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Jesus said "I am" so he must be God

The claim in John 8:56-59 "before Abraham was born, I am" is


not the same as "worship me!" The fact that Jesus (pbuh) was
present before Abraham (pbuh) is not the same as him saying
"worship me!" What then would we say about Solomon (pbuh)
(Proverbs 8:22-31) and Melchizedec (Hebrews 7:3), who were
supposedly present not only before Abraham (pbuh), but also
before all of creation? What about the many others who were
either anointed, consecrated or made holy, before their births.
(see Ps.89:20, Is. 45:1, 61:1, 1 Sam. 24:6, and Jer.1:5)?

With regard to your comparison of "I am" in the verse of


Exodus 3:14 with that of John 8:59, please note that in John
9:9, a beggar who was healed by prophet Jesus used these exact
same words used by Jesus ("I am") to refer to himself. We read

"Some said, This is he (the beggar): others [said], He is like


him: [but] he said, I am [he]."

John 9:9.

Here we have a very clear statement from the beggar that he


was "implying" that he too was God Almighty. Is this not how
the "translators" have chosen to translate and "interpret" such
verses?. Please note that the word "he" was not uttered by this
beggar. What he actually said was "I am." He used the exact
same words that Jesus used. Word for word. Does this now
make this beggar too the "incarnation" of God? Also notice that
when the Jews asked this beggar about the identity of the one
who healed him (Jesus) he replied
"And he said, 'He is a prophet.'"

John 9:17

Further, please notice how the "translators" chose to add the


word "he" after the beggar's statement, but they did not chose to
do so when Jesus said the exact same words.

Do you see how we have once again been reduced to


implication?. Notice how since Jesus never once says "I am
God!" or "Worship me!" that our own desire for him to actually
say that he is God is making us "interpret" every innocent
statement he makes to be *****alent to "I am God!"?

Just because the English translation of these verses is performed


such that they become the same English words does not mean
that the original words are the same. The first is the GREEK
word eimi {i-mee'}, while the second is the HEBREW word
hayah {haw-yaw}. While both can be translated into English to
mean the same thing, they are in actuality two distinctly
different words.

The exact same Greek word (eimi {i-mee'}) is translated as "I"


in Matthew 26:22:

"And they [the disciples] were exceeding sorrowful, and began


every one of them to say unto him, Lord, is it I?"

However, if we want to translate this word as "I am" when


Jesus says it then we need to be honest and consistent and
translate it the exact same way when the disciples say it too. In
such a case, Matthew 26:22 would be translated as follows:
"And they [the disciples] were exceeding sorrowful, and began
every one of them to say unto him, Lord, is it I am?"

So, if we were to follow these translator's chosen "translation"


techniques, shall we now claim that the disciples of Jesus too
are God? Here we have them saying so very clearly. We have
them asking Jesus in black and white "Are we God?." Is this not
what they were "implying?." Should the inspiration of God be
reduced to our "implications"?

When the translators have not allowed their preconceived


doctrines to color their translation the result has been such
faithful translations of John 8:58 as the following:

"'Truly, truly I tell you,' said Jesus, 'I have existed before
Abraham was born'"

The Holy Bible Containing the Old and New Testaments, Dr.
James Moffatt, John 8:58

and "Jesus said to them, 'I tell you, I existed before Abraham
was born'"

The Complete Bible, an American Translation, by Edgar


Goodspeed and J. M. Powis Smith, John 8:58

In Exodus 3:4, we read that prophet Moses used this exact same
term to refer to himself, however, now strangely enough, no
one has ever tried to claim that Moses is God or that he was
mimicking the words of God found ten verses later in the same
book of Exodus. We read:

"And when the LORD saw that he turned aside to see, God
called unto him out of the midst of the bush, and said, Moses,
Moses. And he said, Here I am."

Exodus 3:4

Notice how people are driven in a chosen direction of faith


through selective translation? Also remember that Jesus (pbuh)
did not speak GREEK. If only the church had not felt it
necessary to burn all of the original Hebrew manu******s of
the Bible.

Is it so hard to bring us one clear verse like the above verse of


Isaiah 66:23 wherein Jesus (pbuh) also says "worship me!"?
Why must we infer? If Jesus is God or the Son of God then this
is his right. The Bible should be overflowing with verses where
Jesus explicitly commands his followers to worship him, where
God explicitly commands mankind to worship his son, where
God explicitly threatens those who do not worship His son with
brimstone and hellfire, and so forth. The Bible is overflowing
with verses like this from God about Himself, and from Jesus
(pbuh) about God, but there are none from Jesus (pbuh) about
himself. Why is it necessary:

For God Almighty to explicitly command us to worship Him,


and
for Jesus to explicitly command us to worship "the Father."
while it is not necessary:

For Jesus (pbuh) to explicitly command us to worship him, or


for God to explicitly command us to worship "the Son"?
Is this not a fair request?