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Q0001:What organism has elevated cold agglutinins in its

laboratory values?
Mycoplasma Pneumonia (MYCOLDplasma);My it's cold
plasma pneumoniae)
Q0002:What bacteria from struvite stones?
Proteus Mirabilis
Q0003:What is the pathology that start with maculopapular
rash begining on the face and spreading downward to trunk?
Rubella (you are not bella any more)
Q0004:What bacteria causes mesenteric adenitis which mimics
apendicitis?
Yersenia enterocolitica
Q0005:What two antibiotics cause pseudomembranous
colitis?;What organism is responsible for pseudomembranous
enterocolitis?
Ampicillin and Clindamycin;Clostridium difficile
Q0006:What antibiotics do you use to treat
Pseudomembranous colitis?
Vancomycin and Metronidazol
Q0007:Which E. coli causes traveler's diarrhea?
Enterotoxigenic E. coli ;ETEC;Traveler's = Toxigenic
Q0008:what does Candida albicans do that distinguishes it
from other fungi
forms a germinal tube at 37C
Q0009:what protozoal parasite results in dysentery w/ blood
and pus in the stool; is transmitted via fecal-oral route; is
diagnosed by cysts or trophozoites in the stool and forms
liver abscesses and inverted falask-shaped lesions in the large
int?;tx w/?
e. histolytica;metronidazole
Q0010:what is the most likely causitive organism for a patient
with folliculitis after spending time in a hot tub
pseudomonas
Q0011:what two viruses get their envelope not from budding
but from coding
HIV;pox
Q0012:which type of hepatitis can cause hepaticellular
carcinoma
B
Q0013:gas gangrene is associated with which clostridium
species
perfringens
Q0014:which dimorphic fungus is found as hyphae with
nondescript conidia in rotting wood in the upper great lakes;
ohio; mississippi; eastern seaboard of the US and southern
canada
blastomyces dermatitidis
Q0015:which parasitic organism; when it crosses the placenta;
results in intracerebral calcifications; chorioretinitis;
microcephaly; hydrocephaly; and convulsions
toxoplasma gondii
Q0016:what staphylococcal species is pos for beta-hemolysis
and coagulase
staph a.
Q0017:what vector is assoc w/ malaria
anopheles mosquito
Q0018:what is the term for hyphae w/ constrictions at each
septum that are commonly seen in candida albicans
pseudohyphae
Q0019:which cestode infection results in alveolar hydatid
cyst disease
echinococcus multilocularis
Q0020:which hepatitis virus is in the flaviviridae family
HCV ;HGV
Q0021:what nonmotile gram negative; non-lactose fermenting
facultative anaerobic rod uses the human colon as its only
reservoir and is transmitted by fecal oral spread
shigella
Q0022:what is the only Rickettsia that is stable in the
environment
coxiella burnetti;(doesn't need a vector)
Q0023:regarding the viral growth curve; is the internal virus
present before or after the eclipse period
after the eclipse period
Q0024:what Ab is an indication of recurrent disease for
hepatitis
HBcAB
Q0025:what small gram pos; non-spore forming rod is a
faultative intracellular parasite that grows in the cold and is
assoc w/ unpasteurized milk products
listeria monocytogenes
Q0026:what is the only DNA virus that is not icosahedral
poxvirus
Q0027:which organsism causes trench mouth
fusobacterium
Q0028:t or f;all of the following are inactivated vaccines
available in the US: influenza; vibrio cholera; hep A; rabies;
and adenovirus
F;adenovirus vaccine is live
Q0029:name the plasmodium spp;1. no persistent liver stage
or relapse; blood smear shows multiple ring forms and
crescent-shaped gametes; irregular febrile pattern; assoc w/
cerebral malaria;2. no persistent liver stage or relapse; blood
smear shows rosette schizonts; 72 hr fever spike pattern;3.
persistent hypnozoite liver stage w/ relapses; blood smear
shows amoeboid trophozoites w/ oval; jagged infected RBCs;
48 hrs fever spike pattern;4. persisten hypnozoite liver stage
w/ relapses; blood smear shows amoeboid trophozoites; 48 hr
fever spike pattern; the most prevalent form worldwide
1. plasmodium falciparum;2. plasmodium malariae;3.
plasmodium ovale;4. plasmodium vivax
Q0030:t or f;a pos PPD skin test indicates the patient has
active pulmonary disease
f;it tests exposure
Q0031:what viral infection is kown to cause intracerebral
calcification
CMV;toxo also causes intracerebral calcifications but it is a
parasite
Q0032:what motile; gram neg spiral bacillus w/ flagella is
oxidase pos; urease pos; and assoc w/ gastritis; peptuc ulcer
disease; and stomach cancer
h. pylori
Q0033:what glycoprotein in the HIV virus is used for fusion
GP41
Q0034:what Ag is needed to diagnose an infectious patient w/
hep B
HBeAG
Q0035:which organism causes multiple infections by antigen
switching
borrelia recurrentis
Q0036:what is the first Ag seen in an individual w/ hep
HBsAG
Q0037:with which DNA virus are guanieri bodies assoc
variola (small pox)
Q0038:what nematode is known as pinworms? what is the tx
enterobus vermicularis;tx = albendazole
Q0039:what protein allows mycoplasma to attach to the resp
epithelium
p1 protein
Q0040:what organism is assoc w/ the following type of
diarrhea;1. day care-assoc diarrhea in infants;2. watery
diarrhea from beef; poultry; or gravies;3. rice water stools;4.
diarrhea assoc w/ raw or undercooked shellfish;5. blood
diarrhea assoc w/ hamburger ingestion
1. rotavirus;2. clostridium perfringens;3. vibrio cholera;4.
vibrio parahaemolyticus;5. enterotoxigenic E. coli
Q0041:which fungus is found worldwide on plants; is a cigar-
shaped yeast in tissue form; and resultsin rose gardener's dis
sporothrix schenckii
Q0042:what type of hepatitis is a picornavirus
HepA
Q0043:what grap pos rod is distinguished by its tumbling
motility
listeria
Q0044:what is the vector for leishmania infections
sandfly
Q0045:what is the term of the viral growth period when no
viruses can be found intracellulary
eclipse period
Q0046:what organsism causes Q fever
coxiella burnetti;(A rickettsia)
Q0047:what are the three naked RNA virus
1. picornavirus;2. calicivirus;3. reovirus;PCR;and astro
Q0048:HIV capsid; core nucleocapsid; and matrix proteins are
products of what structural gene
gag gene
Q0049:what facultative intracellular fungus is assoc w/
hepatosplenomegaly
histoplasma capsulatum
Q0050:what type of hepatitis has the highest mortality rate
among pregnant women
HEV
Q0051:which gram neg diplococcus ferments maltose
meningococcus
Q0052:are antibiotics helpful in treating a disease caused by a
prion
no
Q0053:what bacterium is rsponsible for woolsorter's disease
bacillus anthracis
Q0054:what picornavirus is assoc w/ hand-foot-and mouth
diseaes
coxsackie A
Q0055:what is the only trematode that is not hermaphroditic
schistosoma have boys and girls
Q0056:what water-assoc organism is weakly stained gram neg
rod that requires cysteine and iron from growth
legionella;*all the "ellas" req cysteine for growth
Q0057:with what virus are Downey type II cells assoc
EBV
Q0058:t or f;interferons are eukaryotic proteins that inhibit
viral replication by being virus specific
false;interferons are produced by virally infected cells to
inhibit viral replication via RNA endonucleases. They do not
act directly on the virus; nor ar they virus specific
Q0059:what is the vector for yellow fever
aedes mosquito
Q0060:what sm; facultative gram neg intracellular rod's
transmission is assoc w/ unpasterurized dairy products and
undulant fever
brucella
Q0061:t or f;all proteus spp are urease pos
t
Q0062:which genus of dermatophytes is assoc w/ the
following asites of infection;1. nails and skin;2. hair and
skin;3. skin; hair; and nails
1. epidermophyton;2. microsporum;3. trichophyton
Q0063:what protein of the HIV virus does ELISA detect
P24
Q0064:what genus of bacteria is described by catalase-pos;
gram pos cocci in clusters
staph
Q0065:t or f;vibrio parahemolyticus req NaCl in its growth
medium
t;staph a. and group D enterococci also grow in high salt
media
Q0066:what virus causes sm pink benign wartlike tumors and
is assoc w/ HIV pos patients
molluscum contagiosum
Q0067:what two bacteria are assoc w/ drinking unpasteurized
milk
bucella and listeria (the tumbler)
Q0068:what cestode causes cysticercosis
taenia solium
Q0069:what DNA virus is assoc w/ exanthem subitum
(roseola)
HHV 6
Q0070:which acid-fast rod is an obligate intracellular parasite
mycobacterium leprae
Q0071:what form of the plasmodium spp is ingested by
mosquitoes
gametocytes
Q0072:what sm gram neg aerobic rod requires Regan-Low or
Bordet-Gengou medium for growth
bordetella pertussis
Q0073:t or f;streptococci have catalase
f;staph have catalase
Q0074:what three bacteria are pos to quellung reactive test
neisseria meningitidis;haemophilus influenza;streptococcus
pneumoniae;-must have capsules;Quellung - swelling
Q0075:a patient goes to the ER w/ abdominal cramps;
vomiting; diarrhea; and sweating less thean 24 hrs after eating
potato salad at a picnic
staph a
Q0076:t or f;all spore formers are gram pos
t;(bacillus and clostridium)
Q0077:what is the only DNA virus thata has reverse
transcriptase
hepadnavirus
Q0078:what enzyme does HIV use to integrate the proviral
dsDNA into the host
integrase
Q0079:what are the two hepatitis viruses that can be chronic
and can lead eventually to hepatocellular carcinoma
HBV and HCV
Q0080:what gram pos spore forming anaerobic rod blocks the
release of ACh at the NMJ; resulting in reversible flaccid
paralysis
clostridium botulinum
Q0081:name at least two products of HIVs pol gene
protesase;integrase;reverse transcriptase
Q0082:what form of plasmodium spp affects the liver
hypozoite
Q0083:what sm coagulase pos; gram neg rod w/ bipolar
staining is a facultative intracellular parasite resulting in
buboes
yersinia pestis
Q0084:what hemoflagellate spp is the cause of chagas dis
trypanosoma cruzi
Q0085:to what host cell receptor does the rabies virus attach
ACh receptor
Q0086:which hepatitis virus is in the picornaviridae family
HAV
Q0087:Abs to what hepatitis B Ag provide immunity
Abs to HBsAg
Q0088:what type of spore is defined as an asexual budding
daughter yeast cell
blastoconidia
Q0089:which of the following characteristics accurately
describe fungi; bacteria; viruses; and parasites;1. eukaryotic
cell; 15 to 25 microns; 80S ribosomes; no cell walls; replicates
via cytokinesis w/ mitosis and meiosis;2. sm prokaryotic
cells; no histones; 70S ribosomes; no sterols in cell membrane;
peptidoglycans in cell wall; replicate by binary fission;3.
eukaryotic cell; 3 to 10 microns; 80S ribosomes; chitinous cell
wall; ergosterol in cell membrane; replicate via cytokinesis w/
mitosis and meiosis;4. acellular; some are enveloped; replicate
within the host cell; no cell walls
1. parasites;2. bacteria;3. fungi;4. viruses
Q0090:what mosquito is the vector for dengue fever
aedes;(same for yellow fever)
Q0091:t or f;gonococcus in encapsulated
f- meningococcus is encapsulated;no gonococcus
Q0092:regarding the viral growth curve; is the external virus
present before or after the latent period
after
Q0093:what aerobic branching rod that is gram pos and
partially acid fast is assoc w/ cavitary bronchopulmonary
disease in immunosuppressed patients
nocardia asteroides
Q0094:what obligate extracellular fungus is silver stain pos
and is assoc w/ pneumonia in patients w/ AIDS
pneumocystis carinii
Q0095:what Vi encapsulated gram neg motile anaerobic rod
that produces H2S is assoc w/ enteric fever; gastroenteririts;
and septicemia
salmonella typhi
Q0096:what is the most likely organism causing cellulitis in a
patient who was cut by an oyster shell
vibrio vulnificus
Q0097:what virus is assoc w/ norwalk agent
calicivirus
Q0098:describe the organsism;1. beta-hemolytic
streptococcus; pos cAMP; hydrolyzes hippurate;2. alpha-
hemolytic strep; lysed by bile; sens to optochin;3. alpha
hemolytic strep; not lysed by bile; not sens to optochin;4.
beta hemolytic strep sens to bacitracin
1. strep agalactiae;2. pneumococcus (strep pneumo);3. strep
viridans;4. strep pyogenes
Q0099:what is the only nonmotile pathogenic clostridium spp
perfringens
Q0100:if a virus has pos sense RNA; can it be used as mRNA
or is a template needed
pos sense RNA can be used as mRNA;neg sense requires a
special RNA dep RNA polymerase
Q0101:where do adult tapeworms develop; in the
intermediate or definitive host
adult tapeworms develop in the definitive host;cysticerci or
larvae develop in the intermediate host
Q0102:which strep spp is characterized by being catalase neg;
turning bile exculin agar back; producing a pos PYR test; and
resulting in biliary and urinary tract infections
enterococcus (strep faecalis)
Q0103:what three carcinomas are assoc w/ EBV
burkitt's lymphoma;nasopharyngeal carcinoma;thymic
carcinoma
Q0104:which organism causes trench fever
rochalimaea quintana;aka bartonella quintana
Q0105:based on the onset of the sx; how are bacterial
conjunctiviits from neisseria and chlamydia differentiated
neisseria gonorrhea conjunctivitis is 2 to 5 days;chlamydia
trachomatis is 5 to 10 days
Q0106:what toxin produced by clostridium tetani; binds to
ganglioside receptors and blocks the release of glycine and
GABA at the spinal synapse
tetanospasmin (tetanus toxin)
Q0107:t or f;all of the following are live attenuated
vaccines;measles;mumps;variclla;francissela
tularensis;rubeola;smallpox;yellow fever;sabin polio
true
Q0108:what family do the following belong to;1. ebola;2.
california encephalitis;3. hantavirus;4. rabies;5. RSV;6.
measles
1. filovirus;2. bunyavirus;3. bunyavirus;4. rhabdovirus;5.
paramyxovirus;6. paramyxovirus
Q0109:what microaerophile is a motile gramneg curved rod w/
polar flagella that causes infectious diarrhea at low doses
campylobacter jejuni
Q0110:what bacterium is diagnosed useing the dieterle silver
strain
legionella
Q0111:how many strains of pneumococcus capsular
polysaccharides are present in the vaccine
23 capsular polysaccharides
Q0112:what nematode is known as whipworm?;tx?
trichuris trichuria;albendazole
Q0113:which strep pyotenes toxin is immunogenic
streptolysin O
Q0114:a urethral swab of a patient shows gram neg diplococci
in PMNs;
neisseria gonorrhea
Q0115:a suspected dermatophyte infection is stained w/
KOH; what do you see
arthroconidia w/ hyphae
Q0116:what neg sense RNA virus is assoc w/ cough; coryza;
and conjunctivitis w/ photophobia
measles (rubeola)
Q0117:which M-protein strain of strep pyogenes is assoc w/
acute glomerulonephritis
M12
Q0118:what are the three Cs of measles
cough;coryza;conjunctivitis
Q0119:what is the term given to arthropod borne viruses
arbovirus (bunyavirus; flavivirus; and togavirus) and reovirus
Q0120:which organism causes weil's disease
leptospira;transmitted by rat -> hemorrhagic and renal sx plus
juandice
Q0121:what form of the plasmodium spp are injected into
humans mosquito
sporozoites
Q0122:what ssDNA virus must make dsDNA before it makes
mRNA
parvovirus;(the only ssDNA virus)
Q0123:what is the vector of african sleeping sickness
tsetse fly
Q0124:what HIV enzyme prodces a dsDNA provirus
reverse transcriptase
Q0125:what non spore forming gram pos aerobic rod
produces bull neck; sore throat w/ pseudomembranes;
myocarditis; and sometimes respiratory obstructions
corynebacterium diphtheria
Q0126:what organism is assoc w/ megalobastic anemia
diphyllobothrium latum
Q0127:what is the most serious form of tinea capitis; which
results in permanent hair loss and is higly contagious
tinea favosa
Q0128:what are the first intermediate hosts for trematodes
snails
Q0129:what are the four capsular polysaccharides used in the
neisseria meningitides vaccine
Y;W-125; C and A
Q0130:what is the only encapsulated fungal pathogen
cryptococcus
Q0131:what type of spore is asexual and formed of hyphae
conidia
Q0132:what is the only plasmodium that is quartan
plasmodium malaria;others are tertian
Q0133:1. red pigmentation;2. black-gray pigmentation;3.
pyocyanin (blue-green);4. yellow pigmentation
1. serratia;2. corynebacterium diphtheria;3. pseudomonas;4.
staph a
Q0134:what capsular serotype is assoc w/ e.coli-induced
meningitis
K1 capsule
Q0135:what two Ags must be pos for a patient to have
chronic active hepatitis
HBsAG;HBeAG
Q0136:t or f;all strep are catalase neg
t
Q0137:in what trimester is the fetus most vulnerable to
congenital rubella syndrome
first trimester
Q0138:what virus causes hoof and mouth disease
vesicular stomatitis virus
Q0139:which gram neg diplococcus growns on chocolate agar?
thayer martin medium?
meningococcus on chocolate;gonococcus on Thayer-Martin
Q0140:which protozoal parasitic vaginal infection produces a
pos whiff test with KOH staining?;tx?
trichomonas vaginalis;metronidazole
Q0141:what fungus is urease pos
cryptococcus
Q0142:what bacterium has large boxcar shaped gram pos rods
and is sporeforming; aerboic; and assoc with cutaneous inf and
woolsorter's disease
bacillus anthracis
Q0143:is the salk polio vaccine inactivated
yes
Q0144:t or f;all neg sense RNA viruses are enveloped
t;they all have helical nucleocapsids and virion-assoc
polymerases
Q0145:what urease-pos non-lactose fermenting gram neg rod
with swarming type motility is assoc with staghorn renal
calculi
proteus
Q0146:with what two viruses are Reye's syndrome asssoc
varicella;influenza
Q0147:which organism releases endotoxins prior to cell death
neisseria meningitidis
Q0148:clue cells are assoc with which organism that causes
vaginal discharge
gardnrella vaginalis
Q0149:what is the name of the bullet-shaped virus
rhabdovirus
Q0150:what fungus is characterized by india ink staining of
the CSF that produces colorless cells with a halo on a black
background
cryptococcus neoformans
Q0151:what does hepatitis D virus need from hep B virus to
be infective
HBsAG as its envelope
Q0152:which type of hep is a calicivirus
HEV
Q0153:what genus is kown as the smallest free living bacteria
mycoplasma
Q0154:what three organs can be affected by trypanosoma
cruzi
heart esophagus colon;-
cardiomegaly;megaesophagus;megacolon
Q0155:which serotypes of HPV are assoc with plantar warts
1 and 4
Q0156:what facultative gram neg anaerobic rod is motile;
fermetns lactose; and is the MCC of UTIs
e. coli
Q0157:what is the only ds RNA virus
reovirus
Q0158:what are the four segmented RNA viruses
Bunyavirus;Orthomyxovirus;Reovirus;Arenavirus;(BORA)
Q0159:what type of plasmodium affects;1. only mature
RBCs;2. ony reticulocytes;3. RBCs of all ages
1. plasmodium malaria;2. plasmodium vivax;3. plasmodium
falciparum
Q0160:what is the major cell membrane sterol found in fungi
ergosterol
Q0161:what Ab is an indicaction for low transmissibility for
hepatitis
HBeAb
Q0162:what is the term for RNA dep DNA pol
reverse transcriptase
Q0163:which gram pos bacteria infection of infancy is assoc
w/ ingestion of honey
clostridium botulinum
Q0164:which trematode is assoc with bladder carcinoma in
Egypt and AFrica
schistosoma haematobium
Q0165:which encapsulated fungus is found in soil enriched
with pigeon droppings
cryptococcus neorformans
Q0166:what virus lies dormant in the;1. trigeminal ganglia;2.
dorsal root ganglia;3. sensory ganglia of S2 and s3
1. herpes I;2. varicella;3. herpes II
Q0167:what is the name of the exotoxin shigella dysenteriae
produces; which interferes with the 60S ribosomal subunit
and results in eukaryotic protein synthesis inhibition
shiga toxin;EHEC produces vero toxin
Q0168:what protozoal parasite forms flasked-shaped lesions
in the duodenum; is transmitted via fecal oral route; and is
commonly seen in campers who drank stream water
giardia lamblia;tx metronidazole
Q0169:what color do fungi stain w/ PAS?;silver stain?
hot pink w/ PAS and grey to back with silver stain
Q0170:a tropical fish enthusiast has granulomatous lesions
and cellulitis
mycobacterium marinum
Q0171:which dimorphic fungus is found as arthroconidia in
desert sand of the southwester US;(San Joaquin valley)
coccidioides inmitis
Q0172:which mycoplasma spp is assoc w/ urethritis;
prostatitis; and renal calculi
ureaplasma ureatlyticum
Q0173:what tick is the vector for babesiosis
ixodes;also for Lyme
Q0174:what is the only DNA virus that does not replicate its
DNA in the nucleus of the host cell
poxvirus replicates in the cytoplasm
Q0175:what organism would you suspect in a patient with
diarrhea after eating rice
bacillus cereus
Q0176:what small gram neg facultative intracellular rod is
transmitted to human host by dermacentor tick bite
francisella tularensis
Q0177:t or f;cestodes have no GI tract
true
Q0178:what neg sense RNA virus is assoc with parotitis;
pancreatitis; and orchitis
mumps
Q0179:what is the size of a pos PPD test for;1. IV drug
user;2. patient with AIDS;3. recent immigrant;4. healthy
suburban male without any medical illnesses;5.
posttransplantation patient on immunosuppressive drugs
1. >10 mm;2. >5;3. >10;4. >15;5. >5
Q0180:what are the only two picornavirus that do not lead to
aseptic meningitis
rhinovirus and HAV
Q0181:which cestode in raw or rare beef containing cysticerci
results in intestinal tapeworms
taenia saginata
Q0182:what DNA viral diseae is assoc w/ aplastic crisis in
patients with sickle cell anemia
parvovirus B19
Q0183:what glycoprotein in the HIV virus attaches to CD4
gp120
Q0184:what enterobacteriaceae are prone to produce
osteomyelitis in sickle cell patients
salmonella
Q0185:what organism is commonly assoc w/ a cellulitis from
an animal bite
pasteurella mutocida
Q0186:what fungus is seen as colored cauliflower lesions
chromomycosis
Q0187:what is the reservoir for the togavirus
birds
Q0188:what are the two exceptions to the rule "all cocci are
gram pos"
both neisseria and moraxella are gram neg
Q0189:what nematode isknown as hookworms? what is the
tx?
necator americanus is tx with mebendazole and iron therapy
Q0190:what HIV structural gene produces GP120 and GP41
env structural protein
Q0191:which hemoflagellate spp causes kala azar
leishmania donovani
Q0192:what dna virus is assoc w/ heterophile neg
mononucleosis
CMV
Q0193:what neg sense RNA virus is assoc with
intracytoplasmic inclusion Negri bodies
rabies
Q0194:what large; spore forming gram pos anaerobic rod is
assoc with infections due to puncture wounds and trauma
clostridium tetani
Q0195:what is the vector for chagas
reduviid bug
Q0196:what is the polariity of a pos sense RNA
5'-3' (it can serve as mRNA)
Q0197:what viral infection is associated with black vomit
yellow fever (flavivirus)
Q0198:what encapsulated gramneg lactose fermenting rod is
assoc with pneumonia in patients with alcoholism ; diabetes;
and chronic lung diseaes
klebsiella
Q0199:what is the essntial reservoir host for toxoplasma
gondi
cat
Q0200:what gram pos anaerobic rod with branching filaments
is a component of the nl flora of the mouth and female gentital
tract and is responsible for draining abscesses with sulfur
granules in the exudates
actinomyces israelii
Q0201:what is the term for candida infection of the oral
mucosa
thrush
Q0202:what is the term for fungi that an convert from hyphal
to yeast forms
dimorphic
Q0203:to what viral family does the polio virus belong
picornaviridae
Q0204:name at least three bacteria that use capsules to
prevent immediate destruction from the host's defense
mechanism
streptococcus pneumonia;klebsiella pneumonia;h.
influenza;pseudomonas aeruginosa;neisseria
meningitidis;cryptococcus neoformans
Q0205:t or f;there are no persistent infections with naked
virus
t;they lyse the host cell
Q0206:what virus is assoc w/ progressive multifocal
leukoencephalophaty
JC virus
Q0207:what bacterium is a gram neg oxidase pos aerobic rod
that produces a grapelike odoer and pyocyanin pigmentation
pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q0208:which three organisms cause heterophilic negative
mono
CMV;toxoplasma gondii;listeria
Q0209:what bacterium found in poorly preserved canned
food causes flaccid paralysis
c. botulinum
Q0210:which two neg sense RNA viruses ahve neuraminidase
enzymes
mumps and influenza
Q0211:what staph a. protein inhibits phagocytosis
protein A
Q0212:which four bacteria require cysteine for growth
pasteuralla;brucella;legionella;francisella
Q0213:what fungus causes endocardidtis in IV drug users
candida albicans
Q0214:what virus are assoc with Cowdry type A intranuclear
includsion
Herpes I and II
Q0215:which streptococcal spp is assoc w/ dental caries and
infective endocarditis
strep viridans
Q0216:what is the term for cestode-encysted larvae found in
intermediate hosts
cysticerci
Q0217:what fungus is characterized by hypopigmented spots
on the thorax; spaghetti and meatball KOH staining; and
pityriasis or tinea versicolor;tx?
malassezia furufur;tx w/ selenium sulfide
Q0218:what nematode is known as threadworms?;what is the
tx?
strongyloids stercoralis;thiabendazole
Q0219:what are kown as jumping genes
transposons
Q0220:which dimorphic fungus is endemic in ohio;
mississippi; missouri; and easter great lakes; is found in soil
with bird and bat feces; and is assoc w/ infections in
spelungers and chicken coop cleanerrs
histoplasma capsulatum
Q0221:which of the following enterobacteriaceae family
members- yersina; klebsiella; enterobacter; escherichia;
proteus; and citrobacter; do not ferment lactose?
all do except yersinia and proteus
Q0222:what two HIV regulatory genes down-regulate MHC
class I exprssion
nef and tat
Q0223:what size ribosomes do fungi have
80S (eukaryotes)
Q0224:BUZZWORD: Pyoverdin
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q0225:BUZZWORD: Pyocyanin
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q0226:BUZZWORD: Coagulase positive
Staphylococcus aureus
Q0227:BUZZWORD: Protein A
Staphylococcus aureus
Q0228:BUZZWORD: M protein
Streptococcus pyogenes
Q0229:BUZZWORD: Chocolate agar
Haemophilus influenzae
Q0230:BUZZWORD: Factors X and V
Haemophilus influenzae
Q0231:BUZZWORD: Tellurite plate
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Q0232:BUZZWORD: Dieterle silver stain
Legionella pneumophila
Q0233:BUZZWORD: Tracheal cytotoxin
Bordetella pertussis
Q0234:BUZZWORD: Alpha-hemolytic
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q0235:BUZZWORD: Anti-streptolysin O (ASO)
Streptococcus pyogenes
Q0236:BUZZWORD: Filamentous hemagglutinin
Bordetella pertussis
Q0237:BUZZWORD: Lancet-shaped diplococci
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q0238:BUZZWORD: Gram-negative coccobacilli
Haemophilus influenzae
Q0239:BUZZWORD: Toxic shock syndrome toxin (TSST)
Staphylococcus aureus
Q0240:BUZZWORD: Oxidase positive
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q0241:BUZZWORD: Enterotoxin
Staphylococcus aureus
Q0242:BUZZWORD: Exfoliatin (scalded skin syndrome)
Staphylococcus aureus
Q0243:BUZZWORD: Optochin sensitive
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q0244:BUZZWORD: Bacitracin sensitive
Streptococcus pyogenes
Q0245:BUZZWORD: Spe toxins
Streptococcus pyogenes
Q0246:BUZZWORD: C-substance/CRP
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q0247:BUZZWORD: Club-shaped bacilli in palisades
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Q0248:BUZZWORD: Toxin that ADP-ribosylates EF-2
Corynebacterium diphtheriae; Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q0249:BUZZWORD: Exotoxin A
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q0250:BUZZWORD: Toxin that ADP-ribosylates Gi
protein
Bordetella pertussis
Q0251:BUZZWORD: Tumbling motility
Listeria monocytogenes
Q0252:BUZZWORD: IgA protease
Streptococcus pneumoniae; Haemophilus influenzae
Q0253:BUZZWORD: Quellung reaction
Streptococcus pneumoniae; Haemophilus influenzae;
Neisseria meningitidis
Q0254:BUZZWORD: Iron/cysteine supplement (charcoal-
yeast agar)
Legionella pneumophila
Q0255:BUZZWORD: Cold-agglutinin titer
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Q0256:BUZZWORD: Bacterial membrane contains
cholesterol
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Q0257:BUZZWORD: Fried egg shaped colony
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Q0258:BUZZWORD: Cord factor
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q0259:BUZZWORD: Niacin production
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q0260:Dominant normal flora of dental plaque
Streptococcus mutans
Q0261:Dominant normal flora of the skin
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Q0262:Dominant normal flora of the nose
Staphylococcus aureus
Q0263:Dominant normal flora of the colon
1. Bacteroides fragilis;2. E. coli
Q0264:Dominant normal flora of the vagina
1. Lactobacillus;2. E. coli;3. Group B strep
Q0265:Dominant normal flora in neonates
When delivered by cesarean section; none; but are rapidly
colonized after birth.
Q0266:Most common causes of pneumonia in people 6
weeks to 18 years old.
1. Viruses (RSV);2. Mycoplasma;3. Chlamydia
pneumoniae;4. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q0267:Most common causes of pneumonia in people 18 to
40 years old.
1. Mycoplasma;2. Chlamydia pneumoniae;3. Streptococcus
pneumoniae
Q0268:Most common causes of pneumonia in people 40 to
65 years old.
1. Streptococcus pneumoniae;2. Haemophilus influenzae;3.
Anaerobes;4. Viruses;5. Mycoplasma
Q0269:Most common causes of pneumonia in people over 65
years old.
