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A needle tract infection following an inferior alveolar block injection would initially involve

which space?
A. Pterygomandibular
B. Sublingual
C. Submandibular
D. Lateral pharyngeal
Which of the following characteristics most readily distinguishes amelogenesis imperfecta from
dentinogenesis imperfecta?
A. Radiographic appearance
B. Hereditary background
C. Presence of blue sclera
D. Color of the teeth
E. Associated hair loss
The strength of a soldered connector of a fixed partial denture is best enhanced by
A. using a higher carat solder.
B. increasing its height.
C. increasing its width.
D. increasing the gap.
Which of the following is the most likely postoperative complication of bleaching a tooth that
has not been adequately obturated?
A. Fracture
B. Discoloration
C. Acute apical periodontitis
D. Chronic apical periodontitis

E. External cervical root resorption
Which of the following is the best method for evaluating centric occlusion on a newly placed
onlay restoration?
A. Shim stock
B. Articulating paper
C. Patient feedback
D. Occlusal indicator wa
A patient presents with continuous, spontaneous pain associated with the maxillary right central
incisor. This tooth has a large Class V composite restoration. Cold testing produces lingering
pain. There is no sensitivity to percussion or palpation. The most likely diagnosis is
A. necrotic pulp, chronic apical periodontitis.
B. reversible pulpitis, normal periapex.
C. irreversible pulpitis, normal periapex.
D. irreversible pulpitis, acute apical periodontitis.
In serial extraction procedures, concerns about the eruption sequence are usually related to the
eruption pattern of which permanent teeth?
A. Maxillary canines and first premolars
B. Mandibular first and second premolars
C. Mandibular first molars and incisors
D. Mandibular canines and first premolars
Which of the following compounds is used as an antiviral agent?
A. Amantadine (Symmetrel®)
B. Novobiocin
C. Miconazole (Monistat®)
D. Amphotericin B

A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture in order to
A. improve the distribution of the occlusal load.
B. improve embrasure contours.
C. stabilize the abutment teeth.
D. improve mesiodistal spacing.
Radiographic signs of trauma from occlusion include each of the following EXCEPT one. Which
one is this EXCEPTION?
A. Hypercementosis
B. Root resorption
C. Alteration of the lamina dura
D. Alteration of the periodontal space
E. Vascular infiltration of the periodontal ligament
Which of the following represents the most common form of gingival periodontal disease in
school-aged children?
A. Juvenile periodontitis
B. Localized acute gingivitis
C. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
D. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
To prevent cross-contamination to patients from dental operatory units, a dentist should use
handpieces and water spray hoses that are fitted with which type of valves?
A. Retraction
B. Pressure
C. Anti-retraction
D. Depressurization

A dentist inadvertently sealed a small carious lesion in the occlusal surface of a maxillary first
molar. This would most likely result in
A. arrested caries.
B. extension of caries.
C. discoloration of the tooth.
D. increased microleakage.
A Class II cavity preparation in a primary molar for dental amalgam restoration will not require a
gingival bevel, because the enamel rods in the area incline
A. facially.
B. lingually.
C. gingivally.
D. occlusally.
E. vertically.
A dentist is examining a tooth that has a probing depth of 5 mm and gingival recession of 3 mm.
The total amount of attachment loss is
A. 2 mm.
B. 3 mm.
C. 5 mm.
D. 8 mm.
Guided tissue regeneration is most commonly used to treat which of the following Classes of
furcations?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

