose of controlling criminals. Mendoza Answer: C 162.D. Department of Justice C. Benefits of a clergy D. low. Hulks D. Abstain from visiting house of ill repute C. Congregate system Answer: A 160. Asiong Salonga C. Due process D. Penalty B. What is nature in hearing the violation of a probation? A. Baby Ama B. Prevention B. Leo Echagaray D. In the 13th C. Meet his family responsibilities D. usually rowed by criminals. trial D. None of the above Answer: B 159. Formal B. Gregorio S. Mark system B. a criminal could avoid ________ by claiming refugee in a church for a period of 40 days at the end of which time he has compelled to leave the realm by a road or path assigned to him. Stocks Answer: B . Parole and Probation Administration is under the direction of the A. Personal belongings Answer: B 156. Gaols B. punishment C. narrow.

Roman Law D. natural phenomenon Answer: C 165. Pardon C. The __________ is considered forerunner of modern penology because it has all the elements in a modern system. Anglo-American Law C. Life imprisonment B. which have been extended to and adopted by all countries aside from those that produced them. Exile C. A. Physical torture D. The Classical School of penology maintains the “doctrine of psychological hedonism” or __________. Wulnut Street Jail D. Elmira Reformatory C. One of the following is not an administrative function exercised by the executive branch of the government. That the individual calculates pleasures and pains in advance of action and regulates his conduct by the result of his calculations. A. Borstal Institution for Boys Answer: B 169. Probation B. Mohammedan Law B. Evelyn Brise B. Reclusion Perpetua D. All of these Answer: B 170. it was the _____ that has the most lasting and most pervading influence. Capital punishment refers to: A. A. Among the three. extinguishes criminal liability of offender . maiming is for A. Social degradation B. A.164. Hanging is for death penalty. Walter Crofton Answer: C 168. History has shown that there are three main legal systems in the world. denied individual responsibility B. Amnesty Answer: A 171. A. Death Penalty C. Bridewell Workhouse B. Zebulon Brockway D. free will C. pleasures and avoiding pain D. Who is the Director of the English Prison who opened the Borstal Institution for young offenders? The Borstal Institution is considered as the best reform institution for young offenders today. Parole D. Pardon granted by the Chief Executive A. Hammurabic Code Answer: C 166. Slavery Answer: C 167. Manuel Montesimos C.

Security group for jails B. and assisted by Deputy Chief with the Rank of Chief Superintendent. A. false Answer: D 174. Imprisonment is not always advisable. partially false C. Control Area Answer: A 176. Fernandez vs. partially true B. Aquino C.B. Placing a person to custodial coercion is to place him in physical jeopardy. The power of the chief Executive to grant pardon is limited to . partially true B. does not extinguish civil liability of offender C. must be given After the prosecution of the offense D. The group having the responsibility of providing a system of sound custody. security and control of inmates and their movements and also responsible to enforce prison or jail discipline is the: A. true D. x-rays. A unit of the prison or a section of the RDC where the prisoner is given thorough physical examination including blood test. This principle is based on the ____ of community based treatment programs. Legal aspect Answer: A 177. It operates as a line bureau under the Department of Interior and Local Government (DILG). true D. partially false C. This statement is: A. vaccinations and immunity is the: A. Restorative aspect B. thus drastically narrowing his access to source of personal satisfaction and reducing his self-esteem. The enactment of Republic Act no. Escort Platoon C. Warden Answer: A 175. None of these Answer: A 178. and that it is absolute in so far it restores the pardonee to full civil and political rights. Quarantine cell B. Cristobal vs. The case where the Supreme Court laid down the doctrine that the absolute pardon removes all that is left of the consequences of conviction. A. Death row D. NBP C. This statement is: A. Labrador B. Galit D. Humanitarian aspect C. People vs. 6975 created the BJMP. Control Center groups D. The Jail Bureau shall be headed by a chief with a rank of Director General. all of the above Answer: D 172. false Answer: C 173. Managerial aspect D.

The background of the prisoner before he was committed to prison – social. D. Alcatraz prison B. also sometimes used as punishment. parole or suspension of sentence for the violation of any election law may be granted without favorable recommendation of the Commission of Elections. This statement is: A. The political. Pardon can not be extended to cases of impeachment. where the violation necessitate Immediate action. except: A.the following. a general rule D. In determining the fitness of a prisoner for release on conditional pardon. B. B. Silver Mine Farm Answer: B 184. C. USA? It is located approximately 30 miles (48 km) north of New York City on the banks of the Hudson River which the Auburn Prison system was applied A. Every violation of jail/prison discipline shall be dealt with accordingly. dangerous. Wulnut Street Jail D. Pardon is administered by the court Answer: D 179. true D. also called a 'block' or 'isolation cell'. economic. Which of the following is a maximum security prison in Ossining. partially false C. an emergency plan C. or vulnerable prisoners from the general population. Financial capacity of the prisoner. unassignable prisoners to undergo prison programs B. false Answer: B 182. not applicable to prisoners Answer: C 183. Parole is not claimed as a right but the Board of Parole grants it as a privilege to a qualified prisoner. Due regard should be given the attitude of the people in the community from which he was sentenced. New York. No pardon. In extreme cases. . all of these C. organizational or religious affiliation of the prisoner should be disregarded. minimum security prisoners Answer: D 181. A ___. Sing Sing Prison C.those in disciplinary status. used to separate unruly. the following points shall be considered as guides. Pardon is exercised only after conviction D. and those who are chronically ill with mental disabilities are considered: A. the warden or the Officer of the Day may administer the necessary restraints and reports the action taken to A. C. special group of offenders D. an SOP B. partially true B. except: A. Answer: D 180. awaiting transfer. Prisoners who are nearly to leave the institution.

New York. Galley room Answer: B 186. D. Zebulon Brockway B. It is the idea that the moral worth of an action is solely . avoid watching D. New York System D. Irish system C. None of these Answer: C 187. Death row C. This statement is: A. with enforced silence at all times. or a section in prisons where criminals are placed awaiting execution? A. B. Who among the following was given the title “father of Prison Reform” in the United States? A. is a maximum security prison located in New York in the USA. True B.A. Albany system B. to allow an observer to observe B. Garotine D. False C. John Howard D. It is the only women's maximum security prison in New York State. A. The prison is located in Chemung County. To walk in military manner Answer: A 189. Alexander Macanochie Answer: A 191. Elmira Correctional Facility. C. It is the largest women's prison in New York State and has hosted many infamous prisoners. The Auburn system is also known as A. The Panopticon is a type of prison building designed by English philosopher Jeremy Bentham in 1785. Robert Peel C. Westchester County. “the dungeon” Answer: B 190. The Auburn system is a penal method of the 19th century in which persons worked during the day in groups and were kept in solitary confinement at night. “Opticon’ means: A. Bedford Hills Correctional Facility for Women is a prison in Bedford Hills. New York in the City of Elmira. known otherwise as ___. Segregation Unit Reception Unit Quarantine Unit Cell 45 Answer: A 185. USA. What is the place in some prisons. Execution room B. “the school” B. Partially true D. “the hill” C. Partially false Answer: A 188. “the rock” D. with out the prisoner C. The concept of the design was derived from the word meaning of “pan” and “opticon”.

that is. Pancuronium C. 1976 C. testing period D.determined by its contribution to overall utility. A. Bicarbonate Answer: C 195. used for execution by hanging? A. Hedonism B. Sodium thiopental B. In the Philippines. and founder of the Borstal system? A. Which of the following drug is injected to stops the heart thus causing death by cardiac arrest? A. Besides religious laws such as the Torah. typically wooden. It is thus a form of consequentialism. Penology Answer: A 192. Alexander Mocanochie C. its contribution to happiness or pleasure as summed among all persons. important codifications of laws were developed in the ancient Roman Empire. Who was the British prison administrator and reformer. Galley B. from the Latin word “probatio” which means ___. with the compilations of the Lex Duodecim Tabularum. Potassium chloride D. 1972 D. Gallows C. live with integrity C. walk with faith B. Double blade Answer: B 194. Lethal injection refers to the practice of injecting a person with a fatal dose of drugs for the explicit purpose of causing the death of the subject. Execution by electrocution (referred to as the Electric Chair) is an execution method originating in the United States in which the person being put to death is strapped to a specially built wooden chair and electrocuted through electrodes placed on the body. 1918 Answer: A 196. Sir John Watson Answer: C 197. Zebulon Brockway B. the Corpus Juris Civilis B. has historical roots in the practice of judicial reprieve. Determinism D. In the history of capital punishment. 1924 B. what do they call this frame. Hulk D. the Twelve Tables .This law refers to A. The concept of probation. Evelyn Ruggles Brise D. Positivism C. out of prison Answer: C 193. The main application for this procedure is capital punishment. A. meaning that the moral worth of an action is determined by its outcome—the ends justify the means. its first use was in : A.

