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Solutions to NTSE-I

(2014)
(For Class X Students)
(SAT)
Time: 90 Minutes

Max Marks: 90
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Read the following instructions carefully before you open the Question Booklet.
1.

Use blue/black ball point pen only.

2.

Write your Roll No. very clearly (only one digit in on block) on this booklet and on the
ANSWER SHEET.

3.

This test consists of 90 questions of one mark each. All the questions are COMPULSORY.

4.

Answer to each question by filling the correct alternative among the four choices on the answer
sheet.

Example:
Q.No.
Correct way:

Alternatives
1

5.

Alternatives

Q.No.
Wrong way:

Separate sheet has been provided for rough work in this test booklet.

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-2
91.

91.
91.

A body falling from rest describes distances S1, S2 and S3 is the first, second and third seconds of
its fall. Then the ratio of S1 : S2 : S3 is :
(1) 1 : 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 3 : 5
(3) 1 : 2 : 3
(4) 1 : 4 : 9
2
1

S = ut +

gt ,

S =

1
2

gt

u = 0.
2

Here s is displacement.
st

Distance dropped in 1 second,


Distance dropped in 2

nd

second,

rd

Distance dropped in 3 second,

S1

S3

92.
92.

93.
94.

2
1
2

g 2

g 3

g1

2
1

g 1

g 2

1
2
1
2

g3
g5

Two bodies with kinetic energies in the ratio 4 : 1 are moving with equal linear momentum. The
ratio of their masses is :
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 4: 1
(4) 1 : 4
4
KE =

2m

KE

93.

g 1
1

S2

S1 : S2 : S3 = 1 : 3 : 5
92.

1
2

1
m

.
.

Amount of light entering into the camera depends upon:


(1) focal length of objective lens.
(2) product of focal length & diameter of objective lens.
(3) distance of objective from camera.
(4) aperture setting of the camera.
4
A body starts from rest at time t = 0, the acceleration time graph is shown in figure. The maximum
velocity attained by the body will be :
10
2

a(m/s )

11
t(sec)

94.

(1) 110 m/s


(3) 650 m/s
2

(2) 55 m/s
(4) 550 m/s

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-3
94.

Area under acceleration time graph gives change in velocity.


1
2

1 1 1 0 v u,

in itia l v e lo c ity u 0

Vm a x 5 5 m / s

95.

95.
96.
96.

A comb run through ones dry hair attracts small bits of paper. This is due to :
(1) comb is a good conductor
(2) paper is a good conductor
(3) The atoms in the paper gets polarised by the charged comb
(4) the comb possesses magnetic properties
3
A wire of resistance R is stretched to twice of its original length. Its new resistance will be :
(1) 4R
(2) R/4
(3) 2R
(4) R/2
1

96.

R =

/ A

New length ' 2 .


New area of cross section
R' =

A ' = A /2

'
A / 2

R' = 4R

97.
97.

On a cold morning, a metal surface will feel colder to touch than a wooden surface, because :
(1) metal has high specific heat
(2) metal has high thermal conductivity
(3) metal has low specific heat
(4) metal has low thermal conductivity
2

98.

The resultant focal length of the lenses as shown in the figure is :


(1) 2f
(3)

(2)

f
2

(4) f

98.

98.

Both part will have same focal length f


Focal length of combination,

1
F

1
f

1
f

F = f/2

99.
99.
99.

White colour of the cloud is due to :


(1) reflection of seven colors of light
(3) scattering of seven colors of light
3

(2) refraction of seven colors of light


(4) absorption of seven colors of light

Large dust particles and water droplets scatter all wavelength almost equally. Hence clouds
appears white.
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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-4

100.
100.
101.

101.
102.
102.
102.

103.
103.
103.
104.
104.
104.
105.

105.
105.

The magnetic field lines inside a long current-carrying solenoid are nearly :
(1) Circular
(2) Parabolic
(3) Straight
(4) Elliptical
3
An AC generator is connected to an electric appliance. In 10 revolutions of the armature the
current in
the appliance changes direction :
(1) 5 times
(2) 10 times
(3) 20 times
(4) 40 times
3
Ice is floating on water in a beaker when ice completely melts then level of water in beaker :
(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains the same
(4) First increases then decreases
3
Level of water remains constant as ice is less dense than liquid water. In ice, the water molecules
are packed in cage structure. If it melts some of the water is free to move in between the free
room in the crystalline cage structure.
Which one of the following is not a base?
(1) B(OH)3
(3) Ca(OH)2
1
B(OH)3 is boric acid.
Also referred as H3BO3.

(2) KOH
(4) NH4OH

Which of the following orders of atomic radii is correctly represented?


(1) B < Al < Ga
(2) B < Ga < Al
(3) Al < B < Ga
(4) B > Ga > Al
2
It is due to greater screening effect in aluminium, its radii is greater than gallium.
23

2+

A sample of MgCO3 contains 3.01 10 Mg ions and 3.01 10


sample is
(1) 42 mg
(2) 84 g
(3) 0.042 kg
(4) 42 mol
3
23
Sample contains 3.01 10 MgCO3 molecules.
23
Therefore, 6.022 10 molecules weigh 84 gms

23

3.01 10 molecules weigh

84
2

23

CO3

ions. The mass of the

gms

= 42 gms
= 0.042 kg
106.

What are the electronic configurations of Na and


+

(1) Na = 2, 8, 1 and
+

106.
106.

= 2, 8, 7

(3) Na = 2, 8, 2 and C = 2, 8, 6
2
+
Na = 2, 8 Na = 2, 8, 1

Cl = 2, 8, 7 Cl = 2, 8, 8

ions?
+

(2) Na = 2, 8 and
+

(4) Na = 2, 8 and

C
C

= 2, 8, 8

= 2, 8, 7

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-5
107.
107.
107.
108.
108.
108.
109.
109.
109.
110.
110.
110.

111.
111.
111.
112.
112.
112.
113.
113.
113.

114.

114.

Which of the following has shortest carbon-carbon bond length?


(1) C2H2
(2) C2H4
(3) C2H6
(4) C6H6
1
HC CH
Triple bond is shorter in length than double bond and single bond.
Which of the following may be isomer of aldehyde having general formula CnH2nO?
(1) Alcohol
(2) Ether
(3) Ester
(4) Ketone
4
Aldehydes and ketones are functional isomers of each other belonging to family of carbonyl
compounds with general molecular formula CnH2nO.
Which of the following solution has the lowest pH value?
(1) 0.1 Molar NaCl solution
(2) 0.01 Molar NaHCO3 solution
(3) 0.001 Molar Na2CO3 solution
(4) 0.01 Molar NaOH solution
1
Other solutions will result in pH greater than 7.
Nacl solution neutral.
+

Which of the following has the greatest concentration of H ion?