1. Streptococcus pneumoniae;2. Anaerobes;3. Viruses;4.
Haemophilus influenzae;5. Gram negative rods
Q0270:Most common causes of nosocomial pneumonia
1. Staphylococcus;2. Gram negative rods
Q0271:Most common causes of immunocompromised
pneumonia
1. Staphylococcus;2. Gram negative rods;3. Fungi;4.
Viruses;5. Pneumocystis jirovecii (with HIV)
Q0272:Most common causes of aspiration pneumonia
Anaerobes
Q0273:Most common causes of pneumonia in alcoholics or
IV drug users
1. Streptococcus pneumoniae;2. Klebsiella;3. Staphylococcus
Q0274:Most common causes of postviral pneumonia
1. Staphylococcus;2. Haemophilus influenzae
Q0275:Most common causes of neonatal pneumonia
1. Group B streptococci;2. E. coli
Q0276:Most common causes of atypical pneumonia
1. Mycoplasma;2. Legionella;3. Chlamydia
Q0277:Causes of bacterial meningitis in: people 0-6 months
old
1. Group B streptococci;2. E. coli;3. Listeria;All from birth
canal
Q0278:Causes of bacterial meningitis in: people 6 months to 6
years old
1. Streptococcus pneumoniae;2. Neisseria meningitidis;3.
Haemophilus influenzae type B;4. Enteroviruses
Q0279:Causes of bacterial meningitis in: people 6 years to 60
years old
1. Neisseria meningitidis;2. Enteroviruses;3. Streptococcus
pneumoniae;4. HSV
Q0280:Causes of bacterial meningitis in: people greater than
60 years old
1. Streptococcus pneumoniae;2. Gram negative rods;3.
Listeria
Q0281:What is the cause of meningitis with the following
findings?;Pressure: Increased;Cell type: Increased
PMNs;Protein: Increased;Sugar: Decreased
Bacterial (not TB)
Q0282:What is the cause of meningitis with the following
findings?;Pressure: Increased;Cell type: Increased
lymphocytes;Protein: Increased;Sugar: Decreased
Fungal or TB
Q0283:What is the cause of meningitis with the following
findings?;Pressure: Normal/Increased;Cell type: Increased
lymphocytes;Protein: Normal;Sugar: Normal
Viral
Q0284:Common causes of osteomyelitis in most people.
Staphylococcus aureus
Q0285:Common causes of osteomyelitis in sexually active
people.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae (rare); septic arthritis more common
Q0286:Common causes of osteomyelitis in diabetics.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q0287:Common causes of osteomyelitis in drug addicts.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q0288:Common causes of osteomyelitis in people with sickle
cell disease.
Salmonella
Q0289:Common causes of osteomyelitis in people with
prosthetic replacement
Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis
Q0290:Common causes of vertebral osteomyelitis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Pott's disease)
Q0291:Common causes of urinary tract infections in
ambulatory people
Mostly ascending infections;1. E. coli (50-80%);2.
Staphylococcus saprophyticus (10-30%) in young
amubulatory women;3. Klebsiella (8-10%)
Q0292:Common causes of urinary tract infections in the
hospital
Mostly ascending infections;1. E. coli;2. Proteus;3.
Klebsiella;4. Serratia;5. Pseudomonas
Q0293:Epidemiology of urinary tract infections
Mostly ascending infections. Ratio of women:men is 10:1.
(short urethra colonized by fecal flora);Males;1. Babies:
Congenital defects;2. Elderly: Enlarged prostates
Q0294:Predisposing factors to urinary tract infections
1. Flow obstruction;2. Kidney surgery;3. Catheterization;4.
Gynecologic abnormalities;5. Diabetes;6. Pregnancy
Q0295:Signs and symptoms of urinary tract infections
1. Dysuria;2. Frequency;3. Urgency;4. Suprapubic pain
Q0296:Signs and symptoms of pyelonephritis
1. Fever;2. Chills;3. Flank pain;4. Costovertebral angle
tenderness
Q0297:What disease states does Serratia marcescens cause?
Nosocomial (4th most common) and drug-resistant urinary
tract infection
Q0298:What bug: metallic sheen on EMB agar
E. coli
Q0299:What disease states does Enterobacter cloacae cause?
Nosocomial and drug-resistant urinary tract infection
Q0300:What disease states does Proteus mirablis cause?
Urinary tract infection. Urease positive; and associated with
struvite stones. Motility causes "swarming" on agar.
Q0301:List of bugs that cause UTI
SSEEK PP;1. Serratia marcescens (nosocomial/drug-
resistant);2. Staphylococcus saprophyticus (2nd most
common cause in ambulatory young women);3. E. coli (Most
common cause. Metallic sheen on EMB agar);4. Enterobacter
cloacae (nosocomial and drug resistant);5. Klebsiella (thick
viscous colonies);6. Proteus mirablis (urease positive; struvite
stones; swarming on agar);7. Pseudomonas Aeruginosa (blue-
green pigment; fruity odor)
Q0302:Most common causes of bronchitis/bronchiolitis
1. RSV;2. Influenza A;3. Coronavirus;All RNA viruses with
envelope
Q0303:How does gonorrhea present?
1. Urethritis;2. Cervicitis;3. PID;4. Prostatitis;5.
Epididymitis;6. Arthritis;7. Creamy purulent discharge
(mmm!)
Q0304:What organism causes gonorrhea?
Neisseria gonorrheae aka Gonococcus
Q0305:What organism causes syphilis?
Treponema pallidum
Q0306:How does genital herpes present?
Painful ulcers on the;1. Penis;2. Vulva;3. Cervix
Q0307:What disease states does HPV 6 cause?
Condylomata acuminata: Genital warts and koilocytes;(same
as HPV 11)
Q0308:What disease states does HPV 11 cause?
Condylomata acuminata: Genital warts and koilocytes;(same
as HPV 6)
Q0309:What causes condylomata acuminata?
HPV 6 and 11
Q0310:What causes condylomata lata?
Treponema pallidum
Q0311:Condylomata lata vs Condylomata acuminata
Condyloma (plural: "Condylomata"; from Greek "knob")
refers to an infection of the genitals. The two subtypes
are;"condylomata acuminata"; another term for genital warts -
caused by human papilloma virus ;"condylomata lata"; white
lesions associated with secondary syphilis ;(copied from
Wikipedia)
Q0312:What disease states does Haemophilus ducreyi cause?
Chancroid;1. Painful genital ulcer (red papule with yellow-
gray exudate);2. Inguinal adenopathy
Q0313:How does Chancroid present?
1. Painful genital ulcer (red papule with yellow-gray
exudate);2. Inguinal adenopathy
Q0314:What causes chancroid?
Haemophilus ducreyi
Q0315:What is the Whiff test?
Several drops of a potassium hydroxide (KOH) solution are
added to a sample of vaginal discharge to see whether a strong
fishy odor is produced. A fishy odor on the whiff test usually
means bacterial vaginosis is present.
Q0316:How does bacterial vaginosis present?
Caused by Gardnerella vaginalis;1. Greenish vaginal discharge
with fishy smell;2. Noninflammatory (nonpainful);3.
Mobiluncus (anaerobe) is also seen;4. Clue cells are visible
(vaginal epithelium covered with bacteria);5. Positive Whiff
test
Q0317:Top causes of PID
1. Chlamydia trachomatis (subacute; often undiagnosed);2.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae (acute; high fever);3. Gardnerella;4.
Trichomonas
Q0318:Most common STD in the US
Chlamydia trachomatis (3-4 million cases per year)
Q0319:Clinical presentation of PID
1. Cervical motion tenderness (chandelier sign);2. Purulent
cervical discharge;3. Possibly salpingitis; endrometritis;
hydrosalpinx; or tubo-ovarian abscess
Q0320:What is the chandelier sign?
Colloquial term referring to severe pain elicited during pelvic
examination of patients with pelvic inflammatory disease in
which the patient responds by reaching upwards towards the
ceiling for relief;Retrieved from "http://www.biology-
online.org/dictionary/Chandelier_sign"
Q0321:What is salpingitis a risk factor for?
1. Ectopic pregnancy;2. Infertility;3. Chronic pelvic pain;4.
Adhesions
Q0322:Risk factor for nosocomial CMV infection.
Newborn nursery
Q0323:Risk factor for nosocomial RSV infection.
Newborn nursery
Q0324:Risk factor for nosocomial E. coli infection.
Urinary catheterization
Q0325:Risk factor for nosocomial Proteus mirablis infection.
Urinary catheterization
Q0326:Risk factor for nosocomial Pseudomonas aeruginosa
infection.
Respiratory therapy equipment
Q0327:Risk factor for nosocomial HBV infection.
Work in renal dialysis unit
Q0328:Risk factor for nosocomial Candida albicans infection.
Hyperalimentation
Q0329:Risk factor for nosocomial Legionella infection.
Water aerosols
Q0330:2 most common causes of nosocomial infections
1. E. coli (UTI);2. S. aureus (wound infection)
Q0331:Infections dangerous in pregnancy
ToRCHeS;1. Toxoplasma;2. Rubella;3. CMV;4. HSV/HIV;5.
Syphilis
Q0332:What bugs: Hyaluronidase
1. Staphylococcus;2. Streptococcus pyogenes;3. Clostridium
dificile
Q0333:What bug: Pus
Staphylococcus aureus
Q0334:What bug: Empyema
Staphylococcus aureus (means pus in a natural body cavity;
not an abscess)
Q0335:What bug: Abscess
Staphylococcus aureus
Q0336:What bug: Pediatric infection
Haemophilus influenzae
Q0337:Most common causes of pneumonia in people with
cystic fibrosis.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q0338:What bug: Branching rods in oral infection
Actinomyces israelii
Q0339:What bug: Traumatic open wound infection
Clostridium perfringens
Q0340:What bug: Surgical wound
Staphylococcus aureus
Q0341:What bug: Dog or cat bite
Pasteurella multocida
Q0342:What bug: Sepsis in a newborn
Group B Strep
Q0343:What bug: Meningitis in a newborn
Group B Strep
Q0344:Antimicrobial class with mechanism: Block cell wall
synthesis by inhibition of peptidoglycan cross-linking
Mnemonic: It's forming its cell wall. ACT PAPI!;1.
Aztreonam;2. Cephalosporins;3. Ticarcillin;4. Penicillin;5.
Ampicillin;6. Piperacillin;7. Imipenem
Q0345:Antimicrobial class with mechanism: Block
peptidoglycan synthesis
1. Bacitracin;2. Vancomycin;3. Cycloserine
Q0346:Antimicrobial class with mechanism: Disrupt bacterial
cell membranes
Polymyxins
Q0347:Antimicrobial class with mechanism: Disrupt fungal
cell membranes
1. Amphotericin B;2. Nystatin;3. Fluconzaole/azoles;4.
Polymyxins
Q0348:Antimicrobial class with mechanism: Block nucleotide
synthesis
1. Sulfonamides;2. Trimethprim
Q0349:Antimicrobial class with mechanism: Block DNA
topoisomerases
Quinolones
Q0350:Antimicrobial class with mechanism: Block mRNA
synthesis
Rifampin
Q0351:Antimicrobial class with mechanism: Block protein
synthesis at 50S ribosomal subunit
1. Chloramphenicol;2. Erythromycin/macrolides;3.
Lincomycin;4. Clindamycin;5. Streptogramins (quinupristin;
dalfopristin);6. Linezolid
Q0352:Antimicrobial class with mechanism: Block protein
synthesis at 30S ribosomal subunit
1. Aminoglycosides;2. Tetracyclines
Q0353:Bactericidal antibiotics
Mnemonic: Am I Safe using a Metropolitan Pen in a Van;
Flo?;1. Aminoglycosides;2. Cephalosporins;3.
Metronidazole;4. Penicillin;5. Vancomycin;6.
Fluoroquinolones
Q0354:Patient with blotchy hypopigmentation of skin
Malassezia furfur
Q0355:KOH scraping shows spaghetti and meatballs
Malassezia furfur
Q0356:Patient with scaly; ringlike lesions of ski that may
involved hair shafts or nails
Dermatophytes (Trichophyton - skin; hair; nails;
Microsporum - hair and skin; Epidermophyton - nails and
skin)
Q0357:KOH scraping shows arthroconidia and hyphae
Dermatophytes (Trichophyton - skin; hair; nails;
Microsporum - hair and skin; Epidermophyton - nails and
skin)
Q0358:Patient with subcutaneous/lymphocutaneous
mycetoma
Sporothrix schenckii
Q0359:Fardener; florist; basket weaver
Sporothrix schenckii
Q0360:Cigar-shaped yeasts in pus
Sporothrix schenckii
Q0361:Normal patient with acute pulmonary;
immunocompromised patient with chronic pulmonary or
disseminated infection
Histoplasma capsulatum
Q0362:States following drainages of Great Lakes to Gulf of
Mexico
Histoplasma capsulatum
Q0363:Exposure to bird or bat excrement
Histoplasma capsulatum
Q0364:Sputum or blood cultures with mononuclear cells
packed with yeast cells
Histoplasma capsulatum
Q0365:Normal patient with erythema nodosum or self
resolving pneumonia
Coccidioides immitis
Q0366:Immunocompromised patient with calcifying chronic
pulmonary or disseminated infections
Coccidioides immitis
Q0367:Pregnant female in third trimester; disseminated
infection
Coccidioides immitis
Q0368:Desert southwest
Coccidioides immitis
Q0369:Sputum has spherule with endospores
Coccidioides immitis
Q0370:Normal patient with acute pulmonary symptoms
Blastomyces dermatitidis
Q0371:Immunocompromised patient with chronic pulmonary
or disseminated infection
Blastomyces dermatitidis
Q0372:North and South Carolina Sputum has broad-based;
budding yeasts with double; refractile cell walls
Blastomyces dermatitidis
Q0373:Sputum has broad-based budding yeasts with double
refractile cell walls
Blastomyces dermatitidis
Q0374:Patient with asthma allergies-growing mucous plugs in
lung
Aspergillus fumigatus
Q0375:Patient with cavitary lung lesions-fungus ball
Aspergillus fumigatus
Q0376:Patient with burns-cellulitis invasion
Aspergillus fumigatus
Q0377:Immunocompromised patient-penumonia; meningitis
Aspergillus fumigatus
Q0378:Septate hyphae branch at acute angles (45-degrees)
Aspergillus fumigatus
Q0379:Immunocrompromised patient; overuse of antibiotics-
thrust;spread down GI tract; septicemia
Candida albicans
Q0380:IV drug abusers-endocarditis
Candida albicans
Q0381:Germ tube test demonstrates pseudohyphae and
hyphae
Candida albicans
Q0382:Pigeon breeder with acute pulmonary symptoms
Cryptococcus neoformans
Q0383:Hodgkins/AIDS patient with meningitis
Cryptococcus neoformans
Q0384:India ink mount of CSF with encapsulated yeasts
Cryptococcus neoformans
Q0385:Ketoacidotic diabetic or leukemic patient with
rhinocerebral infection
Mucor; Rhizopus; Absidia
Q0386:Biopsy with nonseptate; irregular-width hyphae
branching at 90-degree angles
Mucor; Rhizopus; Absidia
Q0387:Premature infant or AIDS patient with atypical
pneumonia
Pneumocystis jiroveci
Q0388:Biopsy with honeycomb exudate and silver staining
cysts
Pneumocystis jiroveci
Q0389:X-ray: ground glass
Pneumocystis jiroveci
Q0390:Coagulase (-); gram (+) cocci
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Q0391:Novobiocin sensitive
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Q0392:Infections of catheters and shunts
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Q0393:Coagulase (-); gram (+) cocci
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Q0394:Novobiocin resistant
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Q0395:"Honeymoon cystitis"
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Q0396:Coagulase (+); gram (+) cocci in clusters
Staphylococcus aureas
Q0397:Gastroenteritis: 2-6 hours onset; salty foods; custards
Staphylococcus aureas
Q0398:Endocarditis: acute
Staphylococcus aureas
Q0399:Toxic shock syndrome: desquamating rash; fever;
hypotension
Staphylococcus aureas
Q0400:Impetigo: bullous
Staphylococcus aureas
Q0401:Pneumonia: nosocomial; typical; acute
Staphylococcus aureas
Q0402:Osteomyelitis: #1 cause unless HbS mentioned
Staphylococcus aureas
Q0403:Catalase (-); Beta hemolytic; gram (+) cocci; bacitracin
sensitive
Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)
Q0404:Pharyngitis: abrupt onset; tonsillar abscesses
Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)
Q0405:Scarlet fever: blanching; sandpaper rash; strawnerry
tongue
Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)
Q0406:Impetigo: honey-crusted lesions
Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)
Q0407:Rheumatic fever
Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)
Q0408:Increased ASO titer
Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)
Q0409:Acute glomerulonephritis after skin or throat infection;
hypertension; edema; smoky urine
Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)
Q0410:Bacitracin sensitive; gram (+) cocci
Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)
Q0411:Bacitracin resistant; gram (+) cocci
Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)
Q0412:Hydrolyze hippurate
Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)
Q0413:CAMP test (+)
Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)
Q0414:Catalase (-); Beta hemolytic; gram (+) cocci; bacitracin
resistant
Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)
Q0415:MCC of Neonatal meningitis and septicemia:
especially in prolonged labors
Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)
Q0416:Gram (+); catalase (-); alpha hemolytic; optochin
sensitive; bile soluble
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q0417:Lancet shaped diplococci
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q0418:MCC of typical pneumonia; rusty sputum
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q0419:MCC pf adult meningitis - many PMNs; decreased
glucose; increased protein in CSF
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q0420:MCC of otitis media and sinusitis
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q0421:Gram (+); catalase (-); alpha hemolytic; optochin
resistant; bile insoluble
Viridans Streptococc (S. sanguis; S. mutans)
Q0422:Plaque and dental caries
Viridans Streptococc (S. sanguis; S. mutans)
Q0423:Subacute bacterial endocarditis - preexisting damage to
the heart valves; follows dental work
Viridans Streptococc (S. sanguis; S. mutans)
Q0424:Gram (+); catalase (-); variable hemolysis; hydrolyzes
esculin
Enterococcus faecalis/faecium
Q0425:Urinary and biliary tract infections - elderly males
after prostate treatment
Enterococcus faecalis/faecium
Q0426:Subacute bacterial endocarditis - elderly males; follows
GI/GU surgery; preexisting heart valve damage
Enterococcus faecalis/faecium
Q0427:Gram (+); spore forming aerobic rods
Bacillus antracis
Q0428:Contact with animal hides or postal worker; eschar or
life-threatening pneumonia
Bacillus antracis
Q0429:Rapid-onset gastroenteritis
Bacillus cereus
Q0430:Fried rice; Chinese restaurants
Bacillus cereus
Q0431:Dirty puncture wound
Clostridium tetani
Q0432:Rigid paralysis
Clostridium tetani
Q0433:Home-canned alkaline vegtables
Clostridium botulinum
Q0434:Floppy baby syndrome (infant with flaccid paralysis)
Clostridium botulinum
Q0435:Reversible flaccid paralysis
Clostridium botulinum
Q0436:Contamined wound
Clostridium perfringens
Q0437:Pain; edema; gas; fever; tachycardia
Clostridium perfringens
Q0438:Food poisoning: reheated meats; noninflammatory
diarrhea
Clostridium perfringens
Q0439:Hospitalized patient on antibiotics
Clostridium difficile
Q0440:Develops colitis; diarrhea
Clostridium difficile
Q0441:Gram (+); beta hemolytic bacilli; facultative
intracellular
Listeria monocytogenes
Q0442:Foodborne (deli foods)
Listeria monocytogenes
Q0443:Transplacental - granulomatosis infantiseptica
Listeria monocytogenes
Q0444:Neonatal septicemia and meningitis (third most
common cause)
Listeria monocytogenes
Q0445:MCC of meningitis in renal transplant or cancer
patients
Listeria monocytogenes
Q0446:Gram (+); aerobic; non-spore forming rods
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Q0447:Bull neck; myocarditis; nerve palsies
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Q0448:Gray pseudomembrane → airway obstruction
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Q0449:Toxin produced by lysogeny and ribosylates EF-2;
heart; nerve damage
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Q0450:Mycetoma on jaw line or spread from IUD
Actinomyces israelii
Q0451:Sulfur granules in pus grow anaerobic; gram (+); non-
acid fast branching rods
Actinomyces israelii
Q0452:Gram (+) filamentous bacilli; aerobic; partially acid
fast
Nocardia asteroides and brasiliensis
Q0453:Cavitary bronchopulmonary disease; mycetomas
Nocardia asteroides and brasiliensis
Q0454:High-risk patient (low SES; HIV+; IV drug user)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q0455:Chronic cough; weight loss
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q0456:Ghon complex
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q0457:Auramine-rhodamine staining; acid fast bacilli in
sputum; faculative intracellular
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q0458:Produce niacin; heat-sensitive catalase
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q0459:Positive DTH test (PPD)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q0460:Acid fast bacilli in punch biopsy
Mycobacterium leprae
Q0461:Immigrant patient with sensory loss in extremities
Mycobacterium leprae
Q0462:Armadillos in Texas and Louisana
Mycobacterium leprae
Q0463:Hansen's disease
Mycobacterium leprae
Q0464:AIDS patients; cancer; chronic lung disease with
pulmonary; GI; disseminated symptoms; atypical
mycobacteria
Mycobacterium avium intracellulare; Mycobacterium kansasii
Q0465:Fish tank granuloma - cutaneous granulomas
Mycobacterium marinum
Q0466:Solitary cervical lymph node in kids; lymphadenitis;
atypical mycobacteria
Mycobacterium scrofulaceum
Q0467:Gran (-) diplococcus in CSF
Meningococcal meningitis
Q0468:Young adults with meningitis; abrupt onset with signs
of endotoxin toxicity
Meningococcal meningitis
Q0469:Sexually active patient
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Q0470:Urethral/vaginal discharge (leukorrhea)
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Q0471:Arthiritis possible
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Q0472:Neonatal opthalmia
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Q0473:Gram (-) diplococcus in neutrophils
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Q0474:Gram (-) diplococcus causes otitis media; sinusitis;
bronchitis; bronchopneumonia in elderly patients with COPD
Moraxella catarrhalis
Q0475:Gram (-); oxidase (+); aerobic bacillus
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q0476:Blue-green pigments; fruity odor
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q0477:Burn infections - blue-green pus; fruity odor
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q0478:Typical pneumonia - Chonic granulomatous disease or
Cystic fibrosis
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q0479:UTI - catheterized patients
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q0480:Elderly smoker; heavy drinker or immunosuppressed
Legionella pneumophilia
Q0481:Exposure to aerosols of water
Legionella pneumophilia
Q0482:Atypical pneumonia
Legionella pneumophilia
Q0483:Pontiac fever
Legionella pneumophilia
Q0484:Patient with ulceroglandular disease; atypical
pneumonia; or gastrointestinal disease
Francisella tularensis
Q0485:Arkansas/Missouri
Francisella tularensis
Q0486:Exposure to rabbits/ticks
Francisella tularensis
Q0487:Tularemia
Francisella tularensis
Q0488:Unvaccinated child (immigrant family or religious
objections)
Bordetella pertussis
Q0489:Cough with inspiratory "whoop"
Bordetella pertussis
Q0490:Whooping cough
Bordetella pertussis
Q0491:Patient with acute septicemia
Brucella species
Q0492:Exposure to animals or unpasteurized dairy
Brucella species
Q0493:California/Texas or travel to Mexico
Brucella species
Q0494:Patient with inflammatory diarrhea
Campylobacter jejuni
Q0495:Gram (-); curved rod; microaerophilic; exidase (+);
grows at 42 degrees C
Campylobacter jejuni
Q0496:Patient with gastritis; ulcers; stomach cancer
Helicobacter pylori
Q0497:Gram (-); helical bacilli; oxidase (+); microaerophilic;
urease (+)
Helicobacter pylori
Q0498:MCC of UTI
Escherichia coli
Q0499:Neonatal septicemia (2nd MCC)
Escherichia coli
Q0500:Gastroenteritis; Traveler's diarrhea
Escherichia coli (ETEC)
Q0501:Infantile diarrhea (2nd MCC)
Escherichia coli (EPEC)
Q0502:Hemorrhagic colitis; HUS
Escherichia coli (EHEC)
Q0503:Lactose fermenter; gram-negative rod
Escherichia coli
Q0504:Inflammatory diarrhea; similar to shigellosis
Escherichia coli (EIEC)
Q0505:Patient with acute bloody diarrhea and fever
Shigella sonnei (MC in US); dysenteriae (most severe)
Q0506:Gram (-) bacilli; which are nonmotile; nonlactose
fermenters; do not produce H2S
Shigella sonnei (MC in US); dysenteriae (most severe)
Q0507:Elderly patient with typical pneumonia currant-jelly
sputum
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Q0508:UTI - catheterized patients
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Q0509:Septicemia: immunocompromised or nosocomial
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Q0510:Gram (-) bacilli; oxidase (-); encapsulated; lactose
fermenters
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Q0511:Patient from Caribbean or New Guinea with
subcutaneous genital nodules
Klebsiella granulomatis
Q0512:Encapsulated gram (-) rods inside mononuclear cells
Klebsiella granulomatis
Q0513:Patient with fever; abdominal pain with travel to
endemic area
Salmonella enterica typhi
Q0514:Gram (-); encapsulated; nonlactose fermenter;
produces H2S gas
Salmonella enterica typhi / non-typhi
Q0515:Widal test
Salmonella enterica typhi / non-typhi
Q0516:Enterocolitis - inflammatory; follows ingestion of
poultry products or handling pet reptiles
Salmonella enterica non-typhi
Q0517:Septicemia - very young or elderly
Salmonella enterica non-typhi
Q0518:Osteomyelitis - sickle cell disease
Salmonella enterica non-typhi
Q0519:Gram (-) bacillus; motile; non-lactose fermenter;
produces H2S gas
Salmonella enterica typhi / non-typhi
Q0520:Widal test
Salmonella enterica typhi / non-typhi
Q0521:Patient with high fever; buboes; conjunctivitis;
pneumonia
Yersinia pestis
Q0522:Exposure to small rodents; desert southwest
Yersinia pestis
Q0523:Patient with inflammatory diarrhea or
pseudoappendicitis
Yersinia enterocolitica
Q0524:Cold climates
Yersinia enterocolitica
Q0525:Unpateurized milk; pork
Yersinia enterocolitica
Q0526:Gram (-) bacilli; non-lactose fermenters; non-H2S
producers
Yersinia enterocolitica
Q0527:Patient with UTI or septicemia
Proteus mirabilis / vulgaris
Q0528:Swarming motility
Proteus mirabilis / vulgaris
Q0529:Staghorn renal calculi (struvite stones)
Proteus mirabilis / vulgaris
Q0530:Gram (-); non-lactose fermenting; urease (+)
Proteus mirabilis / vulgaris
Q0531:Female patient with thin vaginal discharge; post
antibiotic or menses
Gardnerella vaginalis
Q0532:Clue cells
Gardnerella vaginalis
Q0533:Whiff test
Gardnerella vaginalis
Q0534:Patient with noninflammatory diarrhea
Vibrio cholerae
Q0535:Rice-water stool
Vibrio cholerae
Q0536:Dehydration
Vibrio cholerae
Q0537:Gram (-) curved rods; polar flagellae; oxidase (+);
travel to endemic area
Vibrio cholerae
Q0538:Patient with cat (animal) bite
Pasteurella multocida
Q0539:Cellulitis / lymphadenitis
Pasteurella multocida
Q0540:3 mo-2 year old unvaccinated child - meningitis;
pneumonia; epiglottitis
Haemophilus influenzae
Q0541:Smokers with COPD - bronchitis; pneumonia
Haemophilus influenzae
Q0542:Gram (-) rod; requires factors X and V
Haemophilus influenzae
Q0543:MCC of gram-negative endocarditis in non-IV drug
users
HACEK group infections
Q0544:Painful chancre
Haemophilus ducreyi
Q0545:Patient with abdominal trauma; emergency abdominal
surgery
Bacteroides fragilis
Q0546:Septicemia; peritonitis; abscess
Bacteroides fragilis
Q0547:Gram (-) bacilli; anaerobic
Bacteroides fragilis
Q0548:Sexually active patient or neonate of IV drug-using
female
Treponema pallidum
Q0549:Primary disease - nontender indurated genital chancre
Treponema pallidum
Q0550:Secondary disease - maculopapular; copper-colored
rash; condylomata lata
Treponema pallidum
Q0551:Tertiary disease - gumma in CNS and cardiovascular
system
Treponema pallidum
Q0552:Spirilar; gram (-) bacteria visualized by dark-field or
fluorescent antibody
Treponema pallidum
Q0553:FTA-ABS; VDRL
Treponema pallidum
Q0554:Patient with influenza-like symptoms and erythema
migrans
Borrelia burgdorferi
Q0555:Spring/summer seasons; noreast; midwest; west coast
Borrelia burgdorferi
Q0556:Later-neurologic; cardiac; arthiritis/arthralgias
Borrelia burgdorferi
Q0557:Lyme disease
Borrelia burgdorferi
Q0558:Patients with influenza-like symptoms +/- GI
symptoms
Leptospira interrogans
Q0559:Occupational or recreational exposure to water
aerosols
Leptospira interrogans
Q0560:Hawaii
Leptospira interrogans
Q0561:Spirochetes with terminal hook
Leptospira interrogans
Q0562:Patient with influenza-like symptoms and petechial
rash that begins on ankles and wrists and moves to trunk
Rickettsia rickettsii
Q0563:East coast mountainous areas
Rickettsia rickettsii
Q0564:Sring/summer seasons; outdoor exposure; Weil-Felix
(+)
Rickettsia rickettsii
Q0565:Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Rickettsia rickettsii
Q0566:Patient with fever; pneumonia; granulomatous
hepatitis
Coxiella burnetii
Q0567:Exposure to domestic animal breeding operation; gram
(-) bacilli; diagnose serologically
Coxiella burnetii
Q0568:Sexually active patient or neonate
Chlamydia trachomatis
Q0569:Adult: urethritis; cervicitis; PID; inclusion
conjunctivitis
Chlamydia trachomatis
Q0570:Neonate: inclusion conjunctivitis / pneumonia
Chlamydia trachomatis
Q0571:Immigrant from Africa/Asia; swollen genital
lymphadenopathy
Chlamydia trachomatis
Q0572:Cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in scrapings
Chlamydia trachomatis
Q0573:Atypical pneumonia; sputum with intracytoplasmic
inclusion
Chlamydia pneumoniae
Q0574:Atypical pneumonia; exposure to parrots
Chlamydia psittaci
Q0575:Young adult with atypical pneumonia (MCC)
Mycoplasma pneumonia
Q0576:Mulberry-shaped colonies on media containing sterols
Mycoplasma pneumonia
Q0577:Positive cold agglutinin test
Mycoplasma pneumonia
Q0578:Adult patient with urethritis; prostitis; renal calculi
Ureaplasma urealyticum
Q0579:Alkaline urine
Ureaplasma urealyticum
Q0580:Non-Gram-staining; urease (+)
Ureaplasma urealyticum
Q0581:Amebiasis: dysentery
Entamoeba histolytica
Q0582:Liver abscesses (protozoa etiology)
Entamoeba histolytica
Q0583:Inverted flask shaped lesions
Entamoeba histolytica
Q0584:Fatty; foul-smelling diarrhea leading to malabsorption
Giardia lamblia
Q0585:Fecal (human; beaver; muskrat); water ; food; day care
Giardia lamblia
Q0586:Trophozoites with "falling leaf" motility
Giardia lamblia
Q0587:Transient diarrhea in healthy; severe in
immunocompromisted hosts; acid fast round oocysts in stool
Cryptosporidium species
Q0588:Undercooked meat; water - no killed by chlorination;
cysts
Cryptosporidium species
Q0589:Frothy vaginal discharge; motile trophozoites with
corkscrew motility; sexual transmission
Trichomonas vaginalis
Q0590:Chills; fever spike; and malarial rigors; relapses
Plasmodium vivax
Q0591:Irregular fever spikes; causes cerebral malaria; multiple
ring forms and crescent-shaped gametes
Plasmodium falciparum
Q0592:Chagas diseases; Romana sign (swelling around eye);
cardiac muscle; liver; brain often involved; reduviid bug
Trypanosoma cruzi
Q0593:African sleeping sickness; tsetse fly; antigenic
variation
Trypanosoma brucei; gambiense; rhodesiense
Q0594:Viseral Leishmaniasis; sandfly; amastigotes in
macrophages in bone marrow; liver; spleen
Leishmania donovani
Q0595:Cutaneous Leishmaniasis; sandfly; amastigotes in
cutaneous lesions
Leismania species
Q0596:Malaria-like Babesiosis; NE; N Central; California; and
NW U.S; Ixodes tick; co-infection with Borrelia
Babesia
Q0597:Cat is definitive host; raw meat in US #1 = pork;
contact with cat feces; deadly in pregnant patients
Toxoplasma gondii
Q0598:Intestinal schistosomiasis
Schistosoma mansoni; japonicum
Q0599:Skin penetration; mature in veins of mesentery; eggs
cause granulomas in liver
Schistosoma mansoni; japonicum
Q0600:Vesicular schistosomiasis
Schistosoma haematobium
Q0601:Skin penetration; bladder carcinoma in Egypt and
Africa
Schistosoma haematobium
Q0602:Chinese liver fluke
Clonorchis sinesis
Q0603:Raw fish ingestion; serum-like sickness
Clonorchis sinesis
Q0604:Lung fluke
Paragonimus westermani
Q0605:Raw crabs; crayfish; mimics pulmonary TB
Paragonimus westermani
Q0606:Pork tapeworm
Taenia solium
Q0607:Cysticercosis; calcified larva in brain; eye; heart; lung;
IH: pigs
Taenia solium
Q0608:Raw pork containing cysticerci ingested by humans;
DH: humans - intestinal tapeworm; proglottids in feces
Taenia solium
Q0609:Raw pickled fism containing a sparganum; intestinal
tapeworm; megaloblastic anemia (B12 deficiency)
Diphyllobothrium latum
Q0610:Fish tapeworm
Diphyllobothrium latum
Q0611:Hydatid cyst disease
Enchinococcus granulosus
Q0612:Pinworms; large intestine; perinal itching
Enterobius vermicularis
Q0613:Scotch tape test
Enterobius vermicularis
Q0614:Most frequent helminth parasite in U.S.