Opponents of capital punishment claim that a prisoner's isolation and uncertainty over their fate constitute a form of mental cruelty and those especially long-time death row inmates are liable to become mentally ill. if they are not already. A. and then until there is a convenient time for __. Ridge bifurcation D. Short ridge D. This is referred to as A. they will remain on death row while following an appeals procedure. A. Execution syndrome D. Cruelty syndrome C. Independent ridge C. A single ridge that divide into two ridges. if they so choose. Pardon C. the Hammurabic code D. The first permanent system of codified laws could be found in China. Delta 4. A. Short ridge D. death row phenomenon B. Ting Code D. Delta B. A single ridge that bifurcates and reunites shortly afterwards . travels a short distance and then ends. Tang Code B. lex taliones Answer: B 198. Ridge ending B. with the compilation of the A. Spur C. A Ridge that commences. Execution B. Chang Code Answer: A 199. Island 5. Island 2. Ridge bifurcation 3. A. Spur C. A. A single small ridge inside a short ridge or ridge ending that is nor connected to all other ridges. Ridge ending B.C. Parole D Amnesty Answer: A Personal Identification Reviewer 1 1. None of these Answer: A 200. Spur D. The abrupt end of a ridge. Bridge C. After individuals are found guilty of an offense and sentenced to execution. Ridge ending B. Wong Code C.

Short ridge C.to continue as a single ridge.A single ridge that bifurcates and reunites shortly afterwards to continue as a single ridge. Delta B. Spur 9. Delta B. A bifurcation with short ridge branching off a longer ridge. Island 6. 2. Ridge bifurcation . Island . A.A U turn in the ridge pattern. Bridge B.A Y shaped ridge meeting.A short ridge that runs between two parallel ridges. A U turn in the ridge pattern. Bridge . Core B. Short ridge . Minutiae B.Major features of a fingerprint. 3. Delta 7.A single small ridge inside a short ridge or ridge ending that is nor connected to all other ridges. A Y shaped ridge meeting.A single ridge that divide into two ridges. Spur . A. Spur 10. Cross-over C. Ridge enclosure . 6. travels a short distance and then ends. Divergence ridge D. 4. Core D. A. Cross-over C.Major features of a fingerprint.A Ridge that commences.A bifurcation with short ridge branching off a longer ridge. Core . Ridge enclosure C. 10. 7. Spur D. 8. Personal Identification .Minutiae . Independent ridge C. Delta . A. Ridge enclosure D. Independent ridge D. 5. A. Core D. A short ridge that runs between two parallel ridges. 9. Cross-over B. Bridge C. Cross-over Remember the following: Personal Identification 1. Ridge bifurcation 8. Ridge ending -The abrupt end of a ridge. A.

A Y-shape ridge meeting. A U-turn in the ridge pattern. A 2. It refers to the identification of humans by their characteristics or traits. A. It is an electronic device used to capture a digital image of the finger print pattern. A 8. Bridge C. C 7. A. A. A bifurcation with a short ridge branching off a longer ridge. Island B. Island C. C 4. Spur . Fingerprint Identification C. A. Fingerprint B. A. Delta C. B 6. A 9. Fingerprint B. Cross-over D. Biometrics 3. Hair comparisons Answers: Personal Identification 1. Bridge D. C 10. Delta B. A short ridge that runs between two parallel ridges. A 1. Fingerprint 2. Forensic Anthropology 4. Fingerprint Sensor D. DNA 3. Fingerprint Identification C. Core 4. Fingerprint Sensor D. Cross-over 6. D 3. Core 5.1. D 5. Ridge Ending D. A. Ridge Enclosure B. Electronic Recording 2. Facial reconstruction 5.

A. A. Short Ridge B. Spur D. Spur 9. Independent Ridge D. Cross-Over B. Island C. A ridge that commences. Island . Ridge Ending B. Spur B. 9.B. Ridge Ending C. Island D. Island 8. Spur B. A bridge is also called A. Ridge Bifurcation D. Cross-over D. 4. 6. A single small ridge inside a short ridge or ridge ending that is not connected to all other ridges. Bridge C. Ridge Enclosure D. 5. A single ridge that bifurcates and reunites shortly afterwards to continue as a single ridge. Spur B. A single ridge that divides into two ridges. 7. Independent Ridge Answer: 1. Delta C. Short Ridge is also known as A. A. 2. travels a short distance and then ends. Ridge Bifurcation C. Island 7. Island C. C D D A B A C B A D 1. 8. 10. A. 3. Ridge Bifurcation C. Cross-Over 2. Cross-Over 10. Ridge Enclosure D.

The abrupt end of a ridge. Major Features of a fingerprint. Bridge 7. A. Bifurcation D. Friction Ridge C. Points at which a single ridge split into two ridges. Arch D. Accidental whorl 10.3. Dot C. A. Loop C. Loop B. Ridge Ending 8. A Short Ridge is also known as A. Spur D. 5. Ridge Enclosure C. Radial Loop B. Short Ridge C. Ridge Ending B. Island C. 4. Spur B. Bridge 9. Minutiae B. Delta B. Island D. Arch C. A. Whorl D. Latent Print D. 2. Whorl Answer: 1. It is the point at which a ridge terminate. Core 4. using which comparisons of one print with another can be made. Ridges which are significantly shorter than the average ridge length on the fingerprint. Delta D. Island B. Island D. Dots 6. A. A. Ridges form circularly around a central point on the finger. 3. Fingerprint Identification 5. Core B. D C A A D . The ridges enter from one side of the finger. A. rise in the center forming an arch and then exit the other side of the finger. A. Core C.

criminal cases D. 7. Use pencil no. Information D . civil cases C. None of these B 2. Eclectics Doctrine E. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. Deposition D 3. Informants D. administrative cases B. B D C B D REVIEW QUESTIONS IN CRIME DETECTION. 10. INVESTIGATION & PREVENTION SET TWO INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Informers B. all of the above C 5. initial interview B. The prosecutor is the proper authority to subscribe in the A. What legal doctrine was established in the case Mapp vs. Respondents C 4. Affidavit B. Complaint C. Admission B. Human sources of information who voluntarily provide facts to the detectives are generally known as A. Declaration C. preliminary interview B 6. 9.6.Ohio? A. Fruit of the Poisonous Tree Doctrine C. 1 only. The testimony of witnesses reduced in writing while under oath is generally called A. Information D. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Miranda Doctrine D. Archipelagic Doctrine B. The stage of criminal interview purposely done to clarify information already gathered or to gather additional facts about the case is the: A. Joint affidavit D. 8. concluding interview D. Proof beyond reasonable doubt is the weight and sufficiency of evidence needed to convict the defendant in A. Suspects C. follow-up interview C.

Covert operation A 11. Crime scene search B. simplicity of the question B. inform the nature and cause of accusation C. One of the following is an art. Criminals C. Declaration against interest . Informers D. Confession D. police officer C. Witnesses C 9. Complaint B. one question at a time C. which deal with the identity and location of the offender and provides evidence of his guilt through criminal proceedings. A. Intelligence C. saving faces D 14. Admission C. Instrumentation D. preserving the site of the crime in the same physical condition as it was left by the perpetrator D 13.7. Any person arrested. Res gestae B. complaint C 8. Which of the following is NOT among the rules to be observed in questioning a suspect? A. criminal investigation D 15. interrogating the witnesses B. Informants B. As established by our Supreme Court through the case People vs. removal of evidence which may prone important to the case D. engaging in the search for traces left by the search for traces left by the criminal C. The declaration made under a consciousness of an impending death is called A. interrogation C. Remuneration gain is the main motive of A. Galit. counsel D. give the Miranda warning C 10. identify yourself as a law enforcer D. show the warrant of arrest B. Deposition B 12. detained or under custodial investigation shall at all times be assisted by A. A self-incriminatory statement not tantamount to acknowledgement of criminal guilt is called A. Prosecutor B. information B. accepted applied answer D. The fundamentals responsibility of the officer in charge of protecting the crime scene is A. instrumentation D. Planned and coordinated legal search conducted to locate physical evidences at the locus criminis refers to A. the first step in arresting an offender is A.