1
1
(1) 1 mol L HCl solution
(2) 1 mol L H3PO2 solution
1
1
(3) 1 mol L H2SO4 solution
(4) 1 mol L H2CO3 solution
3
Concentration of all the solutions is equal. Therefore, due to double dissociation of H 2SO4 it will
+
give greatest concentration of H ion. On the other hand, H2CO3 being weak acid will dissociate
partially.
Solder is an alloy of
(1) Cu + Zn
(3) Pb + Sb
2
Solder is an alloy of Sn and Pb.

(2) Pb + Sn
(4) Cu + Sn

Which is the symbol of the element tungsten?


(1) Ta
(2) Tc
(3) W
(4) V
3
Symbol of tungsten W (Based on its latin name wolfram).
What mass of hydrogen and oxygen will be produced on complete electrolysis of 18g of water?
(1) 2g hydrogen and 32g oxygen
(2) 2g hydrogen and 16g oxygen
(3) 4g hydrogen and 32g oxygen
(4) 4g hydrogen and 14g oxygen
2
2H2O 2H2 + O2
36 gms of H2O 4 gms of H2 & 32 gms O2

18 gms of H2O 2 gms of H2 & 16 gms O2


A cell will plasmolyse, if it is placed in:
(1) Hypertonic solution
(2) Hypotonic solution
(3) Isotonic solution
(4) Concentration of water molecules does not matter
1

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-6
114.

When a plant cell is placed in hypertonic solution, plasmolysis will take place because of
exosmosis.

115.

In Xerophytes, the rate of water loss get reduced due to covering of epidermis by:
(1) Cutin
(2) Suberin
(3) Lignin
(4) Gum
1
Cutin, a waxy layer prevents transpiration from aerial parts of xerophytes.

115.
115.
116.

116.
116.
117.
117.
117.
118.

118.
118.
119.
119.
119.
120.
120.
120.
121.
121.
121.
122.
122.
122.

Given below are the pairs of disease and causal pathogen. Which one of these is not a matching
pair?
(1) Kala azar Leishmania
(2) Sleeping sickness Trypanosoma
(3) Malaria Salmonella
(4) Acne Staphylococci
3
Malaria is caused by Plasmodium sp.
During lack of oxygen in tissues of our body, the pyruvate is converted into lactic acid in:
(1) Mitochondria
(2) Nucleus
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Ribosome
3
Due to lack of oxygen, pyruvate does not enter the Krebs cycle and gets converted into lactic
acid in the cytoplasm.
The accumulation of non-biodegradable substances in a food chain in increasing amount at each
higher trophic level is known as:
(1) Accumulation
(2) Eutrophication
(3) Pollution
(4) Bio magnification
4
The increase in concentration of non-biodegradable substance with subsequent trophic level of a
food chain is called bio-magnification.
Kidneys do not perform the function of:
(1) Regulation of blood pressure
(2) Filtration of blood
(4) Regulation of ions concentration
(4) Secretion of anti bodies
4
Kidneys are not involved in secretion of antibodies.
Double fertilization is a unique feature of:
(1) Bryophytes
(2) Angiosperm
(3) Algae
(4) Gymnosperm
2
Double fertilization is a characteristic of Angiosperms (flowering plants) in which zygote and
endosperm nucleus are formed.
Phototropic and geotropic response of a plant is under control of following hormone:
(1) Auxin
(2) Gibberlin
(3) Cytokinin
(4) Ethylene
1
Phototropic and geotropic movements of a plant depend upon different concentrations of auxin.
The following blood vessel does not contain deoxygenated blood:
(1) Pulmonary artery
(2) Vena Cava
(3) Hepatic vein
(4) Pulmonary Vein
4
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Pulmonary Vein carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left auricle of the heart.

NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-7
123.

123.
123.

If, in a plant, red colour of the flower is dominant over white. A cross was made between a plant
containing red flower and other with white flower. The cross yielded 50% white flowered plant and
50% red flowered plant. The genotype of the parent with red flower is:
(1) Homozygous
(2) Heterozygous
(3) Cannot be determined
(4) Can be homozygous or heterozygous
2
R = Red (Dominant)
r = White (Recessive)
Rr X rr
R
r
/
r
r

124.
124.
124.
125.

125.
125.

Rr (Red)
Rr (Red)

rr (White)
rr (White)

Spinal cord originates from:


(1) Cerebrum
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Medulla
(4) Pons
3
Spinal cord is an extension of medulla oblongata.
Photosynthesis is an important mode of autotrophic nutrition. The event which does not occur in
photosynthesis is:
(1) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy
(2) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrate
(3) Oxidation of carbon to carbondioxide
(4) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
3
During photosynthesis carbon dioxide gets reduced to carbohydrate but there is no oxidation of
carbon to carbon dioxide.
x a

x b

x c

126.

If

126.

(1) (a + b + c )
(3) (a + b + c)
3

b c

x a
b c

c a

x b
c a

x a b c
b c

a b

3 0

, a > 0, b > 0, c > 0, then the value of x is:

(2) (a + b + c)
(4) a b c

x c
a b

x a b c
c a

(x + a + b + c)

b c

=0

1
c a

x a b c
a b

a b

=0

x + a + b + c= 0
x = (a + b + c)
127.
127.

Sum of the roots of the equation 4 3(2


(1) 0
(3) 5
2
x
x+3
4 3(2 ) + 128 = 0
x 2
x
(2 ) 24.2 + 128 = 0
2
y 24y + 128 = 0
2
y 8y 16y + 128 = 0
y(y 8) 16(y 8) = 0
(y 8)(y 16) = 0

x+3

) + 128 = 0, is:
(2) 7
(4) 8

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-8
y = 8 or
y = 16
x
3
x
4
2 =2
2 =2
x=3
x=4
sum of roots = 3 + 4 = 7
128.
128.

10

10

If sinx + cosecx = 2, then (sin x + cosec x) is equal to:


(1) 3
(2) 0
(3) 1
(4) 2
4
sinx + cosecx = 2
1

sinx +

=2

s in x

sin x + 1 = 2sinx
2
sin x 2sinx + 1 = 0
2
(sinx 1) = 0
sinx = 1
cosecx = 1
10
10
sin x + cosec x = 2
129.

129.

