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In a lady with threatened abortion, which of the following would not be
useful with intact membrane?
(a) Antibiotic prophylaxis
(b) Best rest
(c) Analgesics
(d) HCG monitoring
2. Which of the following is the best to assess endometrial cycle?
(a) Hormonal profile
(b) Body temperature changes
(c) Ferning test
(d) Spinbarket pattern
3. Which of the following is not seen in human beings?
(a) Estrous cycle
(b) Menstrual cycle
(c) Endometrial cycle
(d) Hormonal changes
4. A 18 year old patient presented with primary amenorrhea. On examination
her breast and external genitalia are normal. She is most likely suffering
(a) MKH syndrome
(b) Turner’s syndrome
(c) Noonan syndrome
(d) Andogen insensitivity
5. PCOD predisposes to the following except?
(a) Increased risk of Ovarian cancer
(b) Endometrial cancer

(c) Insulin resistance
(d) Osteoporosis
6. The ‘a’ wave of jugular venous pulse is produced by–
(a) Atrial relaxation
(b) Atrial systole
(c) Atrial diastole
(d) Rapid venous filling
7. Calcium blocking agents of use in the treatment of hypertension include –
(a) Prazosin (b) Lidoflazine (c) Captopril (d) Nifedipine
8. Most important predictor of coronary artery disease–
9. ‘CURB-65’ includes–
(a) PaO2 less than 65 mm (b) Coagulopathy
(c) Severe Azotemia
(d) Base deficit (acidosis)
10. The agent of choice for controlling heparin induced bleeding is–
(a) Protamine sulphate (b) Injectable vitamin K (c) Whole blood (d) Fresh
frozen plasma
11. Northern blotting is used for analysis of –
(a) DNA (b) RNA
(c) Proteins (d) Polysaccharides
12. Rapid infusion of insulin causes –
(a) Hyperkalemia (b) Hypokalemia (c) Hypernatremia (d) Hyponatremia
13. Digitalis toxicity enchanced by A/E –
(a) Renal failure (b) Hyperkalemia
(c) Hypercalcemia (d) Hypomagnesemia

14. Best Test for intestinal malabsorption –
(a) D-xylose test (b) NBT-PABA TEST (c) Fecal fatestimation (d) Schilling test
15. Plasma urea/creatinine ratio of 20:1 may be seen in –
(a) Rhabdomyolysis
(b) Ureteric calculi
(c) Pre-renal failure
(d) Chronic glomerulonephritis
16. Low calcium and high phosphate is seen in –
(a) Hyperparathyroidism
(b) Hypoparathyroidism
(c) Hyperthyroidism
(d) Hypothyroidism
17. The most effective contraceptive method recommended in lactating
mothers is –
(a) Barrier method
(b) Progesterone only pill
(c) Oral contraceptive pills
(d) Lactational amenorrhea
18. What is the drug of choice for emergency contraception?
(a) Yuzpe regimen (combined oral pill)
(b) High dose oestrogen alone
(c) Levonorgestrel only pill
(d) Danazol
(a) VLDL
(c) Chylomicron

Feto-maternal transfusion is detected by– (a) Kleihauer test (b) Spectrophotometry (c) Benzidine test (d) Colorimetry 21.(b) LDL (d) HDL IMO [A-1] 19. Hot water bottle relieves pain of abdominal spasm by– (a) Stimulation of adrenergic fibers (b) Stimulation of cholinergic fibers (c) Inhibition of cold receptors . The most characteristic presentation of fallopian tube carcinoma is – (a) Mass abdomen (b) Bleeding per vaginum (c) Excessive watery discharge per vaginum (d) Pain abdomen 20. The principal steroid secreted by testis is – (a) Testosterone (b) Dihydrotestosterone (c) Androstenidione (d) Dihydroepiandrosterone 29. Pacemaker regulating the rate of respiration – (a) Pneumotaxic centre (b) Dorsal group of nucleus (c) Apneustic centre (d) Pre-Bötzinger Complex 30. The drug used for medical management of ectopic pregnancy is: 28.