the dentist will use a hygienic pontic. Lingually inclined mandibular premolars C. Patients with hydroxylapatite augmentation to the anterior maxilla should be without their maxillary prosthesis for a minimum of one month. Which of the following will primarily determine the faciolingual dimension of the occlusal portion of this pontic? . Hydroxylapatite is considered to be osteoinductive (bone forming). A change in the oral microflora D. Compaction or compression of hydroxylapatite after augmentation generally does not occur.Which of the following is the LEAST likely to cause rampant caries in geriatric patients? A. Major connectors most frequently encounter interferences from which of the following? A. C. The side effects of medication Which of the following describes the use of hydroxylapatite for alveolar ridge augmentation? A. C. Granule migration and excessive augmentation are common problems with hydroxylapatite materials. A decreased salivary flow C. Bony areas on the facial aspect of edentulous spaces In constructing a fixed partial denture for a patient. B. apposition at the anterior border of the ramus. Facially inclined maxillary molars and premolars D. Lingually inclined maxillary molars B. resorption at the posterior border of the ramus. D. D. Poor oral hygiene B. B. The space for the eruption of permanent mandibular second and third molars is created by the A. resorption at the anterior border of the ramus. apposition of the alveolar process.

D. Preventing postoperative swelling . Preventing a dry socket C. sodium. C. Preventing lip biting B. which are used in the treatment of hypertension. potassium. What would be the immediate concern of a dentist after removing the primary mandibular left second molar of a 3-year-old child? A. calcium. Providing space maintenance E. Psychosomatic (hypnosis) methods C. The position of the opposing contact areas D. The length of the pontic B. The width and crestal position of the edentulous ridge Each of the following methods can be used to control pain EXCEPT one. Raising the pain threshold D. Controlling postoperative pain D. The masticatory force of the patient C. may require supplemental administration of A. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Blocking the sensory pathway E. Depression of the autonomic nervous system Thiazides. chloride. B.A. Cortical depression B.

Polyacrylic spheres D. Anxiety C. An inflammatory resorption of supporting bone D. Anionic detergent B. noble metal content. An idiopathic. high hardness. surface oxide layer. Depression B. The supraspinal analgesic activity of morphine is mediated primarily through its influence upon which opioid receptor subtype? . Mania A removable partial denture made of a base metal alloy is resistant to tarnish and corrosion because of its A.Which of the following will most likely cause an autogenous tooth transplant to fail during the third year? A. Senility D. chronic progressive root resorption Which of the following dentifrice components is most likely to inactivate the fluoride ion? A. Dicalcium phosphate C. Monofluorophosphate Which of the following is the most common functional psychiatric disorder in the elderly? A. Sociopathic behavior E. Ankylosis of the tooth C. C. D. B. grain structure. Development of root caries B.

how much of the root structure is most likely to have developed? A. 1/4 B. Mu B. Prilocaine . Procaine .A. Surgical pocket elimination C. 1/3 C. Lidocaine . Root planing B. Occlusal adjustment E. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A.benzocaine .mepivacaine B. Epsilon When a permanent tooth clinically emerges. Sigma E. 2/3 D. Kappa C. 4/5 Each of the following is a part of the initial preparation of a periodontal treatment plan EXCEPT one.tetracaine C. Extractions of hopeless teeth Which pair of anesthetics is most likely to show cross-allergy? A.lidocaine E.mepivacaine D. Procaine . Lidocaine . Delta D. Home-care instructions D.

calcium hydroxide should be A. Enlargement of the foramen C. Capsular fibrosis D. Pain to the patient B. preceded by application of a cavity varnish. This error can result in each of the following EXCEPT one. Unilateral condylar hyperplasia In shaping and cleansing the canal of a vital maxillary central incisor.0 mm. D. a practitioner has inadvertently perforated the apical foramen. B.To ensure better thermal and protective insulation of the pulp during a capping procedure. covered with a stronger base. preceded by application of a zinc phosphate cement. Muscle spasm C. Chronic dislocation B. unseating of the denture. a tingling sensation. Trauma to the apical tissue D. C. placed in all cavity preparations. a practitioner can expect which of the following types of TMJ disorders to respond most favorably? A. Necrotic tissue being forced into the apical tissues Excessive depth of the posterior palatal seal usually results in A. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. increased gagging. B. . greater retention. When using an occlusal separator. D. applied to a thickness of 3. C. E.

