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1) The process of recording is done

A) Two times a year


B) once a year
C) Frequently during the accounting period
D) At the end of a accounting period
2) General journal is a book of _______ entries
A) First
B) Original
C) Secondary
D) Generic
3) The process of recording transactions in different journals is called
A) Posting
B) Entry making
C) Adjusting
D) Journalizing
4) Every business transaction affects at least ________ accounts
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Infinite
5) Discount allowed is a kind of deduction from
A) Account payable
B) Account receivable
C) Cash account
D) Discount account
6) The other name of journal is
A) Ledger
B) T account
C) Day book
D) Cash book
7) A journal entry in which two or more account is debited or credited is referred as
A) Journal entry
B) Multi entry
C) Additional entry
D) Compound entry

8) The term 2/10-n/30 implies that ______ % discount will be given if the payment is made within _____
days or full amount is receivable within 30 days
A) 2,10
B) 10,2
C) 10,30
D) 3,15
9) Goods returned by customer should be debited to which of the following accounts?
A) Sales income account
B) Sales account
C) Return inward account
D) Expenses account
10) Discount allowed is
A) Expense of business
B) Income of business
C) Loss of business
D) Abnormal loss of business
11) _________ is the evidence that a transaction took place
A) Source documents
B) Ledger
C) Bonds
D) Journals
12) Which of the following will be debited if a business purchases goods on credit?
A) Cash
B) Debtor
C) Creditor
D) Purchases
13) Which of the following accounts will be debited if the business's owner withdraws cash from
business for his personal use?
A) Drawings
B) Cash
C) Business
D) Stock
14) Journals are also referred as
A) Book of entries
B) Book of original entries
C) T account
D) Books of economic event

15) The standard format of journal does not include which of the following?
A) Assets column
B) Date column
C) Description column
D) Amount column

16) In which of the following orders data is entered in journal?


A) Alphabetical order
B) Numeric order
C) Bullets order
D) Chronological order
17) Which of the following accounts will be credited if a company purchases building for cash?
A) Capital account
B) Fixed assets account
C) Building account
D) Cash account
18) Discount for quick repayment of debt is normally referred as
A) Trade discount
B) Prompt payment discount
C) Cash discount
D) Bulk discount
19) The first step in accounting process is
A) Recording the transaction
B) Identifying the transaction
C) Posting the transaction
D) Preparing the source documents
20) A chart of accounts generally start with which of the following types of accounts?
A) Assets accounts
B) liability accounts
C) Cash accounts
D) Revenue accounts

1) Which of the following specialised journals records "goods returned by customers"?


A) Purchase journal
B) Sales journal
C) Purchases return journal
D) Sales return journal

2) Sales on credit is recorded in which of the following journal?


A) Purchase journal
B) Sales journal
C) Purchases return journal
D) Sales return journal
3) Transactions that a business doesn't record in any specialised journal are recorded in which
of the following journals or day books?
A) Cash payments journal
B) Cash receipts journal
C) Purchases return journal
D) General journal
4) Another name of journal is
A) Specialized journal
B) Day book
C) Cash book
D) Record book
5) Which of the following specialised journals will record "goods returned by the business"?
A) Purchase journal
B) Sales journal
C) Purchases return journal
D) Sales return journal
6) Sales and purchase journal don't record
A) Credit sales
B) Credit purchases
C) Credit sales and purchases
D) Cash sales and purchases
7) Cash received from debtor is recorded in which of the following specialized journals?
A) Purchase journal
B) Sales journal
C) Cash receipts
D) Cash payments journal

8) Which of the following is a type of cash receipt journal + cash payment journal?
A) Bank statement
B) Statement of cash flow
C) Cash book
D) Cash documents
9) Cash purchases is recorded in which of the following specialized journals?
A) Purchase journal
B) Sales journal
C) Purchases return journal
D) Cash payments journal
10) A brief explanation recorded below every entry in general journal is commonly known as
A) Narration
B) Explanation
C) Summary
D) Other information
11) Credit purchase of plant and machinery is recorded in which of the following specialized journals?
A) General journal
B) Cash journal
C) Purchase journal
D) Purchase return journal
12) Debit note is the basis for recoding a transaction in which of the following journals?
A) General journal
B) Cash journal
C) Purchase journal
D) Purchase return journal
13) "Sale of old furniture" will be recorded in which of the following specialised journals?
A) Purchase journal
B) Sales journal
C) General journal
D) Cash receipt journal

14) Credit note is the basis for recording a transaction in which of the following specialized journals?
A) Purchase journal
B) Sales return journal
C) General journal
D) Cash receipt journal

15) Specialized journals are more adequate for which type of businesses?
A) Small businesses
B) Big businesses
C) Sole proprietorship
D) Partnership
16) Which of the following is known as an evidence that a transaction took place?
A) Cash receipts journal
B) General journal
C) Source document
D) Cash book
17) "Business paid rent amounting to $100" which of the following specialized journals records this
transaction?
A) Cash receipts journal
B) Cash payments journal
C) Sales journal
D) Purchase journal
18) Credit memo or credit note No. is entered in which of the following journal?
A) General journal
B) Cash journal
C) Purchase journal
D) Sales return day book
1) Transferring entries from journal to ledger account is commonly known as
A) Recording
B) Transferring
C) Posting
D) Entry making
2) An account records the ___________ in the balance of an item
A) Increase
B) Decrease
C) Increase or decrease
D) Appreciation
3) If credit side of a bank account is greater than the debit side, it indicates which of the following?
A) Bank overdraft
B) Cash at bank
C) Bank balance
D) Current Asset

4) If debit side of a bank account is greater than credit side it indicates which of the following?
A) Cash at bank
B) Bank understatement
C) Bank overdraft
D) Balance overstatement
5)_________ will be credited if goods are given as charity
A) Cash
B) Charity
C) Purchases
D) Sales

6)Which of the following is known as the base for preparing trial balance?
A) Journal
B) Cash account
C) Ledger account
D) Balance sheet
7)If debit balance is greater than creadit balance then the account blance will be:
A) Credit balance
B) Debit and credit balance
C) Cash balance
D) Debit balance
8)The normal balance of capital account is
A) Credit balance
B) Debit balance
C) Cash balance
D) Neither debit nor credit balance
9)The normal balance of asset account is
A) Credit balance
B) Debit balance
C) Cash balance
D) Neither debit nor credit balance
10)The normal balance of liability account is
A) Debit balance
B) Credit balance
C) Cash balance
D) Neither debit nor credit balance

11)Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding capital account?


A) Debit increases the capital account balance
B) Credit increases the capital account balance
C) Fresh capital increases the capital account balance
D) Net income increases the capital account balance
12)Which of the following is the normal balance of a rent expense account?
A) Credit balance
B) Cash balance
C) Overdraft
D) Debit balance
13)Revenue and expense accounts are referred as
A) Nominal accounts
B) Real account
C) Cash accounts
D) Banks account
14)The real accounts are accounts of Assets, liabilities and ________
A) Expenses
B) Revenues
C) Capital
D) Drawing
15)Building account is classified as _________ account
A) Nominal
B) Real
C) Cash
D) Capital

16)Office equipments account is classifed as _________ account


A) Nominal
B) Real
C) Cash
D) Capital
17)___________ helps business to classify transactions according to their nature
A) General journal
B) Real accounts
C) Ledger accounts
D) Cash accounts

18)Which of the following is a real account?


