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You are on page 1of 37

(2014)

(For Class X Students)

(SAT)

Time: 90 Minutes

Max Marks: 90

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Read the following instructions carefully before you open the Question Booklet.

1.

2.

Write your Roll No. very clearly (only one digit in on block) on this booklet and on the

ANSWER SHEET.

3.

This test consists of 90 questions of one mark each. All the questions are COMPULSORY.

4.

Answer to each question by filling the correct alternative among the four choices on the answer

sheet.

Example:

Q.No.

Correct way:

Alternatives

1

5.

Alternatives

Q.No.

Wrong way:

Separate sheet has been provided for rough work in this test booklet.

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-2

91.

91.

91.

A body falling from rest describes distances S1, S2 and S3 is the first, second and third seconds of

its fall. Then the ratio of S1 : S2 : S3 is :

(1) 1 : 1 : 1

(2) 1 : 3 : 5

(3) 1 : 2 : 3

(4) 1 : 4 : 9

2

1

S = ut +

gt ,

S =

1

2

gt

u = 0.

2

Here s is displacement.

st

Distance dropped in 2

nd

second,

rd

S1

S3

92.

92.

93.

94.

2

1

2

g 2

g 3

g1

2

1

g 1

g 2

1

2

1

2

g3

g5

Two bodies with kinetic energies in the ratio 4 : 1 are moving with equal linear momentum. The

ratio of their masses is :

(1) 1 : 2

(2) 1 : 1

(3) 4: 1

(4) 1 : 4

4

KE =

2m

KE

93.

g 1

1

S2

S1 : S2 : S3 = 1 : 3 : 5

92.

1

2

1

m

.

.

(1) focal length of objective lens.

(2) product of focal length & diameter of objective lens.

(3) distance of objective from camera.

(4) aperture setting of the camera.

4

A body starts from rest at time t = 0, the acceleration time graph is shown in figure. The maximum

velocity attained by the body will be :

10

2

a(m/s )

11

t(sec)

94.

(3) 650 m/s

2

(2) 55 m/s

(4) 550 m/s

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-3

94.

1

2

1 1 1 0 v u,

in itia l v e lo c ity u 0

Vm a x 5 5 m / s

95.

95.

96.

96.

A comb run through ones dry hair attracts small bits of paper. This is due to :

(1) comb is a good conductor

(2) paper is a good conductor

(3) The atoms in the paper gets polarised by the charged comb

(4) the comb possesses magnetic properties

3

A wire of resistance R is stretched to twice of its original length. Its new resistance will be :

(1) 4R

(2) R/4

(3) 2R

(4) R/2

1

96.

R =

/ A

New area of cross section

R' =

A ' = A /2

'

A / 2

R' = 4R

97.

97.

On a cold morning, a metal surface will feel colder to touch than a wooden surface, because :

(1) metal has high specific heat

(2) metal has high thermal conductivity

(3) metal has low specific heat

(4) metal has low thermal conductivity

2

98.

(1) 2f

(3)

(2)

f

2

(4) f

98.

98.

Focal length of combination,

1

F

1

f

1

f

F = f/2

99.

99.

99.

(1) reflection of seven colors of light

(3) scattering of seven colors of light

3

(4) absorption of seven colors of light

Large dust particles and water droplets scatter all wavelength almost equally. Hence clouds

appears white.

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-4

100.

100.

101.

101.

102.

102.

102.

103.

103.

103.

104.

104.

104.

105.

105.

105.

The magnetic field lines inside a long current-carrying solenoid are nearly :

(1) Circular

(2) Parabolic

(3) Straight

(4) Elliptical

3

An AC generator is connected to an electric appliance. In 10 revolutions of the armature the

current in

the appliance changes direction :

(1) 5 times

(2) 10 times

(3) 20 times

(4) 40 times

3

Ice is floating on water in a beaker when ice completely melts then level of water in beaker :

(1) Increases

(2) Decreases

(3) Remains the same

(4) First increases then decreases

3

Level of water remains constant as ice is less dense than liquid water. In ice, the water molecules

are packed in cage structure. If it melts some of the water is free to move in between the free

room in the crystalline cage structure.

Which one of the following is not a base?

(1) B(OH)3

(3) Ca(OH)2

1

B(OH)3 is boric acid.

Also referred as H3BO3.

(2) KOH

(4) NH4OH

(1) B < Al < Ga

(2) B < Ga < Al

(3) Al < B < Ga

(4) B > Ga > Al

2

It is due to greater screening effect in aluminium, its radii is greater than gallium.

23

2+

sample is

(1) 42 mg

(2) 84 g

(3) 0.042 kg

(4) 42 mol

3

23

Sample contains 3.01 10 MgCO3 molecules.

23

Therefore, 6.022 10 molecules weigh 84 gms

23

84

2

23

CO3

gms

= 42 gms

= 0.042 kg

106.

+

(1) Na = 2, 8, 1 and

+

106.

106.

= 2, 8, 7

(3) Na = 2, 8, 2 and C = 2, 8, 6

2

+

Na = 2, 8 Na = 2, 8, 1

Cl = 2, 8, 7 Cl = 2, 8, 8

ions?

+

(2) Na = 2, 8 and

+

(4) Na = 2, 8 and

C

C

= 2, 8, 8

= 2, 8, 7

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-5

107.

107.

107.

108.

108.

108.

109.

109.

109.

110.

110.

110.

111.

111.

111.

112.

112.

112.

113.

113.

113.

114.

114.

(1) C2H2

(2) C2H4

(3) C2H6

(4) C6H6

1

HC CH

Triple bond is shorter in length than double bond and single bond.