What is the major difference between a Class V cavity preparation for amalgam and one for composite resin by the acid-etch technique? A. temperature of the air. Convenience form . refractory period of the ventricular muscle. digitalis acts primarily on the cardiac muscle. SNA C. diffusion of nutrients from the underlying connective tissue.A 12-year-old boy has a skeletal Class III malocclusion. Depth B. B. rate of conduction of impulses to the muscle. residual nutrients within the graft. It does so by increasing the A. D. diffusion of nutrients from adjacent vessels of the periodontal ligament. proportion of residents who are children. Y-axis In therapeutic doses. caries rate of the total population. The optimal concentration of fluoride for community water depends upon the A. force of contraction. B. the primary source of nutrition for the graft during the first 24 hours is the A. ANB B. D. SNB D. C. which of the following cephalometric values generally increases? A. B. refractory period of the atrial muscle. primary vascular anastomosis. C. After a free gingival graft. As he gets older. C.

Angulation of the enamel cavosurface margins When removing an impacted third molar. First molar. To minimize the amount of bone to be removed C. Central incisor. second molar. one-fourth. The first statement is TRUE. canine. Which of the following eruption sequences is most commonly found in the primary dentition? A. lateral incisor. and second molar B. central incisor.C. A. a dentist divides (sections) the tooth for each of the following reasons EXCEPT one. one-half. central incisor. lateral incisor. B. C. and canine . The first statement is FALSE. and second molar C. To minimize exertion of force necessary to remove the tooth The thickness of coronal dentin in primary teeth. lateral incisor. lateral incisor. Both statements are TRUE. and second molar D. First molar. canine. the second is FALSE. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) regulates the transportation of waste from the office. is approximately A. canine. B. Both statements are FALSE. To allow the tooth to be delivered to the occlusal aspect D. compared with that in corresponding permanent teeth. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is concerned with regulated waste within the office. D. Position of retention points D. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. To shorten the surgical procedure B. C. first molar. the second is TRUE. one-third. Central incisor. first molar.

For a complete denture balanced occlusion. A vertical growth pattern and a long lower anterior face height . A deep overbite and a vertical growth pattern B. Sodium metabisulfite Each of the following is a pharmacologic effect of phenothiazines EXCEPT one. A vertical growth pattern and a Class II division 2 malocclusion E. The lingual inclines of the facial cusps D. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. which occurs after intravenous administration of diazepam. The central fossae Thrombophlebitis. The lingual inclines of the lingual cusps C. Propylene glycol D. A deep overbite and a long lower anterior face height D. Potentiation of the action of narcotics E. An anticonvulsant A higher than average mandibular plane angle is often associated with which of the following? A. A deep overbite and a Class I division 2 malocclusion C. Benzoic acid B. is usually attributed to which of the following substances in the mixture? A. Ethyl alcohol C. An antiemetic effect C. Sedation B. the lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth on the non-working side contacts which areas of the mandibular posterior teeth? A. The facial inclines of the lingual cusps B. Alpha-adrenergic blockade D.

Primary occlusal trauma B. D. Masseter C. a premature eccentric contact. Mobility related to a unilateral "skid" from centric relation to centric occlusion A dentist restored an endodontically treated tooth with a cast post-and-core and a metal ceramic crown. D. B. long-term sealing of several years duration. Tooth mobility is normal. B. A fracture through the neck of the condyle can result in the forward displacement of the condylar head because of the pull of which of the following muscles? A. secondary to hormonal imbalance D. short-term sealing of the margins. no sealing of the margins.The copal resin varnish that is placed in the cavity preparation before the amalgam is condensed provides A. sealing of the margins for the lifetime of the restoration. . a loose crown. Buccinator D. Three months later. C. as are the radiographs. Lateral pterygoid Which of the following is the most likely indication for splinting? A. Mobility with a decrease in tissue quality. Mobility with patient discomfort C. C. the patient calls and complains of pain. The most probable cause of pain is A. Temporal B. a vertical root fracture. Medial pterygoid E. especially on biting. psychosomatic.