A) Office equipment
B) Rent expenses
C) Rent income
D) Insurance expense
19)Which of the following accounts are closed at the end of an accounting period?
A) Nominal accounts
B) Balance sheet accounts
C) Real accounts
D) None of them
20)Which of the following is the closing balance of a ledger account?
A) Blance c/d
B) Balance b/d
C) Balance e/d
D) Balance f/c

1)Trial balance is prepared to check accuracy of


A) Ledger accounts balances
B) Balance sheet balances
C) Income statement balances
D) Cash flow statement balances
2)If a transaction is completely omitted from the books of accounts, will it affect the agreement of a trial
balance?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Transactions can't be omitted
3)________ is the common base for preparing a trial balance
A) Ledger accounts
B) General Journal
C) Specialized journals
D) Balance sheet
4)Which of the following is true about a trial balance?
A) It lists down the balances of accounts
B) It lists down the balances of a balance sheet
C) It is a kind of financial statement
D) It is not a part of accounting cycle
5)Debit balance = Credit balance in a trial balance indicates that

A) No error in recording transactions


B) No error in posting entries to ledger accounts
C) Account balances are correct
D) Mathematically Capital+Liabilities=Assets

6)Trial balance is commonly prepared


A) Frequently during the year
B) At the end of an accounting period
C) At the end of a month
D) At the end of a year
7)Which of the following will affect the agreement of a trial balance?
A) Complete omission of a transaction
B) Partial omission of a transaction
C) Error of principle
D) Compensating errors
8)If debit balances = credit balances, trial balance only shows or check the ____________ and it does not
indicate that no errors were made during recording and posting
A) Arithmetic accuracy
B) Errors of commission
C) Omissions of economic events
D) Understatements of balances
9)Which of the following account with normal balance is shown at the debit side of a trial balance?
A) Rent income account
B) Creditors account
C) Unearned income account
D) Cash account
10)
Which of the following account with normal balance is shown at the credit side of a trial balance?
A) Cash account
B) Bank account
C) Equipment account
D) Accrued expenses accou

11)
Introduction capital by owner of business is recorded on which side of a cash book?
A) Receipts
B) Payments
C) Incomes

D) Expenditures
12)
Cash book with cash and discount column is mostly referred as
A) Simple cash book
B) Two column cash book
C) Three column cash book
D) Petty cash book
13)
A cash book that is used to record the small payments of cash is generally referred as
A) Simple cash book
B) Two column cash book
C) Three column cash book
D) Petty cash book
14)
A simple or one column cash book usually has which of the following main columns?
A) Bank
B) Payments
C) Discount
D) Cash
15)
Purchase of office equipment for cash will be recorded on which of the following sides of a
cash book?
A) Receipts
B) Payments
C) Incomes
D) Expenditures
16)
Postdated checks are considered as
A) Cash
B) Bank balance
C) Accounts receivable
D) Cash reserve
17)

Postage stamps on hand are considered as


A) Bank
B) Prepaid expenses
C) Accounts receivable
D) Creditor
18)
Petty cash fund is supposed to be replenished
A) Every day
B) Every half year
C) Every year
D) At the end of every accounting period
19)
Which of the following is generally not the party to a check?
A) Payee
B) Payer
C) Bank
D) Seller
20)
A credit balance in cash book indicates
A) Bank balance
B) Cash at bank
C) Bank overdraft
D) Bank under draft
1 Favourable balance of cash book implies that
A) Credit balance of cash book
B) Debit balance of cash book
C) Bank overdraft
D) Adjusted balance of cash book
2)
A cash deposit made by business appears on the bank statement as _______ balance
A) Debit
B) Credit
C) Expenses
D) Liability
3)

Bank reconciliation statement is the comparison of a bank statement (sent by bank) with the _________
(prepared by business)
A) Cash receipt journal
B) Cash payment journal
C) Cash book
D) Financial statements
4)
A check returned by bank marked "NSF" means that
A) Bank can't verify your identity
B) There are not sufficient funds in your account
C) Check has been forged
D) Check can't be cashed being illegal
5)
In the Bank reconciliation statement "Deposit in transit" is usually
A) Subtracted from bank balance
B) Added to bank balance
C) Added to Cash book balance
D) Subtracted from cash book balance
6)
Bank reconciliation statement is prepared by
A) Accountant of the business
B) Manager of the business
C) Controller of the bank
D) Accountant of the bank
7)
Which of the following error results in unadjusted cash book balance?
A) Outstanding checks
B) Unpresented checks
C) Deposit in transit
D) Omission of Bank charges
8)
Bank charges amounting to $5000 was not entered in the cash book. Identify the correct adjustment in
cash book
A) Bank charges will be debited in cash book
B) Bank charges will be added to cash book balance
C) Bank charges will be credited in cash book
D) Bank charges need no adjustment in cash book
9)

Unpresented checks also referred as


A) Uncollected checks
B) Uncredited checks
C) Outstanding checks
D) Bounced checks
10)
________ are checks that are issued by the business but not yet presented to bank
A) Uncollected checks
B) Uncredited checks
C) Outstanding checks
D) Bounced checks
11)
_________ Checks that are presented to bank but not yet credited by the bank
A) Unpresented checks
B) Uncredited checks
C) Outstanding checks
D) Bounced checks
12)
Uncollected checks also referred as
A) Unpresented checks
B) Uncredited checks
C) Outstanding checks
D) Bounced checks
13)
Favourable balance of bank statement implies that
A) Credit balance
B) Debit balance
C) Bank overdraft
D) Adjusted balance
14)
Standing orders are ________
A) Credited in the cash book
B) Debited in the cash book
C) Entered in the bank statement
D) Entered in the petty cash balance
15)
A company was entered in hire purchase agreement and had to pay $1000 per month.Three payments
were made via bank account but no entry was found in cash book. Identify the correct adjustment in cash
book

A) $1000 will be added to cash book balance


B) $2000 will be deducted from cash book balance
C) $3000 will be added to cash book balance
D) $3000 will be subtracted from cash book balance
16)
$5000 deposited in bank account was entered twice in the cash book. Identify the correct adjustment in
cash book
A) $5000 will be credited
B) $5000 will be debited
C) $10,000 will be credited
D) $10,000 will be debited
17)
Bank sent debit advice of $500 to company being interest on overdraft. It wasn't entered in cash book.
Identify the correct adjustment in cash book
A) $500 will be debited
B) $500 will be credited
C) Non-adjustable
D) $1000 will be subtracted
18)
In bank reconciliation statement the amount of outstanding checks is added to ________ balance of cash
book
A) Adjusted
B) Unadjusted
C) Understated
D) Overstated
19)
Balance as per cash book(adjusted)=$1000, Unpresented checks=$2000, Uncredited checks=$500,
Deposit in transit=$500. Compute the balance as per bank statement
A) $2000
B) Zero
C) $3000
D) $2500
20)
A discount of $2000 was given to a supplier on his prompt repayment of debt but the cashier entered the
gross amount in cash book. What should be the adjustment in cash to work out the correct balance of
cash book?
A) $2000 will be debited in cash book
B) $2000 will be credited in cash book
C) $4000 will be debited in cash book
D) $4000 will be credited in the cash book