Infants born to mothers who are heavy drinkers are at increased risk of which of the following problems? (a) Mental retardation (b) Chronic lever disease (c) Excessive birthweight (d) Chorioretinitis 23. Insulin secretion is inhibited by – (a) Methotrexate (c) Mifepristone (b) Misoprostol (d) Methyl ergometrine 22.5–2% (b) (c) 8–10% (d) 24. A 55 year old overweight female was given Fentanyl-pancuroniummidazolam anaesthesia for a surgery. NO is synthesized by – (a) Uracil (c) Guanosine (b) Epinephrine (d) Gastrin (b) Aspartate (d) Arginine (a) 0. The estimated risk of uterine rupture in a woman with a previous lower segment uncomplicated cesarean section is approximately(a) Secretin (c) Growth hormone 32.(d) Inhibition of heat receptors 31. She was conscious and able to understand . Test for ovarian reserve– 4–6% 14–16% 33. After surgery she was extubated and on examination her chest wall respiratory motion was slow and she was unable to move her upper body.

Her blood pressure was normal and heart rate was also normal. What is the diagnosis? (a) Pulmonary embolism (b) Fentanyl induced chest wall rigidity (c) Respiratory depression (d) Recovery phase 34. all are ture except: (a) Thick Periostenm (b) Soft Bones (c) Dislocations are rare (d) Comminuted fractures are common 27. Most common nerve involvement in Volkman’s is chronic contracture is: . Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is caused by the deficiency of– (a) Folic acid (b) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II (c) UMP synthase (d) HGPRT (a) LH (b) LH/FSH ratio (c) FSH (d) Estradiol 25. Most common nerve involved in the fracture of surgical neck of humerus: (a) Ulnar (b) Axillary (c) Median (d) Radial 26.what was said. In children. Protein is purified using ammonium sulfate by– (a) Salting out (b) Ion exchange chromatography (c) Mass chromatography (d) Molecular size exclusion 35. but was lacking respiratory effort.

(a) Ulnar nerve (b) Posterior interosseous nerve (c) Median nerve (d) Radial nerve 36. Milkman’s Fracture is a type of – (a) Pseudofracture (b) Clavicular fracture (c) Humeral fracture (d) Metacarpal fracture 39. Rothera’s test used for detection of – (a) Proteins (b) Glucose (c) Fatty acid (d) Ketones 38. the C stands for – (a) Canavallin A (b) Cellular (c) Chondoitin sulfate (d) C polysaccharide of streptococcus 37. In CRP. Celiac plexus is located: (a) Anterolateral to aorta . Most common site of scaphoid fracture is: 45. Complications of colle’s fracture include all of the following except: (a) Sudeck’s Osteodystrophy (b) Rupture of EPL tendon (c) Malunion (d) Nonunion 40.

Left SVC drains into? (a) Left atrium (b) (c) Coronary sinus (d) Right atrium Pericardial sac (a) Additional parallel vessels open up (b) Sympathetic stimulation causes greater distensibility of pulmonary vessels (c) Large amount of smooth muscles in pulmonary arterioles.(b) Posterolateral to aorta (c) Anterolateral to lumbar sympathetic chain (d) Posterolateral to lumbar sympathetic chain 46. CO increases up to 5 times. (d) Larger area of pulmonary circulation 47. The hot fomentation relieves the intestinal spasm pain by inhibition of? (a) Cholinergic receptors (b) Adrenergic receptors . Non-respiratory Function of lung? (a) Anion excretion (b) Sodium balance (c) Potassium balance (d) Magnesium balance 48. (a) Distal fragment (b) Tilting of the lunate (c) Waist (d) Proximal fragment 41. In severe exercise.