Enterobius vermicularis
Q0615:Ascariasis
Ascaris lumbricoides
Q0616:MC helminth worldwide
Ascaris lumbricoides
Q0617:Largest roundworm; may obstruct intestine or bile
duct
Ascaris lumbricoides
Q0618:Visceral Larva Migrans - larvae wader aimlessly until
they die; cause inflmmation; from hangling puppies or eating
dirt (pica)
Toxocara canis or cati
Q0619:Hookworm; larva penetrates intact skin of bare feet;
penumonitis; anemia; occult blood fecal may be +
Necator americanus
Q0620:Threadworm; early: pneumonitis; diarrhea; abdominal
pain later: malabsorption; ulcers; bloody stools; larva
penerates intact skin
Strongyloides stercoralis
Q0621:Trichinosis; variable encysted larvae in meat; wild
game meat; in muscle; fever; myalgia; splinter hemorrhages;
eosinophilia
Trichinella spiralis
Q0622:Elephantiasis; mosquito
Wucheria bancrofti
Q0623:Pruritus; calabar swelling; chrysops mango fly;
African eye worm
Loa loa
Q0624:River blindness; itchy leopard rash
Onchocerca volvulus
Q0625:Creeping eruptions; ulcerations; rash; remove with
stick; fiery serpant
Dracunculus medinesis
Q0626:School-aged child with fever and indurated facial rash;
slapped cheek fever
B19 - Parvoviridae
Q0627:Pregnant woman with flu-like symptoms; hydrops
fetalis or spontaneous abortion
B19 - Parvoviridae
Q0628:Warts
HPV - Papovaviridae
Q0629:Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)
HPV - Papovaviridae
Q0630:Biopsy or pap smear reveals koilocytic cells
HPV - Papovaviridae
Q0631:Cold sores / gential vesicles
HSV-1 and HSV-2 - Herpesviridae
Q0632:Keratoconjunctivitis
HSV-1 and HSV-2 - Herpesviridae
Q0633:Meningoencephalitis / encephalitis
HSV-1 and HSV-2 - Herpesviridae
Q0634:Neonatal disseminated / encephalitis
HSV-1 and HSV-2 - Herpesviridae
Q0635:Tzanck smear; Cowdry type A inclusion bodies
HSV-1 and HSV-2 - Herpesviridae
Q0636:Latency in trigeminal ganglion
HSV-1 - Herpesviridae
Q0637:Latency in sacral ganglion
HSV-2 - Herpesviridae
Q0638:unvaccinated child with asynchronous rash
VZV - Herpesviridae - Chickenpox
Q0639:Elderly with unilateral vesicular rash that follows
dermatome
VZV - Herpesviridae - Shingles
Q0640:Tzanck smear; Cowdry type A inclusion bodies; and
synctia intranuclear inclusions
VZV - Herpesviridae
Q0641:Latency in DRG
VZV - Herpesviridae
Q0642:Young adult with fever; lymphadenopathy;
splenomegaly
EBV - Herpesviridae
Q0643:Downey type II atypical T lymphocytes reach 70%
in blood
EBV - Herpesviridae
Q0644:Heterophile (monospot) positive mononucleosis
EBV - Herpesviridae
Q0645:Latency in B cells
EBV - Herpesviridae
Q0646:Kissing disease
EBV - Herpesviridae
Q0647:Heterophile-negative mononucleosis in children and
adults
CMV - Herpesviridae
Q0648:Neonate with jaundice; hepatosplenomegaly;
thrombocytic purpura
CMV - Herpesviridae
Q0649:Owl-eye inclusion bodies in biopsy
CMV - Herpesviridae
Q0650:Infant with fever leading to lacy body rash
HHV-6 - Herpesviridae
Q0651:AIDS patient with sarcoma
HHV-8 - Herpesviridae
Q0652:Kaposi sarcoma
HHV-8 - Herpesviridae
Q0653:Latency in mononuclear cells
EBV; CMV - Herpesviridae
Q0654:Young adults with ARDS; spring and winter peak
Adenovirus - Adenoviridae
Q0655:Swimmers and shipyard workers: nonpurulent
conjunctivitis
Adenovirus - Adenoviridae
Q0656:Daycare: viral gastroenteritis
Adenovirus - Adenoviridae
Q0657:Young adult (wrestling; swim team); umbilicated
warts; Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion bodies
Molluscum Contagiosum - Poxviridae
Q0658:Virus extinct
Variola - Poxviridae
Q0659:Syncronous rash begins in mouth goes to face and
body
Variola - Poxviridae
Q0660:Guarnieri bodies (intracytoplasmic inclusions)
Variola - Poxviridae
Q0661:Smallpox
Variola - Poxviridae
Q0662:Dane particle; infectious
HBV - Hepadnaviridae
Q0663:Fecal oral; infectious
HAV - Picornavirus
Q0664:Parenteral; sexual; serum; infacts chronic carriers;
primary HCC; cirrosis
HBV - Hepadnaviridae
Q0665:Parenteral; sexual; post-transfusion; 80% chronic
carriers; primary HCC; cirrhosis
HCV - Flavivirus
Q0666:Parenteral; sexual; superinfection; cirrhosis; fulminant
hepatitis
HDV - Defective
Q0667:Fecal oral; enteric; pregnant patients severly affected
HEV - Calcivirus
Q0668:Sheep; goat; fur; spore; bioterror; Wool-sorter's
disease
Gram negative rod; Bacillus antracis
Q0669:Rice; preformed toxin; heat-stable toxin -
vomiting;heat-labile toxin - diarrhea
Gram negative rod Bacillus cereus
Q0670:Bordet-Gengou agar; whooping cough; DPT vaccine
Gram negative coccobacilli Bordetella pertussis
Q0671:Bloody diarrhea; undercooked poultry; micro-
aerophillic
Gram negative; curved rod Campylobacter jejuni
Q0672:STD; UTI; PID; LGV; trachoma; iodine stain;
elementary bodies; reticulate bodies
Poorly gram stain; gram negative without peptidoglycan
Chlamydia trachomatis
Q0673:Boxcar shaped; double zone of hemolysis; lecithinase;
toxins; gas gangrene; diarrhea
Gram positive bacilli; spore forming; anaerobic Chlostridium
perfringens
Q0674:Botulism;Floppy baby;Honey;Sepores;Food-borne
Gram positive bacilli;Spore forming;Anaerobic Clostridium
botulinum
Q0675:Pseudomembrane;DPT vaccine;A-B toxin;Schick test
Gram positive bacilli;Non-spore forming Corynebacterium
diptheriae
Q0676:Diarrhea;Neonatal meningitis;EIEC; EHEC;
ETEC;EAEC;EPEC;Lactose positive;O157:H7;UTI
Gram negative bacilli;Facultative anerobe;Enterobacteriaciae
Escherichia coli
Q0677:Currant jelly (blood) sputum;Pneumonia;
aspiration;Capsule
Gram negative bacilli;Facultative anaerobe;Enterobacteriaciae
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Q0678:Sulfur granules;Anaerobic;Filamentous
Gram positive bacilli;Anaerobic Actinomyces
Q0679:Intracellular;Rabbit;Ulcer;Tularemia
Gram negative coccobavilli Francisella tularensis
Q0680:Undulant fever;Unpasteurized milk and
cheese;Intracellular growth;Goats and sheep
Gram negative coccobacilli Brucella spp.
Q0681:Foul-smelling;Mixed infection;Abscess
Gram negative bacilli;Strict anaerobe Bacteroides gragillis
Q0682:X and V factors;Hib;Capsule;Meningitis
Gram negative coccobacilli Haemophilus
Q0683:Gastric or duodenal ulcer;Urease;Urease breath test
Gram negative curved rod;Micro-aerophillic Helicobacter
pylori
Q0684:Air-conditioning coolant;Shower and other lukewarm
water sources;Charcoal yeast agar (BCYE agar);Silver stain
Gram negative bacilli;Aerobic Legionella pneumophilia
Q0685:Meningitis;Intracellular growth;Baby;Cold
enrichment;Milk products;Motility;Undercooked meat
Gram positive bacilli;Non-spore forming Listeria
monocytogenes
Q0686:Walking pneumonia;No cell wall
Non-gram staining;Triple layer membrane Mycoplasma
pneumonia
Q0687:Diplocci in
CSF;Meningitis;Lipoligosaccharide;Endotoxin;Septic
shock;Petechiae;Purpura;Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
Gram negative cocci Neisseria meningitidis
Q0688:Diplococci;Urethritis;STD;Thayer-Martin
medium;Chocolate agar
Gram negative cocci Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Q0689:Nerve damage;Lepromatous leprosy -
Th2;Tuberculoid leprosy - Th1
Acid fast;mycolic acid Mycobacterium leprae
Q0690:Mantoux
reaction;PPD;Granuloma;Caseation;Opportunistic
disease;Ghon complexes;Isoniazid
Acid fast;mycolic acid Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q0691:Nosocomial infection;Cystic
fibrosis;Opportunistic;Antibiotic resistant;Fruity smell;Burn
patient
Gram negative bacilli;Aerobic Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q0692:Tick;Southeastern Atlantic and south central
states;Weil-Felix reaction;Obligate intracellular growth
Poorly gram staing Rickettsia spp.
Q0693:Grapelike
clusters;Coagulase+;Catalase+;Toxins;MRSA
Gram positive cocci Staphlococcus aureus
Q0694:Dairy foods;Motile;Raw eggs and chicken;Nonlactose
fermenter;Nonbloody diarrhea
Gram negative bacilli;Facultative anaerobe;Intracellular
Salmonella spp.
Q0695:Capsule;Optichin (P disk) sensitive;Polysaccharide
vaccine
Gram positive diplococci Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q0696:Beta-hemolysis;Streptolysin O and S;Group A
Bacitracin sensitive
Gram positive cocci in chains Streptococcus pyogenes
Q0697:Entero-feces-gutbug;Nosocomial;Antibiotic resistant
Gram positive cocci Entercoccus
Q0698:Syphilis;FTA-ABS;Painless
chancre;Spirochete;Gumma;Unculturable;CDRL test;STD
Poorly gram staining;Spirochete Treponema pallidum
Q0699:Erythema chronicum migrans;Deer tick;High
grass;Lyme disease
Poorly gram staining;Spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi
Q0700:Comma (S) shaped;Rice-water diarrhea;Shellfish;A-B
toxin
Gram negative curved rod;Facultative anaerobe Vibrio cholerae
Q0701:coagulase +;anterior nares;beta-hemolytic;yellow
colonies;various toxins [alpha toxins; Panton-Valentine
leukocidin; superantigens; enterotoxins (food poisoning);
TSST-1 (toxic shock syndrome)]
Gram positive cocci Staphyloccocus aureus
Q0702:Bacteria producing an AB exotoxin that prevents
acetylcholine release.
Clostridium Botulinum - causes flaccid paralysis.
Q0703:Mechanism of action of shiga toxin.
An AB exotoxin that cleaves 28S rRNA in 60S ribosomal
subunit - disrupts protein synthesis. Damages intestinal
epithelium and glomerular endothelial cells.
Q0704:Cause of secretory diarrhea in cholera infection.
AB exotoxin activates adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation
of G protein - increases cAMP.
Q0705:Exotoxin that binds gangliosides.
Tetanus toxin - blocks inhibitory neurotransmitter release and
causes spastic paralysis.
Q0706:Mechanism of pseudomembrane formation in
corynebacterium diphtheria infection.
AB exotoxin inactivates EF-2 and inhibits protein synthesis -
causes cell death.
Q0707:Type of toxin produced by S. aureus or S. pyogenes
and mechanism of action.
Superantigens - bind to T-cell receptor and MHC II of
another cell simultaneously and cause massive non-specific
release of interleukins.
Q0708:effects of endotoxin.
1. Binds to CD14 (TLR4) on macrophages; B cells and others
to stimulate acute phase cytokine release (IL1; TNFa; IL6;
PGs);2. activates alternative complement pathway - fever;
hypotension; shock;3. Activation of blood coagulation
pathways - DIC.
Q0709:Portion of LPS responsible for activity.
Lipid A.
Q0710:Organism causing double zone of hemolysis on blood
agar.
Clostridium perfringens. Alpha toxin is a lecithinase that
causes gas gangrene.
Q0711:Mechanism of B. Pertussis toxin.
Stimulates adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation.
Q0712:Gram negative aerobic organism producing a heat-labile
toxin that activates adenylate cyclase to cause watery
diarrhea.
E. coli.
Q0713:Gram negative facultative anaerobe producing a toxin
that activates adenylate cyclase to cause a watery diarrhea.
V. cholerae.
Q0714:Protein that allows certain species of bacteria to
colonize mucosal surfaces.
IgA protease.
Q0715:Catalase
An enzyme that catabolizes hydrogen peroxide into water and
oxygen gas.
Q0716:Catalase positive organisms
Staphylococci.
Q0717:Catalase negative organisms.
Streptococci; enterococci.
Q0718:The only human bacterial species that produces
coagulase.
Staph aureus.
Q0719:Coagulase action.
Binds a serum factor - converts fibrinogen to fibrin to form
clot. Produced by S. aureus.
Q0720:Function of protein A.
Binds Fc receptor of IgG and prevents Ab-mediated immune
clearance. Extracellular protein A can produce immune
complexes. Produced by S. aureus.
Q0721:Lancet-shaped gram positive diplococci.
Pneumococcus.
Q0722:Quellung reaction.
Used for detection of pneumococcus. Polyvalent anticapsular
antibodies are mixed with the bacteria; and then the mixture is
examined microscopically. A greater refractiveness around the
bacteria is a positive reaction for S. pneumoniae.
Q0723:Use of optochin.
Differentiation of S. pneumoniae from viridans strep. Viridans
and enterococci are optochin resistant.
Q0724:Differentiation of S. pneumoniae from other alpha-
hemolytic strep.
Bile solubility - S. pneumoniae lyse in bile; while others do
not. Also: pneumococci are sensitive to optochin; where
others are not.
Q0725:Differentiation of Group A beta-hemolytic strep from
Group B.
Group A is bacitracin sensitive; Group B is resisitant.
Q0726:Gamma hemolytic (no hemolysis) strep species.
Enterococcus and peptostreptococcus.
Q0727:Gram positive rods.
Clostridium; Corynebacterium; Listeria; Bacillus.
Q0728:Coagulase negative staph.
S. epidermidis; S. saprophyticus (nobobiocin resistant).
Q0729:Gram negative cocci.
N. meningitidis (Maltose fermenter); N. gonorrhea.
Q0730:Gram negative coccobacilli.
H. influenzae; Pasteurella; Brucella; Bordetella.
Q0731:Gram negative; lactose-fermenting rods.
E. coli; Klebsiella.
Q0732:Gram negative Non-lactose fermenting; oxidase
negative rods.
Shigella; Salmonella; Proteus.
Q0733:Gram negative; Non-lactose fermenting; oxidase
positive rods.
Pseudomonas.
Q0734:Obligate intracellular organisms.
Rickettsia and Chlamydia can't make their own ATP.
Q0735:Facultative intracellular organisms.
Mycobacteria; Listeria; Yersinia; Legionella; Salmonella.
Q0736:Organism requiring chocolate agar with factors V
(NAD) and X (hematin).
H. influenzae.
Q0737:Organism requiring Thayer-Martin (VCN) medium.
N. gonorrheae.
Q0738:Organism requiring Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar.
B. pertussis.
Q0739:Organism requiring Lowenstein-Jensen agar.
M. tuberculosis.
Q0740:Organism requiring charcoal yeast extract agar with
increased iron and cysteine.
Legionella pneumophila.
Q0741:Organisms producing pink colonies on MacConkey's
agar.
Lactose-fermenting enterics - Escherichia; Klebsiella;
Enterobacter.
Q0742:Organisms requiring Tellurite plate; Loffler's medium;
blood agar.
C. diphtheriae.
Q0743:Organisms requiring Sabouraud's agar.
Fungi.
Q0744:Obligate aerobes.
Nocardia; Pseudomonas aeruginosa; Mycobacterium TB;
Bacillus.
Q0745:Organisms stained with Giemsa.
Stains blood parasites; viral and chlamydial inclusion bodies;
intracellular organisms. Borrelia; Plasmodium; trypansosomes;
Chlamydia; yeast.
Q0746:Acid fast stains
Ziehl-Neelsen; Kinyoun; auramine-rhodamine. All stain for
mycobacteria and other acid-fast organisms.
Q0747:PAS stain
Stains glycogen; mucopolysaccharides - used to dx whipple's
dz.
Q0748:India ink.
Detects cryptococcus neoformans.
Q0749:Iron hematoxylin stain.
Used to detect fecal protozoa.
Q0750:Toluidine blue O stain.
Detects Pneumocystis organisms in sputum.
Q0751:Trichrome stain.
Detects protozoa.
Q0752:In order to be a spore-former; an organism must be a:
Gram positive rod. (examples: bacillus anthracis; clostridium)
Q0753:Mechanism of action of Quinolones.
Prevent supercoiling of DNA.
Q0754:Cellular target of aminoglycosides and tetracyclines.
Ribosomal 30s subunit.
Q0755:Portion of LPS giving specificity.
O-specific chain - repeating sugars. Highly variable; highly
antigenic.
Q0756:Antibiotics affecting the ribosomal 50s subunit.
Chloramphenicol; Macrolides (erythromycin; clarithromycin;
azithromycin); Lincosamines (Lincomycin; clindamycin).
Q0757:Antibiotics affecting bacterial cell wall synthesis.
Penicillins; cephalosporins; Bacitracin; vancomycin; D-
cycloserine.
Q0758:Antibiotics that inhibit nucleic acid synthesis.
Sulfonamides; quinolones.
Q0759:Food poisoning from reheated rice.
Bacillus cereus.
Q0760:Food poisoning from meat; mayo; or custard.
Staph aureus.
Q0761:Food poisoning from reheated meat dishes.
Clostridium perfringens.
Q0762:Food poisoning from undercooked beef.
E. coli.
Q0763:Food poisoning from poultry; meat; eggs.
Salmonella.
Q0764:Food poisoning from contaminated seafood.
Vibrio parahemolyticus.
Q0765:Pulmonary infection in immunocompromised patient.
Nocardia asteroides.
Q0766:Dental caries.
Strep mutans (viridans).
Q0767:Acute bacterial endocarditis.
Staph aureus.
Q0768:Food poisoning within a few hours of eating; resolves
in 10 hours.
S. aureus preformed toxin.
Q0769:Rheumatic fever.
Strep pyogenes.
Q0770:Diarrhea after Clindamycin use.
C. difficile.
Q0771:Woolsorter's Disease.
Inhalation anthrax.
Q0772:Diarrhea after playing with puppy.
Y. enterocolitica.
Q0773:Diarrhea after eating seafood.
V. parahemolyticus.
Q0774:Diarrhea from comma shaped organism grown at 42
degrees.
Campylobacter jejuni.
Q0775:Diarrhea from tiny amount of non-motile; non-lactose
fermenter.
Shigella.
Q0776:Diarrhea from motile non-lactose fermenter.
Salmonella.
Q0777:Diarrhea from lactose fermenter.
E. coli.
Q0778:Gram negative produsing epiglottitis; meningitis; otitis
media; pneumonia. Culture on chocolate agar.
Haemophilus influenzae.
Q0779:Poorly-staining gram negative rod grown on charcoal
yeast with iron and cysteine.
Legionella pneumophila.
Q0780:Gram negative aerobic organism producing otitis
externa and burn/wound infections.
Pseudomonas aeruguinosa.
Q0781:Coccobacillus causing vaginosis.
Gardernella vaginalis.
Q0782:Gram negative diplococci which ferments maltose and
has a capsule.
N. meningitidis.
Q0783:Fever; night sweats; weight loss; hemoptysis.
Mycobacterium TB.
Q0784:Typical tx for rickettsiae.
Tetracycline.
Q0785:Q fever (no rash)
Coxiella burnettii.
Q0786:Outward spread of rash.
R. typhi.
Q0787:Rash starts on palms and soles - inward spread of
rash; headache; fever. Endemic to east coast.
R. rickettsii - rocky mountain spotted fever. (tick spread)
Q0788:Weil-Felix reaction.
Assay for anti-rickettsial Ab. Positive for typhus and spotted
fever; negative for Q fever.
Q0789:Insidious onset pneumonia with headache; non-
productive cough; diffuse interstitial infiltrate. High titer cold
agglutinins.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae. Only bacterial membrane
containing cholesterol.
Q0790:Cytoplasmic inclusions on Giemsa or flourescent ab-
stained smear.
Chlamydiae. Cell wall lacks muramic acid.
Q0791:"Bull's eye" rash; flu-like sx; progessing to neurologic
and cardiac manifestations; then to autoimmune migratory
polyarthritis.
Lyme disease.
Q0792:Painless chancre - disseminated dz with
maculopapular rash; condylomata lata - aortitis;
neurosyphilis; argyll robertson pupil.
Syphilis (Treponema pallidum)
Q0793:FTA-ABS test.
specific for treponemes - positive earlier in dz; remains
positive longer than VDRL.
Q0794:Lung abscess in immunocompromised.
Nocardia asteroides.
Q0795:alpha-hemolytic strep that lyses in bile.
S. pneumoniae.
Q0796:Coagulase negative staph that is resistant to
novobiocin.
S. sparophyticus.
Q0797:Function and chemical composition of bacterial
structure: Peptidoglycan
Function;1. Rigid support;2. Protects against osmotic
pressure;Chemical composition;Sugar backbone with cross-
linked peptide side chains
Q0798:Function and chemical composition of bacterial
structure: Cell wall/cell membrane
Gram positives only;Function: Major surface
antigen;Chemical composition: Teichoic acid; which induces
TNF and IL-1
Q0799:Function and chemical composition of bacterial
structure: Outer membrane
Gram negatives only;Function: Site of endotoxin
(lipopolysaccharide) and major surface antigen;Chemical
composition: Lipid A induces TNF and IL-1; and
polysaccharide is the antigen
Q0800:Function and chemical composition of bacterial
structure: Plasma membrane
Function: Site of oxidative and transport enzymes;Chemical
composition: Lipoprotein bilayer
Q0801:Function and chemical composition of bacterial
structure: Ribosome
Function: Protein synthesis;Chemical composition: 50S and
30S subunits
Q0802:Function and chemical composition of bacterial
structure: Periplasm
Function: Space between the cytoplasmic membrane and
outer membrane in gram-negative bacteria;Chemical
composition: Contains many hydrolytic enzymes; including
beta-lactamases
Q0803:Function and chemical composition of bacterial
structure: Capsule
Function: Protects against phagocytosis;Chemical
composition: Polysaccharide (except Bacillus anthracis which
contains D-glutamate)
Q0804:Function and chemical composition of bacterial
structure: Pilus/fimbria
Function: Mediates adherence of bacteria to cell surface; sex
pilus forms attachment between 2 bacteria during
conjugation;Chemical composition: Glycoprotein
Q0805:Function and chemical composition of bacterial
structure: Flagellum
Function: Motility;Chemical composition: Protein
Q0806:Function and chemical composition of bacterial
structure: Spore
Function: Provides resistance to dehydration; heat; and
chemicals;Chemical composition: Keratin-like coat and
dipicolinic acid
Q0807:Function and chemical composition of bacterial
structure: Plasmid
Function: Contains a variety of genes for antibiotic resistance;
enzymes; and toxins;Chemical composition: DNA
Q0808:Function and chemical composition of bacterial
structure: Glycocalyx
Function: Mediates adherence to surfaces; especially foreign
surfaces (eg indwelling catheters);Chemical composition:
Polysaccharide
Q0809:Function of this structure: IgA proteases
Function: Allow some organisms to colonize mucosal surfaces
Q0810:Which bacteria have IgA proteases?
1. Streptococcus pneumoniae;2. Neisseria meningitidis;3.
Neisseria gonorrheae;4. Hemophilus influenzae
Q0811:Which bacterial substances induce cytokines; and
which are they?
Cytokines induced;1. IL-1;2. TNF;Gram positive inducer:
Teichoic acid;Gram negative inducer: Lipopolysaccharide
(Endoxtoxin)
Q0812:What does the capsule of Bacillus anthracis consist of?
D-glutamate
Q0813:What bacterial structure contains D-glutamate?
Capsule of Bacillus anthracis
Q0814:What are the main differences between gram negative
and gram positive organisms?
Peptidoglycan cell wall: Gram positive has thick. Gram
negative has thin;Flagellar basal body rings: Gram positive has
two. Gram negative has four;Outer antigen: Gram positive:
Teichoic acid. Gram negative:
Lipidpolysaccharide;Periplasmic space: Gram positive does
not have. Gram negative has;Porin channel: Gram positive
does not have. Gram negative has;Lysozyme and penicillin
attack: Gram positive are sensitive. Gram negative are
resistant.
Q0815:What bacteria do not gram stain well?
Mnemonic: These Rascals May Microscopically Lack
Color;1. Treponema;2. Rickettsia;3. Mycobacteria;4.
Mycoplasma;5. Legionella pneumophila;6. Chlamydia
Q0816:Why does the following bug not gram stain well?:
Treponema
Too thin to be visualized
Q0817:Why does the following bug not gram stain well?:
Rickettsia
Intracellular parasite
Q0818:Why does the following bug not gram stain well?:
Mycobacteria
high-lipid-content cell wall
Q0819:Why does the following bug not gram stain well?:
Mycoplasma
No cell wall
Q0820:Why does the following bug not gram stain well?:
Legionella pneumophila
Primarily intracellular
Q0821:Why does the following bug not gram stain well?:
Chlamydia
Intracellular parasite which lacks muramic acid in cell wall
Q0822:How is the following bug visualized?: Treponema
1. Darkfield microscopy;2. Fluorescent antibody staining;3.
silver stain
Q0823:Why does the following bug not gram stain well?:
Mycobacteria
Acid fast for high lipid content cell wall
Q0824:What are the stages of bacterial growth and what are
their relative lengths?
1. Lag phase: x;2. Log phase: 1.5x;3. Stationary phase: 2.5x;4.
Death phase: 4x
Q0825:What happens in the following phase of bacterial
growth; and where does it fall in the order?: Lag
1st phase: Metabolic activity without division
Q0826:What happens in the following phase of bacterial
growth; and where does it fall in the order?: Log
2nd phase: Rapid cell division
Q0827:What happens in the following phase of bacterial
growth; and where does it fall in the order?: Stationary
3rd phase: Nutrient depletion slows growth
Q0828:What happens in the following phase of bacterial
growth; and where does it fall in the order?: Death
4th phase: Prolonged nutrient depletion and buildup of waste
products leads to death
Q0829:Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Source?
Exotoxin: Certain species of gram positive and gram negative
bacteria;Endotoxin: Cell wall of most gram-negative bacteria
Q0830:Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Secreted from cell?
Exotoxin: Yes;Endotoxin: No
Q0831:Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Chemistry
Exotoxin: Polypeptide;Endotoxin: Lipopolysaccharide
Q0832:Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Location of genes
Exotoxin: Plasmid or bacteriophage;Endotoxin: Bacterial
chromosome
Q0833:Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Toxicity (fatal
dosage)
Exotoxin: High (fatal dose on the order of 1
microgram);Endotoxin: Low (fatal dose on the order of
hundreds of micrograms)
Q0834:Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Clinical effects
Exotoxin: Toxin specific;Endotoxin: Fever and shock
Q0835:Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Mode of action
Exotoxin: Toxin specific;Endotoxin: Includes TNF and IL-1
Q0836:Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Antigenicity
Exotoxin: Induces high-titer antibodies called
antitoxins;Endotoxin: Poorly antigenic
Q0837:Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Vaccines
Exotoxin: Toxoids used as vaccines;Endotoxin: No toxoids
formed and no vaccine available
Q0838:Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Heat stability
Exotoxin: Destroyed rapidly at 60 degrees celsius (except
Staphylococcal enterotoxin);Endotoxin: Stable at 100 degrees
celsius for 1 hour
Q0839:Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins: Typical diseases
Exotoxin: Tetanus; botulism; diphtheria;Endotoxin:
Meningococcemia; sepsis by gram negative rods
Q0840:Mechanism of superantigens
1. Bind directly to MHC II and T cell receptor;2. Large
numbers of T cells are activated;3. Stimulates release of IFN-
gamma and IL-2
Q0841:Mechanism of ADP ribosylating A-B toxins
Interfere with host cell function;1. B (binding) component
binds to a receptor on surface of host cell;2. The toxin is
endocytosed;3. A (active) component attaches an ADP-
ribosyl to a host cell protein;4. That protein's function is
altered.