1)
Accrued expenses are considered as
A) Asset
B) Liability
C) Gain
D) Income
2)
Prepaid expenses are regarded as
A) Asset
B) Liability
C) Loss
D) Capital
3)
Which of the following adjusting double entries is correct for Unearned income?
A) DEBIT= Income, CREDIT= Unearned income
B) DEBIT= Unearned income, CREDIT= Income
C) DEBIT= Cash, CREDIT= Unearned income
D) DEBIT= Income, CREDIT= Cash
4)
Earned but not yet received income is treated as
A) Asset
B) Liability
C) Loss
D) Capital
5)
Which of the following adjusting double entries is correct for accrued expenses?
A) DEBIT= Expenses, CREDIT= Accrued expenses
B) DEBIT= Accrued expenses, CREDIT= Expenses
C) DEBIT= Cash, CREDIT= Accrued expenses
D) DEBIT= Expenses, CREDIT= Cash
6)
Which of the following adjusting double entries is correct for Prepaid expenses?
A) DEBIT= Expenses, CREDIT= Prepaid expenses
B) DEBIT= Prepaid expenses, CREDIT= Expenses
C) DEBIT= Cash, CREDIT= Prepaid expenses
D) DEBIT= Expenses, CREDIT= Cash
7)

Unearned income is classified as


A) Asset
B) Liability
C) Loss
D) Capital
8)
Which of the following adjusting double entries is correct for earned income?
A) DEBIT= Income, CREDIT= Earned income
B) DEBIT= Earned income, CREDIT= Income
C) DEBIT= Cash, CREDIT= Earned income
D) DEBIT= Income, CREDIT= Cash
9)
Failure to make adjusting entries for accrued income results in
A) Overstatement of expenses
B) Understatement of expenses
C) Understatement of capital
D) Overstatement of income
10)
Identify the consequences of not making adjustment entry for accrued expense
A) Overstatement of liabilities
B) Understatement of liabilities
C) Overstatement of expenses
D) Understatement of capital
11)
An adjusting entry for prepaid expenses affects
A) Assets and expenses
B) Assets and income
C) Liabilities and expenses
D) Liabilities and assets
12)
Adjusting entries convert cash based account into _________ based accounting
A) Capital
B) Asset
C) Accrual
D) Prepaid
13)
An unearned income adjusting entry affects
A) Asset and liabilities

B) Cash and income


C) Income and liabilities
D) Cash and liabilities
14)
A business paid 3 month rent amounting to $3000 out of this amount one month rent pertains to the
next accounting period. Identify the correct amount prepaid expense
A) $3000
B) $1000
C) $2000
D) $4000
15)
Adjusting entries help allocating incomes and expenses to their ________
A) Cash balances
B) Appropriate accounting periods
C) Credit balances
D) Received or paid cash balances
16)
A customer paid you $100,000 for some construction work. However, at the end of your accounting
period only 1/4 of work was completed. What amount of income should be shown in income statement?
A) 100,000
B) 50,000
C) 10,000
D) 25,000
17)
A business paid $5000 for technical services but used up the services for only $2000 until the end of its
accounting period. The remaining $3000 would be referred as
A) Accrued expenses
B) Accrued income
C) Prepaid income
D) Prepaid expenses
18)
Revenue earned but not yet received by the business is known as
A) Contra asset revenue
B) Accrued expenses
C) Accrued revenue
D) Unearned revenue
19)
Another name of accrued revenue is
A) Outstanding asset

B) Earned asset
C) Unearned revenue
D) Earned revenue
20)
If Rent expenses=$5000, Insurance expenses=$4000, Prepaid rent expenses=$3000. What amount of total
expenses will be shown in income statement?
A) $9000
B) $12000
C) $8000
D) $6000
1)
Which of the following is not regarded as the fundamental concept that is identified by IAS-1
A) The going concern concept
B) The septate entity concept
C) The prudence concept
D) Correction concept
2)
Using "lower of cost and net realisable value" for the purpose of inventory valuation is the
implementation of which of the following concepts?
A) The going concern concept
B) The septate entity concept
C) The prudence concept
D) Matching concept
3)
The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of following types of businesses?
A) Sole proprietorship
B) Corporation
C) Partnership
D) All of them
4)
Is Prudence concept allows a business to build substantially higher reserves or provisions than that are
actually required?
A) Yes
B) No
C) To some extent
D) It depends on the type of business
5)
The revenue recognition principal dictates that all types of incomes should be recorded or recognized
when
A) Cash is received

B) At the end of accounting period


C) When they are earned
D) When interest is paid
6)
The matching concept matches which of the following?
A) Asset with liabilities
B) Capital with income
C) Revenues with expenses
D) Expenses with capital
7)
The allocation of owner's private expenses to his/her business violates which of the following?
A) Accrual concept
B) Matching concept
C) Separate business entity concept
D) Consistency concept
8)
The going concern concept assumes that
A) The entity continue running for foreseeable future
B) The entity continue running until the end of accounting period
C) The entity will close its operating in 10 years
D) The entity can't be liquidated
9)
American companies prepare their their financial statement in dollars whereas Japanese companies
produce financial statements in yens. Ths is an example of:
A) Stable monetary unit Concept
B) Unit of measurement Concept
C) Money value concept
D) Current swap concept
10)
Which of the following is time span into which the total life of a business is divided for the purpose of
preparing financial statements?
A) Fiscal year
B) Calendar year
C) Accounting period
D) Accrual period
11)
Showing purchased office equipments in financial statements is the application of which accounting
concept?
A) Historical cost convention

B) Materiality
C) Prudence
D) Matching concept
12)
Assets can't be offset against liabilities. This the dictation of which of the following accounting
concepts?
A) Matching concept
B) Accrual concept
C) Prudence concept
D) Offsetting concept
13)
Information about an item is ________ if its omission or misstatement might influence the financial
decision of the users taken on the basis of that information
A) Concrete
B) Complete
C) Immaterial
D) Material
14)
Exercising a degree of caution in the case of judgments needed under the condition of uncertainty is
assumption of which of the following accounting concepts?
A) Matching concept
B) Timeliness concept
C) Accrual concept
D) Prudence concept
15)
Which one of the following concepts states that the publication or presentation financial statements
should not be delayed?
A) Objectivity Concept
B) Timing concept
C) Timeliness Concept
D) Reliability Concept
16)
land on lease should be shown in balance sheet contrary to fact that company doesn't own this piece of
land. This is the statement of what accounting concepts?
A) Matching concept
B) Accrual concept
C) Prudence concept
D) Substance over form Concept
17)
"Financial information should be neutral and bias free" is the dictation of which one of the following?