The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 10cm and radius of the inscribed circle is 1 cm. The
perimeter of the triangle is:
(1) 15 cm
(2) 22 cm
(3) 24 cm
(4) 18 cm
2
r=

1=

a.b

10
a

2s

a + b + 10 = a.b
a + b = ab 10
2
2
(a + b) = (ab 10)
2
2
2 2
a + b + 2ab = a b 20ab + 100
2
2
a + b = 100
2 2
2ab = a b 20ab
2 2
a b 22ab = 0
ab(ab 22) = 0
ab = 22
ab 0
perimeter = a + b + 10 = ab = 22
130.

130.

A shopkeeper blends two varieties of tea costing Rs 18 and Rs 13 per 100 gms in the ratio 7 : 3.
He sells the blended variety at the rate of Rs 18.15 per 100 gm. His percentage gain in the
transaction is:
(1) 8%
(2) 12%
(3) 15%
(4) 10%
4
CP = 18

7
10

+ 13

126 39

165

3
10

10

10

= Rs 16.5

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-9
SP = Rs 18.15
Gain = Rs 1.65
1 .6 5

% gain =

= 10%

100

1 6 .5

131.

If cosec39 = x, the value of

131.

(1) x 2 1
2
(3) x 1
3

sec51 = x cos51 =
2

tan51 =

s in 3 9

11
x

s in 5 1 s e c 3 9

, is

cos ec 51
x

1
x

ta n 5 1

cos 39 = 1 sin 39 = 1

cos ec 51

2 1

s in 3 9

1 cos 51

(2) 1 x 2
2
(4) 1 x

cosec 39 = x sin39 =

sin51 =

1
x

x
x

ta n 5 1
x

s in 5 1 s e c 3 9

11

= 1 + x 1 1
2
=x 1
ta n c o t

132.

If

132.

(1) 60
(3) 90
1

ta n c o t

ta n c o t
ta n c o t
s in

cos
s in
cos

(2) 30
(4) 45

cos

s in
2
cos

s in

1
2

s in c o s
2

sin

cos

2sin

, (0 90), then the value of is:

1=

1
2

1
2

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-10

2sin
2

sin

0 30

= 60

133.

sin =

133.

In a hostel, there was sufficient food for 200 students for 31 days. After 27 days 120 students left
the hostel. For how many extra days will the rest of food last for remaining students:
(1) 8 days
(2) 6 days
(3) 12 days
(4) 10 days
2
There was sufficient food for 200 student for 31 days.
After 27 days 120 student left
So remaining students = 200 120 = 80
Remaining days = 31 27 = 4 days
Now there is sufficient food for 200 students for days.
1 student can take the food = 200 4 days
80 student can take the food =

200 4
80

Extra days = 10 4 = 6 days


134.

If x =

134.

(1) 3
(3) 4
3
x=

1
1

= 10 days

, then the value of x + 2x + 3 is:

(2) 0
(d) 1

1
1

after rationalization
x=
x=

1
1

2 1
2

so x = 3 2
2

x + 2x + 3 (3 2
135.

) + 2(

1) + 3 = 4
2

If and are the zeroes of the polynomial f(x) = x 5x + k such that = 1, then value of k
is:
(1) 8
(2) 6
(3)

135.

13
2

2
2
f(x) = x 5x + k
, are roots of given equation
so sum of roots = + = 5
(i)
product of roots = = k
(ii)
given = 1
(iii)
by solving (i) and (iii)
=3
=2

(4) 4

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-11
putting in equation (ii)
= k
(iii)(ii) = k
k=6
136.

136.

The value of

1
2
n

1
....... 1

1
n 1
n 1
n 1

is:

(1) n

(2)

(3) n + 1
2

(4) 2n

1
2
n

1
....... 1

1
n 1
n 1
n 1

1 1 1 ..... 1

n
n
n

137.

1
n 1

2
n
1

....

x 1
n 1
x 1

2 ...... n

n n 1
2 n 1
n
2

n
2

In ABC, segment AD BC, If BD = x


units, then x is:
(1) x =

(2) x =

(3) x =

(4) x =

2a
2

2c
c

2b

2abc

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-12
137.

1
Given in ABC
AB = c
AC = b
BC = a
BD = x
ADB = 90
so DC = a x
now in ADB
by Pythagorus theorem:
2
2
2
AB = BD + AD
2
2
2
C = x + AD
(i)
Now in ADC
By Pythagorus theorem
2
2
2
AC = AD + DC
2
2
2
b = AD + (a x)
(ii)
by solving (i) and (ii)
2
2
2
2
c b = x (a x)
2
2
2
2
2
x b = x a x + 2ax
2
2
2
2ax = x b + a
x=
x=

138.

2a
2

2a

or x =
138.

2a

The average marks scored by Ajay in certain number of tests is 84. He scored 100 marks in his
last test. His average score of all these tests is 86, then the total number of tests he appeared is:
(1) 8
(2) 7
(3) 9
(4) 10
1
x1 + x2 + x3 + xn = 84x
84x 100
x 1

86

x=7
Total number of test 7 + 1 = 8
139.

139.

th

The first and last terms of an A.P. of n terms is 1, 31 respectively. The ratio of 8 term and (n
th
2) term is 5 : 9, the value of n is:
(1) 14
(2) 15
(3) 16
(4) 13
3
31 = 1 + (x 1)d
(x 1)d = 30
(A)
ratio given as
1 7d
1

3d

from (A)
d=2

th

te r m

th

te r m

5
9

5
9

1 7d
31 2d

5
9

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-13
from (A)
(x 1) 2 = 30
x 1= 15
x = 16
140.

140.

A number is selected at random from first 50 natural numbers. The probability that selected
number is a multiple of 3 or 4 is:
(1)

12

(3)

14

(2)

25

(4)

50

1
n(s) = 1, 2, 3, .., 50
multiple of 3 = 3, 6, 9, .., 48
number of multiples of 3 = 16
number of multiples of 4 = 12
number of multiples of 3 and 4 = 4
n(A) = 16 + 12 4 = 28 4 = 24
24

P(E) =
141.

25
8
25

12
25

The value(s) of a for which area of triangle, whose vertices are A(a, 2a), B(2, 6) and C(3, 1) is
10 square units, are:
(1) 0, 3
(2) 5, 8
8

(3) 3,
141.

50

14

4
ar =

(4) 0,

1
2

a 6 1

2 1

8
3

A (a, 2a)

2a 3 2a 6 10

5a 2 + 4a + 6a 18 = 20
15a = 40
a=

40
15

8
3

Zero is also satisfying the given condition answers is

8
0,
3

B ( 2, 6)

C (3, 1)

142.