B. By carving from the restoration to the tooth with a sharp instrument C. Plaque microflora become more aerobic. supragingival plaque undergoes which of the following changes? A. clean the apical segment of dentin filings that are not removed by irrigation. Plaque microflora become predominantly spirochetal. Renal dysfunction D. one reason for recapitulation after each increase in instrument size is to A. B. D. C.How should the margins of a dental amalgam restoration be trimmed? A. . maintain coronal curvature of the canal. Plaque mass decreases. C. The extrapyramidal syndrome seen with the antipsychotic agents is due to their action on the A. D. Severe head injury B. By burnishing from the tooth to the restoration until the amalgam is trimmed to the margin Opiates are CONTRAINDICATED for patients who have which of the following? A. cerebellum. create a coronal funnel to facilitate filling with gutta-percha. Acute myocardial infarction During experimental gingivitis. During a stepback enlargement of the canal space. Bronchial asthma C. By carving along the margins with a sharp instrument that rests on the tooth surface B. maintain the apical stop for filling with gutta-percha. Plaque microflora become more gram-negative. By carving from the tooth to the restoration with a sharp instrument D.

a 12-year-old boy fell and fractured his maxillary right central incisor at the level of the gingival tissue. brain stem. cerebral cortex.B. Definitive root planing and curettage C. Extraction C. Five hours ago. basal ganglia. Pulp cap B. For this tooth. the DEPENDENT variable will be the A. examination scores obtained. Administration of antibiotics D. Pulpectomy and placement of calcium hydroxide . Complete root-canal treatment E. which of the following represents the treatment-of -choice? A. B. D. hypothalamus. Debridement and antimicrobial rinses B." In this study. type of instruction used. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for a patient with HIV-associated necrotizing ulcerative gingivo-periodontitis? A. The exposed pulp is vital. Gingivectomy and gingivoplasty A researcher establishes the following null hypothesis: "There is no difference in student achievement between the programmed self -instructional strategy and a conventional lecturediscussion format. Pulpotomy D. D. C. E. relevance of course material. number of students who participated. C.

C. 600-699 nm. Indirect pulp therapy D. D. C. even if some undercuts exist. procaine. but the practitioner notes a small. E. 400-499 nm. B. Undercuts that interfere with the seating of the denture should be removed. cocaine. 500-599 nm.The wave length of light emitted by a light-curing unit should be checked periodically with a dental light meter. lidocaine. The remaining ridge should be as broad as possible. There is no tooth mobility. This meter detects light only in the range of A. draining sinus tract adjacent to the tooth. Pulpectomy C. . Which of the following is the treatment-of -choice? A. Sharp bony projections need not be smooth as they will round off in a few days during the healing process. B. dibucaine. C. Extraction B. 300-399 nm. mepivacaine. Formocresol pulpotomy Which of the following is a principle of alveoloplasty? A. B. A cooperative 5-year-old child has a carious lesion in her primary mandibular second molar. The only local anesthetic that increases the pressor activity of both epinephrine and norepinephrine is A. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy E. D.

C. D. C. B. a vital root pulp. B. the dentist will place composite resins and use a visible-light curing unit. Cataract removal B. be concave faciolingually. The patient's history of which of the following will necessitate that the dentist take extra precautions when using this unit? A.Question 49 of 100 A patient presents with numerous carious lesions. . Corticosteroid therapy for arthritis is contraindicated for a patient who also has which of the following conditions? A. touch the residual ridge. the amount of root resorption. Rheumatic heart disease The success of a pulpotomy for a primary molar depends primarily upon A. Peptic ulcer E. Alcoholism D. Glaucoma In adapting a pontic to the residual ridge. Therefore. Nephritis C. To restore these lesions. be convex mesiodistally. the patient's age. the absence of internal root resorption. the dentist must maintain a proper biologic and hygienic environment. Myopia C. D. Anemia B. be concave in two directions. the pontic must NOT A.