Which of the following may be isomer of aldehyde having general formula CnH2nO?

(1) Alcohol

(2) Ether

(3) Ester

(4) Ketone

4

Aldehydes and ketones are functional isomers of each other belonging to family of carbonyl

compounds with general molecular formula CnH2nO.

Which of the following solution has the lowest pH value?

(1) 0.1 Molar NaCl solution

(2) 0.01 Molar NaHCO3 solution

(3) 0.001 Molar Na2CO3 solution

(4) 0.01 Molar NaOH solution

1

Other solutions will result in pH greater than 7.

Nacl solution neutral.

+

1

1

(1) 1 mol L HCl solution

(2) 1 mol L H3PO2 solution

1

1

(3) 1 mol L H2SO4 solution

(4) 1 mol L H2CO3 solution

3

Concentration of all the solutions is equal. Therefore, due to double dissociation of H 2SO4 it will

+

give greatest concentration of H ion. On the other hand, H2CO3 being weak acid will dissociate

partially.

Solder is an alloy of

(1) Cu + Zn

(3) Pb + Sb

2

Solder is an alloy of Sn and Pb.

(2) Pb + Sn

(4) Cu + Sn

(1) Ta

(2) Tc

(3) W

(4) V

3

Symbol of tungsten W (Based on its latin name wolfram).

What mass of hydrogen and oxygen will be produced on complete electrolysis of 18g of water?

(1) 2g hydrogen and 32g oxygen

(2) 2g hydrogen and 16g oxygen

(3) 4g hydrogen and 32g oxygen

(4) 4g hydrogen and 14g oxygen

2

2H2O 2H2 + O2

36 gms of H2O 4 gms of H2 & 32 gms O2

A cell will plasmolyse, if it is placed in:

(1) Hypertonic solution

(2) Hypotonic solution

(3) Isotonic solution

(4) Concentration of water molecules does not matter

1

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-6

114.

When a plant cell is placed in hypertonic solution, plasmolysis will take place because of

exosmosis.

115.

In Xerophytes, the rate of water loss get reduced due to covering of epidermis by:

(1) Cutin

(2) Suberin

(3) Lignin

(4) Gum

1

Cutin, a waxy layer prevents transpiration from aerial parts of xerophytes.

115.

115.

116.

116.

116.

117.

117.

117.

118.

118.

118.

119.

119.

119.

120.

120.

120.

121.

121.

121.

122.

122.

122.

Given below are the pairs of disease and causal pathogen. Which one of these is not a matching

pair?

(1) Kala azar Leishmania

(2) Sleeping sickness Trypanosoma

(3) Malaria Salmonella

(4) Acne Staphylococci

3

Malaria is caused by Plasmodium sp.

During lack of oxygen in tissues of our body, the pyruvate is converted into lactic acid in:

(1) Mitochondria

(2) Nucleus

(3) Cytoplasm

(4) Ribosome

3

Due to lack of oxygen, pyruvate does not enter the Krebs cycle and gets converted into lactic

acid in the cytoplasm.

The accumulation of non-biodegradable substances in a food chain in increasing amount at each

higher trophic level is known as:

(1) Accumulation

(2) Eutrophication

(3) Pollution

(4) Bio magnification

4

The increase in concentration of non-biodegradable substance with subsequent trophic level of a

food chain is called bio-magnification.

Kidneys do not perform the function of:

(1) Regulation of blood pressure

(2) Filtration of blood

(4) Regulation of ions concentration

(4) Secretion of anti bodies

4

Kidneys are not involved in secretion of antibodies.

Double fertilization is a unique feature of:

(1) Bryophytes

(2) Angiosperm

(3) Algae

(4) Gymnosperm

2

Double fertilization is a characteristic of Angiosperms (flowering plants) in which zygote and

endosperm nucleus are formed.

Phototropic and geotropic response of a plant is under control of following hormone:

(1) Auxin

(2) Gibberlin

(3) Cytokinin

(4) Ethylene

1

Phototropic and geotropic movements of a plant depend upon different concentrations of auxin.

The following blood vessel does not contain deoxygenated blood:

(1) Pulmonary artery

(2) Vena Cava

(3) Hepatic vein

(4) Pulmonary Vein

4

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Pulmonary Vein carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left auricle of the heart.

NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-7

123.

123.

123.

If, in a plant, red colour of the flower is dominant over white. A cross was made between a plant

containing red flower and other with white flower. The cross yielded 50% white flowered plant and

50% red flowered plant. The genotype of the parent with red flower is:

(1) Homozygous

(2) Heterozygous

(3) Cannot be determined

(4) Can be homozygous or heterozygous

2

R = Red (Dominant)

r = White (Recessive)

Rr X rr

R

r

/

r

r

124.

124.

124.

125.

125.

125.

Rr (Red)

Rr (Red)

rr (White)

rr (White)

(1) Cerebrum

(2) Cerebellum

(3) Medulla

(4) Pons

3

Spinal cord is an extension of medulla oblongata.

Photosynthesis is an important mode of autotrophic nutrition. The event which does not occur in

photosynthesis is:

(1) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy

(2) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrate

(3) Oxidation of carbon to carbondioxide

(4) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll

3

During photosynthesis carbon dioxide gets reduced to carbohydrate but there is no oxidation of

carbon to carbon dioxide.

x a

x b

x c

126.

If

126.

(1) (a + b + c )

(3) (a + b + c)

3

b c

x a

b c

c a

x b

c a

x a b c

b c

a b

3 0

(2) (a + b + c)

(4) a b c

x c

a b

x a b c

c a

(x + a + b + c)

b c

=0

1

c a

x a b c

a b

a b

=0

x + a + b + c= 0

x = (a + b + c)

127.

