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He doesn't need to say it

Somebody may say: "Does Jesus say, 'I am God'?


No." I am glad we agree. "...because that would have
been misunderstood. Jesus is not the Father (as it
would have been thought), Jesus is the Son." What?,
are you claiming that Jesus is incapable when telling
his disciples "worship the Father" to add the words
"...and the Son"? Are you claiming that the people he
is talking to are incapable of comprehending that one
is the father and the other is the son? Would you have
us believe that his twelve apostles were so dense that
they could not comprehend the difference between a
"father" and a "son"? Are there no words in his
language to say "I am not God but His son, worship
both of us"? When you claim that Jesus (pbuh) died
on the cross, do you misunderstand this to mean that
God the "Father" is the one who died on the cross?
When you claim that Jesus was "begotten" by God,
do you misunderstand this to mean that Jesus begat
the Father? Are Jesus' twelve hand-picked apostles
truly in you estimation so backward and dense? This
is not how Muslims regard them.
With regard to the miracles of Jesus being proof of
his Godhead please read my comments about other
prophets and their miracles (Section 2.2.3).

What you appear to be trying to say is that the fact


that Jesus never told anyone to worship him nor
claimed to be God but left it up to them to surmise by
themselves is proof that he wanted them to worship
him? God must command us to worship him, and
Jesus must command us to worship God, but Jesus
(pbuh) receives worship "without censure" without
asking for it? Why then is the same not true for God
Himself? Why did God Himself not simply remain
quiet (like Jesus) and expect us to "gather" and
"observe" that He wishes us to worship Him. Why
does God Himself not receive "without censure"
worship until He asks for it? Why?

With regard to the opening verses of John, they have


already been dealt with in detail.

Jesus (pbuh) never in his lifetime told anyone to


worship him. It was others who did that. Quite the
contrary, whenever Jesus (pbuh) spoke of worship, he
always attributed it to God and never himself: "Thou
shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt
thou serve" Luke 4:8. Notice the words: "Him
ONLY." Jesus did not say "US only," or "Him and I
only." How could he possibly make it more clear than
that? What abstract meaning are we now going to
concoct for this verse to show that what Jesus "really"
meant was "worship BOTH of us"?

The problem with many apologists is that they


"interpret" the words "he" and "him" to mean "we"
and "us" when it suits them, and to mean "he" and
"him" only when it suits them. In cases such as Luke
4:8, they claim that "him" really means "us." But in
cases where God "begets" Jesus, or where God
"sacrifices" Jesus, "him" and "he" is God alone and
does not mean "us" and "we." Notice the trend ?

But there is more:

"Jesus saith unto her, ... worship the Father" John 4:2.

"But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true
worshippers shall worship the Father in spirit and in
truth: for the Father seeketh such to worship HIM"
John 4:23. Notice: "worship the FATHER," not
"worship the Father AND THE SON." Also notice:
"worship HIM" not "worship US" or "worship ME."
"Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall
enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth
the will of my Father which is in heaven." Matthew
7:21.
"Jesus said unto him, Thou shalt love the Lord thy
God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with
all thy mind." Matthew 22:37.
Strangely enough, even though Jesus is regarded as
the "incarnation" of God, and wholly equal to God in
every respect, and all three are "one" God, still, no
one has ever gone on and attempted to explain if this
is so why Jesus would then need to pray, let alone to
his own self:

"And he (Jesus) went a little further, and fell on his


face, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if it be
possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not
as I will but as thou [wilt]." Matthew 26:39
"He (Jesus) went away again the second time, and
prayed (to another side of his 'triune' self?), saying, O
my Father, if this cup may not pass away from me,
except I drink it, thy will be done." Matthew 26:42
"And he (Jesus) left them, and went away again, and
prayed (to whom? To himself?) the third time, saying
the same words." Matthew 26:44
"And in the morning, rising up a great while before
day, he (Jesus) went out, and departed into a solitary
place, and there prayed." Mark 1:35
"And he (Jesus) went forward a little, and fell on the
ground, and prayed that, if it were possible, the hour
might pass from him." Mark 14:35
"And again he (Jesus) went away, and prayed, and
spake the same words." Mark 14:39
"And he (Jesus) withdrew himself into the wilderness,
and prayed." Luke 5:16
"And he (Jesus) was withdrawn from them about a
stone's cast, and kneeled down, and prayed," Luke
22:41
etc.

If Jesus (pbuh) "is" God, and if both are different


names for one "triune" God, and if all three "persons"
are "co-equal, co-eternal, and consubstantial," then is
Jesus praying to himself? Is he praying to another
side of his own personality? Is he praying to his own
essence? Why? Why does the "incarnation" of God
need to pray, beseech, sweat, and plead with his own
essence? If I have both a father and a number of sons,
then can my "fatherly" nature plead with my "sonly"
nature to save it from danger? Why? For what
purpose?

"Many will say to me (Jesus) in that day, Lord, Lord,


have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name
have cast out devils? and in thy name done many
wonderful works? And then will I profess unto them,
I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work
iniquity."

Matthew 7:22