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Each of the following is an electromagnetic radiation EXCEPT one.

Which one is the

A. Radar
B. X rays
C. Alpha rays
D. Gamma rays
E. Visible light

Question 10 of 100
Which of the following physical signs indicates severe CNS oxygen deprivation?
A. Dilated pupils with increased light reflex
B. Pinpoint pupils with increased light reflex
C. Dilated pupils with an absence of light reflex
D. Pinpoint pupils with an absence of light reflex
Subconjunctival hemorrhage is most commonly found in which of the following fractures?
A. Nasal
B. LeFort I
C. Frontal sinus
D. Zygomatic arch
E. Zygomaticomaxillary complex

Question 16 of 100
The use of study casts in orthognathic surgery does each of the following EXCEPT one. Which
one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Constructs splints
B. Performs model surgery
C. Determines the postoperative occlusion
D. Identifies the type of skeletal deformity
E. Aids in explaining the surgical procedure to the patient

Question 18 of 100
Acute pyogenic bacterial infections produce
A. leukopenia.
B. lymphopenia.
C. neutropenia.
D. leukocytosis.
E. lymphocytosis.
Which of the following is indicated to correct a condition of atropine poisoning evidenced by
rapid heart rate, dry mouth and gastrointestinal inactivity?
A. Nicotine
B. Homatropine
C. Epinephrine
D. Pilocarpine
E. Physostigmine
Which of the following should be performed first for a collapsed or unconscious victim of illness
or accident?
A. Open the airway
B. Establish unresponsiveness
C. Establish pulselessness

D. Examine the victim for bleeding and fractures

A patient presents with facial lacerations that have irregular or devitalized wound edges. In
excising the wound elliptically, a practitioner takes into account each of the following EXCEPT
one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A. Excision is perpendicular to the natural skin tension lines.
B. Length to width ratio of the excision is at least 3 to 1
C. Excision is done as conservatively as possible.
D. The wound is undermined prior to closure.
Which of the following represents the major route of excretion of penicillin V?
A. Secretion in the bile and into the feces
B. Excretion in the urine as inactive metabolites
C. Total metabolism by the liver and excretion in the feces
D. Secretion not metabolized in the urine
Which of the following systemic conditions lowers resistance, impairs healing, and indicates
early use of antibiotics for infections?
A. Vitamin C deficiency
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Polycythemia vera
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
What space management treatment should be planned for a child age 4, missing both primary
mandibular first molars with no primate space present?
A. Lingual arch
B. Distal shoe(s)
C. Nance holding arch
D. Band-and-loop space maintainer(s)

E. Observation; no space maintainer necessary

"PRIMATE SPACE" is more specific:
In the mandibular arch, the primate space is between the canine and the 1st molar
(or 1st premolar in adults).
Whereas, in the maxillary arch, it is between the lateral incisors and canines.

An unconscious patient is suspected of having an obstructed airway. How should this patient be
A. Protrude the tongue, clear the pharynx, extend the neck, and protrude the mandible
B. Extend the neck, clear the pharynx, protrude the tongue, and protrude the mandible
C. Extend the neck, protrude the mandible, protrude the tongue, and clear the pharynx
D. Clear the pharynx, extend the neck, protrude the mandible, and protrude the tongue
Which of the following is the least helpful in determining the anatomical integrity of the
temporomandibular joint?
A. Arthrography
B. Arthroscopy
C. Panoramic films
D. Computerized tomography
E. Magnetic resonance imaging

Question 32 of 100
A freshly condensed Class II amalgam restoration has a deficient margin at the proximogingival
cavosurface angle. This might have been caused by which of the following?
A. Overtightening the matrix band
B. Neglecting to wedge the matrix band
C. Neglecting to contour the matrix band
D. Using too large an initial increment of amalgam

Each of the following measures can minimize fractures of the maxillary alveolar process
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Use of controlled force when using forceps and elevators
B. Removal of buccal bone and/or sectioning of teeth
C. A thorough presurgical analysis and planning alterations in the surgical approach
D. Use of the maxillary pinch grasp to detect expansion of the alveolar bone
E. Use of forceps with beaks that grasp the roots more firmly
Ethyl alcohol is a good antidote for methanol poisoning because
A. it inhibits methanol metabolism.
B. it competes successfully with methanol for alcohol dehydrogenase.
C. it prevents formation of formaldehyde.
D. it prevents damage to the optic nerve.
E. all of the above.
Each of the following nonsedating antihistamines would be contraindicated in an individual
taking cimetidine for heartburn EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Astemizole (Hismanal)
B. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
C. Fexofenadine (Allegra)
D. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
E. Terfenadine (Seldane)
Which of the following is a local contraindication for the surgical removal of an impacted tooth?
A. A nonvital tooth
B. Fever of unknown origin
C. A history of bleeding disorder