127.

(1) 0

(3) 5

2

x

x+3

4 3(2 ) + 128 = 0

x 2

x

(2 ) 24.2 + 128 = 0

2

y 24y + 128 = 0

2

y 8y 16y + 128 = 0

y(y 8) 16(y 8) = 0

(y 8)(y 16) = 0

x+3

) + 128 = 0, is:

(2) 7

(4) 8

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-8

y = 8 or

y = 16

x

3

x

4

2 =2

2 =2

x=3

x=4

sum of roots = 3 + 4 = 7

128.

128.

10

10

(1) 3

(2) 0

(3) 1

(4) 2

4

sinx + cosecx = 2

1

sinx +

=2

s in x

sin x + 1 = 2sinx

2

sin x 2sinx + 1 = 0

2

(sinx 1) = 0

sinx = 1

cosecx = 1

10

10

sin x + cosec x = 2

129.

129.

The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 10cm and radius of the inscribed circle is 1 cm. The

perimeter of the triangle is:

(1) 15 cm

(2) 22 cm

(3) 24 cm

(4) 18 cm

2

r=

1=

a.b

10

a

2s

a + b + 10 = a.b

a + b = ab 10

2

2

(a + b) = (ab 10)

2

2

2 2

a + b + 2ab = a b 20ab + 100

2

2

a + b = 100

2 2

2ab = a b 20ab

2 2

a b 22ab = 0

ab(ab 22) = 0

ab = 22

ab 0

perimeter = a + b + 10 = ab = 22

130.

130.

A shopkeeper blends two varieties of tea costing Rs 18 and Rs 13 per 100 gms in the ratio 7 : 3.

He sells the blended variety at the rate of Rs 18.15 per 100 gm. His percentage gain in the

transaction is:

(1) 8%

(2) 12%

(3) 15%

(4) 10%

4

CP = 18

7

10

+ 13

126 39

165

3

10

10

10

= Rs 16.5

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-9

SP = Rs 18.15

Gain = Rs 1.65

1 .6 5

% gain =

= 10%

100

1 6 .5

131.

131.

(1) x 2 1

2

(3) x 1

3

sec51 = x cos51 =

2

tan51 =

s in 3 9

11

x

s in 5 1 s e c 3 9

, is

cos ec 51

x

1

x

ta n 5 1

cos 39 = 1 sin 39 = 1

cos ec 51

2 1

s in 3 9

1 cos 51

(2) 1 x 2

2

(4) 1 x

cosec 39 = x sin39 =

sin51 =

1

x

x

x

ta n 5 1

x

s in 5 1 s e c 3 9

11

= 1 + x 1 1

2

=x 1

ta n c o t

132.

If

132.

(1) 60

(3) 90

1

ta n c o t

ta n c o t

ta n c o t

s in

cos

s in

cos

(2) 30

(4) 45

cos

s in

2

cos

s in

1

2

s in c o s

2

sin

cos

2sin

1=

1

2

1

2

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-10

2sin

2

sin

0 30

= 60

133.

sin =

133.

In a hostel, there was sufficient food for 200 students for 31 days. After 27 days 120 students left

the hostel. For how many extra days will the rest of food last for remaining students:

(1) 8 days

(2) 6 days

(3) 12 days

(4) 10 days

2

There was sufficient food for 200 student for 31 days.

After 27 days 120 student left

So remaining students = 200 120 = 80

Remaining days = 31 27 = 4 days

Now there is sufficient food for 200 students for days.

1 student can take the food = 200 4 days

80 student can take the food =

200 4

80

134.

If x =

134.

(1) 3

(3) 4

3

x=

1

1

= 10 days

(2) 0

(d) 1

1

1

after rationalization

x=

x=

1

1

2 1

2

so x = 3 2

2

x + 2x + 3 (3 2

135.

) + 2(

1) + 3 = 4

2

If and are the zeroes of the polynomial f(x) = x 5x + k such that = 1, then value of k

is:

(1) 8

(2) 6

(3)

135.

13

2

2

2

f(x) = x 5x + k

, are roots of given equation

so sum of roots = + = 5

(i)

product of roots = = k

(ii)

given = 1

(iii)

by solving (i) and (iii)

=3

=2

(4) 4

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-11

putting in equation (ii)

= k

(iii)(ii) = k

k=6

136.

136.

The value of

1

2

n

1

....... 1

1

n 1

n 1

n 1

is:

(1) n

(2)

(3) n + 1

2

(4) 2n

1

2

n

1

....... 1

1

n 1

n 1

n 1

1 1 1 ..... 1

n

n

n

137.

1

n 1

2

n

1

....

x 1

n 1

x 1

2 ...... n

n n 1

2 n 1

n

2

n

2

units, then x is:

(1) x =

(2) x =

(3) x =

(4) x =

2a

2

2c

c

2b

2abc

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-12

137.

1

Given in ABC

AB = c

AC = b

BC = a

BD = x

ADB = 90

so DC = a x

now in ADB

by Pythagorus theorem:

2

2

2

AB = BD + AD

2

2

2

C = x + AD

(i)

Now in ADC

By Pythagorus theorem

2

2

2

AC = AD + DC

2

2

2

b = AD + (a x)

(ii)

by solving (i) and (ii)

2

2

2

2

c b = x (a x)

2

2

2

2

2

x b = x a x + 2ax

2

2

2

2ax = x b + a

x=

x=

138.

2a

2

2a

or x =

138.