10 days B. wind whirl C. interrogation D. ballistic test B. The effectiveness of this tool in investigation depends on the craft. 20 days D. time of disposal B 20. A. information C. A. A police officer testifying to the fact that he observed the defendant assault the victim is presenting to the court ____ evidence. identification. The warrant of arrest is good only for A. logic. The number of person who handle the evidence from the scene of the crime and between the times of the commission of the crime up to the final disposition of the case. artificial evidence D. This is known as A. scientist C. toxicologist D. The profession and scientific discipline directed to the recognition. direct evidence C. Dying declaration D. polygraph testing D 21. individualization and evaluation of physical science by application of natural sciences in matters of law and science. time of custody D. interview C . window C 18. criminalistics D 19. and psychological insight of the initiator in interpreting the information relevant to the case is called A. map B. 15 days C.C. compass direction D. real evidence B 17. questioned document test C. instrumentation B. all of these C 16. A technique useful in investigation with the application of instrumental detection of deception is called A. fingerprint testing D. circumstantial evidence B. none of these 22. A. chain of custody C. chemist B. A standard arrow to designate the north must be indicating to facilitate proper orientation. time of disposition B.

mental reconstruction D 25. Prosecutor directly to the court A 28. The lawful act of restraining a person believed to have committed a crime and placing him under custody is termed as A. Information B. This is called A. logical reasoning C. The use of scientific instruments. physical reconstruction C. methodology D. methods and processes while detecting and investigating crimes is technically called A. inductive approach D. Fiscal against the offended party D. Offended party directly to the court C. Instrumentation C . modus operandi C. Complaint document is filed by the A. Restraint C. Criminal Justice B. The defense of the suspect that he was present in a place other than the crime scene during the estimated time when the crime was committed is called A. inductive reasoning D. Imprisonment B. Alibi D. The systematic classification of the fundamentals or basic factors of a criminal method is called A. Statement C 26. Allegation C. Arrest D. Corpus delicti D. Detention C 30. deduction approach B. corpus delicti B. That type of reasoning used in reconstruction of the crime whereby the detective assumes a theory based on collected information is regarded as A. positive approach A 29. Police to the prosecutor's office B. Forensic Science C. deductive reasoning B. It is a type of reconstruction of crime wherein collected information is analyzed carefully thereby developing a theory of the crime. These are hints that suggest lines of investigative actions and information that is valuable in expanding the universe of suspects. Defense B. Modus operandi B 27. all of the above B 24. A. Criminalistics D. Investigative leads C. identifying prime suspects and finding the guilty person.23.

crime scene investigation C.31. “Releases the crime scene to the officer on case” is the function of A. system of a particular offender in committing a crime is known as A. Oral discussion B. plan. Premeditation B. team leader C. By virtue of a warrant C 33. Macro-etching B. modus operandi D. physical construction B. mental reconstruction D. Portrait parle means A. The application of the same or substantially the same pattern. Facial appearance B 34. Which of the following is under the Field Laboratory Work of the SOCO? A. sketcher D. Criminal cases D. all of the above C 35. The method employed by peace officers to trap and catch malefactor in inflagrante delicto is known as A. Entrapment D. technician . An effort made to determine what actually occurred and what the circumstances of a crime were is called A. DNA examination C. Murder cases B. By voluntary submission D. Instigation C 36. In portrait parle method the witness provides a vivid physical appearance of the offender. Civil cases C. “buy-bust” C. Preponderance of evidence is the weight and sufficiency of evidence needed to convict a person in A. By detention C. Casting D. By forcible surrender B. crime reconstruction D 37. evidence custodian B. plan C. The two forms of arrest are arrest by actual restraint and A. Photographic files D. DNA typing C 38. None of these B 32. modus operandi B. Verbal description C.

tom and jerry D. None of these D 43. Appellate Judge B. Pragmatic reasoning B 46. mutt and jeff C. A. conclusive evidence C. competent evidence B. gathering information first then developing a theory on how the crime was committed is one approach. shifting the blame B. Presiding Judge of MCTC C. secondary evidence D. Rule . RA 8353 D. “The xerox copy signed by Rose” is an example of A. substantial evidence B 41. Legal D.B 39. Deductive reasoning B. which deal with the application of medical knowledge to the purpose of law and in the Administration of justice. English System C. it also refer anything conformable to the law. expert evidence D. except: A. Chief Prosecutor D. RTC Judge C 44. It pertains to law. Medico Legal C. Which of the following detective system prioritized on information that are bought? A. Evidence which the law does not allow to be contradicted is known as A. None of these B 47. Nursing B. a relentless investigator and a king-hearted man is called A. All of these C 45. positive evidence C 40. What law enumerated and provided definition of the differ ent felonies in the Philippines? A. American System B. arising out of. none of the above B 42. In crime reconstruction. The following are authorized to issue a valid search warrant. RA 6975 C. Inductive reasoning C. otherwise known as: A. French System D. A. direct evidence C. An interrogation technique where to police officers are employed. The branch of medicine. Productive reasoning D. document evidence B. RA 8177 B. Legal B.

the delay between the time of the accident and the witnesses time together to discuss and compare their observations C. Inflagrante Delicto D. Pare Delicto C. None of these B 49. direction sign D. One of the following denotes things belonging to the court of law or use in court or legal proceeding or something fitted for legal or legal argumentation. The legal maxim which means “both drivers displayed negligence” A. reckless driving C. some physical evidence may deteriorate D. the principals are there or may still be present C. Res Ipsa Loquitor B. When 6 pedestrians who witnessed an automobile accident all tell identical stories. Locus criminis A 50. Which of the following is useful in the investigation of hit and run accidents? A. the story which they tell is true since they all agree so perfect B. Jurisdiction B. all of the above D 53. Motor vehicle registers B. Jurisprudence C. caution sign D 54. All of these A 48.C. information sign B. all of the witnesses are dishonest A 52. the investigating officer might reasonably suspect that: A. Law or Legal D. all of the above D 51. Records of accidents and stolen vehicles D. all of the witnesses are close friends with similar physical abilities opinions. actions and physical features associated with motor collision or accident is called: A. The police must arrived at the scene of the crime as quickly as possible because: A. The systematic examination of all the facts relating to condition. A. Sanction D. Employees of the body fender shops C. traffic accident investigation D. instruction sign C. traffic engineering B. hit and run investigation C . educational and the like D. The traffic sign that is triangular in shape and have a red colored border is known as: A. he is the source of the most productive evidence B.

the checks of the charring process will be larger then the surrounding areas C. key event C. confine the fire C. extinguish the fire B. The property was insured substantially more than its actual value at the time of the issuance of the policy. traffic citation C. Fire of only one origin D 61. Intense heat D. The purpose of opening the doors and windows of adjacent rooms in a burning building is to __. Fire of several origin C. serve as entrance of firemen . supply the oxygen in the area C. After a fire in which arson is suspected. the alligator pattern of charring is not as light absorbent of the surrounding areas B. stop the fire B. C. Substantial amounts of flammable substances were stored within the building not necessary in the business. the point of origin will be darker than the rest of the areas B 60. Doors and windows that were normally kept open in the course of business were found closed during the fire. The delay resulting from traffic congestion affect not only the time of travel but also the productivity of individual is part of what we call A. which of the following circumstances does not constitute a prima facie evidence of arson? A. traffic congestion C 57. The purpose of closing the doors and windows during fire is to __. The traffic enforcement action that does not contemplate possible assessment of penalty by the court A. C 59.55. D. B. slow the spread of fire D. traffic environment C. A. A. Smell of ammonia B. traffic economy D. traffic violation B 58. An event in the road which characterizes the manner of occurrence of a motor vehicle traffic accident is A. traffic arrest B. 6 of PD 1613. all of these B 56. One of the following situations is a good indication of an accidental fire. chain of accident D. In accordance with Sec. traffic engineering B. Accident B. spread the accelerants B 62. The fire started in more than one part of the building or establishment. you may be able to trace the fire to its origin because __. prevent back draft D. the pattern of charring at the point of origin is smaller and deeper than the rest of the areas D. traffic warning D. A. A.

Over using B. An arsonist may rearrange materials or furniture in a room prior to setting it on fire in order to __. Iontophoresis D. Overdose B. simultaneous burning C. A. Topical method B. is known as __. Fire unsafe A 68. Victims D. Over capacity B 70.C 63. mislead the investigators B. By standers B. Side effect . size of fire C. Fire hazard B. separate burning B. consulting the original structure blueprint on file B. origin of fire D 65. rapidity of spread D. intensity of fire B. provide a quick burning situation D. all of the above D 64. the important point to establish is ___. camouflage the odor of accelerants C. The introduction of drugs into the deeper layer of the skin by means of special electric current is known as: A. A. The fire that started in almost all corners of the building at the same time is called __. A. If the fire is set by rationale motive. Allergic reaction C. interviewing spectators C. When too much drug is taken into the physiological system of the human body. Arsonists C. the position of doors and windows during the fire whether opened or closed may be ascertained by __. collecting broken pieces of window glasses D. Over loading C. locating the hardware used in the construction of such doors D 69. A. Oral method C 71. Fire trap C. Fire resistive D. A. Over plugging D. A building which is unsafe in case of fire because it lacks adequate fire exit is said to be a __. Using electrical appliances. Firemen D 66. there maybe an over extension of its effect which is commonly called: A. related burning B 67. Injection method C. A. The “eyes and ears” of the investigators in fire investigation are the A. In cases where a structure is completely burned to the ground. non-related burning D. which draws electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the electrical circuit.