The ratio in which the line 3x + y 9 = 0 divides the line segment joining points (1, 3) and (2, 7)
is:
(1) 3 : 4
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 4 : 3
(4) 3 : 2

142.

1
For point P(a, b)
a =

2k 1
k 1

, b =

3x + y = 9
7k 3

the line 3x + y = 9

k 1

2k 1 7k 3
3
9

k 1
k 1

6k 3 7k 3
k 1

this values will satisfy


k
A
(1, 3)

1
P
(a, b)

B
(2, 7)

13k + 6 = 9k + 9

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-14
13k 9k = 9 6 = 3
4k = 3 k =
143.

143.

144.

144.

3
4

The radii of two circles are 9 cm and 12 cm. The circumference of a circle whose area is equal to
sum of the areas of the two circles is:
(1) 15 cm
(2) 15 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 225 cm
3
Area of first circle = 81
Area of 2nd circle = 144
Area of 3rd circle = 225
Let radius of 3rd circle = R
2
R = 225
2
R = 225
R = 15
Circumference = 2 15 = 30 cm.
The diameter of a right circular cylinder is decreased by 10%. The volume of cylinder remains the
same then the percentage increase in height is:
(1) 20%
(2) 23.45%
(3) 5%
(4) 20.5%
2
Let initial r = 100
And initial h = 100
2
initial volume = (100) 100
2
later volume = (90) h
According to condition
2
2
(90) h = (100) 100
h=

100 100 100


90 90

10000
81

= 123.45679

% increment in height = 123.45 100 = 23.45


145.

145.

146.
146.
146.
147.
147.
147.

In an examination A got 25% marks more then B, B got 10% less than C and C got 25% more
that D, If D got 320 marks out of 500, the marks obtained by A were:
(1) 450
(2) 405
(3) 360
(4) 400
1
D got 320
C got 400
B got 360
A got 450
Kheda Movement (1917) was started for:
(1) Farmers
(2) Labourers
(3) Mill Owners
(4) Soldiers
1
In 1917, Mahatma Gandhi organised peasants satyagraha at Kheda of Gujarat.
Bharat Mata, Painting was drawn by:
(1) Rabindranath Tagore
(2) Nand Lal Basu
(3) Amrita Shergil
(4) Abanindra Nath Tagore
4
Abanindra Nath Tagore painted his famous image of Bharat Mata in 1905.

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-15
148.
148.
148.
149.
149.
149.
150.
150.
150.
151.
151.
151.
152.
152.
152.
153.
153.
153.
154.
154.
154.
155.

155.
155.
156.
156.
156.

Gutenberg was associated with:


(1) Powerloom
(3) Computer
4
Gutenberg invented printing press in 1430s.

(2) Rail Engine


(4) Printing Press

Depressed Class Association was formed by:


(1) Jyoti Ba Phule
(2) Mahatma Gandhi
(3) B. R. Ambedkar
(4) Shahuji Maharaj
3
Depressed Class Association was formed by B. R. Ambedkar in 1930.
Who were the Kulak in soviet society?
(1) Small Farmers
(2) Big Farmers
(3) Shop Keepers
(4) Lawyers
2
Kulaks were well-to-do peasants in the Soviet Society.
Reichstag was:
(1) French Parliament
(2) Russian Parliament
(3) German Parliament
(4) Japan Parliament
3
Reichstag was the name of German Parliament.
Who was Viceroy of India during Civil Disobedience Movement?
(1) Lord Curzon
(2) Lord Minto
(3) Lord Canning
(4) Lord Irwin
4
Lord Irwin was the Vicory of India during Civil Disobedience Movement.
Suffrage Movement was started for:
(1) The Right to Vote for Women
(2) Right to Education
(2) Food for Poors
(3) Peasants Right
1
Suffrage Movement was started for the right to vote for women.
Jacobin Club was the most powerful political organisation in:
(1) Germany
(2) Russia
(3) France
(4) Britain
3
Jacobin Club was the most powerful political organisation in France.
What was Dawes Plan?
(1) Nazi Plan to supress the Jews
(2) American plan to control the Bolsevik
(3) Stalin plan of collectivisation
(4) American plan to take out Germany from the financial crisis (great depression)
4
Dawes Plan was introduced by the USA to take out Germany from the financial crisis.
Which continent of today is not a part of Gondwana land:
(1) North America
(2) South America
(3) Africa
(4) Australia
1
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India, Australia, South Africa and South America were included in the Gondwana land.

NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-16
157.
157.
157.
158.

158.
158.
159.
159.
159.
160.
160.
160.
161.
161.
161.
162.
162.
162.
163.

163.
163.
164.
164.
164.
165.

Which of the following rivers of India flow through a rift valley?


(1) Tapi River
(2) Ganga River
(3) Mahanadi River
(4) Yamuna River
1
The Narmada and the Tapi flow through the rift vallies.
Rainfall in the Northern and North-Western parts of India in the month of October-November is
caused mainly due to?
(1) Western disturbances
(2) Jet streams
(3) Advancing Monsoon
(4) Upper Air Circulation
1
Rainfall in the Northern and North-Western parts of India in the month of October-November is
caused mainly due to Western disturbances.
The slash and burn agriculture is known as Milpa in which of the following countries?
(1) Indonesia
(2) Mexico
(2) Vietnam
(3) Sudan
2
The slash and burn agriculture is known as Milpa in Mexico.
Which of the following is a non-renewable as well as non-recyclable resources?
(1) Iron
(2) Coal
(3) Water
(4) Forests
2
Coal is non-renewable as well as non-recyclable resource.
Which of the following is not a nuclear power station?
(1) Kaiga
(2) Narora
(3) Korba
(4) Kakrapara
3
Korba is a thermal power station in Chhatisgarh.
Which of the following is the working age group of the population?
(1) 15-59 years
(2) 20-60 years
(3) 20-65 years
(4) 18-60 years
1
Working age group of the population is 15-59 years.
According to Census of India 2001 a literate person is the one who:
(1) can read and write his/her name
(2) can read and write any language
(3) is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding
(4) knows 3 Rs (reading, writing, arithmetic)
3
According to Census of India 2001 a literate person is the one who is 7 years old and can read
and write any language with understanding.
National Waterways No. 1 of India connects which two cities of India?
(1) Sadia Dubri
(2) Allahabad Haldia
(3) Kottapuram Kollam
(4) Delhi Kanpur
2
National Waterways No. 1 of India connects Allahabad to Haldia.
Which state of India has made roof top rain water harvesting compulsory to all houses:
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(1) Andhra Pradesh
(2) Tamil Nadu
(3) Kerala
(4) Karnataka

NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-17
165.
165.