D. An undiagnosed ulcer in the oral cavity

E. Pale gingiva with a confirmed history of anemia

Question 37 of 100
Which of the following properties increases when the intermediate chain of a local anesthetic
drug is lengthened?
A. Potency
B. Allergenicity
C. Solubility in water
D. Rate of biotransformation
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of chemical vapor sterilization?
A. Cycle time is short.
B. It will not char fabrics.
C. It will not cause corrosion.
D. There is no need for special ventilation.
E. Instruments are dry at the end of the cycle.
In the preauricular approach to the TMJ, which of the following anatomic structures, if damaged,
presents the potential for greatest morbidity?
A. Facial nerve
B. Parotid gland
C. Auriculotemporal nerve
D. Superficial temporal vein
E. Facial artery
Osteomyelitis of the mandible is most likely to develop because of
A. failure of pus to localize.

B. a resistant strain of bacteria.

C. low resistance of the patient.
D. lack of drainage from the infected area.
How does the growth of the cranial base generally relate in time to the growth of the jaws?
A. Follows
B. Precedes
C. Unrelated
D. Accompanies
E. Initially follows, then accompanies
Aplastic anemia is a serious toxic effect associated most frequently with which of the following
A. Streptomycin
B. Tetracycline
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Chlortetracycline
The therapeutic index of a given drug indicates the relative
A. safety.
B. potency.
C. efficacy.
D. duration.
E. solubility.
Which of the following flap designs allows the best surgical access to the apical aspect of a tooth
root with the least reflection of soft tissue?
A. Envelope

B. Semilunar
C. Vertical release
D. Rotation pedicle
Principles for managing a localized alveolar osteitis after extraction of a mandibular first molar
include each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Flushing out debris with normal saline solution
B. Curetting the boney wall to promote bleeding
C. Placing a sedative dressing in the socket to protect exposed bone
D. Administering mild analgesic drugs as an adjunct to local treatment
When is the most appropriate time to permanently modify/alter the occlusion of an acute TMD
A. During the first visit, while the patient has the acute symptoms
B. Prior to initiating splint therapy, one week after the first visit
C. Only after the patient is symptom-free and has shown improvement during splint therapy
D. Never, until definitive orthodontic treatment has been started
You are doing some preprosthetic surgery on a patient in preparation for a new denture. Which of
the following statements about removal of her moderate-sized mandibular lingual tori is correct?
A. The tori should be removed using a large pear-shaped acrylic bur.
B. The tori should be removed by grooving the superior surface then shearing the torus off
with a mono-beveled chisel. The area is then smoothed with a bone file.
C. The tori should be removed by grooving the superior surface of the torus with a bur, then
shear the torus off with a bibeveled chisel.
D. The tori should be removed by inserting a rongeurs vertically under a lingual flap and
"snipping off' the tori.
Which of the following statements about the flap for the removal of a palatal torus is correct?
A. The most optimal flap uses a midline incision which courses from the papilla between
teeth #8 and 9 posteriorly to the junction of the hard and soft palates.

B. The most optimal flap is a reflection of the entire hard palate mucoperiosteum back to a
line between the 2 first molar teeth.
C. The most optimal flap uses a midpalatal incision that courses from the palatal aspect of
tooth #3 across to the palatal aspect of tooth #14
D. The most optimal flap is shaped like a "double-Y", with a midline incision and anterior
and posterior side arms extending bilaterally from the ends of the midline incision.
A properly executed posterior superior alveolar nerve block will anesthetize each of the
following structures EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Maxillary sinus membrane in the molar region
B. Second and third molar teeth and a portion of the first molar tooth
C. Buccal alveolar bone, soft tissue and periodontium in the posterior maxilla
D. Soft palate mucosa on the side of the injection
Which areas should be avoided for an IM injection before a child can walk?
A. Gluteal muscles
B. Ventrogluteal
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Deltoid area
Which of the following antibiotics has been implicated in the vast majority of cases of oral
contraceptive failure during antibiotic use?
A. Penicillin
B. Rifampin
C. Keflex
D. Erythromycin
E. Tetracycline
Which of the following is the most serious result of digoxin intoxication?
A. Bradycardia