Alder Wright C 79. marijuana leaves C 77. Opium use in China was stemmed out from India and became widespread in the 19th Century. Green triangle D. Opium Poppy D. Freidrich Serturner D. What do you call the incident where vast numbers of American soldiers were addicted on the morphine drug during the American Civil War? A. unexpected results D. None of these D 76. Which of the following is considered as the world’s oldest cultivated plant as a source of prohibited drug? A. Golden Crescent C. From Middle East. Golden triangle B 78. Troy Mcweigh C. What is the chemical name of the Heroin drug? A. Peyote Cactus A 75. Coca Bush C. The actual action of a particular drug depend on the basis of: A. a Muslim leader.D. Cannabis Sativa B. they may interact with: A. Morpheum Illness B. person’s tolerance C. the marijuana resin D. Marijuana B. Allan Heithfield B. Idiosyncracy D 72. Iranand Afghanistan which is known as the: A. Pakistan. or with in a few hours of each other. Among the following was the German pharmacist who discovered the morphine drug. The opium poppy plant is scientifically known as: A. The word hashis is derived from the name Hasan/Hashasin. A. female marijuana plant C. the plant was cultivated in India. Dreamer’s syndrome B 80. Erythroxylon coca D. male marijuana plant B. Amphetamine Sulfate . City of Dope B. no effects C 73. Soldier’s Disease phenomenon C. good effects B. Hashis C. food and water intake A 74. American Addiction D. bad effects C. it’s chemical component B. Hashis refers to: A. body absorption D. When two drugs are taken together.

The America’s most famous private investigator and founder of Criminal Investigation in USA. Normally. Manic depressive D.B. Sideward C. Asphyxiation D 83. 953 B. Conclusions B 87. John Fielding D. He was a buckle maker then a brothel operator. Undeveloped D. A. Jonathan Wild C. fire feeds in all directions. He established the practice of handwriting examination in American courts and promoted a plan to centralize criminal identification records. but the least likely path a fire will follow is A. A. Diacetylmorphine C. 6425 A 82. One of the following is a fire resistant item. Allan Pinkerton . What part of the investigation report that gives a brief summary of the major investigative steps accomplished? A. Asbestos B. R. Which of the following law was enacted to provide for the registration of collection. Details B. Uncontrollable impulse to incendiarism is commonly known as A. Acetonyl Dioxide D. Jonathan Wild C. John Fielding D. Synopsis C. Falling materials D. He was the most famous thief catcher in 1720s. Henry Fielding B. A. PD 44 C. Sulfur A 84. Outward laterally C 86. Upward B. Arson A 85. Burn C. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride B 81. R. Shock B. Borax C. Phosphate of ammonia D. Henry Fielding B. R. Chales Dickens B 88. and the imposition of fixed and special taxes upon all persons who engage in illegal drug production? A.A.A 7659 D. Kleptomania B.A. Downward D. a master criminal who became London’s most effective criminal investigator. The cause of majority of fire deaths is: A. Pedophilia C.

A fire started from the basement of the building. Interval B. Combustion products A 91.D 89. Flame D. Plants B. Gasoline C 92. The sudden ignition of accumulated radical gases produced when there is incomplete combustion of fuel A. Traffic system C. Acceleration flow D. After 30 minutes. Heat B. Smoke C. Smooth flow A 94. Traffic signals A 95. Phase D. The time within which the traffic indicates of any particular traffic signal face does not change: A. Accelerants C. A signal system is created when two or more signals on any traffic route is coordinated with a fixed time relationship among the several intervals known as: A. None of these D 90. A. Skip method search B. the whole building has turned into ashes. beginning on the outside and spiraling in toward the center. Traffic flow C. Flashover D. Quadrant search D. Which among the following is responsible for the spread of fire in the building? A. In this method. Saturation flow B. These are used by fire setters in spreading the fire throughout the building A. Signal system B. A flow which would be obtained if there is a continuous flow of vehicle and are given a one hundred percent green time is called: A. the three searchers follow each other along the path of a spiral. Timing A . Trailers D. Traffic lights D. Biteback C 93. Backdraft B. Round the clock method of search C. Cycle C. Flashfire C.

96. The total time required for the complete sequence of the phase is known as:
A. Cycle
B. Cycle length
C. Timing
D. Interval
B
97. the objective of traffic signal time apportionment to secure movement with safety through an
intersection with a minimum delay is called:
A. Timing
B. Cycle length
C. Phase
D. Interval
A
98. A portion of a signal cycle during which an assignment of right of way is made to given traffic
management:
A. Offset
B. Traffic phase
C. Signal cycle
D. Cycle split
B
99. The number of times allocated to each phase of traffic light is called:
A. Split
B. Cycle time
C. Cycle split
D. Traffic phase
A
100.On a highway, a yellow or white line with a dotted white line means that
A. you cannot overtake if the solid is in your side
B. absolutely no overtaking
C. overtaking allowed
D. keep right
A

- End of Set Two -

REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY, ETHICS & HUMAN RELATIONS

SET ONE

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one
answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the
answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.

The Police seek to prevent crimes by being present in places where crimes might be committed
and by alerting citizens to refrain from practices that make them or their property vulnerable.
A. law enforcement
B. public services
C. opportunity denial
D. order maintenance
C

2.

The society’s prime instrument for making known what acts are crimes and what sanctions may be
applied to those who commit acts defined as crimes.
A. Ethics
B. Law
C. Conduct
D. Justice
B
3. A social norm providing guidance for people in their dealings with one another, as a standard
against which actions are evaluated, and as a prescription or requirement that people act justly.
A. Law
B. Justice
C. Ethics
D. conduct
B
4. It is the study of human society, its origin, structure, functions and direction.
A. Psychology
B. Criminology
C. Sociology
D. Anthropology
C

5.

A person who has violated the penal law and has been found guilty by the court.
A. Accused
B. Parolee
C. Suspect
D. Criminal

D
6.
A.
B.
C.
D.
D
7.
A.
B.
C.
D.

A body of knowledge regarding crime as a social phenomenon.
criminal psychology
criminal sociology
criminal law
criminology
The reduction or elimination of the desire and opportunity to commit a crime.
law enforcement
crime prevention
protection of rights
order maintenance

B
8.

The primary advocate of the Positivist School in Criminology.
A. Cesare Beccaria
B. Cesare Lombroso
C. Henry Goddard
D. Augusto Comti

B
9.
A.
B.
C.
D.

The science of classifying human physical characteristics.
Determinism
Somatology
Positivism
Atavism

B
10. Reacting to events with alertness and vigilance and a feeling of persecution.
A. dementia praecox
B. hallucination

C. paranoia
D. depression
C
11. Science concerned with improving the quality of human off springs.
A. Genetics
B. Eugenics
C. Criminology
D. Heredity
B

12. Scientific approach based upon mental processes and characteristics.
A. psychogenic determinism
B. emotional determinism
C. biological determinism
D. criminological determinism
A
13. The principle that events, including criminal behavior, has sufficient causes.
A. Positivism
B. Determinism
C. Atavism
D. Nazism
B
14. Criminals who acted under the impulse of uncontrolled emotion on occasion during otherwise
moral lives.
A. seasonal criminals
B. criminals of passion
C. occasional criminals
D. born criminals
B
15. It is the most basic social institution and is the most potentially effective agency of social control.
A. Church
B. Community
C. Family
D. School
C
16. A sub-discipline of criminology which focuses on victims of crime.
A. Penology
B. Criminal psychology
C. Criminal profiling
D. Victimology
D
17. An irrational fear which is fixed, intense, uncontrollable and often has no reasonable foundation.
A. Phobia
B. Delusions
C. Regression
D. Anxiety
A
18. The principle which states that man, by nature, always tries to maximize pleasure and avoid pain.
A. Utopia
B. Hedonism
C. Socialism
D. Atavism
B