2a

The average marks scored by Ajay in certain number of tests is 84. He scored 100 marks in his

last test. His average score of all these tests is 86, then the total number of tests he appeared is:

(1) 8

(2) 7

(3) 9

(4) 10

1

x1 + x2 + x3 + xn = 84x

84x 100

x 1

86

x=7

Total number of test 7 + 1 = 8

139.

139.

th

The first and last terms of an A.P. of n terms is 1, 31 respectively. The ratio of 8 term and (n

th

2) term is 5 : 9, the value of n is:

(1) 14

(2) 15

(3) 16

(4) 13

3

31 = 1 + (x 1)d

(x 1)d = 30

(A)

ratio given as

1 7d

1

3d

from (A)

d=2

th

te r m

th

te r m

5

9

5

9

1 7d

31 2d

5

9

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-13

from (A)

(x 1) 2 = 30

x 1= 15

x = 16

140.

140.

A number is selected at random from first 50 natural numbers. The probability that selected

number is a multiple of 3 or 4 is:

(1)

12

(3)

14

(2)

25

(4)

50

1

n(s) = 1, 2, 3, .., 50

multiple of 3 = 3, 6, 9, .., 48

number of multiples of 3 = 16

number of multiples of 4 = 12

number of multiples of 3 and 4 = 4

n(A) = 16 + 12 4 = 28 4 = 24

24

P(E) =

141.

25

8

25

12

25

The value(s) of a for which area of triangle, whose vertices are A(a, 2a), B(2, 6) and C(3, 1) is

10 square units, are:

(1) 0, 3

(2) 5, 8

8

(3) 3,

141.

50

14

4

ar =

(4) 0,

1

2

a 6 1

2 1

8

3

A (a, 2a)

2a 3 2a 6 10

5a 2 + 4a + 6a 18 = 20

15a = 40

a=

40

15

8

3

8

0,

3

B ( 2, 6)

C (3, 1)

142.

The ratio in which the line 3x + y 9 = 0 divides the line segment joining points (1, 3) and (2, 7)

is:

(1) 3 : 4

(2) 2 : 3

(3) 4 : 3

(4) 3 : 2

142.

1

For point P(a, b)

a =

2k 1

k 1

, b =

3x + y = 9

7k 3

the line 3x + y = 9

k 1

2k 1 7k 3

3

9

k 1

k 1

6k 3 7k 3

k 1

k

A

(1, 3)

1

P

(a, b)

B

(2, 7)

13k + 6 = 9k + 9

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-14

13k 9k = 9 6 = 3

4k = 3 k =

143.

143.

144.

144.

3

4

The radii of two circles are 9 cm and 12 cm. The circumference of a circle whose area is equal to

sum of the areas of the two circles is:

(1) 15 cm

(2) 15 cm

(3) 30 cm

(4) 225 cm

3

Area of first circle = 81

Area of 2nd circle = 144

Area of 3rd circle = 225

Let radius of 3rd circle = R

2

R = 225

2

R = 225

R = 15

Circumference = 2 15 = 30 cm.

The diameter of a right circular cylinder is decreased by 10%. The volume of cylinder remains the

same then the percentage increase in height is:

(1) 20%

(2) 23.45%

(3) 5%

(4) 20.5%

2

Let initial r = 100

And initial h = 100

2

initial volume = (100) 100

2

later volume = (90) h

According to condition

2

2

(90) h = (100) 100

h=

90 90

10000

81

= 123.45679

145.

145.

146.

146.

146.

147.

147.

147.

In an examination A got 25% marks more then B, B got 10% less than C and C got 25% more

that D, If D got 320 marks out of 500, the marks obtained by A were:

(1) 450

(2) 405

(3) 360

(4) 400

1

D got 320

C got 400

B got 360

A got 450

Kheda Movement (1917) was started for:

(1) Farmers

(2) Labourers

(3) Mill Owners

(4) Soldiers

1

In 1917, Mahatma Gandhi organised peasants satyagraha at Kheda of Gujarat.

Bharat Mata, Painting was drawn by:

(1) Rabindranath Tagore

(2) Nand Lal Basu

(3) Amrita Shergil

(4) Abanindra Nath Tagore

4

Abanindra Nath Tagore painted his famous image of Bharat Mata in 1905.

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NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-15

148.

148.

148.

149.

149.

149.

150.

150.

150.

151.

151.

151.

152.

152.

152.

153.

153.

153.

154.

154.

154.

155.

155.

155.

156.

156.

156.

(1) Powerloom

(3) Computer

4

Gutenberg invented printing press in 1430s.

(4) Printing Press

(1) Jyoti Ba Phule

(2) Mahatma Gandhi

(3) B. R. Ambedkar

(4) Shahuji Maharaj

3

Depressed Class Association was formed by B. R. Ambedkar in 1930.

Who were the Kulak in soviet society?

(1) Small Farmers

(2) Big Farmers

(3) Shop Keepers

(4) Lawyers

2

Kulaks were well-to-do peasants in the Soviet Society.

Reichstag was:

(1) French Parliament

(2) Russian Parliament

(3) German Parliament

(4) Japan Parliament

3

Reichstag was the name of German Parliament.

Who was Viceroy of India during Civil Disobedience Movement?

(1) Lord Curzon

(2) Lord Minto

(3) Lord Canning

(4) Lord Irwin

4

Lord Irwin was the Vicory of India during Civil Disobedience Movement.

Suffrage Movement was started for:

(1) The Right to Vote for Women

(2) Right to Education

(2) Food for Poors

(3) Peasants Right

1

Suffrage Movement was started for the right to vote for women.