B. Renal failure
C. Atrial tachycardia
D. Atrial fibrillation
E. Ventricular fibrillation
Each of the following represents an advantage of oral sedation EXCEPT one. Which one is the
A. Need for specialized training and equipment
B. High incidence and severity of adverse reactions
C. Erratic and incomplete absorption of drugs from the GI tract
D. Short duration of action
Spontaneous gingival hemorrhage or acute stomatitis, observed in a pediatric patient under
treatment for absence seizures, indicates withdrawal of which of the following anticonvulsant
A. Phenytoin
B. Ethosuximide
C. Carbamazepine
D. Phenobarbital
E. Valproic acid
Back pressure porosity is
A. the same as occluded gas porosity.
B. the result of using an oxidizing flame.
C. most likely when the wax pattern is positioned very close to the open end of the ring.
D. often evidenced by rounded margins on the casting.
E. the same as suck-back porosity.

Which of the following explains why a properly designed rest on the lingual surface of a canine
is preferred to a properly designed rest on the incisal surface?
A. The enamel is thicker on the lingual surface.
B. Less leverage is exerted against the tooth by the lingual rest.
C. The visibility of, as well as access to, the lingual surface is better.
D. The cingulum of the canine provides a natural surface for the recess.
The main metabolite of ingested isopropyl alcohol is
A. urea.
B. acetone.
C. methanol.
D. acetaldehyde.
E. formaldehyde.
With respect to temperature, the processing cycle of a denture is designed to
A. attain development of color.
B. prevent boiling of the monomer.
C. prevent breakdown of the initiator.
D. volatilize the hydroquinone inhibitor.
The most likely cause of failure in the pre-ceramic soldering technique is
A. under heating the parts to be joined.
B. overheating the parts to be joined.
C. using an incompatible solder.
D. using phosphate as the soldering investment.
E. preheating the soldering assembly.
Alcoholic euphoria results from

A. increased activity of the cerebrum.

B. increased activity of thalamic areas.
C. increased activity of limbic synapses.
D. decreased activity of medullary centers.
E. removal of the inhibitory effect of the cortex.
The portion of an artificial tooth that is found only in porcelain anterior teeth is
A. the pin.
B. the collar.
C. the finish line.
D. the diatoric.
E. None of above
The casting shrinkage of cobalt-chromium alloys is approximately
A. 1.25%.
B. 1.75%.
C. 2.2%.
D. 3.2%.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of glass ionomer cement?
A. Difficulty in mixing
B. Irritation of the pulp
C. Low bond strength to dentin
D. Moisture sensitivity during initial set
The base of the incision in the gingivectomy technique is located
A. in the alveolar mucosa.

B. at the mucogingival junction.

C. above the mucogingival junction.
D. coronal to the periodontal pocket.
E. at the level of the cementoenamel junction.
The most important anticoagulant effect of heparin is to interfere with the conversion of
A. PTA to PTC.
B. PTC to Factor VIII.
C. fibrinogen to fibrin.
D. prothrombin to thrombin.
E. proaccelerin to accelerin.
One can accelerate the setting time of zinc oxide-eugenol impression pastes by adding a small
amount of
A. water.
B. glycerin.
C. petrolatum.
D. plaster of paris
When determining the appropriate dose of systemic fluoride supplement for a child, it is most
important for the dentist to consider which of the following?
A. The fluoride content of the drinking water
B. The child's diet and caries activity
C. The child's age and the fluoride content of the drinking water
D. The child's weight and the fluoride content of the drinking water
The drug of choice to treat overdosage with tricyclic antidepressants is
A. atropine.

B. phenytoin.
C. physostigmine.
D. pentobarbital.
E. an amphetamine
Drug interaction resulting in serious adverse cardiovascular events, including death, might occur
between erythromycin and which of the following antihistamine drugs?
A. Terfenadine (Seldane)
B. Promethazine (Phenergan)
C. Hydroxyzine (Atarax)
D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
E. Chlorpheniramine (Chlor-Trimeton)
A mercury spill in the laboratory or office is appropriately cleaned up by
A. removing the mercury, then spraying the area with BAL.
B. scrubbing the spill area with hot water and detergent.
C. sweeping up the mercury and disposing of it in a plastic bag.
D. aspirating the mercury into a wash bottle trap, then dusting the spill area with sulfur
A prescription includes each of the following parts EXCEPT one. Which one is the
A. Superscription
B. Inscription
C. Subscription
D. Transcription
E. Conscription