A) Completeness concept
B) Faithful representation Concept
C) Objectivity Concept
D) Duality Concept
18)
A business was commenced on 1st January and it purchased 5 vehicles, each costing $5000. During the
year the business managed to sell 2 vehicles at the price of $12000. How should the remaining 3 vehicles
be valued if the business is going to continue its operations in the next year?
A) At the breakup value
B) On the basis of going concern
C) Liquidation value
D) More than market value
19)
A company received cash $1000 in advance for auditing service. However, the company neither earned
this revenue nor made any adjusting entry in its books. Identify the effect of this omission?
A) Total liabilities to be understated
B) Total expenses to be overstated
C) Total income to be overstated
D) Total assets to be understated
20)
Depreciation is charged on fixed asse to comply with which of the following accounting principles or
concepts?
A) Matching concept
B) Prudence concept
C) Timeliness concept
D) Reliability concept
1)
Financial statements are prepared mainly for
A) Internal users of financial information
B) External users of financial informaiton
C) Creditors of the business
D) Managers of the busienss
2)
Net profit is computed in which of the following?
A) Balance sheet
B) Income statement
C) Cash flow statement
D) Statement of changes in equity
3)

Which of the following should be the most appropiate order of current asset in a balance sheet?
A) cash, debor, bank, stock
B) Bank, cash, stock, debtor
C) Stock, bank, cash, debtor
D) Cash, bank, debtor, stock
4)
In income statement, gross profit is always equal to
A) Sales-expenses
B) Incomes-expenses
C) Sales-cost of goods sold
D) Sales-selling costs
5)
Office equipment is a ________ asset for a computer manufacturer and the same office equipment is a
_________ asset for a company that deals in these equipments
A) Current, Fixed
B) Fixed, intangible
C) Tangible, intangible
D) Fixed, current
6)
Identify the external user of financial information or financial statements
A) Management of the business
B) CFO of the business
C) Employees of the business
D) Investors of the business
7)
A statement or report that records the fluctuation in business's capital is referred as
A) Balance sheet
B) Income statement
C) Cash flow statement
D) Statement of changes in equity
8)
Financial statements mainly help in
A) Assumption of economic events
B) Anticipation of economic events
C) Recording of economic events
D) Communication of economic events
9)
Purchases+opening stock-closing stock=?

A) Amount of sales
B) Gross profit
C) Cost of goods sold
D) Net income
10)
Which of the following financial statements shows the financial position of a business at a specific date?
A) Balance sheet
B) Income statement
C) Cash flow statement
D) Statement of changes in equity
11)
Which of the following financial reports shows the profitable of a business?
A) Income statement
B) Balance sheet
C) Cash flow statement
D) Statement of changes in equity
12)
Assets minus liabilities equal to
A) Goodwill
B) Working capital
C) Net income
D) Capital
13)
Which of the following financial statements shows the movement of cash and cash equivalents in during
an accounting period?
A) Income statement
B) Balance sheet
C) Cash flow statement
D) Statement of changes in equity
14)
Goodwill is classified as which one of the following assets?
A) Fixed
B) Long term
C) Current
D) Intangible
15)
Which of the following does not appear in Balance sheet?
A) Building

B) Cash
C) Goodwill
D) Rent expenses
16)
Which of the following lists down the balances to asset accounts, liability accounts and capital account
balances?
A) Income statement
B) Balance sheet
C) Cash flow statement
D) Statement of changes in equity

17)
Current assets are also known as
A) Working capital
B) Invested capital
C) Assets
D) Cash
18)
The expenses related to the main operations of business are referred as
A) Administration expense
B) Non-administration expense
C) Selling expenses
D) Operating expenses
19)
Cash receipt from the sales fixed assets is recorded under the heading of
A) Operating activities
B) Financing activities
C) Investing activities
D) Other activities
20)
A current asset that is convertible to cash within 3 months can be referred to as
A) Cash asset
B) Operating asset
C) Intangible asset
D) Cash equivalent

1)
What is the minimum number of partners required to commence a partnership business?

A) 20
B) 10
C) 2
D) 4
2)
Partnership type of business is formed by the mutual agreement of partners. What kind of agreement is
it?
A) Oral agreement
B) Written agreement
C) Oral or written agreement
D) None of them
3)
In the general form of partnership, liabilities of partners are:
A) limited
B) unlimited
C) limited to the business capital
4)
Is partnership type of business considered as a separate legal entity?
A) No
B) Yes
5)
Can a partner transfer his/her share of business to a third party without other partners consent?
A) No
B) Yes
6)
Is it compulsory for all partners to contribute equal amount of capital in the business?
A) No
B) Yes
7)
Interest on drawings is:
A) Debited to partners current a/c
B) Credited to partners current a/c
C) Not shown in current account
8)
The written agreement of partnership is most commonly referred to as:
A) Agreement
B) Partnership deed

C) Partnership contract
D) Partnership Act
9)
Where there is no partnership agreement exists between partners, what will be the profit sharing ratio
between the partners?
A) Equal
B) Unequal
C) It will depend on a partners capital
D) It will depend on the experience of a partner
10)
Salary of a partner is _________ to current account
A) Debited
B) Credited

11)
New investment by any partner in the partnership type of business is _______ to the partners
capital account
A) Debited
B) Credited
12)
Under fluctuation method of capital, what is the treatment of interest on capital?
A) Credited to capital account
B) Debited to capital account
C) No treatment or adjustment needed
D) Credited to current account
13)
Which of the following is NOT generally the characteristic of a partnership business?
A) Limited life
B) Ease of formation
C) Mutual agency
D) Limited liability
14)
In which of the following types of partnership the liability of at least one partner is unlimited
whereas the liability of other partners is limited?
A) General partnership
B) Particular partnership

C) Partnership-at-will
D) Limited partnership
15)
In which of the following types of partnership there is no agreement regarding the duration of
partnership?
A) General partnership
B) Partnership-at-will
C) Limited partnership
D) Registered partnership
16)
A&B are partners sharing profit or loss equally. A new partner enters in the partnership and
invests a piece of land that had historical cost of $50,000, book value = $25000 and current
market value = $30,000. By what amount the new partners account should be increased?
A) $25000
B) $50,000
C) $30,000
D) $75000
17)
X and Y are partners sharing profit and loss at the ratio of 1/3 and 2/3 respectively. The net
income for this accounting period is $10 while salary of X = $2, interest on Ys drawings = $3
and interest on Xs capital = $2. What is the Xs share of profit or loss after the adjustment for
partners salary, interest on capital and interest on drawings?
A) $3
B) $6
C) $9
D) $11
18)
Which of the following is known as the value addition to a business because of business
reputation, customers loyalty, brand name etc
A) Assets
B) Market capitalization
C) Goodwill
D) Market penetration
19)
Which of following is the correct double entry for revaluation surplus
A) Revaluation = Debit and Partners capital accounts = Credit
B) Partners capital accounts = Debit and Revaluation surplus = Credit