Mechanisms of injuries caused by Lightening include the following except one? (a) Compression effect due to compression air wave striking the abdomen (b) Direct effect from electric discharges passing to ground (c) Surface flash burns from discharges (d) Mechanical effect due to force of displaced air around the flash by heat expansion 42. What is the likely diagnosis? (a) Lead poisoning (b) Mercury poisoning (c) Arsenic poisoning (d) Copper toxicity 50. He had diarrhea since few days. ‘Hybrid’ or ‘Composite muscles’ include the following except? (a) Pectinius (b) Flexor carpi ulnaris (c) Flexor digitorum superficialis . Fine tremors were also noted. There is no organomegaly. A 40 years old patient was brought with recent onset personality changes and behavioural problems. On examination there was hypersalivation and blue lines were noted on gums. Urogenital diaphragm is made of the following except: (a) Deep transverse perini (b) Perinial membrane (c) Colles fascia (d) Sphincter Urethrae 43.(c) Cold receptors (d) Heat receptors 49.

All are antiemetics except – (a) Domperidone (b) Ondensetron (c) Phenazocine (d) Cyclizine 53. A patient is receiving linezolid therapy for 14 days. Gluteus medius is supplied by? (a) Superior gluteal nerve (b) Inferior gluteal nerve (c) Femoral nerve (d) Sciatic nerve IMO [A-3] while pulmonary blood pressure minimally because? rises 51. Morphine can be used in all the following conditions except – (a) Head injury (b) Asthma (c) Hypothyroidism (d) Diabetes 52. which of the following should be monitored: (a) Renal function tests (b) Liner enzymes (c) Platelet monitoring (d) Monitoring of reflex .(d) Biceps femoris 44.

Toxicity of Amphotericin B can be reduced by using: (a) Liquid preparation (b) Granules (c) Liposomal preparation (d) Subcutareous administration 55. Diagnosis is – (a) Rotor syndrome (b) Gilbert syndrome (c) Glucuronyl transferase deficiency . other LFTs normal. Most common cause of sepsis in India within 2 months – (a) H influenza (b) E. Reflex which is not present in child at birth is – (a) Moro’s reflex (b) Symmetric tonic neck reflex (c) Crossed extensor reflex (d) Asymmetric tonic neck reflex 57. A case of jaundince with 50% direct bilirubin. Which of the following can cause acute Pancreatitis: (a) Abacavir (b) Lamivudine (c) Zidovudine (d) Didonosine 56.54.coli (c) Coagulase positive staph aureus (d) Group B streptococcus 58.

60. 65. 64. 67. What is the cause– (a) Hypoglycemia (b) Hypocalcemia (c) Birth asphyxia (d) Intraventricular hemorrhage Electron microscopy is diagnostic in? (a) Good pasture’s syndrome (b) Wegener’s granulomatosis (c) PAN (d) Alport’s syndrome Drug of choice in Theophylline poisoning – (a) Cortisone (b) Propranolol (c) Thyroxine .8 Kg presented with seizures after 16 hours of birth.(d) Primary biliary cirrhosis 59. 62. Infant of diabetic mother with weight 3. 66. 63. 61.

except – (a) Brachycephaly (b) Microcephaly (c) Hyperkinetic movements (d) Congenital anomalies . all.(d) Phenobarbitone Which of the following drugs has been found to be useful in acute severe asthma? (a) Magnesium Sulphate (b) Anti-leukotrine (c) Cromolyn Sodium (d) Cyclosporine Parathyroid hormone – (a) Decreases bone resorption (b) Increases bone resorption (c) Enhances phosphate reabsorption from kidney (d) Decreases calcium reabsorption from kidney Buspirone is an: (a) Anxiolytic (b) Muscle relaxant (c) Sedation (d) Anticonvulsant Oxygen content in anaesthetic mixture is: (a) 25% (b) 30% (c) 33% (d) None of these Alcohol intake during pregnancy causes.

Digoxin toxicity is increased by all except – (a) Renal impairment (b) Hyperkalemia (c) Hypercalcemia (d) Hypomagnesemia 69.Which teratogen causes deafness? (a) Isotretnoin (b) Chloroquine (c) Alcohol (d) Warfarin IMO [A-4] 68. Best test to diagnose gastroesophageal reflux disease and quantify acid output: (a) Esohagogram (b) Endoscopy (c) Manometry (d) 24 hr pH monitoring 72. The most common cause of gastric outlet obstruction in India is: . Tylectomy literally mean – (a) Excision of a lump (b) Excision of LN (c) Excision of breast (d) Excision of skin 70. The most common histologic type of thyroid cancer is: (a) Medullary type (b) Follicular type (c) Papillary type (d) Anaplastic type 71.