Q0842:List of bugs that release superantigens
1. Staphylococcus aureus;2. Streptococcus pyogenes
Q0843:List of bugs that release ADP ribosylating A-B toxins
1. Corynebacterium diphtheriae;2. Vibrio cholerae;3. E. coli;4.
Bordetella pertussis
Q0844:What to know about exotoxins released by
Staphylococcus aureus
Superantigens;1. TSST-1 causes toxic shock syndrome (fever;
rash; shock);2. Enterotoxins cause food poisoning.
Q0845:What to know about exotoxins released by
Streptococcus pyogenes
Scarlet fever (superantigen);1. Erythrogenic;2. Causes toxic
shock-like syndrome;Streptolysin O (hemolysin). The antigen
for ASO antibody is found in rheumatic fever
Q0846:What to know about exotoxins released by
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
ADP ribosylating A-B toxin (similar to Pseudomonas
exotoxin A);Encoded by beta-prophage;Disease:
Pseudomembranous pharyngitis (grayish-white membrane)
with lymphadenopathy;Mechanism;Inactivates elongation
;factor 2 (EF-2);Mnemonic: ABCDEFG;ADP
ribosylation;Beta-
prophage;Corynebacterium;Diphtheriae;Elongation Factor
2;Granules (metachromatic)
Q0847:What to know about exotoxins released by Vibrio
cholerae
1. A-B toxin ADP ribosylates Gs protein thus;2. Permanently
activates Gs protein;3. Constant stimulation of adenylyl
cyclase which;4. Increases pumping of Cl into gut;5. H2O
follows it;6. Leads to rice water diarrhea
Q0848:What to know about exotoxins released by E. coli
E.coli 0157:H7 produces Shiga toxin;ADP ribosylating A-B
toxins;Heat-labile: Permanent activation of adenylyl cyclase
(cholera-like mechanism) leading to watery diarrhea;Heat-
stabile: Stimulates guanylate cyclase;Mnemonic: Labile like
the Air; Stabile like the Ground.
Q0849:What to know about exotoxins released by Bordetella
pertussis
1. ADP ribosylating A-B toxin;2. Permanently disables Gi;3.
Constant stimulation of adenylate cyclase;4. Causes
whooping cough;5. Also inhibits chemokine receptor causing
lymphocytosis
Q0850:What to know about exotoxins released by
Clostridium perfringens
alpha toxin (aka lecithinase) causes;1. gas gangrene;2.
myonecrosis;3. hemolysis (See double zone of hemolysis on
blood agar.);PERFringens PERForates a gangrenous leg.
Q0851:What to know about exotoxin released by Clostridium
botulinum
Properties;1. Preformed;2. Heat-labile;Mechanism;Blocks the
release of acetylcholine causing;1. anticholinergic symptoms
;2. CNS paralysis (especially cranial nerves);3. Floppy baby
syndrome;BOTulinum is from bad BOTtles of food and
honey and sausage (causes flaccid paralysis)
Q0852:What to know about exotoxins released by
Clostridium tetani
Blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitter glycine from
Renshaw cells in the spinal cord. Causes "lockjaw"
Q0853:What to know about exotoxins released by Bacillus
anthracis
1 toxin in the toxin complex is edema factor; an adenylate
cyclase
Q0854:What to know about exotoxins released by Shigella
Shiga toxin (also produced by E.coli 0157:H7);Cleaves host
cell rRNA. Also enhances cytokine release causing hemolytic
uremic syndrome.
Q0855:Endotoxin: What is it and where is it found?
Lipopolysaccharide found in the outer membrane of gram-
negative bacteria. Heat stable.
Q0856:Endotoxin: What does it activate and what do they
release?
1. Macrophages (IL-1; TNF; Nitric oxide);2. Alternative
complement pathway (C3a; C5a);3. Hageman factor
(Coagulation cascade)
Q0857:What mediators are released when endotoxin activates
macrophages; and what do they do?
1. IL-1: Fever;2. TNF: Fever and Hemorrhagic tissue
necrosis;3. Nitric Oxide: Hypotension (shock)
Q0858:What mediators are released when endotoxin activates
the alternative complement cascade; and what do they do?
1. C3a: Hypotension and edema;2. C5a: Neutrophil
chemotaxis
Q0859:What mediators are released when endotoxin activates
Hageman factor; and what do they do?
Coagulation cascade: Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy
Q0860:What method is used to differentiate Neisseria?
Sugar fermentation
Q0861:What do meningococci ferment?
MeninGococci ferment Maltose and Glucose
Q0862:What do gonococci ferment?
Gonococci ferments Glucose
Q0863:What are the pigment producing bacteria and what
pigments do they produce?
Staphylococcus aureus: Yellow pigment (Aureus means gold
in Latin);Pseudomonas aeruginosa: blue-green pigment;Serratia
marcescens: red pigment (think red maraschino cherries)
Q0864:Special culture requirements for: Hemophilus
influenzae
Chocolate agar with factors V (NAD) and X
(hematin);Mnemonic: When a child has "flu" mom goes to five
(V) and dime (X) to buy some chocolate.
Q0865:Special culture requirements for: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Thayer-Martin media
Q0866:Special culture requirements for: Bordetella pertussis
Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar
Q0867:Special culture requirements for: M. tuberculosis
Lowenstein-Jensen agar
Q0868:Special culture requirements for: Lactose-fermenting
enteric bacteria
Pink colonies on MacConkey's agar
Q0869:Special culture requirements for: Legionella
Charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with increased iron and
cysteine
Q0870:Special culture requirements for: Fungi
Sabouraud's agar
Q0871:What microbes can be stained with: Congo red
Amyloid. Apple-green birefringence in polarized light
(because of beta-pleated sheets)
Q0872:What microbes can be stained with: Giemsa's
1. Borrelia;2. Plasmodium;3. Trypanosomes;4. Chlamydia
Q0873:What microbes can be stained with: periodic acid-
Schiff (PAS)
Glycogen and mucopolysaccharides. Used to diagnose
Whipple's disease
Q0874:What microbes can be stained with: Ziehl-Neelsen
Acid-fast bacteria.
Q0875:What microbes can be stained with: India ink
Cryptococcus neoformans
Q0876:What microbes can be stained with: Silver stain
1. Fungi;2. PCP (Pneumocystis Pneumonia);3. Legionella;4.
Treponema
Q0877:For the following genetic transfer procedure; explain
the process: Conjugation
Direct cell to cell DNA transfer
Q0878:For the following genetic transfer procedure; explain
the process: Transduction
Phage-mediated cell to cell DNA transfer
Q0879:For the following genetic transfer procedure; explain
the process: Transformation
Purified DNA taken up by a cell
Q0880:For the following genetic transfer procedure; explain
the processd: Transposition
DNA transfer to same or another chromosome or plasmid
WITHIN a cell
Q0881:For the following genetic transfer procedure; give the
types of cells involved: Conjugation
Prokaryotic
Q0882:For the following genetic transfer procedure; give the
types of cells involved: Transduction
Prokaryotic
Q0883:For the following genetic transfer procedure; give the
types of cells involved: Transformation
Prokaryotic or eukaryotic
Q0884:For the following genetic transfer procedure; give the
types of cells involved: Transposition
Prokaryotic or eukaryotic
Q0885:For the following genetic transfer procedure; give the
nature of DNA transferred: Conjugation
Chromosomal or plasmid
Q0886:For the following genetic transfer procedure; give the
nature of DNA transferred: Transduction
Generalized transduction: Any gene;Specialized transduction:
Only certain genes
Q0887:For the following genetic transfer procedure; give the
nature of DNA transferred: Transformation
Any DNA
Q0888:For the following genetic transfer procedure; give the
nature of DNA transferred: Transposition
DNA sequences "jumping genes"
Q0889:What is lysogeny?
When the genetic code for a bacterial toxin is encoded in a
lysogenic phage.
Q0890:Name 4 lysogenic toxins.
BCDE;1. Botulinum;2. Cholera;3. Diphtheria;4. Erythrogenic
toxin of Streptococcus Pyogenes
Q0891:List four obligate aerobes.
Nocardia; Pseudomonas aeruginosa; Mycobacterium
tuberculosis; Bacillus;Mnemonic: Nagging Pests Must
Breathe
Q0892:Where in the lung does M. tuberculosis prefer; and
why?
Apices of the lung; as they have the highest PO2.
Q0893:What conditions occur concurrently with P.
Aeruginosa infection?
1. Burn wounds;2. Nosocomial pneumonia;3. Pneumonias in
Cystic Fibrosis patients
Q0894:List 3 obligate anaerobes
Clostridium; Bacteroides; and Actinomyces
Q0895:What enzymes do obligate anaerobes lack?
Catalase (aka glutathione peroxidase);AND/OR;Superoxide
dismutase (converts O2-radical[ie superoxide] to H2O2)
Q0896:Why are anaerobes foul-smelling?
They produce short-chain fatty acids.
Q0897:What do anaerobes produce in tissue?
CO2 and H2 gases
Q0898:Where are anaerobes normal flora?
1. GI tract;2. Between teeth and gums
Q0899:What antibiotics are particularly ineffective against
anaerobes?
AminO2glycosides; as they require O2 to enter the bacterial
cell.
Q0900:List the obligate intracellular bacteria.
Rickettsia and Chlamydia;Mnemonic: Stay inside (cells) when
it is Really Cold
Q0901:What is the defining characteristic of obligate
intracellular bacteria.
Can't make their own ATP.
Q0902:List the facultative intracellular bacteria.
Mnemonic: Some Nasty Bugs May Live
FacultativeLY;Salmonella; Neisseria; Brucella;
Mycobacterium; Listeria; Francisella; Legionella;
Yersinia;OR;Mnemonic: My Liege; Your Niece Lists Frank;
Bruce and Sam;Mycobacterium; Leigonella; Yersinia;
Neisseria; Listeria; Francisella; Brucella; Salmonella.
Q0903:List four major examples of encapsulated bacteria
1. Streptococcus pneumoniae;2. Hemophilus influenzae
(especially B serotype);3. Neisseria meningitidis;4. Klebsiella
pneumoniae
Q0904:What does a positive quellung reaction indicate?
Positive quellung: If encapsulated bug is present; capsule
swells when specific anticapsular antisera are
added;Mnemonic: Quellung = capsular "swellung"
Q0905:In which vaccines does the capsule serve as an
antigen?
Pneumovax; H influenzae B; Meningococcal vaccines
Q0906:What does conjugation with protein do to vaccines
that have a capsular antigen?
Increases the immunogenicity and T-cell dependent responce.
Q0907:Which bacteria form spores?
Gram positive soil bugs (eg Bacillus anthracis; Clostridium
perfringens; Clostridium tetani)
Q0908:How can one destroy spores?
Autoclave (as is done to surgical equipment)
Q0909:Which bacteria are alpha hemolytic?
Streptococcus (all catalase-negative);If optochin sensitive; bile
soluble; or quellung positive: Streptococcus Pneumoniae;If
optochin resistant; bile insoluble; or quellung negative:
Streptococcus Viridans (eg S. Mutans)
Q0910:Which bacteria are beta-hemolytic?
Rods;Listeria monocytogenes;Cocci;If catalase positive and
coagulase positive: Staphylococcus Aureus;If catalase
negative; Streptococcus;Then; if bacitracin sensitive; S.
pyogenes. If bacitracin resistant; S. agalactiae.
Q0911:What are the important points about Listeria
monocytogenes?
1. Tumbling motility;2. Meningitis in newborns;3.
Unpasteurized milk
Q0912:Gram positive: Which are catalase positive and which
are catalase negative?
Positive: Staph;Negative: Strep
Q0913:Gram positive: Which are catalase positive bacteria
make coagulase?
Staph aureus does;Staph epidermidis and saprophyticus do
not.
Q0914:What is Protein A?
Virulence factor of Staphylococcus Aureus. Binds Fc-IgG;
inhibiting complement fixation and phagocytosis.
Q0915:What disease states does Staphylococcus Aureus
cause?
Inflammatory;1. Skin infections;2. Organ abscesses (acute
bacterial endocarditis; osteomyelitis);3. Pneumonia;Toxin-
mediated;1. Toxic shock syndrome (TSST-1);2. Scalded skin
syndrome (exfoliative toxin);3. Rapid-onset food poisoning
(ingestion of preformed enterotoxin)
Q0916:What disease states does Streptococcus Pyogenes
cause?
Pyogenic;1. Pharyngitis;2. Cellulitis;3. Impetigo;Toxigenic;1.
Scarlet fever;2. Toxic shock syndrome;Immunologic;1.
Rheumatic fever;2. Acute glomerulonephritis
Q0917:What are two sequelae of Streptococcus Pyogenes
pharyngitis?
Rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis;Mnemonoic:
PHaryngitis gives you rheumatic PHever and
glomerulonePHritis
Q0918:Which antibody enhances host defenses against
Streptococcus Pyogenes?
Antibody to M protein
Q0919:Antibody to M protein enhances host defenses against
what?
Streptococcus Pyogenes
Q0920:What does ASO titer detect?
Recent S. Pyogenes infection
Q0921:How can one detect recent S. Pyogenes infection?
ASO titer
Q0922:What are the signs and symptoms of rheumatic fever?
1. Subcutaneous nodules;2. Polyarthritis;3. Erythema
marginatum;4. Chorea;5. Carditis (bacterial
endocarditis);Mnemonic: No "rheum" for SPECCulation
Q0923:What is streptococcus pneumoniae the most common
cause of?
1. Meningitis;2. Otitis media (in children);3. Pneumonia;4.
Sinusitis;S. pneumoniae MOPS are Most OPtochin Sensitive
Q0924:What is the most common cause of meningitis?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q0925:What is the most common cause of otitis media?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q0926:What is the most common cause of pneumonia?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q0927:What is the most common cause of sinusitis?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q0928:What is indicated by "rusty" sputum?
Streptococcus pneumoniae infection
Q0929:What are common associations with Pneumococcus?
Streptococcus Pneumoniae;1. "Rusty" sputum;2. Sepsis in
sickle cell anemia 3. splenectomy
Q0930:What does sepsin in sickle cell anemia indicate?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q0931:What do Group B streptococci cause?
B for Baby;1. Pneumonia;2. Meningitis;3. Sepsis
Q0932:3 most common causes of meningitis in infants
younger than 3 months of age
1. E. coli;2. Listeria monocytogenes;3. Group B streptococcus
Q0933:How do infants with meningitis present?
1. Fever;2. Vomiting;3. Poor feeding;4. Irritability
Q0934:Name the Lancefield Group D bacterial categories and
examples of each.
Enterococci;1. Enterococcus faecalis;2. Enterococcus
faecium;Non-enterococci;1. Streptococcus bovis;2.
Streptococcus equinus
Q0935:What is Streptococcus bovis infection a sign of?
Colonic malignancy
Q0936:What kind of hemolysis do enterococci cause?
Variable;(CMMRS says alpha; FA says variable and gamma)
Q0937:What drug resistances do the enterococci show?
1. Penicillin G;2. Ampicillin;3. Vancomycin
Q0938:What is Lancefield grouping determined by?
Differences in the C carbohydrate on the bacterial cell wall
Q0939:Which Group D bacteria are hardier?
Enterococci are hardier than nonenterococci. They can grow in
6.5% NaCl
Q0940:A colony of bacteria grows in 6.5% NaCl. What is it?
Enterococcus
Q0941:What disease states/problems does Staphylococcus
epidermidis cause?
Infection of prosthetic devices and catheters. Contaminates
blood cultures.
Q0942:How is Streptococcus Viridans characterized?
1. Alpha hemolysis;2. Optochin resistant ;3. Normal mouth
flora;(Mnemonic: Viridans lives in the mouth because it is not
afraid of-the-chin)
Q0943:Where is Strep. Viridans part of the normal flora?
Oropharynx
Q0944:What disease states/problems does Streptococcus
Viridans cause?
1. Dental caries (Streptococcus mutans);2. Subacute Bacterial
endocarditis (Streptococcus Sanguis)
Q0945:What disease states does Streptococcus mutans cause?
Dental caries
Q0946:What disease states does Streptococcus sanguis cause?
Subacute bacterial endocarditis;Sanguis = blood; lots of blood
in the heart.
Q0947:How are clostridia characterized?
1. Gram positive rods;2. Spore forming;3. Obligate anaerobes
Q0948:What disease state does Clostridium difficile cause;
and what is its mechanism?
Disease state: pseudomembranous colitis secondary to
clindamycin or ampicillin use. (Mnemonic: DIfficile causes
DIarrhea);Mechanism;1. Antibiotic kills off protective flora;2.
C. difficile takes hold and proliferates;3. Produces cytotoxin;
an enterotoxin;4. Cytotoxin kills enterocytes.
Q0949:Treatment for C. difficile infection
Metronidazole
Q0950:Lab diagnosis basis for Cornyebacterium diphtheriae
Gram positive rods with metachromatic granules; grown on
tellurite agar (aka Loffler's coagulated serum medium)
Q0951:How is Bacillus anthracis characterized?
1. Gram positive rod;2. Spore forming;3. Protein capsule
Q0952:Which bacteria have a protein capsule?
Bacillus anthracis (the only one)
Q0953:What are the mechanisms of anthrax infection and
disease?
1. Non-inhalation contact with bacillus anthracis;2. Formation
of malignant pustule (painless ulcer);3. Progression to
bacteremia;4. Death;1. Inhalation of spores;2. Development of
flulike symptoms that rapidly progress to fever; pulmonary
hemorrhage and shock.
Q0954:What organism: Development of flulike symptoms
followed by fever; pulmonary hemorrhage and shock.
Inhalation anthrax: Bacillus anthracis
Q0955:What do skin lesions in anthrax look like?
Vesicular papules covered by black eschar
Q0956:What is Woolsorter's disease
Inhalation of Bacillus anthracis spores from contaminated
wool
Q0957:What organism: Gram-positive rods forming long
branching filaments resembling fungi
Actinomyces israelii or Nocardia asteroides
Q0958:What organism: Oral or facial abscesses with yellow
granules in sinus tracts
Actinomyces israelii
Q0959:What disease state does Actinomyces israelii cause?
Oral or facial abscesses with yellow granules draining out skin
through sinus tracts
Q0960:How is Actinomyces israelii characterised?
Gram-positive anaerobic rods forming long branching
filaments resembling fungi (Nocardia also has this
description);Causes oral or facial abscesses with yellow
granules
Q0961:How is Nocardia asteroides characterized?
Gram-positive (weakly acid fast) rods forming long branching
filaments resembling fungi (Actinomyces also has this
description)
Q0962:What disease state does Nocardia asteroides cause?
Pulmonary infection in immunocompromised patients
Q0963:What is the treatment for Actinomyces israelii?
Penicillin;Mnemonic: SNAP (Sulfa for Nocardia;
Acintomyces use Penicillin)
Q0964:What is the treatment for Nocardia Asteroides?
Sulfonamides;Mnemonic: SNAP (Sulfa for Nocardia;
Acintomyces use Penicillin)
Q0965:Penicillin G and Gram negative bugs
Gram-negatives are resistant to benzyl penicillin G. The gram-
negative outer membrane layer inhibits entry of penicillin G
and vancomycin;May be susceptible to penicillin derivatives
such as ampicillin.
Q0966:What bacteria genus can live in neutrophils?
Neisseria
Q0967:How are neisseria characterized?
Gram-negative cocci that resemble paired coffee beans
Q0968:Gonococcus and meningococcus: Polysaccharide
capsule
G: No;M: Yes
Q0969:Gonococcus and meningococcus: Maltose
fermentation
G: No (Gonococcus ferments Glucose);M: Yes
(MeninGococcus ferments Maltose and Glucose)
Q0970:Gonococcus and meningococcus: Vaccine availability
G: No;M: Yes
Q0971:What disease states does Gonococcus cause?
1. Gonorrhea;2. septic arthritis;3. neonatal conjunctivitis;4.
PID
Q0972:What disease states does Meningococcus cause?
1. Meningococcemia;2. Meningitis;3. Waterhouse-
Friderichsen syndrome
Q0973:What is Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?
massive; usually bilateral; hemorrhage into the adrenal glands
caused by fulminant meningococcemia;Characterised by
overwhelming bacterial infection; rapidly progressive
hypotension leading to shock; disseminated intravascular
coagulation (DIC) with widespread purpura; particularly of
the skin; and rapidly developing adrenocortical insufficiency
associated with massive bilateral adrenal hemorrhage.
Q0974:What disease states does Haemophilus Influenzae
cause?
HaEMOPhilus causes;1. Epiglottitis;2. Meningitis;3. Otitis
media;4. Pneumonia;Does not cause flu (that's a virus)!
Q0975:How is Haemophilus Influenzae characterized?
Small gram-negative coccoid rod.
Q0976:How is Haemophilus Influenzae transmitted?
Aerosol
Q0977:Which type of Haemophilus Influenzae is most
pathogenic?
capsular type B
Q0978:Treatment for Haemophilus Influenzae meningitis
Ceftriaxone
Q0979:Prophylaxis for Hemophilus Influenzae
Vaccine: Type B polysaccharide conjugated to diphtheria
toxoid or other protein. Given between 2 and 18 months of
age;Close contacts of infected person: Rifampin
Q0980:How are enterobacteriaceae characterized?
Gram negative diverse group;Mnemonic: COFFEe;3. Capsule
(K [kapsular] antigen related to virulence of the bug);2. O
antigen (somatic antigen which is the polysaccharide of
endotoxin);4. Flagella (H antigen found in motile species);5.
Ferment glucose;6. Enterobacteriaceae (woo!)
Q0981:Enterobacteriaceae list
1. Escherichia coli;2. Klebsiella pneumoniae;3. Proteus
mirablis;4. Enterobacter sp;5. Serratia;6. Shigella;7.
Salmonella;8. Yersinia enterocolitica
Q0982:What disease states does Klebsiella cause?
1. Pneumonia in alcoholics and diabetics (In the name:
Klebsiella pneumoniae);2. Nosocomial UTIs (large mucoid
capsule and viscous colonies);Mnemonic: AAA (Aspiration
pneumonia; Abscess in lungs; Alcoholics)
Q0983:Signs and symptoms of Klebsiella infection
1. Red currant jelly sputum;2. Abscess in lungs
Q0984:Orange sputum: What bugs?
1. Pneumococcus;2. Klebsiella (or described as "red currant
jelly sputum")
Q0985:Red currant jelly sputum: What bug?
Klebsiella
Q0986:Lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria
Mnemonic: Test lactose with MacConKEE’S;1.
Citrobacter;2. Klebsiella;3. E. coli;4. Enterobacter;5. Serratia
Q0987:Salmonella vs. Shigella: Lactose fermenter?
Neither
Q0988:Salmonella vs. Shigella: Motile
Both (Though; the evidence that shigella is motile is
recent.);Can invade and disseminate hematogenously.
Q0989:Salmonella vs. Shigella: Animal reservoir
Salmonella: Yes;Shigella: No
Q0990:Shigella transmission
4 Fs;1. Food;2. Fingers;3. Feces;4. Flies
Q0991:Salmonella vs. Shigella: Virulence
Salmonella: 100;000 organisms;Shigella: 10 organisms
Q0992:True or False: Salmonellosis symptoms may be
prolonged with antibiotic treatments
True
Q0993:What type of inflammatory response is seen in
Salmonellosis?
Monocytes
Q0994:Transmission of Yersinia enterocolitica
1. Pet feces (eg puppies);2. Contaminated milk or pork
Q0995:Yersinia enterocolitica infection: Clinical presentation
1. Outbreaks are common in day-care centers;2. Can mimic
Crohn's or appendicitis
Q0996:What bug causes contamination of this food: Seafood
Vibrio;1. parahaemolyticus;2. vulnificus
Q0997:What bug causes contamination of this food: Reheated
rice
Bacillus cereus;Mnem: "Food poisoning from reheated rice?
Be serious!"
Q0998:What bug causes contamination of this food: Meat
1. Staphylococcus Aureus (starts quickly and ends quickly);2.
Salmonella (including poultry);3. Clostridium perfringens
(reheated meat dishes);4. Vibrio (parahaemolyticus;
vulnificus) (in seafood);5. E. coli O157:H7 (undercooked
meat);6. Clostridium Botulinum (in sausage)
Q0999:What bug causes contamination of this food:
Mayonnaise
Staphylococcus Aureus (starts quickly and ends quickly)
Q1000:What bug causes contamination of this food: Custard
Staphylococcus Aureus (starts quickly and ends quickly)
Q1001:What bug causes contamination of this food: Reheated
meat
Clostridium perfringens;Mnem: "Food poisoning from
reheated meat? Clostridium perfringens!"
Q1002:What bug causes contamination of this food: Bulging
cans
Clostridium botulinum;(BOTulinum is from bad BOTtles of
food and honey and sausage)
Q1003:What bug causes contamination of this food: Sausage
Clostridium botulinum;(BOTulinum is from bad BOTtles of
food and honey and sausage)
Q1004:What bug causes contamination of this food: Honey
Clostridium botulinum;(BOTulinum is from bad BOTtles of
food and honey and sausage)
Q1005:What bug causes contamination of this food: Poultry
Salmonella
Q1006:What bug causes contamination of this food: Eggs
Salmonella
Q1007:Bloody or watery diarrhea: Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Either bloody or watery
Q1008:Bloody or watery diarrhea: Campylobacter
Bloody
Q1009:Bloody or watery diarrhea: Salmonella
Bloody
Q1010:Bloody or watery diarrhea: Shigella
Bloody
Q1011:Bloody or watery diarrhea: Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
Bloody
Q1012:Bloody or watery diarrhea: Enteroinvasive E. coli
Bloody
Q1013:Bloody or watery diarrhea: Yersinia enterocolitica
Bloody
Q1014:Bloody or watery diarrhea: C. difficile
Bloody
Q1015:Bloody or watery diarrhea: Entamoeba histolytica
Bloody
Q1016:Bloody or watery diarrhea: Enterotoxigenic E. coli
Watery
Q1017:Bloody or watery diarrhea: Vibrio cholerae
Watery
Q1018:Bloody or watery diarrhea: C. perfringens
Watery
Q1019:Bloody or watery diarrhea: Protozoa
Watery
Q1020:Bloody or watery diarrhea: Viruses
Watery
Q1021:Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with oxidase-positive
comma or S-shaped organisms grown at 42 degrees celsius
Campylobacter
Q1022:Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with motile; lactose
negative gram negative bugs
Salmonella or Shigella;Shigella have a very low ID50 and cause
dysentery
Q1023:Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with schistocytes and
azotemia
Enterohemorrhagic E coli (eg O157:H7);Caused by shiga-like
toxin
Q1024:Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with hemolytic uremic
syndrome
Enterohemorrhagic E coli (eg O157:H7);Caused by shiga-like
toxin
Q1025:Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with pathologic section
revealing bacteria invading colonic mucosa
Enteroinvasive E. coli
Q1026:Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with symptoms of
appendicitis
Yersinia enterocolitica
Q1027:Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea in a day care center
Yersinia enterocolitica
Q1028:Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with pseudomembranous
colitis
Clostridium dificile
Q1029:Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with protozoans
Entamoeba histolytica
Q1030:Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea in someone who just
visited Mexico
Enterotoxigenic E coli (no preformed toxin)
Q1031:Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea with comma-shaped
organisms
Vibrio cholerae
Q1032:Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea with appearance of rice
water
Vibrio cholerae
Q1033:Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea with gangrenous leg
Clostridium perfringens
Q1034:Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea in an immunocompromised
patient
Protozoa (eg Giardia or Cryptosporidium)
Q1035:Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea
Think viruses first;Rotavirus;Adenovirus;Norwalk virus
Q1036:Difference between mechanisms of cholera and
pertussis toxins
Cholera: Permanently activates Gs (turns the "on"
on);Pertussis: Permanently disables Gi (turns the "off" off)
Q1037:What is edema factor?
A toxin in the Bacillus Anthracis exotoxin complex that
functions as adenylyl cyclase
Q1038:Disease states caused by Legionella (list only)
1. Asymptomatic infection;2. Pontiac fever;3. Legionnaires
disease
Q1039:Describe Pontiac fever
Caused by Legionella. Presents like influenza. Strikes
suddenly and completely resolves in one week. Originally
described in the Pontiac Michigan government AC.
Q1040:Describe Legionnaires' disease
Very high fever with severe pneumonia
Q1041:Treatment for Legionella
Has a beta-lacatamase (penicillin-resistant);1.
Erythromycin;2. Rifampin
Q1042:Diagnosis: Pneumonia in a smoker >50 years of age.
Gram stain of pus shows many neutrophils with few
microbes.
Legionella
Q1043:Special culture requirements for: Legionella
Grows on charcoal yeast extract culture with iron and
cysteine;Mnemonic: French legionnaire with silver helmet;
sitting around a campfire (charcoal medium) with a canteen of
water (water transmission) and his iron dagger-he is no sissy
(cysteine).
Q1044:Legionella: Gram stain
Gram negative. Gram stains poorly (use silver
stain);;Mnemonic: French legionnaire with silver helmet;
sitting around a campfire (charcoal medium) with his iron
dagger-he is no sissy (cysteine).
Q1045:Legionella: How transmitted?
Aerosol transmission from environmental water sources (AC;
Showers; whirlpools; cooling towers; supermarket produce
mist);Mnemonic: French legionnaire with silver helmet; sitting
around a campfire (charcoal medium) with a canteen of water
(water transmission) and his iron dagger-he is no sissy
(cysteine).
Q1046:Pseudomonas: Disease states
PSEUDDOburnnas;1. Pneumonia (especially in CF);2. Sepsis
(black lesions on skin);3. External otitis (swimmer's ear);4.
UTI (nosocomial and drug-resistant);5. Drug use;6. Diabetic
Osteomyelitis;7. Burns and wound infections;8. Hot tub
folliculitis
Q1047:Pseudomonas: Organism characterization
1. Gram-negative rod;2. non-lactose fermenting;3. Aerobic
(think AERuginosa) and oxidase positive (cytochrome c
oxidase for oxidative phosphorylation);4. Produces
pyocyanin (blue-green) pigment;5. Fruity odor
Q1048:What to know about exotoxins produced by:
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Exotoxin A is an ADP ribosylating A-B toxin (similar to
Diphtheria toxin);Mechanism;Inactivates elongation;factor 2
(EF-2);Also has endotoxin (as it is gram negative) which
produces fever and shock.
Q1049:Diagnosis: Sepsis in burn victim
Most likely Pseudomonas
Q1050:Treatment for pseudomonas
Aminoglycoside ;plus;Extended-spectrum penicillin (eg
piperacillin; ticarcillin)
Q1051:Helicobacter pylori: Disease states
Causes;1. Gastritis;2. 90% of duodenal ulcers;Risk factor
for;1. Peptic ulcer;2. Gastric carcinoma
Q1052:Helicobacter pylori: Characterization
1. Gram negative rod;2. Urease-positive;3. Creates alkaline
environment
Q1053:Treatment for Helicobacter Pylori
Triple treatment;1. Metronidazole with one of the two
combos below;$;2. Bismuth (eg Pepto-Bismol);3. Either
Tetracycline or Amoxicillin;$$;2. Omeprazole;3.