Inhalation of amyl nitrite can result in each of the following EXCEPT one. Which is the
A. Tachycardia
B. Coronary artery dilation
C. Peripheral arteriolar dilation
D. A decrease in arterial blood pressure
E. Increased motility of the small bowel
Which of the following drugs is commonly used in the treatment of congestive heart failure?
A. Phenytoin
B. Digitalis
C. Quinidine
D. Procainamide
E. Nitroglycerin
What percent of the blood alcohol level is the most likely to produce a lethal effect in 50 per cent
of the population?
A. 0.05%
B. 0.10%
C. 0.20%
D. 0.03%
E. 0.05%
Prolonged use of amyl nitrite may result in
A. aplastic anemia.
B. thrombocytopenia.
C. granulocytopenia.

D. methemoglobinemia.
E. hypoprothrombinemia.
Which of the following statements is true concerning anticholinesterase?
A. Agents such as DEP inhibit only plasma cholinesterase.
B. Organophosphates are readily absorbed through the skin.
C. Agents may cause paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia.
D. Reactivators such as 2-PAM reactivate ACHE which has undergone "aging".
E. Alkaloid physostigmine has the greatest number of side effects unrelated to ACHE
Which of the following drug groups is currently the mainstay of treatment in depressive
psychoneurotic disease?
A. Amphetamines
B. Phenothiazines
C. Benzodiazepines
D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
E. Tricyclic (imipramine-like) antidepressants
When high gold content alloys are compared to base metal alloys, the base metal alloys exhibit
A. a higher melting point, increased specific gravity, and generally higher yield strength and
B. a higher melting point, decreased specific gravity, and generally higher yield strength and
C. a higher melting point, generally higher yield strength and hardness, and more consistent
bonding to porcelain.
D. increased specific gravity, generally lower yield strength, and more consistent bonding to
E. decreased specific gravity, generally higher yield strength and hardness, and more
consistent bonding to porcelain.

The central skeletal muscle relaxation produced by depressing the polysynaptic reflex arcs is
brought about by all of the following drugs EXCEPT
A. diazepam (Valium).
B. lorazepam (Ativan).
C. meprobamate (Equanil).
D. d-tubocurarine (Tubarine).
Which of the following statements best describes why L-dopa eventually becomes ineffective in
the treatment of Parkinson's disease?
A. L-dopa absorption slows with aging.
B. Dopa decarboxylase activity increases with age.
C. Dietary intake of pyridoxine speeds L-dopa metabolism.
D. Patients gradually develop tolerance because L-dopa induces liver enzymeactivity.
E. Neuronal cell loss in the substantia nigra is progressive and continuous over the course of
the disease.
The cardiac glycosides will reduce the concentration of which ion in an active heart muscle cell?
A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Chloride
D. Potassium
E. Magnesium
Which of the following drugs is excreted primarily by renal tubular secretion?
A. Benzylpenicillin
B. Streptomycin
C. Tetracycline
D. Bacitracin

E. Polymyxin
In pursuit of what the dentist believes is best for the patient, the dentist attempts to control
patient behavior. This is known as
A. autonomy.
B. competence.
C. maleficence.
D. paternalism.
When 50 mg. of chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is administered to a patient, on standing the
patient might experience a fall in blood pressure due to which of the following?
A. Anticholinergic action
B. Decrease in heart rate
C. Alpha-adrenergic blockade
D. Negative inotropic action
E. Stimulation of autonomic ganglia
Metabolism of a drug will usually result in conversion to each of the following EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Inactive form
B. More active compound
C. Less active compound
D. More water-soluble compound
E. Less ionized compound
Which of the following sedatives is most likely to cause a dry mouth?
A. Buspirone (BuSpar)
B. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
C. Chloral hydrate (Noctec)

D. Phenobarbital (Luminal)
Which of the following erythromycins is both enteric coated and long acting?
B. E.E.S.
C. Erythrocin
D. Ilosone
Each of the following is a characteristic of tramadol (Ultram) EXCEPT one. Which one is the
A. Centrally acting analgesic
B. Structurally similar to morphine
C. Binds to the mu-opioid receptor
D. Biotransformed into a more active metabolite
E. Inhibits uptake of norepinephrine and serotonin
During a soldering procedure, flux serves to
A. provide an oxidizing environment in the area to be soldered.
B. displace gases and dissolve corrosion products.
C. remove any debris that may remain in the area to be soldered.
D. hold the solder in place during heating.
Excessive heating of the acrylic resin during processing should be avoided to prevent
A. exothermic heat buildup.
B. acrylic resin shrinkage.
C. evaporation of the monomer.
D. excessive acrylic resin expansion.
E. discoloration of the acrylic resin.