Jacobin Club was the most powerful political organisation in:

(1) Germany

(2) Russia

(3) France

(4) Britain

3

Jacobin Club was the most powerful political organisation in France.

What was Dawes Plan?

(1) Nazi Plan to supress the Jews

(2) American plan to control the Bolsevik

(3) Stalin plan of collectivisation

(4) American plan to take out Germany from the financial crisis (great depression)

4

Dawes Plan was introduced by the USA to take out Germany from the financial crisis.

Which continent of today is not a part of Gondwana land:

(1) North America

(2) South America

(3) Africa

(4) Australia

1

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India, Australia, South Africa and South America were included in the Gondwana land.

NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-16

157.

157.

157.

158.

158.

158.

159.

159.

159.

160.

160.

160.

161.

161.

161.

162.

162.

162.

163.

163.

163.

164.

164.

164.

165.

(1) Tapi River

(2) Ganga River

(3) Mahanadi River

(4) Yamuna River

1

The Narmada and the Tapi flow through the rift vallies.

Rainfall in the Northern and North-Western parts of India in the month of October-November is

caused mainly due to?

(1) Western disturbances

(2) Jet streams

(3) Advancing Monsoon

(4) Upper Air Circulation

1

Rainfall in the Northern and North-Western parts of India in the month of October-November is

caused mainly due to Western disturbances.

The slash and burn agriculture is known as Milpa in which of the following countries?

(1) Indonesia

(2) Mexico

(2) Vietnam

(3) Sudan

2

The slash and burn agriculture is known as Milpa in Mexico.

Which of the following is a non-renewable as well as non-recyclable resources?

(1) Iron

(2) Coal

(3) Water

(4) Forests

2

Coal is non-renewable as well as non-recyclable resource.

Which of the following is not a nuclear power station?

(1) Kaiga

(2) Narora

(3) Korba

(4) Kakrapara

3

Korba is a thermal power station in Chhatisgarh.

Which of the following is the working age group of the population?

(1) 15-59 years

(2) 20-60 years

(3) 20-65 years

(4) 18-60 years

1

Working age group of the population is 15-59 years.

According to Census of India 2001 a literate person is the one who:

(1) can read and write his/her name

(2) can read and write any language

(3) is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding

(4) knows 3 Rs (reading, writing, arithmetic)

3

According to Census of India 2001 a literate person is the one who is 7 years old and can read

and write any language with understanding.

National Waterways No. 1 of India connects which two cities of India?

(1) Sadia Dubri

(2) Allahabad Haldia

(3) Kottapuram Kollam

(4) Delhi Kanpur

2

National Waterways No. 1 of India connects Allahabad to Haldia.

Which state of India has made roof top rain water harvesting compulsory to all houses:

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(1) Andhra Pradesh

(2) Tamil Nadu

(3) Kerala

(4) Karnataka

NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-17

165.

165.

2

Tamil Nadu has made rooftop rain water harvesting compulsory to all houses.

166.

In contemporary world, which quality makes democracy superior to any other form of

Government:

(1) Efficiency

(2) Responsiveness

(3) Transparency

(4) Legitimacy governance

4

In contemporary world legitimacy governance makes democracy superior to any other form of

government.

166.

166.

167.

167.

167.

168.

168.

168.

169.

169.

169.

170.

170.

170.

171.

171.

171.

172.

172.

172.

173.

173.

173.

174.

(1) Unequal child sex ratio

(2) Absence of voting rights

(3) Biological differences

(4) Unequal roles assigned to men and women

4

Gender division refers to unequal roles assigned to men and women

When was the Kittiko-Hachchiko movement started?

(1) 1984

(2) 1986

(3) 1987

(4) 1983

3

In 1987, the Kittiko-Hachchiko movement started in Karnataka.

Who is the Political Head of Municipal Corporation:

(1) Collector

(2) Pradhan

(3) Mayor

(4) Sarpanch

3

Mayor is the political head of Municipal Corporation.

Which one of the following parties grew out of a movement?

(1) Communist Party of India

(2) Bahujan Samaj Party

(3) Assam Gana Parishad

(4) Assam United Democratic Front

3

The Assam Gana Parishad in Assam grew out of a student movement.

Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of Indian Constitution?

(1) Moti Lal Nehru

(2) B. R. Ambedkar

(3) Jawahar Lal Nehru

(4) Rajender Prasad

2

B. R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of Indian Constitution.

Amnesty International is an international organisation which works for:

(1) World Peace

(2) Human Rights

(3) Justice

(4) Restoration of Democracy

2

Amnesty International is an international organisation which works for Human Rights.

Name the Law which empowers the people to carry on democratic reforms:

(1) Company Act

(2) M. R. T. P.

(3) Right to Information

(4) Right to Vote

3

Right to Information Act is the law which empowers the people to carry on democratic reforms.

Which of the following is the main feature of Pressure group?

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(1) Direct control on political power

(2) Try to influence the politics of Government

(3) Lax Organisation

(4) Direct participation in Political Power

NTSE-ST-I-2014-SAT-QP-18

174.

174.

2

Pressure group do not controlled directly the political power but try to influence the politics of

government.

175.

In case of conflict between the centre and the State Government over a subject in the concurrent

list:

(1) The state has the upper hand

(2) The centre has the upper hand

(3) Both are equally applicable

(4) Supreme Court decides whether the State Law should prevail or Central Law

2

In case of conflict between the centre and the State Government over a subject in the concurrent

list, the centre has the upper hand.

175.

175.

176.

176.

176.

177.

177.

177.

178.

178.

178.

179.

179.

179.