Clarithromycin
Q1054:What bug?: Urease-positive gram-negative bacteria
Proteus and H. Pylori
Q1055:Zoonotic bacteria
1. Borrelia burdorferi;2. Francisella tularensis;3. Yersinia
pestis;4. Pasteurella multocida;5. Brucella spp. (Undulant
fever from dairy/contact with animals);Mnemonic: Bugs From
Your Pet Undulate and Unpasteurized dairy gives you
Undulant fever
Q1056:Borrelia burgdorferi: Disease states
Lyme disease
Q1057:Brucella: Disease states
Undulant fever/Brucellosis. Temperature slowly rises during
day; peaks in the evening; and slowly declines to normal by
morning;Accompanied by other systemic symptoms.
Q1058:Brucella: Transmission
from animal contact (meat worker; farmer; veterinarian) or
unpasteurized milk
Q1059:Gross mechanism of brucellosis
1. Penetration of skin (but no buboes or primary skin ulcer);
conjunctiva; lungs; GI tract;2. Lymphatic spread;3.
Facultative intracellular growth in macrophages; and blood and
organ invasion
Q1060:Francisella Tularensis: Disease states (list)
Tularemia; either;1. Pneumonic;2. Oculoglandular;3.
Ulceroglandular;4. Typhoidal;(Don't POUT when you've got
tularemia.)
Q1061:Describe Ulceroglandular tularemia
a. Well-demarcated hole in the skin with a black base;b. Fever
and systemic symptoms;c. Swollen/red/painful purulent
lymph nodes;Similar to plague; but with skin ulcer; and low
mortality.
Q1062:Francisella tularensis: Transmission
Most common: Handling of infected rabbits or from bites of
ticks and deer flies;Hundred creatures in total all over
US;Mnemonic: Francis the rabbit is playing in the TULips;
with a deerfly on one ear and a tick on the other.
Q1063:Virulence of Francisella tularensis
Very. (10 organisms cause disease.)
Q1064:Diagnosis of Francisella tularensis
Clinical picture; PPD-like skin test; and titers of Francisella Ig
Q1065:Yersinia pestis: Transmission
PESTS like rats harbor the disease and fleas are the vector;
biting the skin of humans. Found in campers; hunters; and
hikers;Mnemonic: A rat driving a fuel-injected (F1) VW bug
(V and W antigens) fleeing (flea-ing) from a macrophage.
Q1066:Fraction 1 (F1) antigen
Enables Yersinia pesitis to resist destruction after
phagocytosis (facultative intracellular);Mnemonic: A rat
driving a fuel-injected (F1) VW bug (V and W antigens) fleeing
(flea-ing) from a macrophage.
Q1067:V antigen
Enables Yersinia pesitis to resist destruction after
phagocytosis (facultative intracellular);Mnemonic: A rat
driving a fuel-injected (F1) VW bug (V and W antigens) fleeing
(flea-ing) from a macrophage.
Q1068:W antigen
Enables Yersinia pesitis to resist destruction after
phagocytosis (facultative intracellular);Mnemonic: A rat
driving a fuel-injected (F1) VW bug (V and W antigens) fleeing
(flea-ing) from a macrophage.
Q1069:Yersinia pestis: Presentation in humans
1. Lymph node (usually inguinal [boubon is Greek for groin])
becomes inflamed (all four signs);2. Fever; and headache;3.
Blackish discoloration under skin ("Black death")
Q1070:Disease states caused by Yersinia pestis
Bubonic plague/pneumonic plague
Q1071:Pasteurella Multocida: Transmission
Cat; dog; and animal bites. Also infects birds;Mnemonic: Cat
and dog chasing a bird in a "Pasteur".
Q1072:T/F: All Zoonotic Gram negative bugs are facultative
intracellular.
False. Pasteurella is not.
Q1073:Pasteurella: Treatment
Do not suture wound after dog or cat bite/scratch. (Best
breeding ground for Pasteurella);Treat with penicillin or
doxycycline.
Q1074:Gardnerella: Characterization
Pleomorphic; gram-variable rod.
Q1075:What disease states does Gardnernella cause?
Vaginosis;1. Greenish vaginal discharge with fishy smell;2.
Noninflammatory (nonpainful);3. Mobiluncus (anaerobe) is
also seen;4. Clue cells are visible (vaginal epithelium covered
with bacteria);5. Positive Whiff test
Q1076:What does a positive PPD indicate?
1. Current infection;2. Past exposure;3. BCG vaccination
Q1077:What does a negative PPD indicate?
1. No infection;2. Anergy (due to: steroids;
immunocompromise; malnutrition); inject candida/mumps
vaccine into other arm. If still negative; anergic.
Q1078:Fast-fermenting lactose bacteria
Fast fermenters: (EEK! Too fast!);1. E.coli;2. Enterobacter
sp;3. Klebsiella
Q1079:Slow fermenting lactose bacteria
Slow fermenters;1. Serratia;2. Citrobacter;3. "Others"
Q1080:Tuberculosis infection: Gross mechanism
1. Inhaled aerosols from infected adults;2. Land in middle or
lower lobes of lung (highest airflow) leading to small area of
pneumonitis;3. Bacteria enter macrophages; multiply; and
spread hematogenously.
Q1081:Mechanism of asymptomatic primary TB
1. Cell-mediated defense walls off foci of bacteria in caseous
granulomas;2. Granulomas heal with fibrosis; calcification and
scar formation
Q1082:Difference between Ghon focus and Ghon complex
Ghon focus: Calcified tubercle in the middle or lower
lung;Ghon complex: Ghon focus accompanied by perihilar or
lobar lymph node calcified granulomas
Q1083:What is a Ranke complex?
Same as a Ghon complex: Ghon focus accompanied by
perihilar or lobar lymph node calcified granulomas
Q1084:Mechanism of symptomatic primary TB
1. Large caseous granulomas develop in the lungs/other
organs;2. In the lungs; caseous material liquifies; is extruded
out the bronchi and leaves cavitary lesions behind.
Q1085:Mechanism of secondary Pulmonary TB
1. Infection occurs at apical areas of lung around the clavicles
due to highest oxygen tension caused by decreased pulmonary
circulation;2. Infected areas grow; caseate; liquify and cavitate.
Q1086:TB reactivation sites
1. Pulmonary (Lung parenchyma);2. Pleura;3. Pericardium;4.
Scrofula (Cervical lymph nodes: most common
extrapulmonary site worldwide);5. Kidney (Sterile pyuria);6.
Thoracic and lumbar spine (Pott's disease);7. Chronic
monoarthritis;8. CNS (subacute meningitis or parenchymal
tuberculoma);9. Miliary TB (Millet sized tubercles all over
the body)
Q1087:Tuberculosis rule of 5s
1. Droplet nuclei are 5 micrometers and contain 5
mycobacteria;2. 5% risk of reactivation in first 2 years and
then 5% lifetime risk;3. Patients with HIV ("High five") have
5+5% yearly reactivation risk;4. Induration measurements;a.
HIV: >5 mm;b. High risk: >5+5 mm;c. Everyone else: >5+5+5
mm
Q1088:Cause of Miliary tuberculosis
Severe bacteremia
Q1089:Types of Mycobacteria and what they cause
Mnemonic: Identifying mycobacteria is no Light
TASK;Mycobacterium;1. Leprae;2. Tuberculosis;3. Avium-
intracellulare;4. Scrofulaceum;5. Kansasii
Q1090:What disease state does Mycobacterium Avium-
intracellulare cause?
bugs are multiple drug resistant and cause disseminated
disease in AIDS
Q1091:Symptoms of tuberculosis
1. Fever;2. Night sweats;3. Weight loss;4. Hemoptysis
Q1092:What is Hansen's disease?
leprosy
Q1093:What is leprosy caused by?
Mycobacterium leprae
Q1094:Characterization and reservoir of Mycobacterium
Leprae
1. Acid fast bacillus;2. Likes cool temperatures;3. Infects skin
and superficial nerves;4. Cannot be grown invitro;5.
Reservoir: Armadillos
Q1095:Presentation of lepromatous leprosy
"Leonine facies";1. Loss of eyebrows;2. Nasal collapse;3.
Lumpy earlobe
Q1096:Treatment for leprosy
Long-term oral dapsone;Alternative: Rifampin; clofazimine;
and dapsone
Q1097:Toxicity of longterm oral dapsone
1. Hemolysis;2. Methemoglobinemia
Q1098:2 forms of leprosy
1. Lepromatous (Due to failed cell-mediated immunity. Lep.
is Lethal);2. Tuberculoid (self=limiting)
Q1099:Rickettsiae: Characterization
Obligate intracellular parasites. Need CoA and NAD.
Q1100:Rickettsiae: Transmission and presentation
Coxiella: Atypical. Transmitted by aerosol and causes
pneumonia;All others: Arthropod vector causes classic triad
of headache; fever and rash (vasculitis)
Q1101:Treatment of Rickettsiae
Tetracycline
Q1102:Difference between spread of rash in typhus and
spotted fever
tyPHus is centriPHugal (moves outwards);sPotted fever is
centriPetal (moves inwards);Both are caused by Rickettsiae
Q1103:Which bug causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
Rickettsia rickettsii; transmitted by tick
Q1104:Which bug causes endemic typhus?
Rickettsia typhi; transmitted by fleas
Q1105:Which bug causes epidemic typhus?
Rickettsia prowazekii; transmitted by human body louse
Q1106:Which bug causes typhus?
Endemic: Rickettsia typhi; transmitted by fleas;Epidemic:
Rickettsia prowazekii; transmitted by human body louse
Q1107:Which bug causes Q fever?
Coxiella burnetii; by inhaled aerosols from cowhide and
placentas;Remember: Carol Burnett coughing "Q" after
inhaling spores from cowhide.
Q1108:What separates Q fever from other rickettsial
diseases?
Q fever is Queer. Rickettsial; but has an endospore; thus;1.
Caused by Coxiella burnetii (not called Rickettsia);2. No
rash;3. No vector (inhaled aerosols);4. Negative Weil-Felix;5.
Causative organism can survive outside for a long time.
Q1109:Difference in tropism between Chlamydia and
Rickettsia
Rickettsia: Endothelial cells of blood vessels;Chlamydia:
Columnar epithelium
Q1110:Where is the rash in Rocky Mountain spotted fever
found?
Palms and soles; migrating to wrists; ankles; then trunk.
Q1111:Where can rashes on the palms and soles of feet be
seen?
1. Rocky mountain spotted fever;2. Syphilis;3. Coxsackie
virus A infection (hand; foot; and mouth disease)
Q1112:Weil-Felix reaction
Assays for antirickettsial antibodies; which cross-react with
Proteus antigen
Q1113:Typhus: positive or negative Weil-Felix
positive
Q1114:Rocky mountain spotted fever: positive or negative
Weil-Felix
positive
Q1115:Q fever: positive or negative Weil-Felix
negative
Q1116:What bug: Atypical walking pneumonia in prisoner or
military recruit younger than 30
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Q1117:Describe mycoplasma pneumoniae pneumonia
1. Atypical walking pneumonia (insidious onset; headache;
non productive cough; diffuse interstitial infiltrate);2. X-ray
looks worse than patient;3. High titer of cold agglutinins
(IgM)
Q1118:Special culture requirements for: Mycoplasma
pneumoniae
Eaton's agar
Q1119:Treatment for mycoplasma pneumoniae
Tetracycline or erythromycin;Pencillin resistant because they
have no cell wall.
Q1120:Characterization of Mycoplasma pneumoniae
1. Facultative anaerobe with no cell wall (hence no gram
stain);2. Only bacterial membrane with cholesterol;3. High
titer of cold agglutinins;4. Grown on Eaton's agar
Q1121:True or False: No Gram-positive bugs have endotoxin.
False. Listeria monocytogenes has it.
Q1122:Characterize Chlamydia
Obligate intracellular parasites
Q1123:2 forms of chlamydia
1. Elementary body (small; dense) which Enters cell via
endocytosis;2. Initial or Reticulate body; which Replicates In
cell by fission
Q1124:Disease states caused by Chlamydia trachomatis
1. Reactive arthritis (aka Reiter's syndrome);2.
Conjunctivitis;3. Non-gonococcal urethritis; cervicitis; and
PID
Q1125:Disease states caused by Chlamydia pneumoniae
Atypical pneumonia
Q1126:Disease states caused by Chlamydia psittaci
Atypical pneumonia
Q1127:Chlamydia species
1. Trachomatis;2. Pneumoniae;3. Psittaci
Q1128:What is unusual about the chlamydial wall?
It lacks muramic acid.
Q1129:Treatment of Chlamydia
Erythromycin or tetracycline
Q1130:Reservoir for Chlamydia psittaci
Avian
Q1131:Which chlamydia has an animal reservoir?
Psittaci: Avian
Q1132:Lab diagnosis of chlamydia
Cytoplasmic inclusions seen on Giemsa or fluorescent-
antibody stained smear
Q1133:What disease is caused by Chlamydia Trachomatis
serotypes A-C
1. Chronic infection;2. Blindness in Africa;Mnemonic: ABC:
Africa; Blindness; Chronic infection
Q1134:What disease is caused by Chlamydia Trachomatis
serotypes D-K
1. Urethritis/PID;2. Ectopic pregnancy;3. Neonatal
pneumonia;4. Neonatal conjunctivitis
Q1135:What disease is caused by Chlamydia Trachomatis
serotypes L1-L3
Lymphogranuloma venereum ;1. acute lymphadenitis with a
positive Frei test;2. ulcers;3. rectal strictures;Mnemonic: L1-
3: Lymphogranuloma
Q1136:Positive Frei test
Chlamydia Trachomatis serotypes L1-L3
Q1137:Acquisition and treatment of neonatal conjunctivitis
Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes D-K acquired by passage
through infected birth canal. Treat with erythromycin eye
drops.
Q1138:Characterization of spirochetes
Spiral-shaped bacteria with axial filaments
Q1139:List of spirochetes
Mnemonic: BLT with spiral bacon;1. Borrelia (Big!);2.
Leptospira;3. Treponema
Q1140:Visualization of Borrelia
Light microscopy with choice of aniline dye;1. Wright's
stain;2. Giemsa's stain
Q1141:Stages of Lyme disease
1. Erythema chronicum migrans and flu-like symptoms;2.
Neurologic and cardiac manifestations;3. Autoimmune
migratory polyarthritis
Q1142:Signs and symptoms of Lyme disease
Mnemonic: BAKE a Key Lime pie;1. Bell's palsy (and other
CNS manifestations in Stage 2);2. Arthritis (Autoimmune
migratory in Stage 3);3. Kardiac block (Stage 2);4. Erythema
chronicum migrans (Stage 1)
Q1143:What species transmits Borrelia burgdorferi to
humans?
Ixodes tick. Live o
Q1144:Classic symptom of Lyme disease and which stage is
it in?
Erythema chronicum migrans; an expanding "bull's eye" red
rash with central clearing. Stage 1.
Q1145:Animal reservoirs for borrelia burgdorferi
White-footed mouse and other small rodens; and the white-
tailed deer. Ixodes tick picks up bugs from these animals and
transmits them.
Q1146:Most common setting for Borrelia burgdorferi
infection
In the summer months in northeastern US (Lyme; CT)
Q1147:What disease states does Treponema cause?
Treponema Pallidum causes syphilis;Treponema Pertenue
causes yaws (a non-STD tropical infection with positive
VDRL)
Q1148:What is yaws?
Treponema Pertenue causes yaws (a non-STD tropical
infection with positive VDRL)
Q1149:Presentation of primary syphilis
Painless chancre (localized disease)
Q1150:What stage of syphilis: Painless chancre (localized
disease)
Primary
Q1151:Presentation of secondary syphilis
Disseminated disease with;1. constitutional symptoms (fever;
lymphadenopathy);2. maculopapular rash (palms and
soles);3. condylomata lata;Mnemonic: Secondary means
Systemic
Q1152:What stage of syphilis: Disseminated disease with
constitutional symptoms
Secondary syphilis
Q1153:Presentation of tertiary syphilis
1. Gummas;2. Aortitis;3. Neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis;
general paresis);4. Argyll Robertson pupil
Q1154:What stage of syphilis: Gummas
tertiary syphilis
Q1155:What stage of syphilis: Aortitis
tertiary syphilis
Q1156:What stage of syphilis: Neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis)
tertiary syphilis
Q1157:What stage of syphilis: Argyll Robertson pupil
tertiary syphilis
Q1158:What stage of syphilis: maculopapular rash (palms
and soles)
Secondary syphilis
Q1159:What stage of syphilis: condylomata lata
Secondary syphilis
Q1160:Presentation of Congenital syphilis
1. Saber shins;2. Saddle nose;3. Deafness
Q1161:What stage of syphilis: Saber shins
Congenital syphilis (not a stage)
Q1162:What stage of syphilis: Saddle nose
Congenital syphilis (not a stage)
Q1163:What stage of syphilis: Deafness
Congenital syphilis (not a stage)
Q1164:Treatment for Syphilis
Penicillin G
Q1165:Signs and symptoms of tertiary syphilis
1. Broad-based ataxia;2. Positive Romberg sign;3. Charcot
joints;4. Stroke without hypertension
Q1166:What is an Argyll-Robertson pupil?
Same as prostitute's pupil. Constricts with accommodation
but is not reactive to light. Pathognomonic for tertiary
syphilis.
Q1167:What is the prostitute's pupil.
Same as Argyll-Robertson pupil. Constricts with
accommodation but is not reactive to light. Pathognomonic for
tertiary syphilis.
Q1168:What is FTA-ABS used for?
FTA-ABS: Find the Antibody-Absolutely;1. Most specific
for treponemes;2. Positive the earliest;3. Remains positive the
longest
Q1169:Interpret: Positive VDRL; Positive FTA
Active treponemal infection
Q1170:Interpret: Positive VDRL; Negative FTA
Probably false positive;VDRL;1. Viruses (mono; hepatitis);2.
Drugs;3. Rheumatic fever and rheumatoid arthritis;4. Lupus
and leprosy
Q1171:Interpret: Negative VDRL; Positive FTA
Successfully treated treponemal infection
Q1172:Characteristics of Staph aureus
Gram+ cocci in clusters; catalase+; coagulase+; beta
hemolytic; ferments mannitol; salt tolerant
Q1173:Characteristics of Staph epidirmidis
Gram+ cocci in clusters; catalase+; coagulase-; novobiocin
sensitive
Q1174:Characteristics of Staph saprophyticus
Gram+ cocci in clusters; catalase+; coagulase-; novobiocin
resistant
Q1175:Characteristics of S. pneumoniae
Gram+ catalase- lancet-chapes diplococci in chains; alpha
hemolytic; "MOPS" optochin sensitive; bile soluble;
+quellung
Q1176:Characteristics of Viridans strep
Gram+ catalase- cocci; alpha hemolytic; optochin resistant;
bile insoluble
Q1177:Characteristics of S. pyogenes
Gram+ catalase- cocci; group B; beta hemolytic; bacitracin
sensitive; PYR+
Q1178:Characteristics of S. agalactiae
Gram+ catalase- cocci; group A; beta hemolytic; bacitracin
resistant; cAMP test+
Q1179:Characteristics of Enterococcus
Gram+ catalase- cocci; PYR+; hydrolizes esculin in 40% bile
and 6.5% NaCl
Q1180:Characteristics of Clostridium tetani
Gram+ spore-forming anaerobic rods
Q1181:Characteristics of Clostridium botulinum
Gram+ spore-forming anaerobic rods
Q1182:Characteristics of Clostridium perfingens
Gram+ spore-forming anaerobic rods; double zone of beta
hemolysis
Q1183:Characteristics of Clostridium difficile
Gram+ spore-forming anaerobic rods
Q1184:Characteristics of Corynebacterium diptheriae
Gram+ aerobic club-shaped rods; V or L shapes on tellurite;
metachromatic granules on Leoffler. beta-prophage contains
diptheria toxin gene (lysogeny)
Q1185:Characteristics of Bacillus
Gram+ spore-forming aerobic rods
Q1186:Characteristics of Listeria
Gram+ rods with tumbling or actin jet motility; beta
hemolutic; cold growth; facultative intracellular
Q1187:Characteristics of Actinomyces
Gram+; long branching filaments; non-acid fast anaerobic rods
Q1188:Characteristics of Nocardia
Gram+; long branching filaments; partially acid-fast aerobic
rods
Q1189:Characteristics of Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Acid-fast aerobic rods on Lowenstein-Jensen medium;
auramine-rhodamine stainning (fluorescent apple green).
Mycolic acid lipids on cell wall
Q1190:Characteristics of Mycobacterium lepreae
Acid-fast aerobic rods; can't be cultured (obligate
intracellular). Mycolic acid lipids on cell wall
Q1191:Characteristics of Neisseria menigitidis
Gram- kidneybean-shaped diplococci; growws on chocolate
agar; maltose fermenter; polysaccharide capsule
Q1192:Characteristics of Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Gram- kidneybean-shpaed diplococci; growws Thayer-
Martin; maltose non-fermenter; no polysaccharide capsule
Q1193:Characteristics of Haemophilus influezae
Gram- cocobacillus; requires factor X and V (chocolate agar).
Satellite phenomenon near staph aureus on blood agar
Q1194:Characteristics of Pasteurella
Gram- cocobacillus; anaerobic
Q1195:Characteristics of Brucella
Gram- cocobacillus; aerobic; zoonosis; biowarfare
Q1196:Characteristics of Bordetella pertussis
Gram- aerobic cocobacillus
Q1197:Characteristics of Klebsiella
Gram- lactose-fermenting rods on MacConkey; polysacchride
capsule; oxidase-
Q1198:Characteristics of E. coli
Gram- lactose-fermenting rods on MacConkey; oxidase-
Q1199:Characteristics of Shigella
Gram- nonlactose-fermenting rods on MacConkey; nonmotile;
no H2S production; oxidase-
Q1200:Characteristics of Salmonella
Gram- nonlactose-fermenting rods on MacConkey; highly
motile; H2S producer; oxidase-
Q1201:Characteristics of Proteus
Gram- nonlactose-fermenting rods with swarming motility;
H2S producer; urease+; oxidase-
Q1202:Characteristics of Pseudomonas
Gram- nonlactose-fermenting rods on MacConkey oxidase+;
aerobic; produces green pigment pyocyanin
Q1203:Characteristics of C. jejuni
Gram- nonlactose-fermenting curved rods with flagella;
oxidase+; microaerophillic
Q1204:Characteristics of H. pylori
Gram- nonlactose-fermenting helical rods with flagella;
oxidase+; urease+; microaerophillic
Q1205:Characteristics of Vibrio cholera
Gram- nonlactose-fermenting curved rod with flagella;
oxidase+ grows on alkaline media (thiosulfate)
Q1206:Characteristics of Francisella
Gram- facultative intracellular rods; zoonosis; biowarfare
Q1207:Characteristics of Yersinia
Gram- coagulase+ rods with bipolar stainnning; facultative
intracellular; zoonosis
Q1208:Characteristics of Gardnerella
Gram variable rod; positive whiff fishy smell test
Q1209:Characteristics of Bacteroides
Gram- anaerobic rod
Q1210:Characteristics of Treponema
Gram- spirochete; spiral-shaped with axial filaments; dark
microscopy
Q1211:Characteristics of Borrelia
Gram- spirochete; spiral-shaped with axial filaments;
microaerophilic
Q1212:Characteristics of Leptospira
Gram- spirochete; spiral question mark-shaped with axial
filaments
Q1213:Characteristics of Rickettsia
Gram- (doesn't stain well) obligate intracellular rods
Q1214:Characteristics of Coxiella
Gram- (doesn't stain well) obligate intracellular rods
Q1215:Characteristics of Chlamydia
Obligate intracellular bug seen in Giemsa stain. Wall lacks
muramic acid. Elementary body is infective; reticulate bodies
are replicating in the cell
Q1216:Characteristics of Mycoplasma
Lacks peptidoglycan cell wall; does not gram stain.
Cholesterols in membrane
Q1217:what is unique to gram-positive organisms?;what does
it induce?
Teichoic Acid;TNF and IL-1
Q1218:what is unique to gram-negative organisms?;what does
it induce?
Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) / Endotoxin;(both considered the
Outer Membrane);TNF and IL-1
Q1219:what bug has a D-glutamate capsule?
Bacillis Anthrax
Q1220:what is a spore made of?;(2)
Keratin-like coat;;Dipicolinic acid
Q1221:in the bacterial growth curve; when is rapid cell
division?
Log phase
Q1222:Definition;substance that binds directly to MHC-II
and T-cell receptors activating a large number of T-cells to
stimulate release of IL-1 and IL-2
Superantigen;(TSST-1 in S.aureus);(SPE toxin in S.pyogenes -
Scarlet fever)
Q1223:(4) Bugs w/ A-B toxins
Corynebacterium diphtheria;;Vibrio;;E.coli;;B.pertussis
Q1224:Bug that inactivates elongation factor EF-2
Corynebacterium diphtheria
Q1225:what toxin in clostridium causes gas gangrene?
Alpha toxin
Q1226:what NT does C.tetani block?
Glycine
Q1227:what toxin cleaves host cell rRNA?;which Bugs use
it?;(2)
Shiga Toxin;bugs;Shigella;E.coli
Q1228:what does the following Neisseria
ferment;Meningococci;Gonococci
MeninGococci = Maltose and Glucose;Gonococci = Glucose
Q1229:Pigment-producing Bug;1. Blue-green;2. Red;3. Yellow
in alphabetical order;Blue = Pseudomonas Aeruginosa;Red =
Serratia;Yellow = Staph Aureus
Q1230:(3)* Bugs that form spores
PAT the soil for spores;c.Perfringens;;b.Anthrax;;c.Tetani
Q1231:Catalase positive
Staph;(coagulase+ = Aureus)
Q1232:(4)* Dx that Strep Pneumonae is MCC of;what are
they sensitive to?
MOPS;Meningitis;Otitis Media;Pneumonia;Sinusitis;MOPS
are Most OPtochin Sensitive
Q1233:what Strep group lives in the mouth and is Optochin
resistant?
Viridians;(not afraid Of-the-chin and are OP-TO-CHIN
resistant)
Q1234:which clostridia causes;Diarrhea?;gas Gangrene?
DIarrhea = DIfficle;gas gangrene PERForates the leg =
PERfringens
Q1235:Dx;vesicular papules covered w/ black eschar
Anthrax
Q1236:Food poison bug;poultry; meat and eggs
Salmonella
Q1237:Food poison bug;reheated meat dishes
Clostridium Perfringens
Q1238:Food poison bug;meats; mayo or custard
S.Aureus
Q1239:MCC of swimmers ear
Pseudomonas
Q1240:what types of chlamydia cause blindness in Africa and
chronic infection?
Types A; B; C;Africa;Blindness;Chronic infection
Q1241:term for asexual fungal spores
"Conidia"
Q1242:Mycoses type from;Desert or SW USA
Coccidioidomycosis
Q1243:Mycoses type from;Mississippi or Ohio river valley
Histoplasmosis
Q1244:Mycoses type from;East of Mississippi
Blastomycosis
Q1245:which DNA virus is not dsDNA;(it is ssDNA)?
Parvovirus;("Part-of-a-virus")
Q1246:what is the only dsRNA?
Reovirus;("Repeat-O-virus")
Q1247:which virus class gets its envelope from the nuclear
membrane versus the cytoplasmic membrane?
Herpesviruses
Q1248:what are the (2) circular DNA viruses?
Papova;Hepadna
Q1249:which DNA virus replicates in cytoplasm?
Poxvirus
Q1250:MCC of global infantile gastroenteritis
ROTAvirus;Right Out of The Anus!
Q1251:(2) Main causes of Meningitis in Newborn
Group B Strep;;E.coli
Q1252:MCC of meningitis in children 6 mo - 6 yo;(2)
Strep Pneumonia;H.Influenzae
Q1253:MCC of meningitis in 6 yo - 60 yo
N. Meningitis
Q1254:MCC of meningitis > 60 yo
S. Pneumonia
Q1255:infectious agents of TORCHES
ToRCHeS;Toxoplasmosis;Rubella;CMV;HSV;Syphilis
Q1256:Bug hints;Pus; empyema; abscess
S.Aureus
Q1257:Bug hints;pediatric infection
H.influenzae
Q1258:Bug hints;Branching rods in oral infection
Actinomyces israelii
Q1259:Bug hints;traumatic open wound
C.perfringens
Q1260:Bug hints;surgical wound
S.Aureus
Q1261:Bug hints;Dog or Cat bite
Pasturella
Q1262:Bug hints;sepsis/meningitis in newborn
Group B strep
Q1263:Average bacterial diameter
Small (0.3-2 micrometers)
Q1264:Bacterial cellular membranes lack these
Sterols; with the exception of Mycoplasma; are not a
component.
Q1265:Mycoplasma cell membranes contain what; making
them different from all other bacterial cell membranes?
Cholesterol
Q1266:The bacterial cell wall is composed of what?
Peptidoglycan
Q1267:How bacteria replicate
binary fission (assexual)
Q1268:Bacteria contain mono- and poly-cistronic mRNA.
The presence of what allows for this?
Shine-Dalgarno sites allow for what property of bacteria?
Q1269:Normal flora of blood; stomach and internal organs
These have NO common organisms and are generally sterile
Q1270:Important normal flora of cutaneous surfaces;
including urethra and outer ear
Common: Staph epidermidis;Less common: Staph aureus;
Corynebacteria (diphtheroids); streptococci; yeasts (Candida
spp.)
Q1271:Important normal flora of the nose
Common: Staph aureus;Less common: S. epidermidis;
diphtheroids; assorted streptococci
Q1272:Important normal flora of the oropharynx
Common: Viridians streptococci; including Strep mutans;Less
common: assorted Streptococci; nonpathogenic Neisseria;
nontypeable H. flu (unencapsulated)
Q1273:Important normal flora of the gingival crevices
Common: Anerobes (Prevotella; Fusobacterium;
Streptococcus; Actinomyces)
Q1274:Important normal flora of the colon (in breastfed
babies)
Common: Bifidobacterium;Less common: Lactobacillus;
streptococci
Q1275:Important normal flora of the colon (in adults)
Common: Bacteriodes (predominant;) Escherichia;
Bifidobacterium;Less common: Eubacterium; Fusobacterium;
Lactobacillus; gram-negative anaerobic rods; Strep faecalis and
other streptococci
Q1276:Important normal flora of the vagina
Common: Lactobacillus; group B strep in 15-20% of
women;Less common: assorted streptococci; gram-negative
rods; diphtheroids; yeasts
Q1277:Encapsulated bacteria
Strep pneumo; Klebsiella pneumo; Haemophilus influenza;
Pseudomonas aeruginosa; Neisseria meningitidis;
Cryptococcus neoformans
Q1278:These bacteria can adhere to inert materials through
the creation of biofilms
Staph epidermidis; Strep mutans
Q1279:Responsible for dental plaque
Strep mutans
Q1280:Factors that assist with bacterial adherence
Pili/fimbriae (in gram negative cells);Teichoic acids (in gram
positive cells);Adhesins (colonizing factor; pertussis toxin;
hemagglutinins);IgA proteases (cleaved Fc portion may coat
bacteria and bind them to cellular Fc receptors)
Q1281:Antiphagocytic surface component of Strep pyogenes
M protein
Q1282:Antiphagocytic surface component of Neisseria
gonorrhoeae
pili (antiphagocytic in which organism?)