Following compression of acrylic into the denture flasks, placing the flasks into the processing
tanks at curing temperature is delayed to
A. assure complete flow of acrylic into the mold.
B. allow the monomer to permeate all polymer crystals.
C. establish an equalized and uniform pressure in the molds.
D. allows the flasks and the acrylic to reach a stable temperature.
Early stage periapical cemental dysplasia is best differentiated from chronic apical periodontitis
A. percussion.
B. subjective symptoms.
C. periodontal examination.
D. results of pulp testing.
E. radiographic appearance.
Which of the following represents the sequence in the replantation of mature, avulsed teeth?
A. Repositioning, splinting, and performing root canal therapy
B. Performing root-canal therapy, repositioning, and splinting
C. Performing canal debridement, performing calcium hydroxide therapy, repositioning,
splinting, and filling with gutta- percha
D. Repositioning, splinting, performing canal debridement, performing calcium hydroxide
therapy, and filling with gutta- percha
E. Repositioning and splinting only
If periapical radiolucency is present at the apex of a tooth with a middle third root fracture and
the apical canal space is non-negotiable, the required treatment would be
A. extraction because of the poor prognosis.
B. calcium hydroxide treatment of the coronal segment only.
C. apical surgery with a Super EBA reverse filling.

D. apical surgery with removal of the apical segment root canal treatment on the coronal
E. extraction with removal of the apical segment and replantation of the coronal segment.
A 7-year-old patient fractured the right central incisor three hours ago. A clinical examination
reveals a 2-mm exposure of a "bleeding pulp." The treatment-of-choice is
A. pulpectomy and apexification.
B. pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide.
C. direct pulp cap with calcium hydroxide.
D. one-appointment root canal treatment.
Which of the following outlines best describes the access cavity preparation on a mandibular
molar with four canals?
A. Oval
B. Trapezoidal
C. Triangular
D. Rectangular
Loss of the apical seat caused by overinstrumentation is best managed by
A. prescribing analgesics and antibiotics.
B. filling with a warm gutta-percha technique.
C. increasing the file size and decreasing the file length.
D. using a chelating agent and packing with calcium hydroxide.
E. filling with a gutta-percha cone that is larger than the apical perforation.
Which of the following is the most effective way to reduce injury to the pulp during a restorative
A. Prepare dentin with slow-speed burs.
B. Use anesthetics without vasoconstrictors.

C. Minimize dehydration of the dentinal surface.

D. Keep the dentinal surface clean by frequent irrigation.
E. Use light, short duration contact with the bur.
Which of the following teeth have the most consistent canal morphology?
A. Mandibular incisors
B. Maxillary canines
C. Mandibular premolars
D. Maxillary premolars
E. Mandibular molars
Rigid splinting of an avulsed permanent incisor will most likely lead to
A. normal healing response.
B. calcific metamorphosis.
C. replacement resorption.
D. internal resorption.
E. root fracture.
Which of the following diagnoses represents an injury that causes the tooth to loosen but is not
A. Concussion
B. Luxation
C. Subluxation
D. Extrusion
E. Intrusion
Waiting to allow intruded permanent central incisors to reerupt in an 8-year-old child will likely
lead to

A. a healing response and reeruption.

B. calcific metamorphosis.
C. internal resorption.
D. tooth discoloration.
E. ankylosis.
Which of the following factors is of greatest importance in selecting a restorative material for a
Class V cavity on the facial surface of a mandibular premolar?
A. Reaction of gingival tissue
B. Resistance to stress
C. Ease of manipulation
D. Esthetics
Before beginning tooth preparation, the dentist should visualize the outline form to
A. establish the convenience form.
B. establish the resistance and retention form.
C. prevent overcutting and overextension.
D. aid in the finish of enamel walls and margins.
The anterior maxillary incisors of a middle-aged patient can be given a younger appearance by
selective grinding of the enamel. The dentist performs this procedure by
A. flattening the incisal edges.
B. shortening the incisal edges.
C. rounding the incisal point angles.
D. moving the facial line angles proximally.
E. moving the facial height of curvature gingivally.
In radiography, a longer gray scale of contrast can be achieved by