180.

180.

180.

(1) Verghese Kurien

(2) Babu Jagjivan Ram

(3) M. S. Swaminathan

(4) M. S. Subhramanyam

3

M. S. Swaminathan is known as the father of Green Revolution in India.

An example of Indirect Taxes is:

(1) Income Tax

(2) Corporate Tax

(3) Estate Tax

(4) Entertainment Tax

4

Entertainment Tax is an example of Indirect taxes.

Which academy supports food security programme?

(1) Academy of Development Science

(2) Academy of Crop Science

(3) Academy of Food Security

(4) Academy of Grain Science

1

The Academy of development Science supports food security programme in Maharashtra.

Which summit of BRICS held in 2014?

th

th

(1) 5

(2) 6

th

th

(3) 4

(4) 7

2

th

The 6 summit of BRICS held in July 2014 in Brazil.

COPRA is related to:

(1) Trader

(3) Agriculture

4

COPRA is related to consumer.

(2) Environment

(4) Consumer

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Solutions to NTSE

STAGE-I (2014) (For

Class X Students)

(MAT)

Time: 50 Minutes

Max Marks: 50

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Read the following instructions carefully before you open the Question Booklet.

1.

2.

Write your Roll No. very clearly (only one digit in on block) on this booklet and on the ANSWER SHEET.

3.

This test consists of 50 questions of one mark each. All the questions are COMPULSORY.

4.

Answer to each question by darkening the correct alternative among the four choices on the ANSWER SHEET.

Example:

Q.No.

Correct way:

Alternatives

1

5.

Alternatives

Q.No.

Wrong way:

Separate sheet has been provided for rough work in this test booklet.

Solutions

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NTSE-ST-I-(2014)-MAT-SOL-1

1.

(4)

Let the required number be x.

According to the question,

1

9

1

9

x

x

10

1

x 4

x 4

10

10x 9x

90

x = 360

2.

(1)

x% of x is 25

x

x

100

25

25 100

x 5 10 50

3.

(2)

3

1 of cistern is filled in

2

of a cistern is filled in

10

15

60

min.

5

3

2

5

min. =

10

15

min.

sec.

= 40 sec.

4.

(3)

Speed of a person = 1 m/s

Speed of a train = 65 m/s

Relative speed = 6 5 1 m/s

= 64 m/s

Now, Let length of the train = m

Time taken by train to overtake a person = 5 sec.

Distance = Speed Time

6 4 m /s e c . 5 s e c .

= 320 m

5.

(2)

Mean weight of 21 students is 21 kg

So, total weight of 21 students is 21 21 = 441 kg

Then, remaining weight = 441 21 = 420 kg

Now, the number of students = 20

So, mean weight

6.

(4)

420

20

21

kg.

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NTSE-ST-II-(2014)-MAT-SOL-2

2

or,

1

n

2 1 4

2

or,

or, 2 n 8

n=3

4n 43

7.

4 4 4 64

(1)

For infinite solution there is a condition

a1

a2

b1

b2

Here,

c1

(i)

c2

a 1 3 k 1

b1 = 4

c1 = 24

a2 = 15

b2 = 20

c2 = 8 (k + 13)

by putting the values we will get

k=2

8.

(3)

Let the price of an article = Rs. 100

And consumption of the article = 100 units

Total expenditure = Rs. (100 100)

If price of an article is increased by 25%, then the new price of an article = Rs. 125.

Let consumption of the article = a units (after decreases)

Expenditure is same,

Therefore 125 a = 100 100

a = 80

decrease in unit = (100 80) = 20

20

% decrease =

9.

100

100 20%

(1)

4

1

2

or,

1 0

1

2

4

2

3

9

2

or,

4

2

or,

5

2

43

8

5

2

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NTSE-ST-I-(2014)-MAT-SOL-3

or,

=0

10.

2

2

(3)

(y + 2) = 0

y = 2

by putting y = 2 in the given equation

m 2 14 0

4 2m 1 4 0

m=9

11.

(3)

The sum of first n natural numbers =

n n 1

Average of first 81 natural numbers =

81 82

2

81 41

s u m o f a ll firs t 8 1 n a tu ra l n u m b e rs

n u m b e r o f o b s e rv a tio n

81 41

12.

81

41

(2)

Amount = Principle + Interest

Let Principle = Rs. P.

and Rate = r% p.a.

Pr3

SI after 3 years =

Amount

100

3 rP

100

3 rP

Given 815 = P +

Pr 4

SI after 4 years =

Amount =

Given 854 =

(i)

100

100

4 rP

100

4 rP

(ii)

100

854 815 =

39 =

rp

100

rp

100

rP

100

in equation (i)

815 = P + 3 39

815 117 = P

698 = P

Hence Principle is Rs. 698. Option (2) is correct.

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NTSE-ST-II-(2014)-MAT-SOL-4

13.

(4)

In every minute he climbs 15 meter but slips down 12 meter. Hence in one minute he climbs = (15 12)

meters i.e. 3 meters.

After reaching 75 meters he climbs 15 meter i.e. 90 meter.

i.e. it is an A.P.

3, 6, 9, 12, ., 75.

Hence in 25 minute he reaches to 75 meter and in next minute he reaches at the top. .

Therefore total time = (25 + 1) minute

= 26 minute.

Mode of Transport Angle of Subtended at the Centre

ON FEET

80

CAR

90

BUS

SCOOTER

120

70 [360 - (80 + 90 + 120)]

80

360

90

360

120

360

70

360

1260 280

1260 315

1260 420

1260 245

14.

(1)

From above Table.

15.