Q1283:Antiphagocytic surface component of Staph aureus
A protein
Q1284:These bacteria contain IgA proteases which destroy
mucosal IgA
Haemophilus; Neisseria; S. pneumoniae
Q1285:Siderophores
these chelate ("steal") and import iron into bacteria;
effectively obtaining needed nutrients
Q1286:M. tuberculosis evades intracellular killing by this
mechanism
this bacteria prevents phagosome-lysosome fusion
Q1287:Listeria evades intracellular killing by this mechanism
this bacteria escapes the phagosome before phagosome-
lysosome fusion
Q1288:Invasins
surface proteins that allow an organism to bind to and invade
normally non-phagocytic human cells; thus escaping the
immune system (such as in Yersinia pseudotuberculosis)
Q1289:Another name for endotoxin
LPS
Q1290:Where endotoxin is found
Gram-negative outer membrane
Q1291:Toxic portion of LPS
Lipid A; generally not released until cell death;Exception: N.
meningitidis overproduces outer membrane fragments
Q1292:Mechanism of LPS
activates macrophages; leading to release of TNF-a; IL-1; and
IL-6. This leads to tissue damage. Damage to the endothelium
from bradykinin-induced vasodilation leads to shock; and DIC
is mediated through the activation of Hageman factor.
Q1293:Can LPS be converted to a toxoid?
No; so LPS remains non-immunogenic and cannot be used for
vaccines
Q1294:Protein toxins secreted from bacterial cells (both gram
positive and gram negative)
Exotoxins
Q1295:Can exotoxin be converted to a toxoid?
Yes; these are modifiable by heat or chemicals to a nontoxic
but immunogenic form useful for vaccination.
Q1296:The A and B components of exotoxins have these
functions
B component Binds specific receptors to assist the
internalization of A;A component is the Active component
(often an enzyme)
Q1297:Toxin; Mode of Action; and Disease Role of
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Diphtheria toxin;ADP ribosyl transferase inactivates EF-
2;Primarily targets heart; nerves and epithelium;Inhibits
eukaryotic cell protein synthesis
Q1298:Toxin; Mode of Action and Disease Role of
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Exotoxin A;ADP ribosyl transferase inactivates EF-2;Primary
target is the liver;Inhibits eukaryotic protein synthesis
Q1299:Toxin; Mode of Action and Disease Role of Shigella
Shiga toxin;Interferes with 60s ribosomal subunit;Inhibits
protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells;Enterotoxic; cytotoxic
and neurotoxic
Q1300:Toxin; Mode of Action and Disease Role of EHEC
Verotoxin (shiga-like toxin);Interferes with 60s ribosomal
subunit;Inhibits protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells
Q1301:Toxin; Mode of Action and Disease Role of
Clostridium tetani
Tetanus toxin;Blocks release of inhibitory transmitters glycine
and GABA;Inhibits neurotransmission in inhibitory synapses
Q1302:Toxin; Mode of Action and Disease Role of
Clostridium botulinum
Botulinum toxin;Blocks release of ACh;Inhibits cholinergic
synapses
Q1303:Toxins of Staph aureus
Toxins: TSST-1 & Alpha toxin
Q1304:Mode of Action and Disease Role of TSST-1
An endotoxin enhancer; this toxin is pyrogenic and decreases
liver clearance of LPS and superantigen;Causes fever;
increases susceptibility to LPS; rash; shock and capillary
leakage
Q1305:Mode of Action and Disease Role of Alpha toxin
In Staph aureus; this toxin intercalates and forms pores in the
cell membrane of eukaryotic cells;In C. perfringens; this toxin
is a lecithinase that damages cell membranes and causes
myonecrosis
Q1306:Toxin; Mode of Action and Disease Role of Strep
pyogenes
Exotoxin A; aka pyrogenic toxin;Similar to TSST-1;Endotoxin
enhancer;Fever; increased suceptibility to LPS; rash; shock;
capillary leakage; cardiotoxicity
Q1307:Toxin; Mode of Action and Disease Role of ETEC
Heat labile Toxin (LT);Stimulates adenylate cyclase by ADP
ribosylation of GTP binding protein;Promotes secretion of
fluid and electrolytes from intestinal epithelium;A cAMP
inducer toxin
Q1308:Toxin; Mode of Action and Disease Role of Vibrio
cholerae
Cholera toxin;similar to E coli LT-- stimulates an adenylate
cyclase by ADP ribosylation;Profuse; watery diarrhea
Q1309:Toxin; Mode of Action and Disease Role of Bacillus
anthracis
Anthrax toxin (3 proteins; 2 toxins);EF = edema factor ->
adenylate cyclase;LF = lethal factor;PA = protective antigen
(B component for both);Decreases phagocytosis; causes
edema; kills cells
Q1310:Toxin; Mode of Action and Disease Role of Bordetella
pertussis
Pertussis toxin;ADP ribosylates Gi; the negative regulator of
adenylate cyclase -> increased cAMP;Histamine
sensitizing;Lymphocytosis promotion;Islet activation
Q1311:Toxin; Mode of Action and Disease Role of
Clostridium perferingens
Alpha toxin;Lecithinase activity causes myonecrosis
Q1312:Bacterial capsule
present in many gram positive and gram negative bacteria;
composed of polysaccharide gel (except B. anthracis);
protects against phagocytosis until opsonized; immunogenic
(except S. pyogenes and N. meningitidis.)
Q1313:Capsule component of B. anthracis
polypeptide of poly D-glutamate
Q1314:Nonimmunogenic cell capsules
S. pyogenes (hyaluronic acid);N. meningitidis (sialic acid)
Q1315:Chemical composition and fuctions of bacterial outer
cell membrane
Gram-negative only;Lipid A & polysaccharide (LPS);LPS =
endotoxin;Lipid A = toxic moiety;PS = immunogenic
portion;Contains protein porins for passive transport and
proteins for attachment and virulence
Q1316:Bacterial cell wall composition and function
Made of peptidoglycan; net of NAG-NAM ;Functions to
provide support; cell shape and protection from osmotic
damage;Synthesis inhibited by penicillins and
cephalosporins;Confers gram reaction
Q1317:Gram positives have this in their cell wall; which gram
negative bacteria do not. What is its function?
Techoic acids;Immunogenic; induce TNF-a; IL-1
Q1318:Acid-fast bacteria have this in their cell wall; which
other bacteria do not. What is its function?
Mycolic acids;Confers resistance to drying and chemicals
Q1319:Periplasmic space-- location; bacteria and function
Gram negative bacteria only;Located between inner and outer
cell membranes;Contains enzymes to break down large
molecules; aids regulation of osmolarity
Q1320:Cytoplasmic membrane-- location and function
Gram positive and gram negative;Phospholipid bilayer with
embedded proteins;Selective permeability and active
transport;Carrier enzymes for oxidative metabolism;
phosphorylation; phospholipid synthesis; DNA replication;
peptidoglycan crosslinking; penicillin binding proteins
Q1321:Pili or fimbria-- type of bacteria; composition and
function
Primarily gram negative;Made of glycoprotein
(pilin);Adherence to cell surfaces; attachment to other bacteria
during conjugation
Q1322:Flagellum -- type of bacteria; composition and
function
Gram (+) and (-);Made of protein (flagellin);Used for motility
Q1323:Axial filaments-- type of bacteria; composition and
function
Spirochetes and gram negative bacteria;Made of protein;Used
for motility
Q1324:Acid fast bacteria turn this color with methylene blue
stain
Red color after methylene blue staining indicates these
bacteria
Q1325:Acid fast bacteria
Mycobacterium;Legionella;Nocardia (partially)
Q1326:Bonus: protozoan parasites with acid-fast oocysts
Cryptosporidium and Isospora
Q1327:Corynebacterium diphtheriae have granules of this
volutin granules are useful for identifying this species
Q1328:Endospores-- bacteria; composition and function
Gram positive only;Made of keratin coat; calcium
dipicolinate;Confers resistance to heal; chemicals and
dehydration (not reproductive)
Q1329:Bacteria that make endospores
Bacillis and Clostridium
Q1330:Special media for anaerobes
thioglycolate
Q1331:Special media for Corynebacterium
Loffler's coagulated serum medium (selective);Tellurite agar
(differential)
Q1332:Special media for enteric bacteria
Eosin methylene blue (differential);MacConkeys (differential)
Q1333:Special media for enteric pathogens
Hektoen enteric agar (differential);Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate
agar
Q1334:Special media for Vibrio cholera
TCBS (thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose agar)
(selective);This organism likes an alkaline growth medium
Q1335:Special media for Legionella
Charcoal yeast extract agar (selective)
Q1336:Special media for Mycobacterium
Lowenstein-Jensen medium (selective)
Q1337:Special media for Neisseria from normally sterile sites;
Haemophilus
Chocolate agar
Q1338:Special media for Neisseria from sites with normal
flora
Thayer-Martin selective medium (selective);This is a
chocolate agar with vancomycin; nystatin and colistin to
inhibit normal flora
Q1339:Growth requirements of mycoplasma
cholesterol; purines and pyrimidines
Q1340:Bacteria requiring cysteine for growth
Francisella; Brucella; Legionella; Pasteurella
Q1341:Growth requirements of Haemophilus
X (protoporphyrin) and V (NAD) are required by what
bacteria for growth?
Q1342:These bacteria are obligate aerobes
Mycobacterium;Pseudomonas;(Bacillus)
Q1343:Superoxide dismutase
O2 + 2H ------->H2O2;enzyme contained by most obligate
anaerobes
Q1344:Microaerophilic (requires low but not full oxygen
tension) bacteria
Campylobacter;Helicobacter
Q1345:Obligate anaerobes
Actinomyces;Bacteriodes;Clostridium
Q1346:DTaP vs DTP
Diphtheria-- diphtheria toxoid;Tetanus-- tetanus
toxoid;Pertussis -- killed pertussis cells vs acellular pertusis
toxoid; filamentous hemagglutinin and pertacin.
Q1347:Neisseria vaccine is active against these capsular
polysaccharides; but not against which one that causes 50%
of US cases?
Active against Y; W-135; C and A;Not active against B
(capsule is sialic acid; non-immunogenic)
Q1348:Bacillus anthracis vaccine
supernatant of partially purified proteins used as vaccine for
military or occupational usage
Q1349:Salmonella typhi vaccine (ty21)
attenuated bacterial vaccine for travelers to endemic typhoid
areas
Q1350:HIB vaccine (H. influenza type B)
protects against 95% of US cases;capsular polysaccharide
conjugated to protein; making a T cell dependent vaccine
which infants respond to
Q1351:BCG vaccine
attenuated strain of mycobacterium bovis;does not prevent
pulmonary TB; but does prevent dissemination;not used in
US
Q1352:Yersinia pestis vaccine
Killed cellular F-1 antigen vaccine;Used in military in endemic
areas and with laboratory workers
Q1353:Gram negative aerobic cocci
Neisseria & Moraxella ;have what shape; respiration and gram
stain?
Q1354:Gram negative aerobic rods
Pseudomonas; Legionella; Brucella; Bordetella;
Francisella;have what shape; respiration and gram stain?
Q1355:Gram negative helical microaerophilic bacteria
Campylobacter & Helicobacter;have what shape; respiration
and gram stain?
Q1356:Gram postive cocci
Staphylococcus & Streptococcus;have what shape and gram
stain?
Q1357:Gram positive aerobic or facultative rods
Bacillus; Listeria; Corynebacterium; Nocardia;
Mycobacterium;have what shape; respiration and gram stain?
Q1358:Gram positive anaerobic rods
Clostridium; Actinomyces; Eubacterium; Propionibacterium;
Lactobacillus;have what shape; respiration and gram stain?
Q1359:Spore forming bacteria
Bacillus & Clostridium;... are capable of what?
Q1360:Non-gram staining bacteria
Mycoplasma & Ureaplasma ;... are not capable of what?
Q1361:Gram negative facultative anaerobic rods
Esherichia; Shigella; Salmonella; Citrobacter; Klebsiella;
Enterobacer; Serratia; Proteus; Yersinia; Vibrio; Pasteurella;
Haemophilus;have what shape; respiration and gram stain?
Q1362:Gram negative anaerobic straight or helical rods
Bacteroides; prevotella; Fusobacterium; spirochetes;
Rickettsia; Chlamydia;have what shape; respiration and gram
stain?
Q1363:Spirochetes
Treponema; Borrelia; Leptospira;... are all what?
Q1364:Features of all Staphylococcus species
Gram positive; cocci arranged in clusters; catalase positive
Q1365:Staphylococcus aureus;Description; Virulence factors
and Associated Diseases
Coagulase positive; Beta-hemolytic;Contains protein A;
TSST-1; enterotoxins; exfoliatins; cytolysins;Causes:
osteomyelitis; infective endocarditis in IVDU; abscesses; TSS;
gastroenteritis and suppurative lesions
Q1366:Staphylococcus epidermidis;Description; Virulence
factors and Associated Diseases
coagulase negative; no hemolysis; susceptible to
novobiocin;Part of normal skin flora; can form a
biofilm;Causes: catheter and device infections; endocarditis in
IVDU
Q1367:Staphylococcus saphrophyticus;Description;
Virulence factors and Associated Diseases
coagulase negative; non-hemolytic; resistant to
novobiocin;Causes: UTIs in newly sexually active women
Q1368:What color on blood agar is associated with beta
hemolysis?
"Clear" color on blood agar is indicative of this type of
hemolysis
Q1369:What color on blood agar is associated with alpha
hemolysis?
Green color on blood agar is indicative of this type of
hemolysis
Q1370:What color on blood agar is associated with gamma
hemolysis?
Red color on blood agar is indicative of this type of hemolysis
Q1371:Common features of all Streptococcus
gram positive cocci in chains or pairs; catalase negative
Q1372:This streptococcus is serotyped by capsular
antibodies
Strep pneumo ;... is serotyped by what?
Q1373:This streptococcus is serotyped by the M protein
Strep pyogenes ;... is serotyped by what?
Q1374:Lancefields' groups A-O refer to what?
Streptococci are serotyped by what; using known antigens to
cell wall carbohydrates?
Q1375:S. pyogenes;Lancefield group; hemolysis; and
important lab characteristics
Lancefield Group: A;Hemolysis: beta;Bacitracin-sensitive;
PYR test positive
Q1376:S. agalactiae;Lancefield group; hemolysis; and
important lab characteristics
Lancefield Group: B;Hemolysis: beta;Bacitracin resistant;
hippurate utilized; cAMP test positive
Q1377:Enterococcus faecalis;Lancefield group; hemolysis; and
important lab characteristics
Lancefield Group: D;Hemolysis: alpha; beta or none;Growth
in 6.5% NaCl; PYR test positive
Q1378:S. bovis;Lancefield group; hemolysis; and important
lab characteristics
Lancefield Group: D;Hemolysis: alpha or none;No growth in
6.5% NaCl
Q1379:S. pneumonia;Lancefield group; hemolysis; and
important lab characteristics
Lancefield Group: not groupable;Hemolysis: alpha;bile-
soluble; inhibited by optochin
Q1380:S. viridans;Lancefield group; hemolysis; and important
lab characteristics
Lancefield Group: not groubable;Hemolysis: beta;not bile-
soluble; not inhibited by optochin
Q1381:Diseases caused by S. pyogenes
pharyngitis; scarlet fever; pyoderma; impetigo;... can all be
caused by what?
Q1382:Rheumatic fever occurs after this; and manifests
through this mechanism
post-streptococcal pharyngitis with group A strep;antibodies
to heart tissue (mean 19 days);fever; joint inflammation;
carditis
Q1383:post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis occurs after this
infection; and manifests in this manner.
post-strep pharyngitis; immune complexes bind to glomeruli;
leading to pulmonary edema; hypertension and dark urine.
Q1384:Group B Strep = Strep agalactiae;commonly causes
what?
Neonatal septicemia and meningitis
Q1385:Treatment for group B strep
ampicillin with cefotaxime or gentamicin
Q1386:Predisposing conditions for strep pneumoniae
pneumonia
antecedent influeza or measles infection; COPD; congestive
heart failure; alcoholism; asplenia;... predispose to what
infection?
Q1387:Pathogenic factors in Strep pneumo
IgA protease aids colonization;Teichoic acids aid attachment
and are highly inflammatory in CNS;Polysaccharide capsule;
major virulence factor; inhibits phagocytosis;pneumolysin O
is a hemolysin
Q1388:postive Quelling reaction
this test demonstrates capsular swelling with type-specific
antiserum in Strep pneumo
Q1389:positive latex particle agglutination test
this test for capsular antigen in spinal fluid is diagnostic for S.
pneumo meningitis
Q1390:Actions of pneumolysin O
This hemolysin/cytolysin in S. pneumo causes;damage to
respiratory epithelium;inhibition of classical complement
fixation;inhibition of leukocyte respiratory burst
Q1391:Most common cause of adult meningitis
S. pneumo-- most common cause of what in adults?
Q1392:Most common cause of otitis media and sinusitis in
children
S. pneumo-- most common cause of what in children?
Q1393:Reason for S. pneumo resistance to penicillin
chromosomal-- altered penicillin binding proteins
Q1394:treatment of S. viridans infective endocarditis
penicillin G with aminoglycoside useful for treatment of this
Strep infection
Q1395:Pathogenesis of enterococcus endocarditis
medical procedures in GI or GU tract --> bloodstream -->
previously damaged heart valves --> endocarditis
Q1396:Disease associated with group D Gram-positive cocci
in chains; PYR test +; with variable hemolysis
urinary and biliary tract infections
Q1397:vancomycin resistance in enterococcus faecalis
resistant strains of this have D-alanyl D-lactate as terminal of
the UDP-N-acetylmuramyl pentapeptide; which functions in
cell wall synthesis but is not inhibited by the drug in question
Q1398:4 Lactose Fermenters
CEEK;1. Citrobacter;2. Enterobacter;3. E.coli;4. Klebsiella
Q1399:Non Lactose Fermenters
SHYPS;1. Shigella;2. Yersinia enterolytica;3. Proteus;4.
Salmonella
Q1400:6 Bacteria that may lack color
These rascals may microscopically lack color;1. Treponema;2.
Rickettsia;3. Mycobacterium;4. Mycoplasma;5. Legionella;6.
Chlamydia
Q1401:4 Microbes that increase cAMP
CAPE;1. Cholera;2. Anthracis (poly D glutamate capsule);3.
Pertussis (via Gi);4. E. coli (LT enterotoxin)
Q1402:Bacteria that have capsules
Some killers have pretty nice capsules;1. Strep pneumo;2.
Klebsiella;3. H. influenza ;4. P. aeruginosa;5. Neisseria
meningitidis;6. Cryptococcus neoformans
Q1403:5 Dimorphic Fungi
Can Also Have Both Shapes;1. Cocciodes;2. Aspergillus;3.
Histoplasma;4. Blastomyces;5. Sporothrix
Q1404:Spore forming bacteria
Bacillus;Clostridium
Q1405:Have IgA proteases
SHiN;Strep pneumo;H. influenza;Neisseria
Q1406:Wayson's stain
Yersinia
Q1407:Invasins
Yersinia Pseudotuberculosis
Q1408:2 Obligate Aerobes
Pseudomonas;Mycobacterium
Q1409:3 obligate Anaerobes
Clostridium;Actinomyces;Bacteroides
Q1410:A protein;Catalase +;Coagulase +
S. aureus
Q1411:2 Non-motile Gram + rods
C. diphtheria;Nocardia
Q1412:Lancet shaped diplococci
Strep pneumo
Q1413:Gull's wings; comma shaped
Campylobacter
Q1414:Club shaped non-motile gram + rod
C. diphtheria
Q1415:Safety pin shaped bacteria
Yersinia
Q1416:Intranuclear Cowdry body inclusions
HSV
Q1417:Guarnieri intracytoplasmic and acidophilic inclusions
Pox virus
Q1418:2 Coagulase + microbes
S. aureus;Yersinia pestis
Q1419:3 Obligate Intracellular microbes
Chlamydia;Rickettsia;M. leprae
Q1420:Fried egg colonies on Eaton Agar
Mycoplasma pneumonia
Q1421:Spaghetti and Meat ball appearance
Malassazia furfur
Q1422:Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis
Measles
Q1423:Non-motile Bacilli and Clostridium
B. anthracis;C. perfringens
Q1424:Indian ink
Cryptococcus neoformans
Q1425:4 microbes that need Cysteine for growth
Francisella;Brucella;Legionella;Pastuerella
Q1426:Ecthyema Gangrenosum microbe
P. aeruginosa
Q1427:alpha hemolysis;Optochin Sensitive
Strep pneumo
Q1428:alpha hemolysis;Optochin Resistant
Strep. viridans
Q1429:Novobiocin resistant
Staph Saprophyticus
Q1430:Novobiocin sensitive
Staph Epidermidis
Q1431:Beta hemolysis;Bacitracin Sensitive
Strep. pyogenes
Q1432:Beta hemolysis;Bacitracin resistant
S. Agalactiae
Q1433:Lecithinase
Clostridium Perfringens
Q1434:Gas Gangrene
C. perfringens
Q1435:2 C. difficile toxins
Enterotoxin;Cytotoxin
Q1436:Microbe whose toxin inhibits ACh release and causes
Flaccid paralysis
C. botulinum
Q1437:Floppy baby Syndrome due to toxin in honey
Infant Botulinum
Q1438:Thayer Martin Agar
Neisseria
Q1439:DOC for N. gonorrhoeae
Ceftriazone
Q1440:Alcoholics;Aspiration pneumonia;Abscesses in lungs
Klebsiella
Q1441:Rice water diarrhea
V. cholera
Q1442:Cat bites
Pasteurella multocida
Q1443:Bordet Gengou agar
Bordetella pertussis = whooping cough
Q1444:Lowenstein-Jensen medium
M. tuberculosis
Q1445:Bacteria that has the only protein capsule
B. anthracis
Q1446:2 bacteria that have + Weil Felix reactions
Rickettsia;Proteus
Q1447:Tx for Staph aureus
Methicillin
Q1448:Tx for Clostridium difficile
Metronidazole
Q1449:Tx for Nocardia
Sulfonamides
Q1450:Tx for Actinomyces isrealli
Penicillin
Q1451:Tx for H. influenza meningitis
Ceftriaxone
Q1452:Tx for Legionella pneumophila
Erythromycin
Q1453:Tx for Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Aminoglycoside plus extended-spectrum penicillin
(piperacillin; ticarcillin)
Q1454:Tx for H. pylori
Triple therapy- (1)Bismuth; metronidazole & either
tetracycline or amoxicillin;(2)Metronidazole; omeprazole;
clarithromycin
Q1455:Tx for Gardnerella vaginalis
Metronidazole
Q1456:Tx for Leprosy
Long-term oral dapsone;Alternate tx's include rifampin &
combo of clofazimine & dapsone
Q1457:Tx for Rickettsiae
Tetracycline
Q1458:Tx for Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Tetracycline or erythromycin
Q1459:Tx for Chlamydiae
Erythromycin or tetracycline
Q1460:Tx for Borrelia burgdorferi
Tetracycline
Q1461:Tx for Treponema pallidum
Penicillin G
Q1462:Tx for Candida albicans
Nystatin for superficial infection; amphotericin B for serious
systemic infection
Q1463:Tx for Coccidioidomycosis
Local infection: fluconazole or ketoconazole;Systemic
infection: amphotericin B
Q1464:Tx for Histoplasmosis
Local infection: fluconazole or ketoconazole;Systemic
infection: amphotericin B
Q1465:Tx for Paracoccidioidomycosis
Local infection: fluconazole or ketoconazole;Systemic
infection: amphotericin B
Q1466:Tx for Blastomycosis
Local infection: fluconazole or ketoconazole;Systemic
infection: amphotericin B
Q1467:Tx for Pneumocystis carinii
TMP-SMX
Q1468:Tx for Sporothrix schenckii
Itraconazole or Potassium iodidie
Q1469:Tx for E. histolytica
Metronidazole & iodoquinol
Q1470:Tx for Giardia
Metronidazole
Q1471:Tx for Babesia
Quinine; clindamycin
Q1472:Tx for Toxoplasma
Sulfadiazine & Pyrimethamine
Q1473:Tx for Plasmodium
Chloroquine; sulfadoxine & pyrimethamine; mefloquine;
quinine
Q1474:Tx for Trichomonas vaginalis
Metronidazole
Q1475:Tx for Trypanosoma cruzi
Nifurtimox
Q1476:Tx for Leishmania donovani
Sodium stibogluconate
Q1477:Tx for Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Erythromycin & antitoxin
Q1478:Tx for Fusobacterium nucleatum
Penicillin G
Q1479:Tx for Strep pneumoniae
Penicillin
Q1480:Tx for Bordetella pertussis
Erythromycin
Q1481:Tx for Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Isoniazid; rifampin; pyrazinimide; ethambutoll
Q1482:Tx for Salmonella
Chloramphenicol(for enteric fever); can also use ampicillin
Q1483:Tx for Shigella
Only tx s. dysenteriae
Q1484:Tx for E. coli
Ciprofloxacin & penicillin
Q1485:Tx for Vibrio cholerae
Fluid replacement plus tetracycline to keep from spread of
organism
Q1486:Tx for Bacteroides fragilis
Metronidazole
Q1487:Tx for Proteus mirabilis
Ampicillin; cephalosporin
Q1488:Tx for Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Ceftriaxone & tetracycline;Silver nitrate to prevent infant eye
infection
Q1489:Tx for Strep agalactiae
Penicillin G
Q1490:Tx for Neisseria meningitidis
High dose IV Penicillin;Prevention w/ rifampin or
ciprofloxacin
Q1491:Tx for Clostridium tetani
Penicillin & antitoxin
Q1492:Tx for Strep viridans
Penicillin w/ addition of aminoglycoside if resistant
Q1493:Tx for Clostridium perfringens
Penicillin & antitoxin
Q1494:Tx for Listeria monocytogenes
Ampicillin
Q1495:Tx for Yersinia pestis
Streptomycin
Q1496:Tx for Ehrlichia
Doxycycline
Q1497:Tx for Coxiella burnetii
Doxycycline
Q1498:Tx for Francisella tularensis
Streptomycin
Q1499:Tx for Brucella
Tetracycline & streptomycin
Q1500:Tx for Bacillus anthracis
IV Penicillin
Q1501:Which DNA viruses are double stranded?
All DNA viruses except for Parvoviridae;Mnemonic: All are
dsDNA like ours; except "Part-of-a-virus" which is ss.
Q1502:Which DNA viruses are single stranded?
Parvoviridae
Q1503:Which DNA viruses have linear genomes?
All except papova virus and hepadna which are circular
Q1504:Which DNA viruses have circular genomes?
papova virus and hepadna which are circular
Q1505:Which RNA viruses are single stranded?
All except Reovirus (ds);Mnemonic: All are ssRNA like ours;
except "RepatO-virus" which is ds.
Q1506:Which RNA viruses are double stranded?
Reovirus (ds);Mnemonic: All are ssRNA like ours; except
"RepatO-virus" which is ds.
Q1507:Which DNA viruses have infectious naked nucleic
acids?
Most dsDNA (except poxvirus and HBV)
Q1508:Which DNA viruses have non-infectious naked nucleic
acids?
poxvirus and HBV
Q1509:Which RNA viruses have infectious naked nucleic
acids?
#NAME?
Q1510:Which RNA viruses have noninfectious naked nucleic
acids?
- strand ssRNA;Mnemonic: Always Bring Polymerase Or
Fail Replication;1. Arena;2. Bunya;3. Paramyxo;4.
Orthomyxo;5. Filo;6. Rhabdo
Q1511:Which enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes from
the plasma membrane?
All except herpesviruses (nuclear membrane)
Q1512:Which enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes from
the nuclear membrane?
Only herpesviruses
Q1513:Which viruses are haploid?
All except retroviruses (diploid)
Q1514:Which viruses are diploid?
Retroviruses
Q1515:Where do DNA viruses replicate?
In the nucleus (except pox)
Q1516:Where do RNA viruses replicate?
Cytoplasm (except influenza and retroviruses)
Q1517:DNA virus families
Mnemonic: DNA viruses are HHAPPPy;1. Hepadna;2.
Herpesviruses;3. Adenovirus;4. Parvovirus;5. Papovavirus;6.
Poxvirus
Q1518:Which DNA viruses are icosahedral?
All except pox (complex)
Q1519:Which DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus?
All except pox (carries own DNA-dependent RNA
polymerases)
Q1520:Which DNA viruses are naked?
Mnem: Get naked for your PAP;1. Parvo;2. Adeno;3. Papova
Q1521:Which DNA viruses are enveloped?
HPH;1. Hepadna;2. Pox;3. Herpes
Q1522:Humoral or Cell-mediated immunity: Live attenuated
vaccines
Both (with a few cases of reversion to virulence)
Q1523:Humoral or Cell-mediated immunity: Killed vaccines
Humoral immunity (stable)
Q1524:Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: MMR
vaccine
Live attenuated; egg-based;Mnemonic: FRY an egg (Flu;
mmR; Yellow fever)
Q1525:Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Sabin polio
vaccine
Live attenuated
Q1526:Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: VZV vaccine
Live attenuated
Q1527:Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Yellow fever
vaccine
Live attenuated; egg-based;Mnemonic: FRY an egg (Flu;
mmR; Yellow fever)
Q1528:Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Smallpox
vaccine
Live attenuated
Q1529:Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Adenovirus
vaccine
Live attenuated
Q1530:Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Rabies
vaccine
Killed;Mnemonic: RIP Always (Rabies; Influenza; salk Polio;
hAv)
Q1531:Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Influenza
vaccine
Killed; egg-based;Mnemonic: FRY an egg (Flu; mmR; Yellow
fever);Mnemonic: RIP Always (Rabies; Influenza; salk Polio;
hAv)
Q1532:Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Salk polio
vaccine
Killed;Mnemonic: RIP Always (Rabies; Influenza; salk Polio;
hAv)
Q1533:Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: HAV vaccine
Killed;Mnemonic: RIP Always (Rabies; Influenza; salk Polio;
hAv)
Q1534:Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: HBV vaccine
Recombinant (antigen is recombinant HBsAg)
Q1535:Definition: Viral recombination
Exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes by crossing over
within regions of significant base sequence homology
Q1536:What is this viral process: Exchange of genes between
2 chromosomes by crossing over within regions of significant
base sequence homology
Viral recombination
Q1537:Definition: Viral Reassortment
Viruses with segmented genomes exchange segments. Same as
high frequency recombination. Cause of worldwide
pandemics.
Q1538:What is this viral process: Viruses with segmented
genomes exchange segments.
Viral Reassortment;Same as high frequency recombination.
Cause of worldwide pandemics.
Q1539:Definition: Viral Complementation
When 1 of 2 viruses that infect the cell has a mutation that
results in nonfunctional protein and the non-mutated virus
"complements" the mutated one by making a functional
protein that serves both viruses.
Q1540:What is this viral process: When 1 of 2 viruses that
infect the cell has a mutation that results in nonfunctional
protein and the non-mutated virus makes a functional protein
that serves both viruses.