2
Tamil Nadu has made rooftop rain water harvesting compulsory to all houses.

166.

In contemporary world, which quality makes democracy superior to any other form of
Government:
(1) Efficiency
(2) Responsiveness
(3) Transparency
(4) Legitimacy governance
4
In contemporary world legitimacy governance makes democracy superior to any other form of
government.

166.
166.
167.
167.
167.
168.
168.
168.
169.
169.
169.
170.
170.
170.
171.
171.
171.
172.
172.
172.
173.
173.
173.
174.

Gender division refers to:


(1) Unequal child sex ratio
(2) Absence of voting rights
(3) Biological differences
(4) Unequal roles assigned to men and women
4
Gender division refers to unequal roles assigned to men and women
When was the Kittiko-Hachchiko movement started?
(1) 1984
(2) 1986
(3) 1987
(4) 1983
3
In 1987, the Kittiko-Hachchiko movement started in Karnataka.
Who is the Political Head of Municipal Corporation:
(1) Collector
(2) Pradhan
(3) Mayor
(4) Sarpanch
3
Mayor is the political head of Municipal Corporation.
Which one of the following parties grew out of a movement?
(1) Communist Party of India
(2) Bahujan Samaj Party
(3) Assam Gana Parishad
(4) Assam United Democratic Front
3
The Assam Gana Parishad in Assam grew out of a student movement.
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of Indian Constitution?
(1) Moti Lal Nehru
(2) B. R. Ambedkar
(3) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(4) Rajender Prasad
2
B. R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of Indian Constitution.
Amnesty International is an international organisation which works for:
(1) World Peace
(2) Human Rights
(3) Justice
(4) Restoration of Democracy
2
Amnesty International is an international organisation which works for Human Rights.
Name the Law which empowers the people to carry on democratic reforms:
(1) Company Act
(2) M. R. T. P.
(3) Right to Information
(4) Right to Vote
3
Right to Information Act is the law which empowers the people to carry on democratic reforms.
Which of the following is the main feature of Pressure group?
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(1) Direct control on political power
(2) Try to influence the politics of Government
(3) Lax Organisation
(4) Direct participation in Political Power

NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-18
174.
174.

2
Pressure group do not controlled directly the political power but try to influence the politics of
government.

175.

In case of conflict between the centre and the State Government over a subject in the concurrent
list:
(1) The state has the upper hand
(2) The centre has the upper hand
(3) Both are equally applicable
(4) Supreme Court decides whether the State Law should prevail or Central Law
2
In case of conflict between the centre and the State Government over a subject in the concurrent
list, the centre has the upper hand.

175.
175.
176.
176.
176.
177.
177.
177.
178.
178.
178.
179.
179.
179.
180.
180.
180.

Who is known as the father of Green Revolution?


(1) Verghese Kurien
(2) Babu Jagjivan Ram
(3) M. S. Swaminathan
(4) M. S. Subhramanyam
3
M. S. Swaminathan is known as the father of Green Revolution in India.
An example of Indirect Taxes is:
(1) Income Tax
(2) Corporate Tax
(3) Estate Tax
(4) Entertainment Tax
4
Entertainment Tax is an example of Indirect taxes.
Which academy supports food security programme?
(1) Academy of Development Science
(2) Academy of Crop Science
(3) Academy of Food Security
(4) Academy of Grain Science
1
The Academy of development Science supports food security programme in Maharashtra.
Which summit of BRICS held in 2014?
th
th
(1) 5
(2) 6
th
th
(3) 4
(4) 7
2
th
The 6 summit of BRICS held in July 2014 in Brazil.
COPRA is related to:
(1) Trader
(3) Agriculture
4
COPRA is related to consumer.

(2) Environment
(4) Consumer

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Solutions to NTSE
STAGE-I (2014) (For
Class X Students)
(MAT)
Time: 50 Minutes

Max Marks: 50
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Read the following instructions carefully before you open the Question Booklet.
1.

Use blue/black ball point pen only.

2.

Write your Roll No. very clearly (only one digit in on block) on this booklet and on the ANSWER SHEET.

3.

This test consists of 50 questions of one mark each. All the questions are COMPULSORY.

4.

Answer to each question by darkening the correct alternative among the four choices on the ANSWER SHEET.

Example:
Q.No.
Correct way:

Alternatives
1

5.

Alternatives

Q.No.
Wrong way:

Separate sheet has been provided for rough work in this test booklet.

Solutions

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NTSE-ST-I-(2014)-MAT-SOL-1
1.

(4)
Let the required number be x.
According to the question,
1
9
1
9

x
x

10
1

x 4
x 4

10

10x 9x
90

x = 360
2.

(1)
x% of x is 25
x

x
100

25

25 100

x 5 10 50

3.

(2)
3

of cistern is filled in 1 min.

1 of cistern is filled in
2

of a cistern is filled in

10
15

60

min.
5
3

2
5

min. =

10
15

min.

sec.

= 40 sec.
4.

(3)
Speed of a person = 1 m/s
Speed of a train = 65 m/s
Relative speed = 6 5 1 m/s
= 64 m/s
Now, Let length of the train = m
Time taken by train to overtake a person = 5 sec.
Distance = Speed Time
6 4 m /s e c . 5 s e c .

= 320 m
5.

(2)
Mean weight of 21 students is 21 kg
So, total weight of 21 students is 21 21 = 441 kg
Then, remaining weight = 441 21 = 420 kg
Now, the number of students = 20
So, mean weight

6.

(4)

420
20

21

kg.

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NTSE-ST-II-(2014)-MAT-SOL-2
2

or,

1
n
2 1 4
2

or,

or, 2 n 8
n=3
4n 43
7.

4 4 4 64

(1)
For infinite solution there is a condition
a1
a2

b1
b2

Here,

c1

(i)

c2

a 1 3 k 1

b1 = 4
c1 = 24
a2 = 15
b2 = 20
c2 = 8 (k + 13)
by putting the values we will get
k=2
8.

(3)
Let the price of an article = Rs. 100
And consumption of the article = 100 units
Total expenditure = Rs. (100 100)
If price of an article is increased by 25%, then the new price of an article = Rs. 125.
Let consumption of the article = a units (after decreases)
Expenditure is same,
Therefore 125 a = 100 100
a = 80
decrease in unit = (100 80) = 20
20

% decrease =
9.

100

100 20%

(1)
4

1
2

or,

1 0

1
2

4
2

3
9
2

or,

4
2

or,

5
2

43
8

5
2

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NTSE-ST-I-(2014)-MAT-SOL-3
or,

=0
10.