Parastomal hernia is most frequently seen with: (a) End Colostomy (b) Loop Colostomy (c) End Iliostomy (d) Loop Iliostomy 78. Best investigation to diagnose piles is – (a) Proctosigmoidoscopy (b) Barium enema (c) Ultrasound (d) Proctoscopy 79. True about corneal transplant: (a) Eye ball is removed from the donor and the Complete eyeball is preserved in ice for corneal transplant . Best prognosis for carcinoma of pancreas is in the region of – 77.(a) Tuberculosis (b) Cancer of stomach (c) Duodenal lymphoma (d) Peptic ulcer disease 73. Most common type of choledochal cyst? (a) Type 1 (b) Type 2 (c) Type 3 (d) Type 6 75. Z score is used in? (a) Nominal data (b) Normal distribution curve (c) t test (d) Chi square test 80. Most common infection after splenectomy is – (a) Anaerobic (b) Staphylococcal (c) Streptococcal (d) Pneumococcal 74.

Laser used in laryngeal work? (a) Argon (b) CO2 (c) Holmium (d) ND Yag 84. Retinoblastoma is associated with? (a) Osteosarcoma (b) Chondrosarcoma (c) Fibrosacrcoma (d) Rhandomyosarcoma 82.(b) Cornea of persons more than 60 years of age is not taken for transplant (c) Specular microscopy is ideal for the endothelial count (d) HLA matching is required essentially 81. Following can be visualized on Bronchoscopy except? (a) Vocal cords (b) Trachea (c) Subcarinal nodes (d) First division of subsegmental bronchioles 85. Down’s syndrome most commonly occurs due to? (a) Reciprocal translocation (b) Nondysjunction in maternal meiosis (c) Translocation defect (d) Nondysjunction in paternal meiosis (a) Head (c) Body (b) Tail . Topical Mitomycin C is useful in treatment of? (a) Angiofibroma (b) Tracheal stenosis (c) Skull base Ostemyelitis (d) Laryngeal carcinoma 83.

A year 6 old child with IQ of 50. Which of the milestone develops first – (a) Mirror play (b) Crawling (c) Creeping (d) Pincer grasp 88. Which of the following is the best indicator of long term nutritional status – (a) Mid arm circumference . Colopotomy is done to treat – (a) Ischeorectal abscess (b) Pelvic abscess (c) Appendicular abscess (d) Perianal abscess IMO [A-5] 86.(d) Periampullary 76. Which of the following can the child do – (a) Identify colours (b) Read a sentence (c) Ride a bicycle (d) Copy a triangle 89. Which of the following is NOT associated with increase in the risk of seizures in future in a child with febrile seizures? (a) Developmental delay (b) Early age of onset (c) Complex partial seizures (d) Family history positive 87.

Anti infective vitamin is – 94. Commonest cause of ureteric injury during surgical operation is – .1 g/d1 (d) Transthyretin 91. Following can be used in Rx of myoclonic seizures except: (a) Valproate (b) Carbamazepine (c) Topiramate (d) Zonisamide 96. Craniotabes is seen in following except – (a) Rickets (b) Syphilis (c) Osteogenesis imperfecta (d) Thalassemia 92. He has multiple hypopigmented macules over the back. What the most probable diagnosis? (a) Neurofibromatosis type 1 (b) Tuberous sclerosis (c) Sturge Weber syndrome (d) Linear Sebacous Nevus Syndrome 95.(b) Height for age (c) Weight for age (d) Weight for height 90. Indicator of moderate to severe malnutritions is: (a) Serum transferrin 160 (b) Body mass index 19 (c) Albumin 2. A 2 years old child is brought by parents with history of seizures and developmental delay.