(2)

245 : 315

7:9

16.

(3)

280 + 420 = 700

17.

(4)

1260 420 = 840

18.

(3)

Comes by their feet = 280

Comes to the school by Car = 315

More = 315 280 = 35

%=

19.

35

280

1 0 0 1 2 .5 %

(2)

Let total number of coins = x

According to the question value of the coins = Rs. (x 14)

Let number 50 paise coins = a

Then number of 1 Re. coins = (x a)

Total value = Rs. (x 14)

a

2

x a x 14

a = 28

20.

(1)

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NTSE-ST-I-(2014)-MAT-SOL-5

1

5 52

5

1

3

4

7

8

15

16

31

5 16

21.

31

2

5 32

(2)

264

60

100

1584

10

1 5 8 .4

(1) 10% of 44 =

10

100

4 4 4 .4

15

100

1056

15840

100

1 5 8 .4

22.

(4)

By observation answer is (4)

23.

(3)

By observation answer is (3)

24.

(2)

h is not mentioned. So, obviously answer is (2).

25.

(2)

By observation answer is (2)

26.

(2)

In the dice one face is adjacent to four faces. The adjacent faces to 2 are 3, 6, 5 and 4 (from first two figures).

So, 2 is opposite to 1.

Similarly

O p p o s ite

6

5

2

O p p o s ite

4 3

So, answer is (2)

O p p o s ite

27.

28.

(1)

E:F::L:I

22 21 33

1 5

R a n k s fro m re v e rs e

R a n k s fro m re v e rs e

(3)

18 33

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NTSE-ST-II-(2014)-MAT-SOL-6

As

18

3

6 12 72

So answer is (3)

29.

(3)

Three faces always lies on corners and there are 8 corners.

30.

(2)

125 27 (No face painted)

= 98

31.

(3)

3

3

3

(n 2) = (5 2) = 3 = 27

32*.

(2) / (3)

The elements move in the sequence

; the elements reaching the upper left and the lower right

positions rotate 90 ACW; the elements reaching the upper right and lower left positions rotate 90 CW; the

central elements rotates 90 ACW and gets laterally inverted.

*Note: (In figure 2, is not correct and in figure 3 the is missing. So, no option is completely correct.)

33.

(3)

0 + 6 + 4 + 2 = 12 4 = 8

6 + 2 + 10 + 8 = 26 4 = 22

4 + 14 + 12 + 10 = 40 4 = 36

34.

(3)

3 + 12 = 15 + 12 = 27

9 + 36 = 45 + 36 = 81

6 + 25 = 31 + 25 = 56

Directions (Solution for Q. 35 to 37): As Mamta is fourth from right and Babita is seventh from left and after

exchange Babita is fifteenth from left:

Sixth from left

Rekha

Babita

Neha

Mamta

Sixth from left

Rekha

Mamta

Neha

Babita

3 students remains in right of Mamta

35.

(3)

Nehas position from left = 18 4 = 14

36.

(4)

Mamtas positon from right = 18 6 = 12

37.

(1)

th

As Rekha is on sixth position so Nehas position is 6 .

38.

(2)

6 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 21

or, There were 7 people in the party, then number of handshakes

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NTSE-ST-I-(2014)-MAT-SOL-7

=

7C

7!

2! 5!

7!

2 !7 2 !

n!

n Cr

r ! n r !

21

39.

(4)

By observation

40.

(1)

By observation

41.

(4)

By observation

42.

(3)

By observation

43.

(1)

By observation

44.

(2)

Only figure (2) contains four lines while others have three lines.

45.

(3)

Figure (1), (2) and (4) are same only their position is changed.

46.

(4)

When a cube is formed by folding the sheet shown in the given figure, then the face 2 lies opposite to 4, the

face 1 lies opposite to 6 and the face 5 lies opposite to 3. Now the cubes in option (1), (2) and (3) consists of

face which are not formed when the given sheet is folded. Therefore, only the cube in option (4) is formed.

47.

(1)

When a cube is formed by folding the sheet shown in the given figure, then the face A lies opposite to C, the

face B lies opposite to F and the face E lies opposite to D. Now the cubes in option (2), (3) and (4) consist of

faces which are not formed when the given sheet is folded. Therefore, only the cube in option (1) is formed.

In ANT and SET, the common code digit 7 stands for T.

In SUN and SET, the common code digit 5 stands for S.

In ANT and SUN, the common code digit 3 stands for N.

In SET, the remaining the code digit 2 stands for E.

In ANT, the remaining code digit 0 stands for A.

In SUN, the remaining code digit 4 stands for U.

48.

(2)

49.

(2)

50.

(4)

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ROLL NO.

~ 4l ~ t:li11 -qfta_.rr

x cfi fu-mf~ cfi ~ )

( ~&n

(QUESTION No s. 51 - 90)

Max. Marks : 40

Time : 40 Minutes

~ : 40

~ : 40 ~

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Read the following instructions carefully before

you open the question booklet.

2. This question booklet contains 40 Questions in

English Language and 40 Questions in Hindi

Language. The candidate has to attempt this test

only in one Language i.e. either in English

or in Hindi.

carefully on the answer sheet as per instructions

given on the answer sheet.

4. Answer each question by darkening the correct

alternative among the four cho ices on the

ANSWER SHEET with black/blue ball point pen.

~ ~ ~ ~ ~ f'tl'1f<"tf~\1 ~ q;l

UI'R~~I

I. ~~~~~'C{,~m<R"1

2. ~ ~- ~ .q 40 ~ ~ ~

q;. 3itt 40 ~

'11niT q;l cnr-rr t ~ ~ m ~ 1

r~~~lljfll{

fffisl

if

q;.