A. decreasing the filtration.

B. increasing the kilovoltage.
C. increasing the milliamperage.
D. increasing the focal spot-skin distance.
As an x-ray tube operates, electrons carry energy from the cathode to the anode. Into which of
the following is most of this energy converted in the target?
A. Heat
B. X rays
C. Magnetism
D. Electricity
E. Visible light
The inferior concha is composed of all or part of which of the following bones?
A. Maxilla
B. Ethmoid
C. Sphenoid
D. Palatine
E. Turbinate
Each of the following could be ruled out for the lesion distal to the mandibular third molar
EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A. Cementoblastoma
B. Osteoma
C. Fibroma
D. Salivary gland inclusion defect (Stafne defect)
When making a bite-wing exposure of the posterior teeth, the recommended vertical angulation
may vary from

A. -10 degrees to -5 degrees

B. -5 degrees to 10 degrees
C. 0 degrees to +5 degrees
D. +5 degrees to +10 degrees
A panoramic radiograph of an asymptomatic adult discloses a well-defined 1.5 cm radiolucency
below the mandibular canal. The lesion is not palpable. Which of the following is the most likely
A. Ameloblastoma
B. Traumatic bone cyst
C. Odontogenic keratocyst
D. Focal osteoporotic bone marrow defect
E. Salivary gland inclusion defect (Stafne)
Ectodermal dysplasia is characterized by each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this
A. Hypodontia (oligodontia)
B. Blue sclera
C. Atrophic skin
D. Defective hair
E. Hypoplastic sweat glands
An 18-year-old man complains of tingling in his lower lip. An examination discloses a painless,
hard swelling of his mandibular premolar region. The patient first noticed this swelling 3 weeks
ago. Radiographs indicate a loss of cortex and a diffuse, radiating pattern of trabeculae in the
mass. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Leukemia
B. Dentigerous cyst
C. Ossifying fibroma

D. Osteosarcoma
E. Hyperparathyroidism
Malignant melanoma most commonly occurs in which of the following intraoral sites?
A. Buccal mucosa and vestibule
B. Lateral and ventral tongue mucosa
C. Soft palate and tonsillar pillar complex
D. Hard palate and maxillary gingiva
E. Floor of mouth and anterior lingual gingiva
A radiographic examination reveals a radiolucent area in the region of the mandibular left third
molar. The third molar is not present. The clinical differential diagnoses should include each of
the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A. Ameloblastoma
B. Residual cyst
C. Odontogenic keratocyst
D. Dentigerous cyst
E. Odontogenic myxoma
Radiographs of an asymptomatic, 20-year-old patient reveal a sharply outlined radiolucent lesion
in the mandibular first molar area. This 2 cm lesion scallops between the roots of vital teeth. The
most probable diagnosis is
A. radicular cyst.
B. dentigerous cyst.
C. traumatic bone cyst.
D. odontoma.
Examination reveals a soft, fluctuant, tender swelling in the midline of the hard palate. The teeth
test vital. Radiographs reveal a radiolucent area projected between the roots of the maxillary
central incisors. Which of the following cysts represents the most likely diagnosis?

A. Nasolabial
B. Median palatal
C. Periapical
D. Nasopalatine duct
E. Incisive papilla
Incorrect horizontal angulation of the x-ray tubehead during exposure of a molar bite-wing leads
A. elongation of teeth.
B. overlapping of interproximals
C. overexposure of film
D. foreshortening of roots.
E. foreshortening of crowns.

Question 89 of 100
Symptoms of pain and tenderness upon palpation of the temporomandibular joint are usually
associated with which of the following?
A. Impacted mandibular third molars
B. Flaccid paralysis of the painful side of the face
C. Flaccid paralysis of the non painful side of the face
D. Excitability of the second division of the fifth nerve
E. Deviation of the jaw to the painful side upon opening the mouth
A patient placed an aspirin directly in the mandibular facial sulcus. Shortly afterward, a wellcircumscribed white patch appeared on the mucosa. Which of the following is the most likely
A. Keratosis
B. Hyperplasia

C. Atrophy
D. Necrosis
E. Hypertrophy
Increasing mA setting of an x-ray unit raises which of the following?
A. Photon speed
B. Photon wavelength
C. Number of photons generated
D. Voltage between anode and cathode
E. Effective energy of the resultant beam
Hypertrophy of the mandibular condyle in an adult can result in each of the following EXCEPT
one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A. Anterior open bite
B. Anterior crossbite
C. Ipsilateral posterior open bite
D. Unilateral Class III malocclusion
E. Asymmetric facial appearance