20)
A and B share profit and loss in the ratio of 3/5 and 2/5 respectively and having capital account
balances of $100,000 each. At the time of revaluation, the firms total asset book value was
$60,000 while they can only be sold for $40,000. Which of the following is the balance of As
capital account after revaluation of firms assets?
A) $100,000
B) $112,000
C) $88,000
D) $72,000
21)
Which one of the following double entries is correct regarding the cost of firm
or partnership dissolution?
A) Credit realization a/c and Debit partners capital a/c
B) Credit realization a/c and Debit bank a/c
C) Debit realization a/c and Credit bank/cash
22)
Identify the correct double entry for realization profit at time dissolution of partnership
A) Debit realization a/c and Credit bank a/c
B) Debit bank a/c and Credit realization account
C) Debit realization account and Credit partners capital accounts
23)
Partner A took firms vehicle worth $5000 without payment at the time of firms disbanding. Identify the
correct adjustment in the capital account of partner A
A) $5000 will be debited
B) $5000 will be credited
C) No adjusted needed in capital a/c
24)
During the process of dissolution of partnership, the carrying value of machinery=$5000 and building =
$20,000 while both fixed assets were disposed at the cumulative price of $10,000 and realization cost was
up to $2000. Identify what total amount needed to credit or debit in the partners capital accounts
A) $12000 Debit
B) $13000 Credit
C) $13000 Debit
C) $10,000 Debit
25)
A and B are the partners in a small firm, their profit or loss sharing ratio is 6:4. A new partner C admitted
in the firm that will share profit or loss at the ratio of 1/4. Which of the following is the new profit or loss
sharing ratio among the partners A, B and C
A) 6:4:1
B) 18:12:10
C) 10:12:18
D) 6:4:4

26)
Which one of the following is the method of goodwill valuation?
A) Average capital method
B) Super capital method
C) Capital intensity method
D) Super profit method
27)
Under capitalization method of goodwill valuation, which of the following formulas is used to calculate
the value of whole business?
A) Value of whole business=Profit / Reasonable rate of return X 100
B) Value of whole business= Total assets / Reasonable rate of return X 100
C) Value of whole business= Equity-Net assets
28)
Which of the following is not recorded in the partners current accounts?
A) Drawings
B) Interest on Drawings
C) Partners salaries
D) Administrative expenses
29)
A partner that doesnt take part in the management of business, but he/she has made investment in
business and liable to creditors of the business is known as:
A) Active partner
B) Nominal partner
C) Junior partner
D) Dormant partner
1)
Which of the following is another term for debtor control account?
A) Sales account
B) Receivable account
C) Creditor control account
D) Sales ledger control account
2)
Control accounts are most commonly used for which of the following purposes?
A) Preparing cash flow statement
B) Making entries in other accounts
C) Accumulating the total balances of related accounts
D) Detecting errors in accounting records
3)

Bad debts written off during a period of accounting are entered in which side of a control account?
A) Debit side of creditor control a/c
B) Credit side of creditor control a/c
C) Debit side of debtor control a/c
D) Credit side of debtor control a/c
4)
Which of the following accounts is used to record the cash sales
A) Sales account
B) Sales ledger control account
C) Debtor control account
D) Revised debtor control account
5)
An account receivable was charged with the interest of $500, but no entry was made in the debtor control
account. What would be the adjustment in the debtor control account?
A) $500 will be credited in the debtor control a/c
B) $500 will be debited in the debtor control a/c
C) $1000 will be credited in the debtor control a/c
D) $1000 will be debited in the debtor control a/c
6)
A check for $200 was received from Mr. Z (a debtor) and was presented to bank but the bank has
dishonored it. Identity the correct treatment of check in a debtor control account?
A) Debit control account with $200
B) Credit control account with $200
C) Credit sales ledger control a/c with $200
D) No treatment in control accounts
7)
Sales of $500 were recorded twice in the sales ledger control account. What is the correct adjustment in
a debtor control account?
A) $500 will be credited
B) $500 will be debited
C) $1000 will be credited
D) $1000 will be debited
8)
Sales return was understated by $1000. Which of the following is correct?
A) $1000 will be debited in debtor control a/c
B) $1000 will be credited in debtor control a/c
C) NO adjustment required
D) $500 will be debited in debtor control a/c

9)
$500 debit was entered as $500 credit in sales ledger control account. Whats its adjustment in the sales
ledger control account?
A) $500 should be debited
B) $500 should be credited
C) $1000 should be debited
D) $1000 should be credited
10)
Payment of $500 was received from debtors. Which of the following statements is correct?
1.
Debit
account
receivable
2.
Credit
account
receivable
3.
Debit account
payable control
4. Credit account payable control account with $500

control
control

account
account
account

with
with
with

$500
$500
$500

A) 1 is correct
B) 2 is correct
C) 3 is correct
D) 4 is correct
11)
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Creditor control account


is also
known account
2.
Creditor
control
account
is
also
referred
to
3. Creditor control account is also called purchase ledger account

as

payable control
purchase ledger control

account
account

A) 1 and 3 are correct


B) 3 and 2 are correct
C) 1 and 2 are correct
12)
A contra entry of $1000 between sales ledger and purchase ledger was omitted from creditor control
account. Which of the following is the correct adjustment in a creditor control account?
A) $1000 should be credited
B) $1000 should be debited
C) No adjustment required
13)
A creditor control account is a kind of _______ since it can be used to proved the arithmetic correction of
accounting record
A) Purchases account
B) Creditor account
C) Trial balance
D) Expense account
14)
The total of purchases return is entered on the which side of a creditor control account?
A) Debit side

B) Credit side
C) No accounting treatment required
15)
Discount received is entered on the which side of a creditor control account?
A) Debit side
B) Credit side
C) No accounting treatment required
16)
identify the correct double entry for bill receivable dishonor
A) Debit debtor and Credit bill dishonored
B) Debit bill dishonored and Credit debtor
C) Debit creditor and Credit bill dishonor
D) Debit cash and Credit debtor
17)
Generally, the total amount purchases is taken from which book of account for the purpose of preparing
Creditor control account?
A) Cash book
B) Bank statement
C) Purchase day book
D) Purchases ledger accounts
18)
A creditor control account contains the following transaction:
Bank = $100
Purchases=$200
Discount received = $100
Balance c/d = $300
Work out the balance b/d
A) $100
B) $200
C) $300
D) $500
19)
Which of the following, generally, doesnt appear in a debtor control account?
A) Discount allowed
B) Bank or cash
C) Dishonored check
D) Provision for doubtful debts
20)
Which of the following is the correct entry for bill payable acceptance?