Optical urethroplasty is done in – (a) Congenital stricture of urethra (b) Hypospadias (c) Epispadias (d) Testicular tumour’s 100. fructose negative ejaculate with azoospermia. Bladder tumours mostly arises from – (a) Mucosa (b) Submucosa (c) Muscularis Mucosa (d) Seorsa 98. Most common testicular tumor in prepubertal adults is: (a) Yolk sac tumor (b) Embryonal cell Ca (c) Seminoma . Semen analysis of a young man who presented with primary infertility revealed low volume.(a) Abdomino-perineal resection (b) Hysterectomy (c) Prostectomy (d) Colectomy 97. Which of the following is the most useful imaging modiality to evaluate the cause of his infertility? (a) Colour duplex ultrasonography of the scrotum (b) Transrectal ultrasonography (c) Retrograde urethrography (d) Spermatic venography 99.

Which of the following is microaerophilic – (a) Campylobacter (b) Vibrio (c) Bacteroides (d) Pseudomonas 104. Which of the following is the best parameter to assess fluid intake in a poly-trauma patient – (a) Urine output (b) BP (c) Pulse (d) Pulse oximetry 102.(d) Teratoma (a) Vitamin B6 (c) Vitamin D (b) Vitamin A (d) Vitamin C 93. Orthobaric oxygen is used in :– (a) CO poisoning (b) Ventilation failure (c) Anerobic infection (d) Gangrene 103. Abnormalities of copper metabolism are implicated in the pathogenesis of all the following except – (a) Wilson’s disease (b) Monkes’ Kinky-hair syndrome (c) Indian childhood cirrhosis (d) Keshan disease 101. All are methods of sterilization by dry heat except – (a) Flaming (b) Incineration .

Mitochondrial enzyme in liver? (a) SGOT (b) SGPT (c) Gamma glutamyl transferase (d) Nucleotidase 109. Effect of bradykinin includes? (a) Vasodilatation (b) Vasoconstriction (c) Increased vascular permeability (d) Pain 108.(c) Hot air oven (d) Autoclaving 105. False regarding bacterial plasmids is? (a) Extrachromosomal (b) Eliminated by treating with radiation (c) Transmission of different species (d) Can cause lysogenic conversion 106. Insulin secretion is inhibited by? (a) Secretin (b) Epinephrine (c) GH (d) Gastrin 107. Pink color on rothera’s test: (a) Proteins (b) Fatty acids (c) Glucose .

BMR mainly depends on? (a) Daily activities (b) Lean body mass (c) Body surface area (d) Body Mass Index 114.(d) Ketone bodies 110. BMR is increased in the following except: (a) Physical activity (b) Food intake (c) Hyperthyroidism (d) Obesity 113. Mechanism of action of Theophyline? (a) Mast cell stabilization (b) Phosphodiesterase inhibition (c) Leukotriene antagonism . Prenatal diagnosis of haemophilia can be done by? (a) Microarray (b) Cytogentic analysis (c) Linkage analysis (d) DNA sequence polymorphism 111. Gout is a disorder of? (a) Purine metabolism (b) Pyrimidine metabolism (c) Urea metabolism (d) Lipid metabolism 112.

An alcoholic with poor judgment and decreased in skilled motor movements. 80-200 mg/dl-------------ANS C.(d) β2 sympathomimetic 115. 200-300 mg/dl D. B cell maturation takes place in – (a) Thymus (b) Lymph node (c) Bone marrow (d) Spleen 117. Blood alcohol level would be A. 30-80 mg/dl B. All Chlamydia trachomatis are true except – of the following statements about (a) Genital chlamydial infections are often asymptomatic (b) Can be cultured (c) Inclusion conjunctivitis is caused by C. Allopurinol is used in treatment of? (a) Gout (b) Hypothyroidism (c) Hypertension (d) Hyperlipidemia 116. Culture media of leptospirosis – (a) Korthof (b) Perkin (c) Tinsdale (d) Baker’s IMO [A-7] 118. trachomatis serotypes D-K (d) Penicillin is the treatment of choice 3. >300 mg/dl .