A. acquisitive crime B. seasonal crime D. spirit 26. Referred to as dementia praecox. Morality C. Discernment B. Imbecility A 20. Schizophrenia B. A. this refers to the conscience of man. A. theory of evolution A 24. A doctrine which criminals were seen as distinct types of humans who could be distinguished from non criminals by certain physical traits. psychopathy A 25. A type of crime in which the end result is destructive. theory of natural selection C. It has the power to define and punish crimes. State C.19. The purpose of penalty in the Positivist School of Criminology. Criminal epidemiology B. A. Id C. Rejection D. static crime B 27. The mental capacity to distinguish right from wrong. Ethics D. manic depression C. Judiciary D. illegal possession of prohibited drugs C 22. paranoia D. Study of criminality in relation to spatial distribution in a community. super ego D. illegal detention D. theory of differential association D. A. Restitution B 23. illegal gambling C. this is a form of psychosis characterized by thinking disturbance and regression. Police B 21. extinctive crime C. Reformation C. According to psychoanalysis. theory of biological inferiority B. A. Vagrancy B. Criminal psychology . Retribution B. A. A. Ego B. Criminal demography C. Church B. Which of the following is not a victimless crime? A.

citizen’s arrest B. Criminal determinism B 28. Corrections B. Constitution C. Common Law B 34. To enforce the laws of the land To rehabilitate prisoners To represent the government in criminal cases All of these D 34. Detention D. detection of a crime D. decision B 31. commission of a crime B. Search B. A. juridical arrest A 30. The major function of the PROSECUTION component of the Criminal Justice System. which triggers the operation of the criminal justice process. D. It means not only observed acts of crime but the results of a crime. Prosecutions C.D. solution of a crime C. The reading of charges against the accused in the open court and the declaration of his plea of guilty or not guilty. hearing D. court A 32. A. Trial C A. law enforcement D. 33. A. executive power B. A. Charging B. A. A valid warrant less arrest. A. Seizure C. The supreme law of the Land. Sentencing C. A component or pillar of the Criminal Justice System which is involved in the administration of appropriate sanctions in keeping with the sentence handed down. PNP Law D. void arrest C. Bible B. A. jurisdiction C. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of an offense. Arraignment D. adjudication of a crime . illegal arrest D. The authority of the court to hear or determine a case. B. C. Arrest D 29.

trial advocacy B. corrections A 42. A. child defect D. rehabilitation D. order maintenance D. defense of alibi D. A. Ethics C. defense of consent D. law enforcement C. child abuse D 43. crowd control C. The society’s primary instrument for making known what acts are crimes and what sanctions may be applied to those who commit acts defined as crimes. defense of duress D 38. defense of consent C. The informal component of the Criminal Justice System. The machinery of the State designed to enforce the law by arresting. PD 603 is known as: . charging A 40. A law enforcement function in order to preserve social and public order. defense of instigation B. Community B. Court B. defense of duress B 41. A. Criminal Justice System D. not of any intent on the part of the accused. Law B. pleading C. A. Government C. Due Process of Law C 36.35. A. A. by representing the State in criminal cases and to present the case to the judge. A function of the Prosecution. Conduct A 39. Protection B. limb or a loved one. child delinquency C. defense of alibi C. child misuse B. but of threats of loss of life. A claim by the accused that he or she was in another place when the crime occurred and therefore could not have committed it. crime prevention C 37. This defense in a criminal case is based on the claim that the act was the result. defense of instigation B. prosecuting and adjudicating those accused of violating it and by applying the proper sanctions to those found guilty. A. prosecution D. Media D. Maltreatment of a child is considered0 A.

A. A. Community C. Family B. A. A type of terrorism which is meant to incite the government to repression. Crime C 45. symbolic terrorism B. A. A. Shelter care Institution B. The following are guidelines for police negotiators. Recidivism B. A twenty four hour child caring institution that provide short term resident care for youthful offenders. the Parole Law the Probation Law the Child and Youth Welfare Code the Revised Penal Code for children C 44. except one. abandoned child C. organizational terrorism C. Patient . symbolic terrorism D. It refers to anti social act which deviates from normal pattern of rules and regulations A. Make sure you get something in return for a concession B 51. The following are qualities which must be possessed by a police negotiator except one: A. Give in to all of the terrorists’ demands C. Foster Home D. abusive child A 46. Detention Home A 47. provocative terrorism C. Delinquency D. A. Flexible B. A type of terrorism which is aimed at a victim who symbolizes the State. allegiance terrorism D. Narco-terrorism B 49. A. Prison B 48. C. Conserve your concession D. Religion D. Reiteracion C. B. Don’t raise the aspirations or expectations of the hostage takers B. provocative terrorism A 50. D. Nursery C. A local government together with society of individuals or institutions. organizational terrorism B. dependent child D. neglected child B. Irrational C. A child whose basic needs have been deliberately unattended.

conventional warfare B. satisfy vengeance D. procedures and techniques for dealing with sudden violent acts of terrorists. Crazies C. Which of the following is considered least among terroristic tactic? A. A. operate openly B. It is a method whereby an organized group or party seeks to achieve its avowed aims chiefly through the systematic use of violence. Crusaders B. obtain money. The effective planning. bombing D. knows psychology B 52. Hostage Syndrome D. formulation of policies. assassination C. A. media coverage . protection of life B. these are terrorists who are using terrorism to change society. kidnapping A 57. Stockholm Syndrome C. Crisis Management C. weapon or equipment B. The most important consideration in a hostage taking situation. A. terrorism D.D. Criminals D. insurrection C. Mercenaries A 56. According to Frederick Hacker. free prisoners B 55. The following are characteristics common to terrorists except one A. insurgency C 59. Phenomena in a hostage situation where the hostages become sympathetic to the hostage takers. Stress Management D. promote fear D. A. Threat Analysis B. A. The following are short range terrorists goal except one A. noise barrage B. Oslo Syndrome B. cause dramatic change in the government C. highly mobile C. Helsinki Syndrome B 53. possess limited resources A 54. Hostage Negotiation B 58.

The first step in a hostage situation. The last option in a hostage situation. assault operation D. Which of the following is not a police custom on courtesy? A. address/title . In a hostage situation. negotiation C 66. of conflict of interest as mediator and decision maker D. negotiate C. The highest ranking field commander should not also be the chief negotiator because A. Assault B. community relations B. the negotiator should not: A. In dealing with the hostage taker. It refers to the commitment. capture of the hostage taker A 60. validate B. ethics C. he is not authorized to grant concessions C. Negotiation B. Morality C. A. Control C. A. dignity and attitude of an individual towards work and his integrity and his practice of the core moral value principles. crowd control C. give his name B. congregate B 64. telephone D. logic D. It means to arrange by conferring or discussing. extricate D. this is a non-negotiable item.C. Conduct B. Salute B. Food B. give his rank and designation C. psychology B 67. A. A. A. hostage takers will not trust him C 63. Ethics C 68. firearm D 62. A. look friendly or accommodating C 61. crowd control D. giving in to demands C 65. give in to all demands D. Professionalism D. The study of standards of conduct and moral judgment. media access C. hostage takers will be afraid B. protection of property D.

Discipline C. police ethics D 70. and shall not impart the same to anyone except those for whom it is intended. A. A mental or moral training that makes a man willing to be subject to controls and regulations for the good of the entire group of which he is a member. Loyalty D. A. Police officers shall treat official business as such. The omission or refusal. A. ignores or abuses his powers. disloyalty C 73. Loyalty D. of that which the police officer had no legal right to do at all. Neglect of duty C 74. police officers are not permitted or allowed to engage in any other business or calling. without sufficient excuse. Misconduct D. Misconduct B 76. police conduct D. Bribery C 75. giving gifts D. As a general rule. It is the essence of good manners. Neglect of duty D. A. courtesy call C 69. Discipline C.C. a manifestation of sportsmanship and an exposition of gentility and culture. Morale A 71. or as required by law. Morale B 72. Bribery B. A. Neglect of duty D. A. or as directed by his superior officer. Misconduct C. The branch of moral science which treats of the duties which a police officer owes to the public and community. Incompetence B. Moonlighting C. to perform an act or duty. Incompetence B. which is the officer’s legal obligation to perform. criminal investigation . dishonesty D. gross misconduct B. Courtesy B. A. or connected with the performance of his duties. inattention or malice. The concealment or distortion of truth in a matter of fact relevant to one’s office. police professionalism C. Dishonesty C. Courtesy B. The doing either through ignorance. A. police philosophy B. as where he acts without any authority whatsoever or exceeds. incompetence C.