A) Bill payable Debit and creditor Credit


B) Creditor Debit and bill payable Credit
C) Cash Debit and bill payable Credit
D) Creditor debit and bill payable debit

Fixed assets and Depreciation


1)
What is depreciation?
A) Cost of a fixed asset
B) Cost of a fixed assets repair
C) The residual value of a fixed asset
D) Portion of a fixed assets cost consumed during the current accounting period
2)
Under which depreciation method the amount of depreciation expenses remains same throughout the
useful life of a fixed asset
A) Straight line method
B) Reducing balance method
C) Number of units produced method
D) Machine hours method
3)
A company purchased a vehicle for $6000. I will be used for 5 years and its residual value is expected to
be $1000. What is the annual amount of deprecation using straight line method of depreciation?
A) $1000
B) $2000
C) $3000
D) $3300
4)
What is the accumulated deprecation?
A) Sum of all depreciation expenses of a fixed asset
B) Depreciation expenses
C) Cost of depletion of assets
D) Future value of fixed asset
5)
Which of the following is the normal balance of an accumulated depreciation account?
A) Debit balance
B) Credit balance
C) Nil balance
6)
How trial balance shows the accumulated depreciation?
A) as a debit item

B) as a credit item
C) It doesnt show
7)
Which of the following is a double entry for depreciation expenses?
A) Accumulated depreciation debit and depreciation expenses Credit
B) Depreciation expenses Debit and accumulated depreciation Credit
C) Cash Debit and depreciation expenses Credit
D) Depreciation expenses Debit and cash Credit
8)
An alternative term used for accumulated depreciation expenses?
A) Provision for depreciation
B) Cumulative depreciation
C) Targeted depreciation
D) Depletion
9)
Which of the following is/are a kind of depreciation expenses?
A) Amortization
B) Depletion
C) Both of them

10)
A fixed asset was bought for $5000. Its accumulated depreciation is $3000 and rate of depreciation is
20%. Calculate its depreciation expenses for the current accounting period using reducing balance
method?
A) $600
B) $2000
C) $300
D) $400
11)
In depreciation calculation, the useful life of a fixed asset is:
A) a certain figure
B) an estimate
C) a predetermined figure for all fixed assets
12)
Depreciable amount + Residual value of a fixed asset =?
A) Depreciation expenses
B) Accumulated depreciation
C) Cost of the fixed asset
D) Future economic benefits of a fixed asset

13)
Cost of a fixed asset Accumulated depreciation expenses of the fixed asset=?
A) Book value of a fixed asset
B) Market value of a fixed asset
C) Historical cost of a fixed asset
D) Recoverable amount of a fixed asset
14)
The estimate about useful life of a fixed asset:
A) Can never be changed
B) Can be changed
15)
Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating depreciation using service hours method?
A) Depreciation=(Cost - Scrape value) / Total hours X Actual hours
B) Depreciation=(Cost - Accumulated depreciation) / Total hours X Actual hours
C) Depreciation=(Cost - Accumulated depreciation) / Total hours X Total hours
D) Depreciation=(Cost - Scrape value) / Actual hours X Total hours
16)
The purchase price of a software that will be used for more than 12 months should be regarded as:
A) a revenue expenditure
B) a capital expenditure
C) a long term expense
D) an accounting period expense
17)
XYZ firm has imported a machine from abroad. Which of the following is NOT the element of machines
cost?
A) Purchase price of machine
B) Import duty
C) Demurrage charges
D) Refundable tax
18)
A company purchased a new machine for $500,000 and machines test run was started to make sure that
machine works properly. There was expense of $5000 incurred on test run, however the sale proceeds of
test production were $2000. You are required to find out the total cost of machine?
A) $500,000
B) $505,000
C) 503,000
D) 495,000
19)

Which of the following fixed assets is not depreciated in the ordinary circumstances?
A) Plant and machinery
B) Building
C) Land
D) Equipments
20)
In the calculation of depreciation, all of the following items are actually estimates except:
A) Useful life
B) Residual value
C) Historical cost
D) Salvage value
21)
Which of the following accounting concepts or principles require the calculation of depreciation of the
fixed assets?
A) Prudence concept
B) Accrual concept
C) Consistency concept
D) Matching concept
22)
A car was purchased for $5500. Its residual value was estimated to be $500 while its monthly
depreciation expenses are $100 using straight line method. Which of the following is the annual rate of
depreciation?
A) 20%
B) 24%
C) 2%
D) 25%
23)
Under which method of depreciation the amount of depreciation expenses remains constant throughout
the useful life of a fixed asset
A) Reducing balance method
B) Unit of activity method
C) Straight line method
D) None of these
24)
An increase in the value of fixed asset is referred to as:
A) Depreciation
B) Appreciation
C) Market capitalization
D) Reverse depreciation
25)

A fixed asset having book value of $2000 was sold for $1500. Which of the following is the gain or loss on
the sale of fixed asset?
A) $500 gain
B) $1500 loss
C) $500 loss
D) $1000 gain
26)
Book value of a fixed asset equals to market value or sale proceeds of a fixed asset if:
A) Gain on sale=0
B) Loss on sale=0
C) Gain or loss on sale=0
D) Gain > loss on sale
27)
The term ______ is generally used for the depreciation of natural resources
A) Amortization
B) Depletion
C) Appreciation
D) Disposal value
28)
Which of the following is a biological asset?
A) Land
B) Building
C) Environment
D) Living plants and animals
29)
Items of property, plant and equipment can be recognized as assets when their cost can be measured
reliably and it is likely that the future economic benefits associated with the assets:
A) Will increase gradually
B) Will diminish with the passage of time
C) will flow to the entity
D) wont be available
30)
Under the revaluation model of fixed assets provided by the international accounting standards, the
revaluation of the fixed assets should be carried out:
A) After 10 years
B) on a regular basis
C) Once in 5 years
D) None of them
1)

Which of the following is the effect on net income if a business decreases provision for doubtful debts?
A) It will increase net income
B) It will decrease net income
C) No effect
D) It will increase gross profit and net income
2)
A firm has not recorded the bad debts by mistake. Which of the following is the effect of bad debts
omission?
A) Net profit would decrease
B) Net profit would increase
C) Gross profit would overstate
D) Gross profit would understate
3)
When it is certain that a debt wont be recovered. Which of the following is correct?
A) Provision for bad debt is created
B) Account receivable is credited
C) Bad debts is credited
D) Sales is debited
4)
A recovery of bad debt
A) increases net income
B) decreases net income
C) increases gross profit
D) increases gross profit and net income
5)
The opening balance of provision for doubtful debts account is $1000 whereas the closing balance of
debtors account is 100,000. What amount of provision for doubtful debts should be charged to income
statement using a 5% provision for doubtful debts for the current accounting period?
A) $5000
B) $4000
C) $2000
D) $1000
6)
The opening and closing balances of provision for doubtful debts account are $1000 and $2000 whereas
bad debts are totaled $200
A) $1000 is to be deducted from total debtors balance in the balance sheet
B) $2000 is to be subtracted from total debtors balance in the balance sheet
C) $1000 is to be added to total debtors balance in the balance sheet
D) $2000 is to be added to total debtors balance in the balance sheet