Treatment is A. MI B. In ”Pneumonia Severity Scale”. Hypothermia . Type of wave in Metabolic Encephalopathy A. Beta C. In 2 patients with Atherosclerosis. Gamma D. Vertebrobasilar insufficiency 117. MRI of brain was normal and ESR was raised. Coxibs D. In relation to non-diabetic. one is diabetic and other is nondiabetic. A 56 year old man presents with unilateral headache. Age --------------ANS B. most important factor is A. Valproate 115. Lower Limb Ischemia----------------ANS D. Congestive Heart Failure C. Prednisolone --------ANS B. Alpha B.114. diplopia and fever. Delta -------------ANS 116. diabetic patient has 100 times increased risk of A. He had difficulty in chewing. High Dose Aspirin C. Cerebrovascular Stroke C.

Antiepileptic 120. Positive Nitrite Test 119. Wash head with shampoo C. Antibiotic Sensitivity D. Stop Steroids ---------------------ANS B. Gram Staining for Bacteria C. Ocular Sarcoid ----------------------ANS B. HLA B27 related Uveitis C. Diagnosis is A. Most specific urinary finding (Nov 2006) A. A lady had breathlessness. Tuberculosis D. WBC Cast --------------------ANS B.D. On examination. mucous in stool and sense of incomplete evacuation since 4 years. Hyponatremia 118. A 46 year old man with constipation. there was left iliac fossa tenderness. She was planned for surgery.Behcets syndrome 121. abdominal pain. Leucocyte Esterase positive D. arthralgia and granulomatous uveitis. Ca Colon . A boy is suffering from Acute Pyelonephritis. A lady had Meningioma with inflammatory edematous lesion. Diagnosis is A. Junior resident’s mistake in writing pre-op notes is A.

Secrete Growth Factor C. At Ligamentum Arteriosus 125. Terminal Cells are different D. Behind Esophagus C. In an ablated animal. Due to decelerations. Erythrocyte ----------------ANS C. after the incubation period he finds which type of cells? A. Can reconstitute Bone Marrow -----------------ANS B. Diverticular disease ------------------ANS C. Hematopoietic Stem Cells 124. Behind Crura of the Diaphragm D. A lady with cold intolerance and hoarseness of voice was detected with cardiomegaly.B. Aorta can be ruptured at places where it is fixed EXCEPT A. T-Lymphocyte B. a researcher injects Myeloid Stem Cells. Hematopoietic Stem Cells differ from Committed Progenitor Cells in A. Fibroblast D. IBS D. Nuclear Receptor present 123. Ulcerative Colitis 122. At Aortic Valve --------------ANS B. Investigation to be done to know the cause is .

EBV D.A. A patient comes with transmural thrombi. Echocardiography -------------ANS 126. Sub Acute Bacterial Endocarditis D. Hepatitis A B. Most significant association for Hepatocellular Carcinoma A. Leg vein thrombosis 129. Coronary Angiography B. Pathology seen in mitral valve is (AI 10) A. Pericardial Friction Rub B. Mobitz Type 2 Block D. if patient comes within . Thrombolytics can be given in treatment of AMI. Midsystolic Click is heard in a female. Ruptured Chordae Tendinae 127. Left Ventricle Angiography C. Right Ventricle Angiography D. Pericardial Effusion---------ANS C. After which further intial sign thrombolysis should be stopped A. Myxomatous degeneration ----------------ANS B. Streptokinase and Warfarin is started. Aschoff Nodules C. CMV 128. Hepatitis B -------------------ANS C.

on treatment with Aspirin. Which of the following literally means “flow of seed” – (a) Anthrax (b) Clostridia (c) Gonorrhoea (d) Proteus 120. MI D. Relatives noted black stools.A. Conjunctivitis is caused by all except – (a) CMV (b) Enterovirus 70 (c) Coxsackies A24 (d) Adenovirus 121. The diagnosis is A. An old hypertensive man. Cloudy swelling is due to – (a) Accumulation of water intracellularly (b) Fat accumulation intracellularly (c) Lysozyme degeneration (d) Glycogen accumulation intracellularly 122. 18 hours D. Basement membrane degeneration is mediated by – (a) Metalloproteinases (b) Oxidases . 24 hours 130. Gastric Ulcer bleed ---------------ANS B. Cerebrovascular Accident C. tachycardia. He presented in ER with hypotension. Sorbitrate. and Atenolol suddenly fell in bathroom. 119. 12 hours -------------------ANS C. 6 hours B.