Perseverance B. Authority of a person he exercised over his subordinates. admission C. Conscience D 78. Value C. A judicial tribunal designed to administer justice. confidential information D 77. command responsibility C. crisis management B. Fortitude D. confession D. Police Community Relations D. Public Information Program B. A. Police Public Relations C 81. A. hostage negotiation C. Crisis B. A. the evaluation of the threat. Human Relations B. A voice of reason bidding oneself to avoid evil and do good. A. Public Relations C. Negotiator D. command by discipline B 79. A. Victim B. It is designed to influence public opinion in favor of the police force. A. This refers to the sum total of dealings of the police with the people it serves. Prudence A 80. threat analysis D. Coordinator B 85. Mass Communications Programs B 82. Jury C. Office of the Ombudsman B. Department of Justice C 83. chain of command B. A. Strike . Civic Action programs D. Dignity D. Endurance C. The calculated use of violence or threat of violence to attain political. A person who is held as a security for the fulfillment of certain demands or terms. threat groups and probable targets. responsibility of post D. surveillance operation C 84. Police Relations C. Virtue B. The assessment of our own vulnerabilities. Hostage C. religious or ideological goals by instilling fear or using intimidation or coercion. The courage to endure without yielding.B. A. Court D. A.

This type of physique has relatively predominant muscles. Fiscal B. Bill of Rights B. Viscerotonic B. A. Terrorism D 86. Sutherland C. serve some functions or meet some objectives.C. Garofalo B 92. Justice B. Beccaria D. The stage of the criminal justice process which involves the convicted person’s serving the sentence imposed. Lombroso B. Victim A . Sutherland C. The author of “On Crimes and Punishment” and the primary advocate of the Classical School of Criminology. Garofalo B 91. Mesomorphic C. Corrections C. A. The author of “ Origin of Species” and “ The Descent of Man”. A. Ectomorphic B 90. One which consists of several parts that interacts with each other to produce some results. Environment B 87. Judge D. Darwin C. System C. A. Crime D. Miranda Warning C. Garofalo C 93. A. Policeman’s Code B 89. Police officer C. Code of Ethics D. bones and motor organs of the body. Sentencing B. Feedback D. He is the primary advocate of the “Theory of Differential Association”. The one who determines personally the existence of probable cause in the issuance of a search warrant. Beccaria D. charging B 88. Adjudication D. Lombroso B. A. A. The recital of the rights of a suspect during custodial investigation. A. Lombroso B. Endomorphic D. Beccaria D.

Enforcer B. Sutherland B. Crisis B. E. Durkheim D. Among the following. Instigator C. Fencing E 100.94. intimidates and negotiates into a relationship with the police or public official? A. parents C. 1 only. None of these B. Accessory to theft D. Use pencil no. . thus he experience negative feelings called A. His act is an act of A. buys. R. old age C 96. Mob D. Omerta B. two things C. Quinney C. What is the strict code of conduct that governs the organized crime group behavior? A. When an individual experience tension and anxiety increases making him/her helpless. children D. police B. Conflict D. Larceny E. Tamero A 98. which of the following best defines the term “Costa Nostra”? A. ETHICS & HUMAN RELATIONS SET TWO INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. who bribes. Frustration C. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. crime syndicate D 97.In the Organized crime world. Corrupter D. In the study of organized crimes. crime confederation D. Who defined White-collar crime as a criminal act committed by a person of respectability and high social status in the course of his or her occupation? A. Camorra C. one thing B. Forgery C. Corruptee C REVIEW QUESTIONS IN CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY. Paul likes to buy stolen cellular phones. C. who is the most vulnerable group to abuse and suffer threats? A. E. Hallucination B 95. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Darwin A 99.

he is A. intentional destruction of property. Isolated C. comatose C. When the accused is found not guilty of the charges presented before the court. Abnormality B. Actus Numbus C. nonfeasance B.MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. misconduct A 2. Rea mensa A 4. Aggression D. insanity D. Which of the following is described as the threatening behaviors. acquitted D. If physiological or psychological dependence on some agent are obviously detected from a person. What aggressive behavior includes repeated noncompliance to a direct command. either verbal or physical. The officer’s refusal to help the old woman is an example of A. Dependency C. suspended C. verbal abuse-threat. metamorphosis A 5. Isolated . Actus Reus B. PO3 Gomez declined claiming that the man was already a block away from them and besides the police officer alleged that he is rushing home for an urgent matter. convicted B. dependency or addiction B. What aggressive behavior includes cursing/swearing. malfeasance C. directed at others A. Overt A 7. and self destructive behaviors? A. absuelto C 3. he is in the state of A. Giltus reus D. Covert D. Violence C 6. and physical abuse? A. Guilty by act means A. Interactive B. misfeasance D. verbal abusename calling. An old woman approached PO3 Gomez asking the police officer to run after an unidentified young man who allegedly snatched her mobile phone.

10. intentional. punching. Covert C. there is A. Brain lesion theory B. Individual response against bad behavior D. and physically aggressive act irrespective of severity against another person. Overt A What aggressive behavior includes the emotional and cognitive components of aggression such as anger and hostility? A. Interactive D. Alternative measures C. 12. Crisis B What kind of assault committed when it includes kicking. Assault C. Mental B. direct an act from doing D. Interactive D. Battering B. Rehabilitation B. MNaughten Rule B What is the theory that tumors and seizures have been associated with aggression and violent behavior? A. Verbal B Allege means A. Neurotic Mind theory . deliberately throwing an object and drawing a lethal weapon against someone? A. Conspiracy theory C. Assert or make an accusation B. Battered Woman Syndrome C. Chaos D. 13. emotional and behavioral reactions and deficits of women victims and their inability to respond effectively to repeated physical and psychological violence? A. B. remove from its position C. Dynamic C. 11. intentional mutilation A What do you call measures other than judicial proceedings used to deal with a young person alleged to have committed an offense? A. Violence against women D. Sexual D. 9.8. Directive A When there is an apparent. Extra judicial proceedings B What do we call the psychological. Covert B. Woman Menopausal Syndrome B. Physical C. 14.

An abuse that is kept secret for a purpose. Child Neglect C. the authenticity of an item as evidence is crucial. A term used to describe a clinical condition in young children who have received non-accidental. Battered Child Syndrome B. The negligent treatment or maltreatment of a child by a parent or caretaker under circumstances indicating harm or threatened harm to the child's health or welfare is known as A. concealed. Incapacitated Child Syndrome C. whether it be a physical object like a bullet. a very serious crime. Child in conflict with the law C 19. the highest penalty for selected offenses C. Both A and B are wrong B 20. it means: A. Presentation of evidence in court C. To validate an items unaltered authenticity. generally a parent or guardian A. None of these A 16. The item cannot be offered in court without a testimonial sponsor who can vouch for its unaltered authenticity to the court and the jury. for which the death penalty is imposed B.D. or underhanded is called . ranging from minimal to severe or fatal trauma. This refers to A. at the hand of an adult in a position of trust. Child Dilemma D. Laboratory analysis of items A 18. Child Abuse B. Records management B. Both A and B are correct D. Child prostitution B. When we say capital offense. a medical record or a photograph. Dementia praecox A 15. all of the above A 17. At trial. inexcusable violence or injury. Abuse Trauma Syndrome D. a record must be kept of each and every time the item changes hands. Chain of custody D. Child trafficking C. total punishment of offender by incarceration D. The exchange of sexual favors for money or other material goods without any emotional involvement involving a person under the age of 18 years is called A.

left. A. 27. Khotongism C The most common legal grounds for termination of parental rights. 24. Execution C. Evidence B. Delinquency offense D. Racketeering D. Incoherence D. Abuse B. 22. a few phone calls. Adult offense B. 26. Recidivism D. and which is not related to cultural or religious beliefs A. Abandonment D Which of the following is defined as acts or omissions by a legal caretaker that encompasses a broad range of acts. what is the form of abuse where the use of the victim is for selfish purposes and or financial gain? A. Delusion D Which of the following is an act committed by a juvenile for which an adult could be prosecuted in a criminal court? A. A. Clinical abuse C. Infliction B. is called A. Murder D. 25. Clandestine abuse B. as a legal penalty. and usually requires proof of intent. Modus operandi C. Exploitation B. Overt abuse D. altered or contaminated during the commission of a crime by either the suspect or victim is part of A. Wrong perception C. removed. Capital punishment B Among the following. putting to death a person. Abuse C. Status offense C. Abuse of authority A A false belief based on an incorrect inference about external reality and firmly sustained despite clear evidence to the contrary. False alarm B. or birthday cards are not sufficient to maintain parental rights. A. Exploitation C. Preservation of crime scene A Generally. 23. Verbal Abuse B. Neglect D. Expoloitation . Children in conflict with the law C Anything that has been used. also a form of child abuse in most states. Sporadic visits.21.