7)
Which of the following double entries is used to transfer bad debts recovered to income statement?
A) Bad debts recovered Debit and income statement Credit
B) Income statement Debit and bad debts recovered Credit
C) Cash Debit and bad debts recovered Credit
D) Bad debts recovered debit and cash Credit
8)
What does aged debtors analysis signify?
A) shows how long debts have been outstanding
B) How old the customers are
C) How long does a business take to repay the bank loans
D) Minimum number of old debtors
9)
Which of the following is the most common cause of bad debt?
A) Debtor refusal to repayment
B) Debtor left the country
C) Debtor committed a crime
D) Debtor declared to be a bankrupt
10)
According to a general rule of accounting, the older a debts is outstanding, the more likelihood that the
debt will turn out to be a
A) provision for bad debt
B) profitable debt for the business
C) bad debt
D) asset for the business

11)
Total debtors=$5000, the closing balance of provision for doubtful debt a/c is $500. Identify
what amount should be shown in balance sheet regarding the debtors?
A) $5000-$500=$4500
B) $5000+$500=$5500
C) $4500-$500=$5000
D) $4500-$500=$4000
12)
Which accounting concept dictates the inclusion of provision for doubtful debts in the
financial statements?
A) Accrual concept
B) Matching concept
C) Going concern concept

D) Prudence concept
13)
Which of the following is an alternative term for provision for doubtful debts ?
A) Reserve for doubtful debts
B) Stipulation for doubtful debts
C) Allowance for doubtful debts
D) Discount for doubtful debts
14)
At the end of accounting period, XYZ company finds out that its total debtors are $10,000. On
scrutiny of accounts, it turned out that a bad debt amounting to $1000 was not recorded in the
books of accounts. Furthermore, having considered the current economic situation,
management of the company decided to increase the provision for doubtful debts by $500.
Find out what net amount to be expensed out in the income statement?
A) $10,000
B) $1000
C) $1500
D) 11,000
15)
A firm decided to provide for a 4% or $160 allowance for doubtful debts on all outstanding
debts. Which of the following is the value of total outstanding debts of the firm at the time of
creating the provision?
A) $2000
B) $5000
C) $1000
D) 4000$
16)
Which of the following is a commonly used base to create the provision for doubtful debts?
A) Total purchases
B) Total credit sales
C) Total current assets
D) Total current liabilities
17)
Which of the following debtors have highest probability to default on trade debts?
A) Over 90 days old debtors
B) 30 to 60 days old debtors
C) 60 to 90 days old debtors
D) Current month debtors

18)
Provision for doubtful debts account is a/an
A) Asset account
B) Contra asset account
C) Nominal account
D) Liability account
19)
Suppose that provision for doubtful debts accounts opening balance is $3222, closing
balance=$5222 and bad debts written off during the accounting period amount to $500. Work
out the total amount needed to debit in the profit and loss account?
A) $2500
B) $8444
C) $8944
D) $7944
20)
Provision for cash discount on debtors is a percentage of
A) Debtors
B) Net debtors
C) Net debtors less provision for doubtful debt
D) Net sales
1)
The value of inventories or stock is figured out at the lower of cost and
A) purchase price
B) opportunity cost
C) realizable value
D) net realizable value
2)
An overstatement in the value of closing stock overstates all of the following except
A) Net income
B) Current assets
C) Capital of the business
D) Cost of goods sold
3)
Which of the following are generally the inventories of a service business
A) Finished goods inventories
B) Purchased goods

C) Raw material inventories


D) Work in process inventories
4)
All of the following are the methods of inventory costing except
A) FIFO
B) LIFO
C) AVCO or average cost
D) Stock take
5)
Which one of the following methods of inventory costing yields highest taxable income?
A) FIFO
B) LIFO
C) AVCO or average cost
D) Standard cost method
6)
Which one of the following methods of inventory costing produces ending stock cost close to the market
value of the inventories?
A) FIFO
B) LIFO
C) AVCO or average method
7)
Which of the following inventory costing systems is regarded as the most complex one?
A) Periodic inventory system
B) Perpetual inventory system
8)
Which one of the following double entries is passed when goods are purchased on credit under
perpetual inventory system?
A) Purchases Debit and creditor Credit
B) Purchases Debit and a/c payable Credit
C) Purchases Debit and Cash Credit
D) Inventory Debit and a/c payable Credit
9)
Which of the following journal entries is passed when goods are purchased on credit under the periodic
inventory system?
A) Purchases Debit and cash Credit
B) Cash Debit and Purchases Credit
C) Purchases Debit and a/c payable Credit
D) Inventory Debit and a/c payable Credit

10)
Which one of the following inventory systems ascertains the balance of stock or amount of stock at the
end of an accounting period or at the time of physical inventory count?
A) Periodic inventory system
B) Perpetual inventory system
11)
Which one of the following inventory costing methods is supposed to issue the most recently purchased
goods?
A) FIFO method
B) AVCO or average cost method
C) LIFO method
D) Moving average
12)
Which of the following inventory systems is the most appropriate for a business that deals in a precious
metal such as gold?
A) Periodic inventory system
B) Perpetual inventory system
13)
Opening inventory + Net purchases = What?
A) Ending inventory
B) Closing stock
C) Cost of goods manufactured
D) Cost of goods available for sale
14)
Cost of goods available for sale closing inventory = What?
A) Opening inventory
B) Cost of opening finished goods inventory
C) Work in process ending inventory
D) Cost of goods sold
15)
Gross profit is 25% on total sales and cost of goods sold amounts to $750. Which of the following is the
amount of gross profit?
A) $187.7
B) $200
C) $150
D) $250
16)
At the end of XYZ firms accounting period, the closing stock was found to be $10,000. However, it was
realized that a fixed asset of cost $1000 was included in the stock count. Which of the following is the
correct amount of ending inventory or stock?
A) $10,000

B) $11,000
C) $9000
D) $8000
17)
NRV or net realizable value of inventory is the expected selling price or market value less
A) Carry value of the inventory
B) expenses necessary to complete sale
C) Cost of the stock
D) replacement cost
18)
Cost of an item in the closing inventory is $100 whereas the net realizable value is $85. At which one of
following amounts the item should be shown in the financial statement?
A) $100
B) $115
C) $85
D) $185
19)
An item of inventory was purchased for $100. It can be sold for $125 and company can replace the item
with the new one at the cost of $105. Which of the following is the historical cost of that item?
A) $125
B) $105
C) $100
20)
Under which method of inventory costing a pre-determined cost is assigned to all items of inventory?
A) Replacement cost method
B) Standard cost method
C) AVCO method
D) FIFO method
1)
Which of the following is generally considered as a non profit oriented organization?
A) Charitable organization
B) Corporation
C) Audit firms
D) Insurance companies
2)
The receipts and payments account of a non-profit organization is a
A) Nominal account
B) Real account
C) Income statement account