Goblet cells are present in – (a) Trachea (b) Jejunum (c) Epididymis (d) Ileum 127. Sago spleen is seen in – (a) Gaucher’s disease (b) Malaria (c) Amyloidosis (d) Felty’s disease 124. Bouchard’s nodes are seen in – . Salt losing nephritis is a feature of – (a) Interstitial nephritis (b) Polycystic kidney (c) Lupus nephritis (d) Renal amyloidosis 125. Most common cause of death after Total Hip Replacement is – (a) Infection (b) Pneumonia (c) Anemia (d) Thromboembolism 128.(c) Elastases (d) Hydrocylases 123. All are of adult size at birth except – (a) Mastoid antrum (b) Ear Ossicles (c) Tympanic cavity (d) Maxillary antrum 126.

An otherwise healthy male presents with a creamy curd like white patch on the tongue. Which of the following is NOT a primary skin disease? (a) Reiter’s syndrome (b) Bowen’s disease (c) Psoriasis (d) Lichen planus 130. In spinal anesthesia. What is Agoraphobia? (a) Fear of heights (b) Fear of closed spaces . Which is a hinge joint – (a) Knee (b) Elbow (c) Metacarpo Phalangeal (d) Atlanto Axial 134. Which among the following is NOT used for surface anaesthesia – (a) Lignocaine (b) Procaine (c) Tetracaine (d) Benzocaine 133. the drug is deposited between – (a) Dura and arachnoid (b) Pia and arachnoid (c) Dura and vertebra (d) Into the cord substance 132. The probable diagnosis is – (a) Candidiasis (b) Histoplasmosis (c) Lichen planus (d) Aspergillosis 131.(a) Proximal IP joints (b) Distal IP joints (c) Sternoclavicular joints (d) Knee joint 129.

Enlarged pulsatile liver is seen in – (a) Tricuspid regurgitation (b) Aortic regurgitation .(c) Fear of open space (d) Fear of dogs 135. Best diagnosis for dissecting aorta is – (a) CT Scan (b) MRI (c) Angiography (d) X-ray 136. Best investigation in acute cholecystitis is– (a) Technetium scan (b) HIDA scan (c) Pipida scan (d) Plain X-ray abdomen 138. All of the following heart sounds occur shortly after S2 except – (a) Opening snap (b) Pericardial knock (c) Ejection click (d) Tumor plop 139. Egg on side appearance is seen in: (a) TOF (b) TAPVC (c) Uncorrected TGA (d) Truncus arteriosus 137.

Diagnosis is – (a) Vasovagal attack (b) Diabetic neuropathy (c) Shy drager syndrome (d) Bleeding peptic ulcer 146.(c) Mitral regurgitation (d) Pulmonary regurgitation 140. Which valve is least affected in Rheumatic fever? (a) (c) 145. Cardiomyopathy may be seen in all of the following except – (a) Duchenne muscular dystrophy (b) Friedrich’s ataxia (c) Type IUI glycogen storage disease (d) Alkaptonuria 141. Left ventricular hypertrophy is caused by all except – (a) MS (b) MR (c) AS (d) AR . Most common cause of acute RVF – (a) Massive pulmonary embolism (b) Tricuspid stenosis (c) Pulmonary stenosis (d) Tricuspid regurgitation 144. Test for reversible cardiac ischemia – (a) Angiography (b) Thallium scan (c) MUGA (d) Resting Echocardiography 142. A BP<100mm systolic and postural hypotension.