2
2

(3)
(y + 2) = 0
y = 2
by putting y = 2 in the given equation

m 2 14 0

4 2m 1 4 0

m=9
11.

(3)
The sum of first n natural numbers =

n n 1

The sum of first 81 natural numbers =


Average of first 81 natural numbers =

81 82
2

81 41

s u m o f a ll firs t 8 1 n a tu ra l n u m b e rs
n u m b e r o f o b s e rv a tio n

81 41

Hence answer is 41. Option (3) is correct.


12.

81

41

(2)
Amount = Principle + Interest
Let Principle = Rs. P.
and Rate = r% p.a.
Pr3

SI after 3 years =
Amount

100

3 rP
100

3 rP

Given 815 = P +

Pr 4

SI after 4 years =
Amount =

Given 854 =

(i)

100
100

4 rP
100

4 rP

(ii)

100

Subtracting equation (i) from (ii)


854 815 =
39 =

rp
100

rp
100

Put the value of

rP
100

in equation (i)

815 = P + 3 39
815 117 = P
698 = P
Hence Principle is Rs. 698. Option (2) is correct.

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NTSE-ST-II-(2014)-MAT-SOL-4
13.

(4)
In every minute he climbs 15 meter but slips down 12 meter. Hence in one minute he climbs = (15 12)
meters i.e. 3 meters.
After reaching 75 meters he climbs 15 meter i.e. 90 meter.
i.e. it is an A.P.
3, 6, 9, 12, ., 75.
Hence in 25 minute he reaches to 75 meter and in next minute he reaches at the top. .
Therefore total time = (25 + 1) minute
= 26 minute.

Directions (Solution for Q. 14 to 18):


Mode of Transport Angle of Subtended at the Centre
ON FEET
80
CAR

90

BUS
SCOOTER

120
70 [360 - (80 + 90 + 120)]

Number of Students comes to School


80
360
90
360
120
360
70
360

1260 280
1260 315
1260 420
1260 245

Total Students = 1260


14.

(1)
From above Table.

15.

(2)
245 : 315
7:9

16.

(3)
280 + 420 = 700

17.

(4)
1260 420 = 840

18.

(3)
Comes by their feet = 280
Comes to the school by Car = 315
More = 315 280 = 35
%=

19.

35
280

1 0 0 1 2 .5 %

(2)
Let total number of coins = x
According to the question value of the coins = Rs. (x 14)
Let number 50 paise coins = a
Then number of 1 Re. coins = (x a)
Total value = Rs. (x 14)
a
2

x a x 14

a = 28
20.

(1)

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NTSE-ST-I-(2014)-MAT-SOL-5
1

5 52

5
1

3
4

7
8

15
16

31
5 16

21.

31
2
5 32

(2)
264

60
100

1584
10

1 5 8 .4

Let check options


(1) 10% of 44 =

10
100

(2) 15% of 1056 =

4 4 4 .4

15
100

1056

Hence option (2) is correct.

15840
100

1 5 8 .4

22.

(4)
By observation answer is (4)

23.

(3)
By observation answer is (3)

24.

(2)
h is not mentioned. So, obviously answer is (2).

25.

(2)
By observation answer is (2)

26.

(2)
In the dice one face is adjacent to four faces. The adjacent faces to 2 are 3, 6, 5 and 4 (from first two figures).
So, 2 is opposite to 1.
Similarly
O p p o s ite
6
5
2

O p p o s ite

4 3
So, answer is (2)
O p p o s ite

27.

28.

(1)
E:F::L:I
22 21 33

1 5

R a n k s fro m re v e rs e

R a n k s fro m re v e rs e

(3)

18 33

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NTSE-ST-II-(2014)-MAT-SOL-6
As

18
3

6 12 72

So answer is (3)
29.

(3)
Three faces always lies on corners and there are 8 corners.

30.

(2)
125 27 (No face painted)
= 98

31.

(3)
3
3
3
(n 2) = (5 2) = 3 = 27

32*.

(2) / (3)
The elements move in the sequence

; the elements reaching the upper left and the lower right

positions rotate 90 ACW; the elements reaching the upper right and lower left positions rotate 90 CW; the
central elements rotates 90 ACW and gets laterally inverted.
*Note: (In figure 2, is not correct and in figure 3 the is missing. So, no option is completely correct.)
33.

(3)
0 + 6 + 4 + 2 = 12 4 = 8
6 + 2 + 10 + 8 = 26 4 = 22
4 + 14 + 12 + 10 = 40 4 = 36

34.

(3)
3 + 12 = 15 + 12 = 27
9 + 36 = 45 + 36 = 81
6 + 25 = 31 + 25 = 56

Directions (Solution for Q. 35 to 37): As Mamta is fourth from right and Babita is seventh from left and after
exchange Babita is fifteenth from left:
Sixth from left
Rekha

Seventh from left


Babita

Fifth from right


Neha

Fourth from right


Mamta

3 students remains in right of Mamta

When Babita and Mamta exchange their positions then


Sixth from left
Rekha

Seventh from left


Mamta

Fifth from right


Neha

Fifteenth from left


Babita
3 students remains in right of Mamta

Therefore, total students 18.


35.

(3)
Nehas position from left = 18 4 = 14

36.

(4)
Mamtas positon from right = 18 6 = 12

37.

(1)
th
As Rekha is on sixth position so Nehas position is 6 .

38.

(2)
6 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 21
or, There were 7 people in the party, then number of handshakes

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NTSE-ST-I-(2014)-MAT-SOL-7
=

7C

7!
2! 5!

7!
2 !7 2 !

n!
n Cr

r ! n r !

21

39.

(4)
By observation

40.

(1)
By observation

41.

(4)
By observation

42.

(3)
By observation

43.

(1)
By observation

44.

(2)
Only figure (2) contains four lines while others have three lines.

45.

(3)
Figure (1), (2) and (4) are same only their position is changed.

46.

(4)
When a cube is formed by folding the sheet shown in the given figure, then the face 2 lies opposite to 4, the
face 1 lies opposite to 6 and the face 5 lies opposite to 3. Now the cubes in option (1), (2) and (3) consists of
face which are not formed when the given sheet is folded. Therefore, only the cube in option (4) is formed.

47.

(1)
When a cube is formed by folding the sheet shown in the given figure, then the face A lies opposite to C, the
face B lies opposite to F and the face E lies opposite to D. Now the cubes in option (2), (3) and (4) consist of
faces which are not formed when the given sheet is folded. Therefore, only the cube in option (1) is formed.