Viral Complementation
Q1541:Definition: Viral Phenotypic Mixing
Genome of virus A can be coated with the surface proteins of
virus B. Type B protein coat determines the infectivity of the
phenotypically mixed virus. Progeny of type A however have
type A coat from type A genes.
Q1542:What is this viral process: Genome of virus A can be
coated with the surface proteins of virus B. Type B protein
coat determines the infectivity of the phenotypically mixed
virus.
Viral Phenotypic Mixing;Progeny of type A however have
type A coat from type A genes.
Q1543:What does it mean for a virus to be naked?
It has only a nucleocapsid; and no envelope.
Q1544:Which RNA viruses are enveloped?
1. Measles;2. Mumps;3. Rubella;4. RSV;5. Rabies;6.
HTLV;7. HIV;8. Influenza;9. Parainfluenza;Mnem:
MMRRHHflu
Q1545:Which RNA viruses are naked?
Mnemonic: Naked CPR;1. Calicivirus;2. Picornavirus
[Enteroviruses (polio; coxsackie; echo; HAV); Rhino];3.
Reovirus
Q1546:What does it mean for viruses to be negative stranded?
Must transcribe negative strand to positive; using RNA
polymerase.
Q1547:Negative stranded viruses
Mnem: Always Bring Polymerase or Fail Replication;1.
Arenaviruses;2. Bunyaviruses;3. Paramyxoviruses;4.
Orthomyxoviruses;5. Filoviruses;6. Rhabdoviruses
Q1548:Segmented viruses
Mnem: BOAR;1. Bunyaviruses;2. Orthomyxoviruses (flu);3.
Arenaviruses;4. Reovirus
Q1549:How many segments in influenza?
8
Q1550:Which RNA viruses are linear?
All except the BAD seeds (Bunyavirus; Arenavirus;
Deltavirus)
Q1551:Which RNA viruses are circular?
the BAD seeds;1. Bunya;2. Arena;3. Delta
Q1552:Which RNA viruses are icosahedral?
Naked (CPR)
FaRT;1.Calici;2.Picorna;3.Reo;4.Flavi;5.Retro;6.Toga
Q1553:Which RNA viruses are helical?
Mnemonic: The COP BARFeD up a helix;1. Corona;2.
Orthomyxo;3. Paramyxo;4. Bunya;5. Arena;6. Rhabdo;7.
Filo;8. Delta
Q1554:Which viruses have reverse transcriptase?
Retro and HBV
Q1555:Medical importance of HSV-1
1. Oral (and some genital) lesions (Gingivostomatitis);2.
Keratoconjunctivitis;3. Temporal lobe encephalitis
Q1556:Medical importance of HSV-2
Genital (and some oral) lesions
Q1557:Medical importance of VZV
1. Chickenpox;2. Shingles;3. Encephalitis;4. Pneumonia
Q1558:Medical importance of EBV
1. Mononucleosis;2. Burkitt's lymphoma
Q1559:Medical importance of CMV
1. Infection in immunosuppressed (especially transplant);2.
Congenital defects;3. Mononucleosis (negativie Monospot);4.
Pneumonia
Q1560:Medical importance of HHV-6
Roseola (exanthem subitum);1. High fever lasting 3 to 5 days
which resolves and is followed by a;2. Rash: mostly on trunk;
lasting a day or two
Q1561:Medical importance of HHV-8
Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpesvirus
Q1562:List of important Herpesviruses
HSV 1 and 2; VZV; EBV; CMV; HHV 6 and 8
Q1563:Medical importance of Adenovirus
1. Febrile pharyngitis (sore throat);2. Pneumonia;3.
Conjunctivitis (pink eye)
Q1564:Medical importance of Parvovirus
B19 virus causes;1. Aplastic crises in sickle cell disease;2.
"slapped cheeks" rash---erythema infectiosum (fifth
disease);3. Hydrops fetalis
Q1565:List of Papova viruses
1. PApilloma;2. POlyoma (human BK and JC);3. Simian
VAcuolating virus (does not affect humans)
Q1566:Medical importance of Papilloma virus
causes warts and cervical cancer; including CIN (cervical
intraepithelial neoplasia)
Q1567:Medical importance of JC virus
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy in HIV
Q1568:List of Pox viruses
1. Smallpox;2. Vaccinia (cowpox "milkmaid's blisters");3.
Molluscum contagiosum
Q1569:List of Picornaviruses
Mnemonic: PERCH on a "peak";1. Poliovirus;2. Echovirus;3.
Rhinovirus;4. Coxsackievirus;5. HAV
Q1570:Medical importance of Poliovirus
Fecal-oral transmission
Q1571:What is IPV?
Inactivated polio vaccine (Salk)
Q1572:What is OPV?
Oral Polio vaccine (Sabin)
Q1573:Medical importance of Echovirus
Aseptic meningitis
Q1574:Medical importance of Rhinovirus
"common cold"
Q1575:Medical importance of Coxsackie virus
1. Aseptic meningitis;2. herpangina-febrile pharyngitis;3.
hand; foot; and mouth disease;4. myocarditis
Q1576:List of Caliciviruses
HEV; Norwalk virus
Q1577:Medical importance of Norwalk virus
viral gastroenteritis
Q1578:List of Reoviruses
Reovirus; Rotavirus
Q1579:Medical importance of Reovirus sp.
Colorado tick fever
Q1580:Medical importance of Rotavirus
#1 cause of fatal diarrhea in children
Q1581:Medical importance of Flavivirus
1. HCV;2. Yellow fever;3. Dengue;4. St. Louis encephalitis;5.
West Nile virus
Q1582:List of Arboviruses
Arboviruses are ARthropod BOrne viruses;1. Togaviridae;2.
Flaviviridae;3. Bunyaviridae
Q1583:Medical importance of Togaviruses
1. Rubella (German measles);2. Eastern equine encephalitis;3.
Western equine encephalitis
Q1584:List of Retroviruses
1. HIV;2. HTLV
Q1585:Medical importance of Coronavirus
1. common cold;2. SARS
Q1586:Medical importance of Orthomyxovirus
Influenza
Q1587:List of Paramyxoviruses
PaRaMyxovirus;1. Parainfluenza;2. RSV;3. Measles;4.
Mumps
Q1588:Medical importance of Parainfluenza
croup
Q1589:Medical importance of RSV
Bronchiolitis in babies. Treat with Ribavirin.
Q1590:Medical importance of Rhabdoviruses
Rabies
Q1591:Medical importance of Filoviruses
Ebola or Marburg hemorrhagic fever; both are often fatal
Q1592:Medical importance of Arenaviruses
1. LCV (lymphocytic choriomeningitis);2. Meningitis (spread
by mice)
Q1593:Medical importance of LCV
lymphocytic choriomeningitis
Q1594:Medical importance of Hantavirus
hemorrhagic fever; pneumonia
Q1595:Medical importance of Bunyaviruses
1. California encephalitis;2. Sandfly/Rift Valley fevers;3.
Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever;4. Hantavirus
Q1596:Characterize Picornaviruses
1. 1 large polypeptide that is cleaved by proteases into
functional viral proteins;2. All except Rhino and HAV can
cause aseptic meningitis
Q1597:How many serotypes of Rhinovirus?
100
Q1598:Mechanism of rotavirus diarrhea
Villous destruction with atrophy leads to decreased
absorption of Na and water
Q1599:How many serotypes of Paramyxovirus?
all viruses have 1 except parainfluenza which has 4
Q1600:Signs and symptoms of mumps
Mnemonic: Mumps make your parotid glands and testes as
big as POM-poms;1. Parotitis;2. Orchitis (inflammation of
testes; can cause sterility especially after puberty);3.
Meningitis
Q1601:Signs and symptoms of measles
1. Koplik spots (bluish-gray spots on buccal mucosa)
diagnostic;2. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (child; many
years after measles infection; slowly progressing);3.
Encephalitis;4. Giant cell pneumonia (in
immunosuppressed);5. 3 Cs: (Cough; coryza;
conjunctivitis);6. Head to toe rash lasting 6 days (slowly
dripping bucket of paint)
Q1602:Antigens in influenza virus
Hemaglutinin and Neuraminidase
Q1603:Difference between genetic drift and shift
Drift: Minor changes based on random mutation;Shift:
Reassortment of viral genome (such as when flu A virus
recombines with swine flu A virus);Sudden Shift is more
deadly than graDual Drift
Q1604:Treatment for influenza
A only: Amantadine and rimantadine;A and B: Zanamivir and
Oseltamivir (neuraminidase inhibitors) for both influenza A
and B
Q1605:What are negri bodies?
Characteristic cytoplasmic inclusions in neurons infected by
rabies virus.
Q1606:What shape is the rabies capsid?
Bullet shaped.
Q1607:Mechanism of rabies disease
1. Animal bite;2. Virus travels to CNS in retrograde fashion
up nerve axons;3. Incubates for weeks to 3 months
Q1608:What does rabies cause?
Fatal enchephalitis with seizures and hydrophobia
Q1609:How is rabies acquired?
US: Skunk; raccoon and bat bites;Abroad: Dog bites
Q1610:What is dengue fever?
break-bone fever; caused by flaviviruses. A variant in
Southeast Asia is hemorrhagic shock syndrome.
Q1611:How is yellow fever transmitted?
Arbovirus; by Aedes mosquitos; from monkey or human
reservoir
Q1612:Signs and symptoms of yellow fever
1. High fever;2. Black vomitus;3. Jaundice;4. Councilman
bodies in liver (nonspecific)
Q1613:How is HSV-1 transmitted?
Respiratory secretions and saliva
Q1614:How is HSV-2 transmitted?
Sexual contact and perinatally
Q1615:How is VZV transmitted?
Respiratory secretions
Q1616:How is EBV transmitted?
Respiratory secretions; saliva
Q1617:How is CMV transmitted?
1. Congenital;2. Transfusion;3. Sexual contact;4. Saliva;5.
Urine;6. Transplant
Q1618:How is HHV-8 transmitted?
Sexual contact
Q1619:Treatment for CMV
Ganciclovir or Foscarnet
Q1620:What kind of cell does Epstein Barr virus infect?
B cells
Q1621:How does mononucleosis present?
1. Fever;2. Hepatosplenomegaly;3. Pharyngitis;4.
Lymphadenopathy (especially posterior auricular nodes)
Q1622:Peak incidence of mononucleosis
15-20 years old (peak kissing years)
Q1623:Laboratory diagnosis of mononucleosis
1. Monospot test: Heterophil antibodies detected by
agglutination of sheep RBCs. In EBV; positive. In CMV;
negative;2. Abnormal circulating CD8 cells.
Q1624:Tzanck test
Smear of opened skin vesicle to detect multinucleated giant
cells. Used to assay for HSV-1; HSV-2; VZV;Mnem: Tzanck
heavens I do not have herpes. (helps if you do it in an eastern
european accent)
Q1625:HAV: Virus family; nucleic acid type; envelope;
incubation period; transmission; carriers
Virus family: ssRNA picornavirus;Envelope: no;Incubation
period: Short (3 weeks);Transmission: Fecal-oral;Carriers: No
Q1626:HBV: Virus family; nucleic acid type; envelope;
incubation period; transmission; carriers
Virus family: dsDNA hepadna virus;Envelope: yes;Incubation
period: Long (3 months);Transmission: Parenteral; sexual; in
utero;Carriers: Yes
Q1627:HCV: Virus family; nucleic acid type; envelope;
incubation period; transmission; carriers
Virus family: ssRNA flavivirus;Envelope: yes;Incubation
period: Variable (2 weeks to 5 months);Transmission:
Blood;Carriers: Yes
Q1628:HDV: Virus family; nucleic acid type; envelope;
incubation period; transmission; carriers
Virus family: ssRNA deltavirus;Envelope: yes;Incubation
period: Variable (2 weeks to 2 months);Transmission:
Parenteral; sexual; in utero;Carriers: Yes
Q1629:HEV: Virus family; nucleic acid type; envelope;
incubation period; transmission; carriers
Virus family: ssRNA calicivirus;Envelope: no;Incubation
period: Variable (2 weeks to 2 months);Transmission: Fecal-
oral;Carriers: No
Q1630:Characterize Hepatitis A
1. Asymptomatic (usually);2. Acute;3. Alone (no carriers;
naked ssRNA)
Q1631:Characterize Hepatitis B
Blood borne
Q1632:Characterize Hepatitis C
1. Chronic;2. Cirrhosis;3. Carcinoma;4. Carriers
Q1633:Characterize Hepatitis D
1. Defective;2. Dependent on HBV
Q1634:Characterize Hepatitis E
1. Enteric;2. Expectant mothers (high mortality rate);3.
Epidemics
Q1635:What does IgM HAVAb measure?
IgM antibody to HAV. Best test to detect active Hepatitis A.
Q1636:What does HBsAg measure?
HBV surface antigen. Continued presence indicates carrier
state.
Q1637:What does HBsAb measure?
Antibody to HBsAg. Provides immunity to hepatitis B.
Q1638:What does HBcAg measure?
Antigen associated with core of HBV; doesn't seem to be
measured.
Q1639:What does HBcAb measure?
Antibody to core antigen. Positive during window period (no
HBsAg or HBsAb detected). IgM HBcAb is an indicator of
recent disease.
Q1640:What does HBeAg measure?
A second different antigenic determinant in the HBV core.
Important indicator of transmissibility. (BEware!)
Q1641:What does HBeAb measure?
Antibody to e antigen; indicates low transmissibility.
Q1642:Characterize this patient;HBsAg is positive;HBsAb is
negative;HBcAb is positive;
Acute disease. (HBcAb is IgM in acute stage; and IgG in
chronic or recovered stage.)
Q1643:Characterize this patient;HBsAg is negative;HBsAb is
negative;HBcAb is positive;
Window phase; follows acute infection.
Q1644:Characterize this patient;HBsAg is negative;HBsAb is
positive;HBcAb is positive;
Complete recovery.
Q1645:Characterize this patient;HBsAg is positive;HBsAb is
negative;HBcAb is positive;
Chronic carrier. (Surface antibody is present; but bound to
surface antigen.)
Q1646:What is gag?
Gene that encodes for p24 capsid; the nucleocapsid in HIV
Q1647:What is env?
Gene that encodes for gp41 and gp120 proteins; the envelope
proteins in HIV.
Q1648:What is p17?
Interior envelope protein in HIV
Q1649:What is p24?
Nucleocapsid protein in HIV; coded for by gag gene.
Q1650:What is gp41?
Envelope protein which traverses bilayer. If it is a mushroom
stalk; then gp120 is the head. Both coded for by env.
Q1651:What is gp120?
Envelope protein that serves as mushroom cap to gp41 stalk.
Both coded for by env.
Q1652:What is pol?
Gene which codes for HIV reverse transcriptase
Q1653:HIV diagnostic tests
Presumptive diagnosis: ELISA (sensitive; high false-positive
rate; and low threshhold);Confirmation: Western blot assay
(specific; high false-negative rate; and high threshold);PCR
viral load used to monitor drug therapy on viral load
Q1654:Timeframe for HIV diagnosis
ELISA/Western blot often;Falsely negative in first 1-2 months
of HIV infection;Falsely positive initially in babies born to
infected mothers (anti-gp120 crosses placenta)
Q1655:AIDS diagnosis
One of the following;1. less than 200 CD4 cells;2. HIV
positive with AIDS indicator condition (eg pneumocystis
infection);3. CD4/CD8 ratio less than 1.5
Q1656:CCR5 mutation: What does it mean?
HIV susceptibility;Homozygous means immunity;
heterozygous means slower course (long-term non
production)
Q1657:CXCR1 mutation
HIV susceptibility. Rapid progression to AIDS.
Q1658:What is the likelihood of CCR5 mutation?
% of US caucasians;Homozygous: 1;Heterozygous: 20
Q1659:Relative HIV-related levels aproximately 1.5 months
after infection
In descending order;1. CD4 lymphocytes (initial trough);2.
Virus p24 antigen (initial peak);3. Anti-p24 Ab;4. Anti-gp120
Abs;Highest period of acute symptoms
Q1660:Relative HIV-related levels aproximately 2 months
after infection
In descending order;1. CD4 lymphocytes (rise from initial
trough back to near pre-infection levels before leveling out
[the mark of end of acute symptoms]);2. Anti-p24 Ab
(Reaching peak [not reached until approximately 3 years]);3.
Anti-gp120 Abs (Reaching peak [not reached until
approximately 3 years]);4. Virus p24 antigen (very low
levels)
Q1661:Relative HIV-related levels more than 3 years after
infection: Early phase
In descending order;1. CD4 lymphocytes (begins linear
descent);2. Anti-p24 Ab (descent begins at faster rate than
CD4);3. Anti-gp120 Abs (slow descent begins);4. Virus p24
antigen (slow rise)
Q1662:Relative HIV-related levels more than 3 years after
infection: First middle phase
In descending order;1. CD4 lymphocytes (continues linear
descent);2. Anti-gp120 Abs (slow descent continues);3. Anti-
p24 Ab (having dropped below Anti-gp120; descent
continues at slower rate);4. Virus p24 antigen (fast rise
begins)
Q1663:Relative HIV-related levels more than 3 years after
infection: Second middle phase
In descending order;1. CD4 lymphocytes (continues linear
descent);AND;1. Virus p24 antigen (already passed gp-120
Abs and about to pass CD4 lymphocytes);3. Anti-gp120 Abs
(slow descent continues);3. Anti-p24 Ab (approximately 1/3
amount of p24 antigen; slow descent continues)
Q1664:Relative HIV-related levels more than 3 years after
infection: Third middle phase
In descending order;1. Virus p24 antigen (already passed gp-
120 Abs and about to pass CD4 lymphocytes);2. CD4
lymphocytes (continues linear descent; about to drop below
anti-g120 Abs);3. Anti-gp120 Abs (slow descent
continues);4. Anti-p24 Ab (approximately 1/3 to 1/4 amount
of p24 antigen; slow descent continues)
Q1665:Relative HIV-related levels more than 3 years after
infection: Late phase
In descending order;1. Virus p24 antigen (leveled out at nearly
20x anti-p24 antibody);2. Anti-gp120 Abs (little less than
half p24 antigen);3. Anti-p24 Ab (1/20 amount of p24
antigen);AND;3. CD4 lymphocytes
Q1666:Opportunistic infections and disease in AIDS
attacking the brain
1. Cryptococcal meningitis;2. Toxoplasmosis;3. CMV
encephalopathy;4. AIDS dementia;5. PML (JC virus)
Q1667:Opportunistic infections and disease in AIDS
attacking the eyes
CMV retinitis
Q1668:Opportunistic infections and disease in AIDS
attacking the mouth and throat
1. Thrush (Candida albicans);2. HSV;3. CMV;4. Oral hairy
leukoplakia (EBV)
Q1669:Opportunistic infections and disease in AIDS
attacking the lungs
1. Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP);2. TB;3. Histoplasmosis
Q1670:Opportunistic infections and disease in AIDS
attacking the GI tract
1. Cryptosporidiosis;2. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare
complex;3. CMV colitis;4. non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (EBV)
Q1671:Opportunistic infections and disease in AIDS
attacking the skin
1. Shingles (VZV);2. Kaposi's sarcoma (HHV-8)
Q1672:Opportunistic infections and disease in AIDS
attacking the genitals
1. Genital herpes;2. Genital warts;3. Cervical cancer (HPV)
Q1673:When does HIV encephalitis occur?
Late in the course of HIV infection
Q1674:Mechanism of HIV encephalitis
Virus gains CNS access via infected macrophages
Q1675:Pathologic presentation of HIV encephalitis
Microglial nodules with multinucleated giant cells
Q1676:What are prions?
Infectious agents that do not contain RNA or DNA; only
proteins; that are encoded by cellular genes.
Q1677:Diseases caused by prions
1. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease;2. Kuru;3. Scrapie (in sheep);4.
Mad cow disease (association with human spongiform
encephalopathy);5. Fatal familial insomnia
Q1678:What is Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
Prion caused disease with rapid progressive dementia
Q1679:Mechanism of prion pathology
Normal proteins (alpha-helices) become pathologic (beta-
pleated sheets)
Q1680:DNA viruses
HHAPPPy
viruses!;Herpes;Hepadna;Adeno;Papova;Parvo;Pox
Q1681:adenovirus basics
linear dsDNA;naked
Q1682:adenovirus transmission
resp; ocular secretions
Q1683:adenovirus sx
acute resp dz (ARD);conjunctivitis;gastroenteritis
Q1684:adenovirus vaccine
live nonattentuated;oral;used in military
Q1685:papovaviruses include
HPV;BK;JC;PA/PO/VAviruses are all abbreviated!
Q1686:JC virus causes
PML (progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy);esp in
AIDS pts
Q1687:herpesvirus basics
large dsDNA virus;enveloped
Q1688:VZV transmission
resp secretions
Q1689:chickenpox incubation
2 wks
Q1690:varicella vaccine
live attenuated
Q1691:EBV transmission
saliva; resp secretions
Q1692:EBV associations
burkitt lymphoma;nasopharyngeal carcinoma;hairy oral
leukoplakia (immunocompromised)
Q1693:oncogene in burkitt lymphoma
c-myc
Q1694:EBV cells on peripheral smear
atypical lymphocytes = activated T cells;foamy cytoplasm
(Downy cells)
Q1695:Paul-Bunnell test
monospot
Q1696:blueberry muffin baby
deaf baby with hemorrhagic cutaneous lesions;*congenital
CMV*
Q1697:HHV-6
causes "sixth disease" = roseola = exanthema subitum
Q1698:HHV-8
cofactor in Kaposi sarcoma
Q1699:poxviruses include
variola (smallpox);molluscum contagiosum;cowpox
Q1700:umbilicated wart-like lesions
molluscum
Q1701:hepadnaviruses include
hepatitis B virus
Q1702:parvovirus (B19) basics
small ssDNA virus
Q1703:parvovirus causes
erythema infectiosum (fifth dz);aplastic crisis;hydrops fetalis
Q1704:picornavirus basics
(+)ssRNA;naked
Q1705:picornaviruses include
PERCH on a "peak"
(pico);Polio;ECHO;Rhino;Coxsackie;Hepatitis
Q1706:poliovirus vaccine(s)
live attenuated (oral);killed
Q1707:ECHO viruses
Enteric Cytopathic Human Orphan;infect GI tract; esp. in
summer;aseptic meningitis; fever; rash; enteritis; common
cold; hemorrhagic conjunctivitis
Q1708:coxsackie season
summer + fall
Q1709:coxsackie transmission
nasopharyngeal secretions;also fecal-oral
Q1710:hepatitis A caused by
enterovirus 72 (picornavirus)
Q1711:herpangina
coxsackie A
Q1712:hand-foot-and-mouth dz
coxsackie A
Q1713:Conjunctivitis; paryngitis;Dense basophilic
intranuclear inclusion bodies;Diarrhea in infant;Infectious
genome;Poorly chlorinated swimming pools
Double-stranded Naked DNA Adenovirus
Q1714:Culex mosquito;Arbovirus;Woods;La Crosse
virus;Encephalitis;Meningitis
Single-stranded (-) RNA enveloped;Circular genome California
encephalitis viruses (Bunyviruses)
Q1715:Hemorrhagic;Petechiae;Ecchymosis;Bleeding
tissues;Rodent feces and urine
Single-stranded (-) RNA Enveloped Hantavirus
(Bunyaviruses)
Q1716:Rodents;Flu-like symptoms;Slums;Ribavirin
Single-stranded (-) RNA enveloped;Circular genome
Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus (Arenaviruses)
Q1717:Hemorrhagic;Rodents
Single-stranded (-) RNA enveloped;Circular genome Lhassa
fever
Q1718:Common cold;SARS;Fecal-oral and respiratory spread
Single-stranded RNA (+) enveloped Coronaviruses
Q1719:Cowdry type A inclusion bodies;Neurotropic;Zanck
smear;Multinucleated giant cells Stress-induced recurrance
Encephalitis;Temporal lobe destruction;Blindness;Neonatal
infection
Double stranded DNA enveloped Herpes simplex virus
Q1720:only ssDNA virus
parvovirus (par one)
Q1721:only dsRNA virus
reovirus (REpeatOvirus)
Q1722:Naked RNA viruses
NAKED CPR;Calicivirus; Picornavirus; Reovirus
Q1723:Which virus acquires its envelop from nuclear
membrane
Herpesvirus
Q1724:which virus is diploid
retrovirus has 2 identical copies of ssRNA
Q1725:1. Where do DNA viruses replication;2. Exception
1. nucleus;2. poxvirus (carries its own DNA-dependent RNA
pol)
Q1726:1. Where do RNA viruses replication;2. exception
1. cytoplasm;2. influenza; retrovirus
Q1727:DNA viruses
HHAPPPy;Hepadna; Herpes;Adeno;Pox; Pavo; Papova
Q1728:All DNA viruses are linear except...
Papovavirus (circular; supercoiled);Hepadena (circular;
incomplete)
Q1729:All DNA viruses are ichosahedra except...
POX IN A BOX
Q1730:Naked DNA viruses
You need to be naked for a PAP;Papova;Adeno;Parvo
Q1731:Enveloped DNA
HPH;Hepadna;Pox;Herpes
Q1732:1. What type of immunity do live attenuated vaccines
confer?;2. Why can't they be given to immunocompromised
patients
Humoral and cell-mediated;may revert to virulence
Q1733:Immunity conferred by killed vaccines
humoral
Q1734:Which vaccines are live attenuated?
MMR;Sabin ;VZV;yellow fever;smallpox;adeno
Q1735:Which vaccines are killed?
RIP Always: Rabies; Infulenza; salk Polio; HAV;SalK =
Killed
Q1736:Egg-based
FRY an egg: Flu; MMR; Yellow fever
Q1737:Recombinant vaccine
HBV
Q1738:Negative stranded viruses
Always Bring Polymerase or Fail
Replication;Arenavirus;Bunyavirus;Paramyxovirus;Orthomys
ovirus;Filovirus;Rhabdovirus
Q1739:Segmented Viruses
BOAR;Bunya;Orthomyo;arena;reo
Q1740:Picornavirus
PERCH on a "peak";Polio;Echo;Rhino;Coxsachie;HAV
Q1741:MCC infantile gastroenteritis
Rota
Q1742:MCC common cold
rhino
Q1743:Name the 4 paramyxoviruses
PaRaMyxovirus;Parainfluenza - croup;RSV - bronchiolitis in
babies;Measles;Mumps
Q1744:Mumps: Virus; symptoms
1. paramyovirus w/ 1 serotype;2. Parotitis; orchitis; aspetic
Meningitis
Q1745:Koplik spots
measles
Q1746:Measles symptoms
3C's: cough; coryza; conjunctivitis
Q1747:Measles describe rash
head to toe spread
Q1748:Measles complications
subacute sclerosing panencephalitis SSPE;encephalitis;giant
cell pneumonia
Q1749:Influenza prophylaxis and tx
Influenza A prophylaxis: Amantadine and rimantadine;A and
B: Zanamivir and osteltamivir
Q1750:negri bodies
rabies
Q1751:bullet-shaped capsid
rabies
Q1752:HSV-1: diseases
Gingivostomatitis;Keratoconjunctivitis;oral (and some gential)
lesions;temporal lobe encephalitis
Q1753:heterophilic + mono
EBV
Q1754:roseola (exanthem subitum)
HHV-6
Q1755:adenovirus: diseases
pharyngitis & pneumonia;ARD;PCF;Keratoconjunctivitis;GU
infections;enteric infections
Q1756:fifth disease
B19 parvovirus
Q1757:parvovirus: diseases
fifth disease - erythema infectiosum;hydrops fetalis;aplastic
crises in sickle cell disease
Q1758:HHV8
kaposi sarcoma
Q1759:papova: diseases
HPV;JC - progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy;BK
Q1760:Pox: diseases
small pox;vaccinia - cowpox;molluscum contagiosum
Q1761:coxsackie: diseases
aspeptic meningitis;herpangina;hand/foot/mouth
disease;myocarditis
Q1762:calicivirus: diseases
HEV;norwalk - gastroenteritis
Q1763:Reo: diseases
Reo - colorado tick fever;rota
Q1764:#1 cause of fatal diarrhea in children
rotavirus (reovirus)
Q1765:Flavi: diseases
HCV;Yellow fever;dengue;st. louis encephalitis;west nile
Q1766:Togavirus: diseases
Rubella (germal measles);WEE;EEE
Q1767:Retro: diseases
HIV - AIDS;HTLV - T cell leukemia
Q1768:Cornonavirus: diseases
corona;SARS
Q1769:Paramyxovirus: diseases
Parainfluenza - croup;RSV - bronchioliltis in
babies;Measles;Mumps
Q1770:Filo: diseases
Ebola/marburg hemorrhagic fever
Q1771:arena: diseases
LCV - lymphocytic choriomeningitis;Meningitis - spread by
mice
Q1772:Bunyavirus: diseases
California encephalitis;sandfly/rift valley fever;crimean-congo
hemorrhagic fever;hantavirus - hemorrhagic fever; pneumonia
Q1773:mechanism of antigenic shift and drift
shift - genetic reassortment;drift - mutations;Sudden Shift is
more deadly than a graDual Drift
Q1774:Arbovirusus
Borne virus: flavi; toga; bunyavirus;transmitted by arthropods
Q1775:high fever; black vomitus; jaundice; councilman bodies
(acidophilic inclusions)
Yellow fever (flavi)
Q1776:Atypical lymphocytes
mono caused by EBV
Q1777:Diagnosis of HSV
Tzanck test - look for multinucleated giant cells;Tzanck
heavens I do not have herpes
Q1778:Hepatitis serologic markers: best test to detect active
HAV
IgM HAV Ab
Q1779:Hepatitis serologic markers: continued presence
indicates carrier state
HBsAg
Q1780:Hepatitis serologic markers: immunity to HBV
HBsAb
Q1781:Hepatitis serologic markers: core of HBV
HBcAg
Q1782:Hepatitis serologic markers: Ab + during window
phase
HBc Ab;IgM is an indicator of recent disease
Q1783:Hepatitis serologic markers: indicator of
transmissibility
HBeAg
Q1784:Hepatitis serologic markers: low transmissibility
HBeAb
Q1785:Hepatitis serologic markers: + during Acute Disease
HBsAg;HBcAB (IgM = acute; IgG = chronic)
Q1786:Hepatitis serologic markers: + during complete
recovery
HBsAb;HBcAb
Q1787:Where are gp41 and gp120 found
envelop proteins of HIV
Q1788:DOC for Onchocerciasis
rIVER blindness is treated with IVERmectin
Q1789:Pink eye
Adenovirus type B
Q1790:Fifth disease = Erythema Infectiosum
Parvovirus B19
Q1791:IFN mode of action
inhibits viral replication
Q1792:Infection by Tsetse fly
T. brucei = African sleeping sickness
Q1793:Infection by Sandfly
Leishmaniasis
Q1794:Roseola infection = Exanthema Subitum
HHV-6
Q1795:only ssDNA virus
Parvovirus
Q1796:only dsRNA virus
Reovirus = repeatOvirus
Q1797:3 Naked RNA viruses
Naked for CPR;;Calcivirus;Picornavirus;Reovirus
Q1798:2 circular DNA viruses
Papovavirus;Hepadnavirus
Q1799:Hepatitis virus families: ABCDE
A = Picorna;B = Hepadna;C = Flavi;D = Delta;E = Calici
Q1800:Only Rickettsia not intracellular
Quintana
Q1801:Arthroconidia
Coddiodes
Q1802:Obligate parasite;Kills type I pneumocytes;Groung
glass appearance
PCP
Q1803:Cytokine that stimulates proliferation of B; T; and
NK cells
IL-2
Q1804:Only DNA virus to replicate in Cytoplasm
Pox
Q1805:Only RNA virus to replicate in Nucleus
Influenza
Q1806:Sexuality of fungal spores
Asexual (mostly)
Q1807:Which fungal infections are transmitted by inhalation
of asexual spores?