~ ~ ~ -;:m:

.q ~r=fu;rr 'fit I

~ .q if

~

Example:

Alternatives

Q . No.

Correct way :

CD 0

G)

-ml~ :

Alternatives

Q. No.

Wrong way :

Q . No.

Q)

a. No.

Note :

TTffif ~ :

~ ~ ~ airo;q3m ~'Rom~

wrong way.

5. Separate sheet has been provided for rough work

UI'R~:

on the OMR sheet for changing Answers. It is

s.

rt

tffiCfiT t 1

fc::llr TJ<ll t

[P.T.O

S/51 OES/14-X-Lang.- 1A

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2

~ '9' 1fiTlf clt ~FOR ROUGH WORK ONLY

5/51 DES/14-X-Lang.-1 8

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3

NTSE (Language Test) ENGUSH

Direction :

opposite in meaning to th,e given words

in Question Nos. 51 to 5i' :

51 . CHIDE :

(1) scold

(2) rebuke

(3) praise

(4) reprimand

52. FIDELITY :

57. DISTRAUGHT :

(1) foolish

(2) clever

(3) serene

(4) distressed

Direction : In question Nos. 58 to 62 out of four

alternatives choose the one which best

expresses the meaning of the given word.

58. DIFFIDENT :

(1) disloyality

(1) unhappy

(2) dependability

(2) discourteous

(3) suitability

(3) timid

(4) commitment

(4) gentle

53. EJECT :

59. CRAFTY:

(1) expel

(1) evil

(2) insert

(2) unkind

(3) exile

(3) infamous

(4) extract

(4) cunning

54. MALIGNANT :

60. GALLANTRY :

(1) magnificent

(1) cowardice

(2) wonderful

(2) valour

(3) malevolent

(3) fearfulness

(4) benign

(4) deceitful

55. PLIABLE :

61 . ABJECT :

(1) wori<able

(1) commendable

(2) plight

(2) despicable

(3) pliant

(3) ardent

(4) rigid

(4) rapture

56. REPULSIVE :

62. EXORBITANT :

(1) attractive

(1) threatening

(2) hateful

(2) excessive

(3) beautiful

(3) old

(4) detestable

(4) ridiculous

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4

Direction:

are given with blanks to be filled with an

appropriate word out of four alternatives

given :

(1) since

(2)

........... .. ... (cook) the food .

(1) cooked

(3) was cooking

by

(3) from

(4) for

64. Sheela is proud ................ her achievements.

was explaining the topic.

(1) took

(1) in

(2) take

(2) with

(3) taking

(3) at

(4) taken

(4) ci

65. They invited only a few people ................ their

wedding.

(1) in

(2) on

(3) at

(4) honoured

(4) to

(1) away

(2) into

(1) saw

(3) was see

(3) apart

(4) down

67. Will you , please, switch .......... ...... the light ?

(1) ci

(2) out

Directi o n :

alternative which exp resses the

meaning of the idioms/phrases .

(3) off

(4) down

Direction :

Day.

correct alternative (Past Tense) of the

verbs given in brackets :

(3) to beat mercilessly

74. MEND ONE'S FENCES :

(2) to quarrel

(3) met

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5

WEEHOURS :

(1) orthodontist

(2) ornithologist

(3) philatelist

(3) d usk

(4) m isogamist

(4) dawn

(1) store

(2)

(1) in writing

cloakroom

(3) restroom

(3) in two colours

82. One who looks at the dark side of life :

(4) in a moderate manner

(1) pessimist

(2)

(3) pacifist

(1) to bribe

(4) humanist

(3) to get ready to do something

78.

optimist

alternative with correct spelling .

83. (1) resiprocal

(2)

TO BREAK INTO :

reciprokel

(3) reciprocal

(4)

reciprokal

84. (1) pagent

(3) to interrupt

(2)

(3) pageant

(4) pegent

alternatives, choose the one which can

be substituted for the given sentences

and mark it in the answer sheet.

peg ant

(2)

granduer

(3) grandure

(4)

grendeur

(1) atheist

86.

(1) beurocracy

(2) agnostic

(2)

(3) sadist

(3) bureaucracy

(4) altruist

(4)

burokracy

beaurocracy

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6

Direction :

passage and choose the correct

answer from the given options.

motherland. It is a natural feel ing that almost every

person possesses. If a person has no love for his

motherland, he must be as good as dead. 'Love of our

country' should become our motto. The love for one's

motherland is more significant than all other varieties

of love. This love may be there because of the physical

beauty of one's m otherland-its landscape, fertility or

rich natural resources. But , it really is a thing to be

proud of. It instills a feel ing of own-ness in a person

and he or she comes to have an emotional hand with

the land of his or her birth . This love i.e. patriotism is

untouched by selfishness. On the other hand a patriot

is always prepared to lay down his life for his or her

(1) ready to glorify his country

(2) ready to rule his country

(3) ready to sacrifice himself for his country

(4)

(1) All cannot love their country

(3) One should love oneself first

other kind of love

country.

90. The word 'Patriotism' means.

87. The author feels that patriotism is not linked

to ...... .

(1) selfishness

(2) Love for one's mother

(2) pride

(3) corruption

(4) generosity

(4) Love for one's culture

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10

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I (2014)

(For Class X Students)

(ENGLISH)

Question

Answer

Question

Answer

51

76

52

77

53

78

54

79

55

80

56

81

57

82

58

83

59

84

60

85

61

86

62

87

63

88

64

89

65

90

66

67

68

69

70

71

72

73

74

75

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