Directions (Solutions for Q. 48 to 50):


In ANT and SET, the common code digit 7 stands for T.
In SUN and SET, the common code digit 5 stands for S.
In ANT and SUN, the common code digit 3 stands for N.
In SET, the remaining the code digit 2 stands for E.
In ANT, the remaining code digit 0 stands for A.
In SUN, the remaining code digit 4 stands for U.
48.

(2)

49.

(2)

50.

(4)

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National Talent Search Examination Stage-1-2015

(For Class X Students)


ROLL NO.

1212 .151 1 1s1 oI lll d5 1 ~1

~ 4l ~ t:li11 -qfta_.rr
x cfi fu-mf~ cfi ~ )

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST

( ~&n

{For Students of Class X)

LANGUAGE TEST ( 'llllrr-"Q"ft&n)


(QUESTION No s. 51 - 90)

Max. Marks : 40

Time : 40 Minutes

~ : 40

~ : 40 ~

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Read the following instructions carefully before
you open the question booklet.

1. Use blue/black ball point pen only.


2. This question booklet contains 40 Questions in
English Language and 40 Questions in Hindi
Language. The candidate has to attempt this test
only in one Language i.e. either in English
or in Hindi.

3. Mark the language of test opted by you very


carefully on the answer sheet as per instructions
given on the answer sheet.
4. Answer each question by darkening the correct
alternative among the four cho ices on the
ANSWER SHEET with black/blue ball point pen.

~ ~ ~ ~ ~ f'tl'1f<"tf~\1 ~ q;l
UI'R~~I
I. ~~~~~'C{,~m<R"1
2. ~ ~- ~ .q 40 ~ ~ ~

q;. 3itt 40 ~

~ \Wn "rti' I fcfmf~ q;l ~ ~ ~ ~


'11niT q;l cnr-rr t ~ ~ m ~ 1

3. ~ ~ \Wn <fiT mq~.wft


r~~~lljfll{

fffisl

if

~-~ 'R ~ 'ITQ,

4. ~ lN-1 q:;r om~~

q;.

~ ~ ~ -;:m:

-m1 ~ cm-ft ~ 'CITfl err <fii -a-m


.q ~r=fu;rr 'fit I

~ .q if
~

Example:
Alternatives

Q . No.

Correct way :

CD 0

G)

-ml~ :

Alternatives

Q. No.
Wrong way :

Q . No.

Q)

a. No.

Note :

TTffif ~ :

~ ~ ~ airo;q3m ~'Rom~

wrong way.
5. Separate sheet has been provided for rough work

UI'R~:

Use of whitener/white fluid is strictly prohibited


on the OMR sheet for changing Answers. It is

in this test booklet.

s.

~ Cf'{t{ if l11T t1 ~ TR1ff

rt

tffiCfiT t 1

\Cfi (Rough)~ "rt ~ ~ ~ .q ~ ~ ~

fc::llr TJ<ll t

[P.T.O

S/51 OES/14-X-Lang.- 1A

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2
~ '9' 1fiTlf clt ~FOR ROUGH WORK ONLY

5/51 DES/14-X-Lang.-1 8

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3
NTSE (Language Test) ENGUSH
Direction :

Choose the word that is most near.ly


opposite in meaning to th,e given words
in Question Nos. 51 to 5i' :

51 . CHIDE :
(1) scold
(2) rebuke
(3) praise

(4) reprimand
52. FIDELITY :

57. DISTRAUGHT :
(1) foolish

(2) clever
(3) serene
(4) distressed
Direction : In question Nos. 58 to 62 out of four
alternatives choose the one which best
expresses the meaning of the given word.
58. DIFFIDENT :

(1) disloyality

(1) unhappy

(2) dependability

(2) discourteous

(3) suitability

(3) timid

(4) commitment

(4) gentle

53. EJECT :

59. CRAFTY:

(1) expel

(1) evil

(2) insert

(2) unkind

(3) exile

(3) infamous

(4) extract

(4) cunning

54. MALIGNANT :

60. GALLANTRY :

(1) magnificent

(1) cowardice

(2) wonderful

(2) valour

(3) malevolent

(3) fearfulness

(4) benign

(4) deceitful

55. PLIABLE :

61 . ABJECT :

(1) wori<able

(1) commendable

(2) plight

(2) despicable

(3) pliant

(3) ardent

(4) rigid

(4) rapture

56. REPULSIVE :

62. EXORBITANT :

(1) attractive

(1) threatening

(2) hateful

(2) excessive

(3) beautiful

(3) old

(4) detestable

(4) ridiculous

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4
Direction:

In questions from No. 63- 67. sentences


are given with blanks to be filled with an
appropriate word out of four alternatives
given :

63. They have been living here ................ ten years.


(1) since
(2)

69. By the time. I reached home , my mother


........... .. ... (cook) the food .
(1) cooked

(2) had cooked


(3) was cooking

(4) was cook

by

(3) from

(4) for
64. Sheela is proud ................ her achievements.

70. I tried to ................ (take) notes, while the teacher


was explaining the topic.
(1) took

(1) in

(2) take

(2) with

(3) taking

(3) at

(4) taken

(4) ci
65. They invited only a few people ................ their
wedding.
(1) in

(1) had honoured

(2) was honoured

(2) on

(3) was honouring

(3) at

(4) honoured

(4) to

72. We ............. (see) a movie yesterday.

66. I got late as m y car broke .... ...... .. ....


(1) away

(2) into

(1) saw

(2) had seen


(3) was see

(3) apart

(4) down
67. Will you , please, switch .......... ...... the light ?
(1) ci

(2) out

(4) was seeing


Directi o n :

In Question Nos. 73 - 78, choose the


alternative which exp resses the
meaning of the idioms/phrases .

73. BEATTHE AIR :

(3) off

(1) to make useless efforts

(4) down
Direction :

71 . Mrs. Monika ............... (honour) on the Teacher's


Day.