C.
D.

Neglect
Abandonment

A
28. The phase of a delinquency hearing similar to a "trial" in adult criminal court, except that
juveniles have no right to a jury trial, a public trial, or bail.
A.
Acquittal
B.
Conviction
C.
Adjudication
D.
Entertainment
C
29. Any of the processes involving enforcement of care, custody, or support orders by an executive
agency rather than by courts or judges.
A.
Criminal procedure
B.
Administrative procedure
C.
Summary procedure
D.
Trial
B
30. A legal relationship between two people not biologically related, usually terminating the rights of
biological parents, and usually with a trial "live-in" period. Once it is finalized, the records are
sealed and only the most compelling interests will enable disclosure of documents.
A.
Adoption
B.
Foster parenting
C.
Common law relationship
D.
Brotherhood
A
31. What is the legal doctrine establishing court as determiner of best environment for raising child
which is an alternative to the Parens Patriae Doctrine?
A.
Rights of Society
B.
Miranda Doctrine
C.
Best interest of the Child Rule
D.
Parental Obligation
C
32. What was the case that allowed second prosecution in adult court for conviction in juvenile court
which was based on idea that first conviction was a "civil" matter?
A.
Case Law
B.
Breed v. Jones
C.
Miranda v. Arizona
D.
Matt v. Jeff
B
33. The Law established by the history of judicial decisions in cases decided by judges, as opposed to
common law which is developed from the history of judicial decisions and social customs.
A.
Case Law
B.
Breed v. Jones
C.
Miranda v. Arizona
D.
Matt v. Jeff
A
34. The filing of legal papers by a child welfare agency when its investigation has turned up evidence
of child abuse. This is a civil, rather than criminal, charge designed to take preventive action, like
appointment of a guardian for at-risk children before abuse occurs.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

A.
Child prosecution
B.
Child protection action
C.
Parens Patriae
D.
Preliminary investigation
B
The act of being responsible for enforcing child support obligations is known as
A.
Child’s care
B.
Parental Guidance
C.
Child at risk
D.
Child support
D
A court order for placement in a secure facility, separate from adults, for the rehabilitation of a
juvenile delinquent.
A.
Summon
B.
Subpoena
C.
Custodial confinement
D.
Rehabilitation order
C
___ is anyone under the care of someone else. A child ceases to be a dependent when they reach
the age of emancipation.
A.
Delinquent
B.
Dependent
C.
Independent
D.
Recognizance
B
It a phase of delinquency proceeding similar to "sentencing" phase of adult trial. The judge must
consider alternative, innovative, and individualized sentences rather than imposing standard
sentences.
A.
Preliminary investigation
B.
Judgment
C.
Disposition
D.
Probationary period
C
The independence of a minor from his or her parents before reaching age of majority is known as
A.
Enlightenment
B.
Recognizance
C.
Emancipation
D.
Freedom from parental obligation
C
A clause requiring government to treat similarly situated people the same or have good reason for
treating them differently. Compelling reasons are considered to exist for treating children
differently.
A.
Bill of Rights
B.
Equal Protection
C.
Parens Patriae
D.
Diversion
B

41. What is the legal doctrine preventing unemancipated children from suing their parents?
A.
Parens Patriae Doctrine

B.
Equal Protection
C.
Family Immunity Doctrine
D.
Poisonous Tree Doctrine
C
42. What is the legal doctrine holding parents liable for injuries caused by a child's negligent driving
or other actions?
A.
Family Purpose Doctrine
B.
Family Immunity Doctrine
C.
Parens Patriae Doctrine
D.
None of the above
A
43. Guardian ad litem means:
A.
“For the Proceeding"
B.
“Protection of child by the law”
C.
“Guardians of the little children”
D.
“Legal authority”
A
44. A court order giving an individual or organization legal authority over a child. A guardian of the
person is usually an individual and the child is called a ward. A guardian of the estate is usually
an organization, like a bank, which manages the property and assets of a child's inheritance.
Guardians are usually compensated for their services.
A.
Guardianship
B.
Order of Authority
C.
In Loco Parentis
D.
Parens Patriae
A
45. Teachers, administrators, and babysitters who are viewed as having some temporary parental
rights & obligations are considered
A.
Guardianship
B.
Order of Authority
C.
In Loco Parentis
D.
Parens Patriae
C
46. What is the legal doctrine establishing "parental" role of state over welfare of its citizens,
especially its children?
A.
Guardianship
B.
Order of Authority
C.
In Loco Parentis
D.
Parens Patriae
D

47. The emergency, temporary custody by a child welfare agency, police agency, or hospital for
reasons of immanent danger to the child is called
A.
Preventive detention
B.
Diversion
C.
Witness protection program
D.
Protective custody
D

An activity illegal when engaged in by a minor. Foster parent C 52. or neglect. Parental Selection A 49. Bond B. The law prohibits making it a condition of receiving probation. What is the legal doctrine that unless the mother is "unfit". Unfit Parent . Poor families cannot be deprived of probation simply because they are too poor to afford it. Examples include truancy. very young children should be placed in custody with their mother following a divorce? A. A. but also including mental illness. running away. Unwed Mother’s Doctrine D. Stepparent C. Surrogate Parent D 53. A. sperm. A disposition requiring a defendant to pay damages to a victim. A. Adult Offenses B.48. What is declared of a temporary or permanent termination of parental rights in the best interest of the child usually for reasons of abandonment. Surity C. Maternity B. curfew. Tender Years Doctrine B. A parent who provided an egg. or habitually disobeying parents. Restitution D. addiction. but not when done by an adult. Psychological Parent Doctrine C. A spouse of a biological parent who has no legal rights or duties to the child other than those which have been voluntarily accepted. or uterus with an intent of giving the child up for adoption to specific parties. or criminal record? A. Paternity C. Minor Offenses C. Status Offenses D. abuse. Protection money C 50. Foster Parent D. None of these B. Psychological Parent B. Stepparent D. A. Illegitimacy A 54. Stubbornness C 51. What is the legal doctrine granting custody to the parent whom the child feels the greatest emotional attachment to? A. Paternity D. Maternity C.

None of these D It refers to the totality of the circumstances and conditions most congenial to the survival. Psychological Incapacitation C. An undertaking in lieu of a bond assumed by a parent or custodian who shall be responsible for the appearance in court of the child in conflict with the law. reformation guide B. and other activities that will enhance his/her psychological. Children at risk D A child who is alleged as. accused of. emotional and psycho-social well-being is called A. All of the above B The series of activities designed to address issues that caused the child to commit an offense. 60. 56. diversion D. welfare procedures B 61. A. Best interest of the child B. which may include counseling.55. Child at risk B It refers to the security given for the release of the person in custody of the law. Rights C. 59. Conditions D. Child at risk B. Abused Children B. skills training. Juvenile offender B The apprehension or taking into custody of a child in conflict with the law by law enforcement officers or private citizens is termed as: A. 58. or adjudged as. family and social circumstances are considered A. Children in conflict with the law D. protection and feelings of security of the child and most encouraging to the child’s physical. Child in conflict with the law C. It may take the form of an individualized treatment program. B. Mental Disturbance D. Child custody D. Surety B. Initial contact C. Minor offense D. Money order C. furnished by him/her or a bondsman. psychological and emotional development. Obligations D. education. Child’s role A Children who are vulnerable to and at the risk of committing criminal offenses because of personal. Neglected Children C. A. Arrest B. when required is known as . intervention C. 57. to guarantee his/her appearance before any court. having committed an offense under Philippine laws is considered A.

The Classical school of Criminology is spearheaded by Bentham and Beccaria. mental disorders and other conditions that may instigate personal responsibility? A. criminal behavior was believed to be the result of evil spirits and demons. None of these B 63. incapable of living normally in society. Child trafficking B. Among the following classical thoughts in Criminology is not correct: A. Hedonistic Calculus D. The belief that there is no such thing as bad spirits B. The Classical School of Criminology argues that criminals were primitive creatures. The belief that man is a demon and devil D. The Classical School of Criminology also argued that nature has placed mankind under the governance of two sovereign masters. B 66. Radical Criminology A . What school of thought in Criminology challenges the proposition that man has absolute free will to choose between good and evil and states that it is not absolute as presumed to be because free will can be diminished by pathology. Guilt and innocence were established by a variety of procedures that presumably called forth the supernatural allies of the accused. Reactive justice D. The belief that humans are rational creatures with free will. Status offense B. Centuries ago. Recognizance D. The accused were innocent if they could survive an ordeal. Status offense B. who seek happiness and pleasure and avoid pain C. In the 18th century. All of the above B 64. D. the offender and the community? A. A.A. The Classical School of Criminology is an advocate of punishment as a deterrent to crime. Child racketeering C 65. Proactive justice B. C 67. C. None of these C. Minor crime D. What is the type of offense committed where there is no private offended party involved? A. they were guilty if they died at the stake or if omens were associated with them. The belief that man is evolved from the animal ape. Child abuse C. Positivism C. What is the doctrine that requires a process of resolving conflicts with the maximum involvement of the victim. “pain” and “pleasure’. Victimless crime C. Bail C 62. Restorative justice C. Child prostitution D. B. this spiritual determination began to give way to: A. One of the following is an act constituting exploitation and sex abuse among children in exchange of any form of incentive. Neo-classical School of Criminology B.