A 28 year old woman having limited cutaneous scleroderma for the last 10 years complains of shortness of breath for last one month. Her pulmonary function tests (PFT) are as follow – What is most likely diagnosis in this case? (a) Interstitial lung disease (b) Pulmonary artery hypertension (c) Congestive heart failure (d) Bronchiectasis 149. PFT . Calcium Gluconate is not used in CPR by – (a) Hypocalemia (b) Hypokalemia (c) Hyperkalemia (d) Calcium antagonism 148. The most definitive method of diagnosing pulmonary embolism is – (a) Pulmonary ateriography (b) Radioisotope perfusion pulmonary scintigraphy (c) EKG (d) Venography 150.147. All of the following features are seen in viral pneumonia except – (a) Presence of interstitial inflammation (b) Predominance of alveolar exudates (c) Bronchiolitis (d) Multinucleate giant cells in the bronchiolar wall Pulmonary valve (b) Tricuspid valve Mitral valve (d) Aortic valve patient presents with tachycardia.

26 16. Obstruction C.Observed Predicted FVC 2.3 143.63 2. All except– (a) Hyperventilation (b) Morbid obesity (c) High altitude (d) Fenfluramine are causes of pulmonary hypertension IMO [A-9] Early complication of Ileostomy (May 2010) A. Necrosis --------------ANS D.82 FEV1 88% 80% DLCO 5. Prolapse 147. Diarrhoea B. Ca Breast Stage 4b involves all EXCEPT .

Nipple Retraction -----------------ANS B. Russel Viper Venom Test --------------ANS . Amniotic fluid embolism C. After full term normal vaginal delivery. Esophageal Carcinoma C. Satellite Nodule 148. Which test should be done? (Reverse May 2011) A. Skin ulcer over the swelling C. What should be suspected? (Nov 2010) A. Due to advances in cancer treatment the prognosis of which of the following has become better? A. lady goes to sudden collapse. Glioblastoma Multiforme B. Uterine Inversion ---------------ANS D. A young lady has history of recurrent abortion. Dermal Edema D. Eclampsia 150. PPH B.A. ALL in children -------------------ANS D. Cholangiocarcinoma OBSTETRICS & GYNECOLOGY 149.

On Ultrasound. Kleihauer-Betke test C. Osmotic Fragility Test 153. Preliminary investigation reveals raised free testosterone levels. Which test is used to differentiate maternal and fetal blood cells? (Nov 2010) A.B. Adrenal Hyperplasia D. A 20 year old average weight female complains of oligomenorrhoea along with facial hair. Which of the following could be likely etiology? (Nov 2010) A. ovaries were normal. lymph nodes negative with positive peritoneal cytology is staged as – (Nov 2010) A. Idiopathic Hirsutism B. Stage IIIB -------------ANS C. Clotting Time 151. PCOD --------------ANS C. Testosterone secreting tumor 152. extending to vagina. Bleeding time D. Stage IIIC1 D. Apt Test -----------------ANS B. Stage IIIC2 . Stage IIIA B. Prothrombin Time C. Bubblin Test D. Endometrial Cancer involving 50% of endometrium.

woman has maximum cardiac strain? A. Trichelectomy B. This must be due to (Repeat) A. Immediately following delivery-------------------ANS D. At the time of delivery C. After delivery 156. At which time in the pregnancy. feels better on lateral position and after getting up. 2nd Trimester B.154. Raised intra-abdominal pressure C. Schauta’s Hysterectomy C. which of the following treatment is recommended? A. A woman presented with carcinoma cervix FIGO STAGING II-III. Decreased blood flow to placenta D. Wertheims Hysterectomy B. Radiotherapy plus HPV vaccine C. IVC Compression -------------------------ANS B. Intracavity Brachytherapy followed by External Beam Radiotherapy--------------ANS 155. Compression of Sympathetic Chain 157. Chemo-radiotherapy ---------------------ANS . Chemotherapy D. A Pregnant female feeling dizziness in supine position. Treatment of Ca Cervix IIIB include – (Nov 2010) A.