(Question Nos. 68 - 72) choose the


correct alternative (Past Tense) of the
verbs given in brackets :

68. W ho ................ (meet) you on the way?

(2) to try to fly


(3) to beat mercilessly

(4) to make air clean


74. MEND ONE'S FENCES :

(1) did meet

(1) to repair one's wall

(2) had met

(2) to quarrel

(3) met

(3) renovation of fences

(4) was meet

(4) to make peace

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5
WEEHOURS :

80. A person who makes a scientific study of birds :

(1) orthodontist

(1) a few hours

(2) ornithologist

(2) many hours

(3) philatelist

(3) d usk

(4) m isogamist

(4) dawn

~ IN BLACK AND WHITE :

81 . A place for luggage at a railway station :


(1) store

(2)

(1) in writing

cloakroom

(3) restroom

(2) having a contrast

(4) drawing room


(3) in two colours
82. One who looks at the dark side of life :
(4) in a moderate manner

(1) pessimist

77. TO GREASE THE PALM :

(2)

(3) pacifist

(1) to bribe

(4) humanist

(2) to put grease on hand


(3) to get ready to do something

(4) to grease the machine


78.

optimist

Direction : In Question Nos. 83 - 86, choose the


alternative with correct spelling .
83. (1) resiprocal

(2)

TO BREAK INTO :

reciprokel

(3) reciprocal

(1) to break something

(4)

reciprokal

(2) to enter by force


84. (1) pagent
(3) to interrupt

(2)

(4) to stop work

(3) pageant

(4) pegent

Dire ction : In Question Nos. 79 - 82, out of four


alternatives, choose the one which can
be substituted for the given sentences
and mark it in the answer sheet.

peg ant

85. (1) grandeur

(2)

granduer

(3) grandure

79. One who is not sure about God's existence :

(4)

grendeur

(1) atheist
86.

(1) beurocracy

(2) agnostic

(2)

(3) sadist

(3) bureaucracy

(4) altruist

(4)

burokracy

beaurocracy

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6
Direction :

In question Nos. 87 to 90, read the


passage and choose the correct
answer from the given options.

The word 'Patriotism' means love for one's


motherland. It is a natural feel ing that almost every
person possesses. If a person has no love for his
motherland, he must be as good as dead. 'Love of our
country' should become our motto. The love for one's
motherland is more significant than all other varieties
of love. This love may be there because of the physical
beauty of one's m otherland-its landscape, fertility or
rich natural resources. But , it really is a thing to be
proud of. It instills a feel ing of own-ness in a person
and he or she comes to have an emotional hand with
the land of his or her birth . This love i.e. patriotism is
untouched by selfishness. On the other hand a patriot
is always prepared to lay down his life for his or her

88. A patriot is always


(1) ready to glorify his country
(2) ready to rule his country
(3) ready to sacrifice himself for his country

(4)

ready to work for his country

89. According to the author.


(1) All cannot love their country

(2) One should live by one's motto


(3) One should love oneself first

(4) Love of our country is more important than


other kind of love

country.
90. The word 'Patriotism' means.
87. The author feels that patriotism is not linked
to ...... .
(1) selfishness

(1) Love for one's country


(2) Love for one's mother

(2) pride
(3) corruption
(4) generosity

(3) Love for oneself


(4) Love for one's culture

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NTSE- fi'3ft 2014-15


51 .

"~ ~

ct "5fC9 ~ f.:lflf<f ~ t 1T fen ...........

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~~m ?

(2) ~

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(3) ~

(2)~

(4)~

5a. f<tffi ~ .q ~ m~ i ?

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(4) '1oUC!If0o

(1) ~

52. ~~.q~~ i:

(2) ~

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(3) ~

(2) ~

(4) ~

(3) CRT
(4) 'M1T
(1) ~~wmt

53. m ~.q~-mm~t ?

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(1) ~~
(2) Tim~

(3) ~wmt

(3) ~ m~

(4) ~wmt
60. ~ lR ~ ~ ~ ~ 1l ~-m CfiT\<fi i ?

(4) ~m~
54.

f1"1fl.1f&o ~ 1l ' ~ ' ~<fiT

44i4C!iil1 ~ i

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55. ''411l CJil ~ ~ CfiT ~

t?

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(2) ~

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56. ~ ll!-m ' CJil ~ ~

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t:

62. wmt<t~ ~.q-zyn~qft ~~ t?

(1} ~

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(2) ~

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(3) ~R flfo~ l

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(4)

"ffi\c3T

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8
63.

31fu

~ <fiT tf?\.\l'Ci ~

(1)

<2>

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m:

69.

-q fuffioT

1lclCfl"'cl ijj~HH)q(

(1)~~

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(3) ~~

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70.

-umr ~ ~ tl ~ ~ -q ~ CFiJ t

(1) 11<il" ~ -qr ffi CfTffi I

(1) ~11C41~Cfl fSti<ilfq~l~OI

(2) 11<il" ~ ~ CfTffi I

(2) ilfclqi~Cfl fSti<ilfq:t)~ot

(3) 11<il" ~

"&A CfTffi

<4> ~ m CfTffi

(3) CfllclC41~Cfl fSti<ilfc:w)~ol

(4) qf{"f,Oiqi~Cfl fSti <ilfclfi~OI


1

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11 . ~- ~ ~ ~

t:

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66. ~ <u<Pii -q ~ ~ ~ -q ~ fsn<u

12.

(1)~~~

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(3) flr5rm

(3)

(4) ~

(4)

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1.

9
:-~ ~ 1'fCt ~ q;l '411'1.4q; ~ ~ ~
75 ~ 79 OCfi ct -m1 ~ Cfi1 "ffR "SSG.'9' ~ -q ~ ~ :

f.$r

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tu ~ Cfi1 ~t:rcJ> ~ tr
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(2) q;1f Cfi1 ~ q tf14l\il1

~ ~ 4 :flqrf~d "fl~

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W.
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76. ~ CfillWl ~ ~ tiRm

77. q;1f ct mffi'q Cfi1 ~

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mm-

80.

81 . ~~\ll1lffS31Y~ ~~~-q ~~t

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84. ~ ~ ~ tr' Cfl<fll' 1l ~ ~ CfliT

(1) ~
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S/51 DES/14-X- Lang. -2

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10
8s. ''lll~~1s31Tm~t:
(1) 3l~

88.

:!:!E CfiTffi ~ 11(\' fil ~ ~ ~ -q ~

t?
(1)

(2) ~

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(2) ~
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(3) 11frn)qo1
86. ' m:~~~~Cfit.tt?

(1) ~
(2)

(4)~

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1R l1lrl

(2)91\lf

(3) ~
(4) ~qqf

87. ~ cnT Wfuf

t :

(1)~

(2)

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(4) ~

90. ~~<nT~t:
(1)

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~ "tR ~ \ill11m \m I

(2) 1131" ~ ~

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;;roqrnmr ~, ll \ill11m i

(3) ~Wfuf

(3)

(4) ~Wfuf

<4> 'lll~m~

..

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Answer Key to NTSE-

I (2014)
(For Class X Students)

(ENGLISH)
Question

Answer

Question

Answer

51

76

52

77

53

78

54

79

55

80

56

81

57

82

58

83

59

84

60

85

61

86

62

87

63

88

64

89

65

90

66

67

68

69

70

71

72

73

74

75

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