Criminal Anthropology C 71. Psychoanalytical Theory B. An excess of wisdom C 70. psychologist assumed that they could best understand human behavior by searching for a stable. The Differential Association Theory provides a good illustration of a social learning approach perspective in Criminology Criminal behavior according to this theory is: A. The Classical School of thoughts in Criminology is based on the principle of free will. the twin and fragile with withdrawn behavior B. he classified criminals as: the born criminal. An inmate quality of goodness or badness C. the habitual. the morally insane and hysteric criminal B. He classified body physique into three categories as the endomorphic. Of the following statements. which appropriately describes the mesomorphic? A. Psychological Determination B 72. Based on the Lombroso’s works. the typical extravert is one who is: . Behavioral descriptions D. A result of an emotional disturbance B.68. Learned and not inherited D. What perspective in Criminology probes the situational or environmental action and examines the underlying conditions with in the environment that may encourage criminal behavior? A. According to Hans Eyesenck. the primitive and atavist C 73. Which among the following theory on Criminal Behavior is not consistent with the previous statement? A. the fat and soft body type B 74. the impulsive and cruel criminal C. Sociological Criminology D. Some criminology theorists have linked physical characteristics with personality. Strain Theory C. the “weak natures” susceptible to bad examples D. in his study about the behavioral character and incidence to crime. the passionate and the criminoloid. The positivist thoughts on the other hand is focused on the principle of: Darwinism Determinism Cognitive Functioning Conceptual Thinking B 69. the muscular and hard physique C. consistent personality dispositions or traits that exert orderly generalized effects on behavior. In the past. the attractive and beautifully shaped D. Psychiatric Criminology B. Among these theories is William Sheldon’s Somatotyping theory. Psychological Criminology C. the mesomorphic and the ectomorphic body. Which of the following statements describe a criminoloid? A.

Illinois Legislature C. Discordant or disturbed family structure D. heavy and firm A 75. then the person is an animal. suffering from psychopathic behavior C. Positivist theory of Criminology B. sociable. Emotional abuse C. emotional flatness. The term broken home is ambiguous but can be characterized by: A.S. which of the following projects paved the way for a reassessment of existing treatment and prevention programs for delinquents? A. President’s Commission on Law Enforcement in theU. Physical Abuse B.A. social learning theorists place great emphasis on cognitive variables. the mental state and brain-mediation processes. the reinforcements for behavior A 76. D. the social environment B. calling the child insulting names. Neoclassical theory of Criminology D. B. Parental discipline appears relation to delinquency. Parental neglect B 79. the face immobile and expressionless and manifest highly bizarre and add behavior then appropriately he is: A. Or if not sick. When a person is seen to show indiscriminate giggling or crying. the stimulus that elicit response C. impulsive. Disrupted or incomplete family structures D 78. excessive criticizing or generally ignoring the child is also contributory to delinquency. In the study of juvenile delinquency. quiet and cautious undersized. D. Boston Child Guidance Clinic D. Social learning reflects the theory’s strong assumption that we learn primarily by observing and listening to people around usA. Classical theory of Criminology C. One family background predictors in juvenile delinquency is broken home. optimistic and has high needs for excitement reserved. violent and apparently senseless crime is usually committed by someone who is mentally ill or sick. suffering from neurotic behavior B. It is a popular notion that the brutal. Unfair parent D. Chicago Area Project of 1930 B. suffering from sexual dysfunctions C 80. Inadequate type of family structure B. Differential Association theory of Criminology . the voice is monotonous. screaming at the child. To explain human behavior. Anti-social type of family structure C. Aside from this. These actions simply refers to: A. A 77. The kind of alternate explanation is an influence of the: A. short and untidy oversized. Harsh discipline in the home may result in more delinquencies than consistent and reasoning forms of discipline. C. suffering from schizophrenia or psychotic behavior D.

A bank robber who kills some individual with in the bank. There are many pathways to delinquency and a variety of family circumstances contribute to negative behavior in children. Multiple Murder A 85. staying out late. Covert pathway C. Failure to conform to social norms. Robert Peel. Authority conflict pathways B. flees with hostages. Pedro engaged in a multiple means of torture. then defiant behavior. etc. Children aging from 7 to 12 years B. the Brawner Rule D. Serial Murder B. Bipolar disorder B. Sexual Torture D. The court believed he was so mentally deranged that it would be inhuman to convict him since it was clear he was not in control of his faculties. Children above 9 that below 15 years old C. warm and sociable. Mass Murder D. and developing later into avoidance of authority figures like truancy. Psychopathic behavior D. using psychological torment combined with physical methods to lighten his sexual arousal is suffering from: A. A Scottish woodcutter was accused of killing a man he believed to be Prime Minister for thought that he was persecuted by the Tories and their leader. Children at puberty age D.? A. Which of the following developmental pathways to delinquency begins with stubborn behavior. Sexual Sadism C. Sexual Pyromania B. as reflected in a poor work history C. the M’naghten Rule B. This condition may fall into the disorder known as: A. B. Children in conflict with the law B . Which of the following is not a symptom of dyssocial behavior? A. Which of the following refers to juveniles who have doli incapax? A. the Durham Rule C. One day we maybe cool and withdrawn and the next day. Lack of guilt for wrongdoings. the Irrational Mind Rule A 83. This case became known as: A. Spree Murder C. however turned out to be another person. D. Episode of schizophrenia like illogical thinking D 82. and kills a number of people while in flight diving a chase would be an example of: A. Overt pathway D. Amnesia A 84. Schizophrenia C. None of these A 87.A 81. running away. Masochism B 86. Consistent irresponsibility.

Fire fighting team D. Recent research and legal literature suggest that a useful away of classifying juvenile crime is to distinguish between serious and non-serious acts and between serious and non-serious offenders. Security element B. always present in the office B 90. Hijacking B. Which of the following is the basic political unit of the Filipino nation that implements the policies of the national and local government? A. The one who makes complete estimate of the crisis situation and plans his courses of actions upon arrival at the incident area while negotiation is in progress is the A. Homicide D. dress well D. harass the people B. Bomb threat plan C. Vagrancy D 89. family B. Intelligence team D 92. community D. Ambush D. Support unit C. Chief Negotiator B. The best PCR a police officer can do to the community is A. Assassination C. Among the following. What is known to be the oldest but commonly used terrorist tactic where target are often police. Support Unit Commander B 94. Contingency plan B . society C. Drill D. perform his job well C. Negotiation unit D. Floor plan B. A comprehensive plan which delineates responsibilities and specific action to be taken when a bomb incident or bomb threat occurs is called A. Tactical Commander C. the teams under the support unit are under the control of the ground commander. In crisis management. Forcible sexual intercourse B. Which is responsible for the collection and processing of all information needed by the on – scene commander? A. Larceny C. Kidnap for Ransom B 93. military officials or political features? A. barangay A 91. which is not considered a serious juvenile act? A.88.

95. None of these A . What stage is the performance of the crisis management plan when a crisis situation occurs? A. some of the causes why a hostage becomes cooperative with the hostage taker is due to A. Withdrawal syndrome D.What model of insurgency does the New People’s Army in the Philippines is employing? A. Reactive Phase C. Reaction Phase A 99. What do you call the phenomenon where a hostage begins to identify his captor and give his sympathy to his own hostage taker? A. personal interest C 98. Among the following. Dementia Praecox A 97. organization and coordination and control in response to an anticipated future crisis occurrence is called A. The stage of advance planning. selfishness B. None of these B 100. personal grudge C. In Stockholm syndrome. Prediction D. personal affection D. which is most contagious on human emotion? A. Holmshock syndrome B. Fear B. Performance Stage D. Pro-active Phase B. Democratic Model D. Traumatic syndrome C. none of these D 96. Proactive Crisis Management B. Worry D. Panic C. Reactive Crisis Management C. Communist Model B. Socialist Model C.