D) Financial statement
3)
Non-profit organizations prepare all of the following accounts except the
A) Receipts and payment accounts
B) Income and Expenditure accounts
C) Balance sheet
D) Income statement
4)
Expenditures greater than incomes of a non-profit organization give rise to a
A) Loss
B) Profit
C) Surplus
D) Deficit
5)
Rent expense of a non-profit organization paid in advance. Which of the following is the correct
classification of rent?
A) Expense
B) Liability
C) Equity
D) Asset
6)
An advance receipt of subscription from a member of the non-profit organization is considered as a/an
A) Expense
B) Liability
C) Equity
D) Asset
7)
Income and expenditure account is based on
A) Cash accounting
B) Accrual accounting
C) Government accounting
D) Management accounting
8)
Which of the following is regarded as apt to show the purchase of a fixed asset?
A) Income and Expenditure account
B) Profit and loss account
C) Balance sheet

9)
Which of the following is to be recorded in an income and expenditure account?
A) Purchase of a fixed asset
B) Capital expenditure incurred on a fixed asset
C) Profit on the sale of a fixed asset
D) Sale of a fixed asset
10)
Honorarium is a kind of remuneration paid to a person who is not the employee of a non-profit
organization. Which of the following statements is true about the honorarium payment?
A) Its a revenue expenditure
B) Its a Capital expenditure
C) It is not recorded in the books of accounts
11)
The capital of a non-profit organization is generally known as
A) Equity
B) Accumulated fund
C) Cash fund
D) Financial reserve
12)
When cash is received for life membership, which one of the following double entries is passed?
A) Cash Debit and capital Credit
B) Life membership Debit and cash Credit
C) Investment Debit and cash Credit
D) Cash Debit and life membership fund Credit
13)
XYZ club has a bar that maintains a separate trading account for its trading activities. Which of the
following is the treatment of profit or loss on bar trading activities?
A) Profit or loss is directly shown in the balance sheet
B) Profit or loss is to be presented in income and expenditure account
C) Profit and loss is credit in income statement
D) Profit or loss is added to accumulated fund
14)
Which of the following is the accounting equation for a non-profit organization?
A) Asset = Capital + Liabilities
B) Capital + Liabilities = Assets
C) Accumulated fund + Liabilities = Assets
D) Liabilities = Asset + Accumulated fund
15)
Subscription received but not yet earned is considered as a/an

A) Asset
B) Liability
C) Income
D) Expenditure
16)
A non-profit organization received $10,000 as the entrance fee of a new member. If 20% of the fee has to
be capitalized, what is the amount of fee needs to be shown in the income and expenditure account?
A) $2000
B) $8000
C) $9000
D) $10,000
17)
$10,000 received as the annual membership subscription. Out of this, $2000 is pertaining to the
previous accounting period whereas $1000 is receivable at the end of the current accounting period.
Calculate the amount of subscription that will be shown in the income and expenditure account for this
accounting
A) $10,000
B) $9000
C) $12,000
D) $8000
18)
The balance sheet of a non-profit organization such as a charitable hospital doesnt contain the
A) Assets
B) Building
C) Debts
D) Owners equity
19)
Income and expenditure accounts show
A) Cash available to an organization
B) Closing capital of an organization
C) Cash available in the bank account
D) Surplus or deficit for the current accounting period
20)
On what basis the receipts and payments account is prepared?
A) Cash basis
B) Accrual basis
C) Both accrual and cash basis
21)
The amount or property received by a non- profit organization as stated by the will of a deceased person
is commonly referred to as
A) Donation

B) Honorarium
C) Legacy
D) Endowment
22)
Investment in sinking fund by a non-profit organization is a/an
A) Liability
B) Accumulated fund
C) Asset
D) Equity
23)
In non-profit accounting, the sale of old newspapers is generally considered as a/an
A) Expenses
B) Expenditure
C) Income
D) Capital receipt
1)
In single entry system of accounting
A) Dual aspects of a transaction is recorded
B) Single aspect of a transaction is recorded
C) Important transactions are recorded
D) All of them
2)
Statement of financial position produced from incomplete accounting record is commonly known as
A) Balance sheet
B) Cash flow statement
C) Statement of affairs
D) Statement of financial operations
3)
Which of the following businesses usually maintain incomplete accounting record of the business
activities?
A) Large businesses
B) Companies
C) Big partnership firms
D) Small businesses
4)
In which of the following systems of recording the financial statements reflect true and fair view of an
entity and accounting records are considered to be more accurate?
A) Single entry system
B) Double entry system

C) Cash based system


5)
Identify the correct formula used to ascertain the closing balance of capital
A) Opening capital + Net income Drawing Assets = Closing capital
B) Closing capital = Opening Capital + Net loss - Drawings
C) Closing Capital = Opening capital + Assets + Incomes Expenses
D) Closing capital = Opening capital + Net income Drawings
6)
Which of the following formulas is used to calculated the net income for an accounting period?
A) Net income = opening capital + Drawings + Ending capital
B) Net income = - Opening capital + Drawings Ending capital
C) Net income = - Opening capital + Drawings + Ending capital
D) Net income = Opening capital Total assets
7)
If opening capital = $1000 and closing capital = $2000. Assuming no drawings during the accounting
period, calculated the net income or loss for the period
A) $1000 net income
B) $1000 net loss
C) $2000 net income
D) $2000 net losss
8)
Total opening balances of assets and liabilities are $10,000 and $5000 respectively. Find out the opening
capital of the business
A) $10,000
B) $5000
C) $15000
D) $50,000,000
9)
Which one of the following accounts is supposed to be used to get the figure of credit purchases made
during the current accounting period?
A) Debtor account
B) Revenue account
C) Creditors account
D) Expenses account
10)
To obtain the amount of credit sales made during an accounting period, which account is generally used
in single entry and incomplete records?
A) A/c payable account
B) Total revenue account

C) Debtors account
D) Stock account

11)
Which of the following is used to work out the balance of cash drawings for an accounting
period?
A) Debtor account
B) Credit account
C) Cash payments journal
D) Cash book
12)
Closing balance of cash can be obtained by drawing up a
A) Balance sheet
B) Statement of affairs
C) Income statement
D) Cash account
13)
A method wherein omitted information is determined in the first place and by using this
information net income or loss is ascertained is known as
A) nominal method
B) Cash method
C) Conversion method
D) Net profit method
14)
If creditors balance was $1000 at 1 Jan 2012, ending balance of creditors was $2000 on 31 Dec
2012 and a payment of $500 was made to creditors, which of the following is the amount of
purchases made during the year 2012?
A) $2500
B) $500
C) $1500
D) $2000
15)
If debtors balance was $2000 at 1 Jan 2012, credit sales made during the year were $1000 and
the total payments of $1500 were received from debtors, which of the following is the debtors
account balance at 31 Dec 2012 ?
A) $1000
B) $2000
C) $1500

D) $500
16)
Net profit + operating expenses = ?
A) Cost of goods sold
B) Amount of sales
C) Net sales
D) Gross profit
17)
Calculate the amount of net income or loss if the capital has been increased by $1000 during
this accounting period, drawing = $5000 and $1000 fresh capital was introduced in the
business
A) $5000 net loss
B) $5000 net profit
C) $6000 net loss
D) $6000 net profit