1. Coccidioidomycosis;2. Histoplasmosis
Q1808:What are conidia?
Asexual fungal spores
Q1809:What disease states does Candida albicans cause?
1. Thrush esophagitis in immunocompromised patients
(neonates; steroids; diabetes; AIDS);2. endocarditis in IV drug
users;3. vaginitis post-antibiotic use;4. diaper rash;5.
Disseminated candidiasis to any organ;6. Chronic
mucocutaneous candidiasis
Q1810:Treatment for Candida Albicans infection
Superficial: Nystatin;Serious systemic: Amphotericin B
Q1811:Histologic appearance of Candida Albicans
Budding yeast with pseudohyphae in culture at 20 degrees
celsius;Germ tube formation at 37 degrees celsius
Q1812:Which fungus causes thrush in immunocompromised
Candida albicans
Q1813:Which fungus causes vulvovaginitis?
Candida albicans (high pH; diabetes; use of antibiotics)
Q1814:Which fungus is endemic to Southwestern US?
Coccidioidomycosis
Q1815:Which fungus is endemic to Mississippi and Ohio
river valleys
Histoplasmosis
Q1816:What fungus is this area known for: Southern Ohio
Histoplasmosis
Q1817:What fungus is this area known for: Southern Illinois
Histoplasmosis
Q1818:What fungus is this area known for: Missouri
Histoplasmosis
Q1819:What fungus is this area known for: Kentucky
Histoplasmosis
Q1820:What fungus is this area known for: Tennessee
Histoplasmosis
Q1821:What fungus is this area known for: Arkansas
Histoplasmosis
Q1822:What fungus is this area known for: Southern
California
Coccidiomycosis
Q1823:What fungus is this area known for: Southern Arizona
Coccidiomycosis
Q1824:What fungus is this area known for: Mississippi river
valley
Histoplasmosis (also Blastomycosis)
Q1825:What fungus is this area known for: Ohio river valley
Histoplasmosis (also Blastomycosis)
Q1826:What fungus is this area known for: Southwestern US
Coccidiomycosis
Q1827:What fungus is this area known for: Rural Latin
America
Paracoccidioidomycosis
Q1828:What fungus is this area known for: Wisconsin
Blastomycosis
Q1829:What fungus is this area known for: Minnesota
Blastomycosis
Q1830:Characterize histoplasmosis histologically
Tiny yeast inside macrophages. Thin cell wall with no true
capsule.
Q1831:What is the vector for histoplasmosis?
Bird or bat droppings
Q1832:What do bird and bat droppings carry?
Histoplasmosis
Q1833:What characterizes dimorphic fungi?
Mold in soil (lower temperature) and yeast in tissue (body
temperature);Mnemonic: Cold is mold; heat is yeast
Q1834:List the dimorphic fungi
Histoplasmosis; Blastomycosis; and Paracoccidioidomycosis
(but not coccidioidomycosis which is a spherule in tissue)
Q1835:Treatment for coccidiomycosis
Local: Fluconazole or ketoconazole;Systemic: Amphotericin
B
Q1836:Treatment for paracoccidiomycosis
Local: Fluconazole or ketoconazole;Systemic: Amphotericin
B
Q1837:Treatment for Histoplasmosis
Local: Fluconazole or ketoconazole;Systemic: Amphotericin
B
Q1838:Treatment for Blastomycosis
Local: Fluconazole or ketoconazole;Systemic: Amphotericin
B
Q1839:What is cultured on Sabouraud's agar?
Fungi (specifically dimorphic fungi)
Q1840:What disease state does Malassezia furfur cause?
Tinea versicolor: Hypopigmented skin lesions which occur in
hot humid weather.
Q1841:Treatment for Tinea versicolor
Topical miconazole or selenium sulfide (Selsun)
Q1842:What resembles spaghetti and meatballs histologically?
combination of mycelium strands and numerous spores of
Malassezia furfur in KOH prep
Q1843:What disease state does Cladosporium werneckii
cause?
Tinea nigra: Infection of keratinized layer of skin. Appears as
brownish spot.
Q1844:What causes Tinea versicolor?
Malassezia furfur
Q1845:What causes Tinea nigra?
Cladosporium werneckii
Q1846:Treatment for Tinea nigra
topical salicylic acid
Q1847:What are the common dermatophytes and what do
they cause?
Microsporum; Trichophyton; and Epidermophyton;cause all
the tineas except for versicolor and nigra
Q1848:What causes Tinea corporis?
Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum; Trichophyton; and
Epidermophyton)
Q1849:What causes Tinea cruris?
Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum; Trichophyton; and
Epidermophyton)
Q1850:What causes Tinea pedis?
Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum; Trichophyton; and
Epidermophyton)
Q1851:What causes Tinea capitis?
Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum; Trichophyton; and
Epidermophyton)
Q1852:What causes Tinea unguium?
AKA Tinea onychomycosis;Dermatophytes (such as
Microsporum; Trichophyton; and Epidermophyton)
Q1853:What causes Tinea onychomycosis?
AKA Tinea unguium;Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum;
Trichophyton; and Epidermophyton)
Q1854:How does Tinea corporis present?
Ring shape with a red raised border
Q1855:How does Tinea cruris present?
AKA jock itch;Itchy red patches on groin and scrotum
Q1856:How does Tinea capitis present?
AKA athlete's foot;Begins between toes and causes cracking
and peeling of the skin.
Q1857:How does Tinea unguium/onychomycosis present?
Nails are thickened discolored and brittle
Q1858:Lab diagnosis of dermatophyte infection
1. Dissolve skin scrapings in KOH; which digests the keratin.
Microscopic examination reveals branched hyphae;2. Direct
examination of skin with Wood's light (UV light at 365 nm
wavelength) will fuoresce green if Microsporum.
Q1859:Treatment for dermatophyte infection
1. Topical imidazoles;2. Oral griseofulvin (Tinea capitus and
tinea unguium)
Q1860:What causes a fungus ball?
Aspergillus
Q1861:What disease states does Aspergillus cause?
1. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis;2. Lung cavity
aspergilloma;3. Invasive aspergillosis
Q1862:Histologic appearance of aspergillus
Mold (not dimorphic) with septate hyphae that branch at a
V-shaped (45 degree) angle). Rare fruiting bodies.
Q1863:What disease states does cryptococcus neoformans
cause?
1. Cryptococcal meningitis;2. Cryptococcosis
Q1864:Histologic appearance of cryptococcus neoformans
5-10 micrometer yeasts with wide capsular halo. Narrow
based unequal budding.
Q1865:How is cryptococcus neoformans stained?
1. India ink;2. Latex agglutination test for polysaccharide
capsular antigen
Q1866:Where is cryptococcus neoformans found?
Soil and pigeon droppings.
Q1867:What is the histologic appearance of Mucor?
Just like Rhizopus;Mold with irregular; broad; empty looking;
nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles (over 90 degrees)
Q1868:What is the histologic appearance of Rhizopus?
Just like Mucor;Mold with irregular; broad; empty looking;
nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles (over 90 degrees)
Q1869:Which patients are likely to have Mucor/Rhizopus?
1. Ketoacidotic diabetics;2. Leukemics
Q1870:Where in the body does Mucor/Rhizopus proliferate?
1. Walls of blood vessels; causing infarction of distal tissue;2.
Rhinocerebral frontal lobe abscesses
Q1871:What is pneumocystis jirovecii?
Formerly pneumocystis carinii. Yeast (originally classified as
a protozoan)
Q1872:What disease states does Pneumocystis cause?
Most infection sasymptomatic. Immunosuppresion
predisposes to disease.
Q1873:How is pneumocystis diagnosed?
Lung biopsy or lavage. Methenamine silver stain of lung
tissue.
Q1874:Treatment for pneumocystis
Combination of TMP-SMX; Pentamidine; and Dapsone.
Q1875:Characterization of sporotrix schenckii
Dimorphic fungus that lives on vegetation.
Q1876:Presentation of sporotrichosis
1. Traumatically introduced into the skin by a thorn;2. Local
pustule/ulcer with nodules along draining lymphatics
(ascending lymphangitis);3. Little systemic illness
Q1877:What is rose gardener's disease?
Sporotrichosis
Q1878:Histologic appearance of sporotrix schenckii
Cigar-shaped yeast visible in pus with unequal budding
Q1879:Treatment for sporotrichosis
Itraconazole or potassium iodide
Q1880:What disease states does Entamoeba histolytica cause?
1. Amebiasis;2. Bloody diarrhea (dysentery);3. liver
abscess;4. RUQ pain
Q1881:What disease states does Giardia lamblia cause?
1. Giardiasis;2. Bloating;3. Flatulence;4. Foul-smelling
diarrhea
Q1882:What diseases are found in campers and hikers?
Yersinia pestis and Giardia lamblia
Q1883:What disease states does Cryptosporidium cause?
Diarrhea;1. AIDS: Severe;2. Non-HIV: Mild watery
Q1884:What disease states does Toxoplasma cause?
1. HIV: Brain abscess;2. Birth defects (ring-enhancing brain
lesions)
Q1885:What disease states does Plasmodium cause?
Malaria;1. Cyclic fever;2. Headache;3. Anemia;4.
Splenomegaly;5. Severe cerebral malaria (with Plasmodium
falciparum)
Q1886:What disease states does Trichomonas cause?
Trichomonas vaginalis causes vaginitis with foul-smelling
greenish discharge; strawberry-colored mucosa; and itching
and burning. Motile on wet prep.
Q1887:What disease states does Trypanosoma cruzi cause?
Chagas' disease;1. Dilated cardiomyopathy;2. Megacolon;3.
Megaesophagus
Q1888:What disease states does Trypanosoma gambiense
cause?
African sleeping sickness
Q1889:What disease states does Trypanosoma rhodesiense
cause?
African sleeping sickness
Q1890:What disease states does Leishmania donovani cause?
Visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar or black fever);fever; weight
loss; anaemia and substantial swelling of the liver and spleen
Q1891:What disease states does Naegleria cause?
Rapidly fatal meningoencephalitis
Q1892:What disease states does Babesia cause?
Babesiosis: Fever and anemia
Q1893:Which protozoa are transmitted by cysts?
1. Entamoeba histolytica;2. Giardia lamblia;3.
Cryptosporidium;4. Toxoplasma;All water cysts except Toxo
(cysts in meat or cat feces)
Q1894:Which protozoa are transmitted by insect?
1. Plasmodium (Anophales mosquitoes);2. Trypanosoma
cruzi (Reduviid bug);3. Other trypanosomas (Tsetse fly);4.
Leishmania (Sandfly);5. Babesia (Ixodes tick)
Q1895:Which protozoa are transmitted by swimming in
freshwater lakes?
Naeglaria (via cribriform plate)
Q1896:Which protozoa are transmitted sexually?
Trichomonas vaginalis
Q1897:Which protozoa are transmitted by mosquito?
Plasmodium
Q1898:Which protozoa are transmitted by reduviid bug?
Trypanosoma cruzi (the enses are transmitted by the tsetses;
cruzii by reduviid))
Q1899:Which protozoa are transmitted by tsetse fly?
Trypanosoma gambiense and rhodesiense (the enses are
transmitted by the tsetses; cruzii by reduviid))
Q1900:Which protozoa are transmitted by sandfly?
Leishmania
Q1901:Which protozoa are transmitted by ixodes tick?
Babesia
Q1902:How do you diagnose: Giardia lamblia
Trophozoites or cysts in stool (classic pair shaped organism
with double nuclei like owl eyes)
Q1903:How do you diagnose: Entamoeba histolytica
1. Trophozoites or cysts in stool;AND/OR;2. Serology
Q1904:How do you diagnose: Cryptosporidium
Cysts on acid-fast stain
Q1905:How do you diagnose: Toxoplasma
Serology; biopsy
Q1906:How do you diagnose: Plasmodium
Blood smear
Q1907:How do you diagnose: Trypanosoma
Blood smear
Q1908:How do you diagnose: Babesia
Blood smear; no RBC pigment; appears as "maltese cross"
Q1909:How do you diagnose: Leishmania
Macrophages containing amastigotes
Q1910:How do you diagnose: Naegleria
Amebas in spinal fluid
Q1911:Treatment for: Entameba histolytica
Metronidazole and iodoquinol
Q1912:Treatment for: Giardia lamblia
Metronidazole
Q1913:Treatment for: Trichomonas vaginalis
Metronidazole
Q1914:Treatment for: Plasmodium
1. Choloroquine;2. additonal Primaquine (for P. vivax and P.
ovale to prevent relapse or liver damage);3. sulfadoxine plus
pyrimethamine;4. Mefloquine;5. Quinine
Q1915:Treatment for: Trypanosoma cruzi
Nifurtimox
Q1916:Treatment for: Trypanosoma gambiense and
rhodesiense
If blood-borne; suramin;If CNS penetration; melarsoprol.
Q1917:Treatment for: Leishmania
Sodium stibogluconate
Q1918:Treatment for: Babesia
Qunine; clindamycin
Q1919:Treatment for: Toxoplasma
Sulfadiazine plus pyrimethamine
Q1920:Type of bug: Candida albicans
Dimorphic fungus; cutaneous OR systemic infection
Q1921:Type of bug: Coccidioides immitis
Monomorphic fungus; systemic infection
Q1922:Type of bug: Histoplasma capsulatum
Dimorphic fungus; systemic infection
Q1923:Type of bug: Blastomyces dermatidis
Dimorphic fungus; systemic infection
Q1924:Type of bug: Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
Dimorphic fungus; systemic infection
Q1925:Type of bug: Malassezia furfur
Monomorphic fungus; superficial infection
Q1926:Type of bug: Cladosporium werneckii
Monomorphic fungus; superficial infection
Q1927:Type of bug: Microsporum
Monomorphic fungus; cutaneous infection
Q1928:Type of bug: Trichophyton
Monomorphic fungus; cutaneous infection
Q1929:Type of bug: Epidermophyton
Monomorphic fungus; cutaneous infection
Q1930:Type of bug: Aspergillus fumigatus
Monomorphic fungus; opportunistic systemic infection
Q1931:Type of bug: Cryptococcus neoformans
Monomorphic fungus; opportunistic systemic infection
Q1932:Type of bug: Mucor
Monomorphic fungus; opportunistic systemic infection
Q1933:Type of bug: Rhizopus
Monomorphic fungus; opportunistic systemic infection
Q1934:Type of bug: Pneumocystis jirovecii
Monomorphic fungus; opportunistic systemic infection
Q1935:Type of bug: Sporothrix schenckii
Dimorphic fungus; subcutaneous infection with some
lymphatic spread
Q1936:Type of bug: Entamoeba histolytica
Protozoan
Q1937:Type of bug: Giardia lamblia
Protozoan
Q1938:Type of bug: Naegleria
Protozoan
Q1939:Type of bug: Plasmodium
Protozoan
Q1940:Type of bug: Cryptosporidium
Protozoan
Q1941:Type of bug: Toxoplasma
Protozoan
Q1942:Type of bug: Trichomonas
Protozoan
Q1943:Type of bug: Trypanosoma
Protozoan
Q1944:Type of bug: Leishmania
Protozoan
Q1945:Type of bug: Babesia
Protozoan
Q1946:Type of bug: Taenia solium
Helminth: Cestode (Tapeworm)
Q1947:Type of bug: Echinococcus granulosus
Helminth: Cestode (Tapeworm)
Q1948:Type of bug: Schistosoma
Helminth: Trematode (fluke)
Q1949:Type of bug: Clonorchis sinensis
Helminth: Trematode (fluke)
Q1950:Type of bug: Paragonimus westermani
Helminth: Trematode (fluke)
Q1951:Type of bug: Ancylostoma duodenale
Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)
Q1952:Type of bug: Ascaris lumbricoides
Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)
Q1953:Type of bug: Enterobius vermicularis
Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)
Q1954:Type of bug: Strongyloides stercolaris
Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)
Q1955:Type of bug: Trichinella spiralis
Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)
Q1956:Type of bug: Dracunculus medinensis
Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)
Q1957:Type of bug: Loa loa
Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)
Q1958:Type of bug: Onchocera volvulus
Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)
Q1959:Type of bug: Toxocara canis
Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)
Q1960:Type of bug: Wuchereria bancrofti
Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)
Q1961:Type of bug: Treponema
Spirochete
Q1962:Which worm: Undercooked pork
1. Taenia solium (tapeworm);2. Trichinella spiralis
(roundworm)
Q1963:Which worm: Brain cysts
Taenia solium (tapeworm)
Q1964:Which worm: Liver cysts
Echniococcus granulosus (tapeworm)
Q1965:Important points about echinococcus granulosus
Tapeworm (Cestode);1. Ingested eggs from dog feces;2. Liver
cysts;3. Cysts release antigens and cause anaphylaxis
Q1966:Taenia solium: Treatment
Praziquantel/niclosamide. Albendazole for cysticercosis
Q1967:Echinococcus granulosus: Treatment
Albendazole
Q1968:Characterization of Schistosoma
Fluke (Trematode);1. Hosted by snails;2. Penetrate skin of
humans
Q1969:Presentation of Schistosoma
Spleen and liver;1. Granulomas;2. Fibrosis;3. Inflammation
Q1970:Schistosoma: Treatment
Praziquantel
Q1971:Which worm: Portal hypertension
Schistosoma mansoni
Q1972:Which worm: Hematuria
Schistosoma haematobium
Q1973:Which worm: Bladder cancer
Schistosoma haematobium
Q1974:Important points about Clonorchis sinensis
Fluke (trematode);1. Undercooked fish;2. Inflammation of
biliary tract
Q1975:Which worm: Undercooked fish
Clonorchis sinensis
Q1976:Clonorchis sinensis: Treatment
Praziquantel
Q1977:Which worm: B12 deficiency
Diphyllobothrium latum (tapeworm)
Q1978:Which worm: Undercooked crab meat
Paragonimus westermani (fluke)
Q1979:Important points about Pargonimus westermani
Trematode (fluke);1. Undercooked crabmeat;2. Inflammation
and secondary bacterial infection of the lung;3. Hemoptysis
Q1980:Which worm: Hemoptysis
Paragonimus westermani (fluke)
Q1981:Paragonimus westermani: Treatment
Praziquantel
Q1982:Which worm: Microcytic anemia
Ancylostoma (aka hookworm) and Necator (both
roundworms)
Q1983:Which worm: Perianal pruritus
Enterobius vermicularis (aka pinworm; a roundworm)
Q1984:Important points about Ancylostoma duodenale
Nematode (roundworm);1. Aka hookworm;2. Larvae
penetrate skin of feet;3. Intestinal infection can cause anemia
Q1985:Ancylostoma duodenale: Treatment
Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate
Q1986:Important points about Ascaris lumbricoides
Nematode (roundworm);1. Aka giant roundworm (Up to 1
foot in length!);2. Eggs are visible in feces;3. Intestinal
infection
Q1987:Ascaris lumbricoides: Treatment
Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate
Q1988:Important points about Enterobius vermicularis
Nematode (roundworm);1. Aka pinworm;2. Food
contaminated with eggs;3. Intestinal infection;4. Anal pruritus
(scotch tape test)
Q1989:Enterobius vermicularis: Treatment
Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate
Q1990:Important points about Strongyloides stercoralis
Nematode (roundworm);1. Larvae in soil penetrate the skin;2.
Intestinal infection
Q1991:Strongyloides stercoralis: treatment
Ivermectin/thiabendazole
Q1992:Important points about Trichinella spiralis
Roundworm (nematode);1. Undercooked meat; usually
pork;2. Inflammation of muscle;3. Periorbital edema
Q1993:Trichinella spiralis: Treatment
Thiabendazole
Q1994:Important points about Dracunculus medinensis
Nematode (roundworm);1. In drinking water;2. Skin
inflammation and ulceration
Q1995:Dracunculus medinensis: Treatment
Niridazole
Q1996:Important points about Loa loa
Nematode (roundworm);1. Transmitted by deer fly;2. Causes
swelling in skin;3. Can see worm crawling in conjunctiva
Q1997:Loa loa: Treatment
Diethylcarbamazine
Q1998:Important points about Onchocerca volvulus
Nematode (roundworm);1. Transmitted by female
blackflies;2. Causes river blindness
Q1999:Onchocerca volvulus: Treatment
Ivermectin
Q2000:Important points about Toxocara canis
Nematode (roundworm);1. Food contaminated with eggs;2.
Causes granulomas (if in retina; blindness);3. Visceral larva
migrans
Q2001:Toxocara canis: Treatment
Diethylcarbamazine
Q2002:Important points about Wuchereria bancrofti
Nematode (roundworm);1. Female mosquito;2. Causes
blockage of lymphatic vessels (elephantiasis)
Q2003:Wuchereria bancrofti: Treatment
Diethylcarbamazine
Q2004:Cellular organization of protozoa vs helminths
Protozoa -- unicellular;Helminths -- multicellular
Q2005:Adult "shape" of trematodes;What are they also
known as?
Flat; NON-segmented; leaf-shaped;Flukes
Q2006:Adult "shape" of cestodes;What are they also known
as?
Flat; segmented;Tapeworms
Q2007:Adult "shape" of nematodes;What are they also
known as?
Round;Roundworms
Q2008:General treatment for trematodes
Praziquantel
Q2009:General treatments for Cestodes
Albendazole;Praziquantel
Q2010:General treatment for Intestinal Nematodes
Albendazole
Q2011:General treatments for Systemic Nematodes
Albendazole;Diethylcarbamazine
Q2012:#s 1-4 parasites in terms of U.S. incidence
1 -- Trichomonas;2 -- Giardia;3 -- Cryptosporidium;4 --
Toxoplasma
Q2013:#s 1-4 parasites in terms of worldwide deaths
1 -- Malaria;2 -- Dairrhea (crypto; giardia; amoeba);3 --
Trypanosomiasis;4 -- Leishmania
Q2014:#s 1-4 parasites in terms of worldwide prevalence
1 -- Ascaris;2 -- Hookworm;3 -- Schistosoma;4 -- Filaria
Q2015:Ranking of contribution to worldwide DALY
score;(injuries vs cancer vs CV dz vs infection vs psych)
Infection >> psych > CV dz > injuries > cancer
Q2016:Malaria transmits between what?;(? and ?)
Humans and mosquitoes
Q2017:Filaria transmits between what?;(? and ?)
Humans and mosquitoes
Q2018:Schistosoma transmits between what?;(? and ?)
Humans and snails
Q2019:Taenia solium transmits between what?;(? and ?)
Humans and pigs
Q2020:What is the definition of definitive host?
Host in which parasite reaches sexual maturity
Q2021:Human only parasites (4)
ASHE;A -- ascaris;S -- stronglyoides;H -- hookworm;E --
entamoeba
Q2022:Significant animal/bug for toxoplasma gondii?
Cat
Q2023:Significant animal/bug for plasmodium?
Mosquito
Q2024:Significant animal/bug for trypanosoma cruzi?
Reduviid bug
Q2025:Significant animal/bug for Leishmania?
Sandfly
Q2026:Significant animal/bug for trypanosoma brucei?
Tsetse fly
Q2027:Significant animal/bug for paragonimus westermani?
Crabs
Q2028:Significant animal/bug for taenia saginata?
Cattle
Q2029:Significant animal/bug for taenia solium?
Pig
Q2030:Significant animal/bug for trichinella spiralis?
Carnivores
Q2031:Significant animal/bug for ancylostoma?
Dogs & cats
Q2032:Significant animal/bug for onchocerca medinensis?
Blackfly
Q2033:Significant animal/bug for loa loa?
Redfly
Q2034:Significant animal/bug for angiostrongylus?
Snail
Q2035:brain cysts; seizures
taenia solium (cysticercosis; Tx: albendazole)
Q2036:liver cysts
Echinococcus granulosus (dog tapeworm; hydatid liver; tx:
albendazole)
Q2037:B12 deficiency
Diphyllobothrium latum (fish tapeworm/cestode; no hooks on
scolex; operculated egg; Tx: praziquantel)
Q2038:biliary tract dz
Clonorshi sinensis (trematode; operculated eggs; tx:
praziquantel)
Q2039:hemoptysis
Paragonimus westermani (trematode; raw crab meat;
secondary bacterial infxn; Tx: praziquantel)
Q2040:portal hypertension
Schistosoma mansoni (trematode; cercariae penetrate skin;
lateral spine; tx: praziquantel)
Q2041:hematuria; bladder cancer
Schistosoma haematobium (trematode; cercariae penetrate
skin; terminal spine; tx: praziquantel)
Q2042:microcytic anemia
ancylostoma and nectar (hookworms; larvae penetrate skin;
tx: mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate)
Q2043:perianal pruritus
Enterobius (nematode; eggs NOT in stool; scotch tape test; tx:
mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate)
Q2044:which nematodes are treated with diethylcarbamazine
wucheria bancrofti (elephantiasis); Toxocara canis (blindness;
visceral larval migrans); Loa loa (deer fly; worms in
conjunctiva)
Q2045:which helminths treated by niridazole
Dracunculus medinensis (Guinea worm; swallowed
crustaceans; skin ulceration to release larvae)
Q2046:which helminths treated with praziquantel
trematodes (schistosomas; Clonorchis sinensis; Paragonimus
westermani); praziquantel/niclosamide for Taenia solium
(unless cysticercosis--albendazole)
Q2047:2 diseases transmitted by inhalation of asexual spores
Coccidioidomycosis ;histoplasmosis
Q2048:Budding yeast with pseudohyphae in culture at 20C;
germ tube formation at 37
Candida albicans
Q2049:Diseases caused by candida albicans
Thrush;endocarditis in IV drug users;vaginitis post
antibiotic;diaper rash
Q2050:DOC candida albicans
Nystatin-superficial infection;Amphotericin B-systemic
Q2051:Southern US; Cali; San Joaguin Valley
Coccidioidomycosis
Q2052:Mississippi and Ohio river valleys
Histoplasmosis
Q2053:spherule filled with endospores
Coccidioidomycosis
Q2054:Bird or bat droppings; intracellular; "Captain's wheel"
appearance
Histoplasmosis
Q2055:Rural Latin America
Paracoccidiodomycosis
Q2056:States east of Mississippi River and Central America
Blastmycosis
Q2057:Big; Broad-Based Budding
Blastomycosis
Q2058:5 dimorphic fungi
1. Candida albicans;2. Coccidiodomycosis;3.
Histoplasmosis;4. Paracoccidioidomycosis;5. Blastomycosis
Q2059:What shape are dimorphic fungi ;in soil?;in
tissue?;exception?
Cold=Mold;Heat=Yeast;coccidioidomycosis is a spherule in
tissue
Q2060:DOC for systemic mycoses
Fluconazole or ketoconazole -local;amphotericin B - systemic
Q2061:Disease caused by Malassezia furfur
Tinea versicolor
Q2062:DOC tinea versicolor
topical miconazole; selenium sulfide (selsun)
Q2063:Hypopigmented skin lesions; occurs in hot;humid
weather
Tinea versicolor
Q2064:Disease caused by cladosporium werneckii
Tinea nigra
Q2065:DOC tinea nigra
salicyclic acid
Q2066:What organisms cause tinea pedis; tinea cruris; tinea
corporis; tinea capitis
Dermatophytes (microsporum; trichophyton;
epidermophyton)
Q2067:Diagnosis of tinea pedis
mold hyphae in KOH prep; not dimorphic
Q2068:pruritic lesions with central clearing resembling a ring
tinea pedis; cruris; corporis; capitis
Q2069:india ink
cryptococcus neoformans
Q2070:Opportunistic funal infections (4)
1. candida;2. aspergillus fumigatus;3. c. neoformans;4. mucor
and rhizopus
Q2071:yeast that causes diffuse interstitial pneumonia; id by
methenamine silver stain
Pneumocystis
Q2072:Mold with irregular nonseptate hyphae branching at
wide angles. Causes rhinocerebral; frontal lobe absesses
Murcormycosis
Q2073:diseases caused by aspergillus fumigatus
1. allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis;2. aspergilloma
(lung);3. invasive aspergillosis
Q2074:mold with septate hyphate that branch at a v-shaped
angle. Causes lung disease
Aspergillus fumigatus
Q2075:rose gardeners disease
sporothrix schenckii
Q2076:Brain cysts; seizures
Taenia solium
Q2077:liver cysts;
echinococcus granulosus (tapeworm)
Q2078:B12 deficicency
Diphyllobothrium latum (fish tapeworm)
Q2079:Biliary tract disease
Clonorchis sinensis (fluke)
Q2080:Hemoptysis
Paragonimus westermani (fluke)
Q2081:Portal HTN
schistosoma mansoni (fluke)
Q2082:Hematuria; bladder cancer
Schistosoma haematobium (fluke)
Q2083:Microcytic anemia
Ancylostoma (hookworm); Necator
Q2084:Perianal pruritis
Enterobius (pinworm)
Q2085:Organism causing Chagas; African sleeping sickness
Trypanosma
Q2086:Organism causing syphilis
Treponema pallidum
Q2087:parasitic causes of diarrhea
Bloody - entamoeba histolytica + giardia;non-bloody:
cyclospora; cryptosporidium
Q2088:diarrhea in an AIDS pt
cryptosporidium
Q2089:worm wanders across eye; calabar swellings
loa loa
Q2090:deerly transmission
loa loa
Q2091:DOC loa loa and W.bancrofti
DEC
Q2092:flying saucer fungus
pneumocystis
Q2093:DOC PCP
trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole;pentamidine
Q2094:sandfly
leishmania
Q2095:african trypansome
tsete fly;african sleeping skickness
Q2096:ascaris lumbricoides
roundworm;long; white;oral-fecal
Q2097:High Eosinophilia
strongyloides stercoralis
Q2098:Anemia; pneumonia; eosinophilia
Hookworm: ancylostoma duodenale; necator americanus
Q2099:raw pork
trichinella spiralis
Q2100:periorbital edema; fever; myosities; rash
trichinella spiralis (raw pork)
Q2101:urticaria on butt and thighs
strongyloides stercoralis
Q2102:trichuris trichiura
whipworm;eggs hatch in SI and localize in lower intestine
Q2103:river blindness
onchocerca volvulus
Q2104:elephantiasis
Wuchereria bancrofti
Q2105:taenia solium
pork tapeworm --> cysticercosis
Q2106:leading cause of seizures in Mexico
taenia solium (pork tapeworm)
Q2107:taenia saginata
beef tapeworm
Q2108:echinococcus
sheep; anaphylaxis