Polysulfide C. distally C. second premolar. therefore. Addition silicone D. Reversible hydrocolloid A patient undergoes an extraction of a permanent mandibular first molar and elects NOT to have the tooth replaced. Second molar. mesially. B. distortion.The size of the x-ray tube focal spot influences radiographic A. Sulcular D. second premolar. the most difficult to remove from the mouth? A. second premolar. the teeth adjacent to the extraction site are likely to move in which of the following directions? A. Second molar. Which one is this EXCEPTION? . Condensation silicone E. distally B. C. definition. D. Stillman C. no movement. Polyether B. no movement Which of the following toothbrushing techniques is theoretically the most effective? A. contrast. density. Over a period of time. Side-to-side Each of the following describes the properties of improved zinc oxide-eugenol materials EXCEPT one. Second molar mesially. Charter B. Which of the following syringe materials is the most rigid and.

A. Lymphocytes and plasma cells D. Parasympathetic--adrenergic D. Cell-free zone of Weil B. which of the following histologic features is (are) the least likely to appear? A. Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells A child who has a distal step in the primary dentition generally develops which of the following molar relationships in the permanent dentition? A. Class III Which of the following best describes sweat gland innervation? A. Class II C. Adrenergic--cholinergic When cementing a cast restoration. They provide an excellent marginal seal. They have a palliative effect on the dental pulp. In the normal dental pulp. B. Sympathetic--adrenergic B. where should the dentist apply the cement? A. Class I B. Palisade odontoblastic layer C. They are easily removed from the cavity preparation. D. Only to the tooth B. Only to the restoration . They have thermal insulation qualities that compare to those of dentin. Parasympathetic--cholinergic E. Sympathetic--cholinergic C. C.

the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) directs that the uniform clothing of office personnel be laundered at each of the following locations EXCEPT one. Extraction . Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Infection C. External resorption E. Limiting eccentric occlusal contacts D. Dental office B. Internal resorption For an extension-base removable partial denture. Ankylosis B. Using plastic teeth The late mesial shift of a permanent first molar is primarily the result of closure of which of the following spaces? A. On both the restoration and the preparation Through the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard. Using stress releasing clasps B. Canine B. Pulpal necrosis D. which of the following is the most important to maintain the remaining supporting tissues? A.C. Primate D. Preserving denture base support C. Outside laundry C. Leeway C. Employee's home Which of the following accounts for the main cause of failure of replanted teeth? A.

Adjacent teeth and bone are normal. increased rigidity. Lack of adverse symptoms might be temporary. nasoantral wall above the middle concha or turbinate. The primary advantage of an external splint over an internal splint is A. increased retention. Which of the following conclusions would be correct if. maxillary incisive fossa medial to the canine. blood supply is interrupted. B. and the negative response may be temporary. E. C. D.A dentist surgically removes a maxillary first molar. increased durability. C. B. Adjacent odontoblasts had proliferated to cover the site of exposure. The root is forced into the antrum and cannot be visualized. The appropriate approach to recover this root is through the A. C. a pulp-capped tooth were asymptomatic? A. pulp is inflamed. A negative response to the electric pulp tester immediately after a severe luxation of a tooth indicates that the A. conservation of tooth structure. D. C. fracturing a large portion of the palatal root. B. D. Reparative dentin formation at the exposure site was complete. electric pulp tester is giving a false reading. maxillary canine fossa above the level of the premolar roots. hard palate in the canine area. D. Pulp capping was a success. . first molar alveolus by enlarging the antral opening. B. pulp is necrotic and should be removed. after six weeks.

The one relation of the condyles to the fossae in which a pure hinging movement is possible is A. B. Warpage of the restoration D. Nasopalatine D. Oxidation of the metal B. Surface roughness of the restoration An ameloblastoma is MOST likely to develop in the wall of which of the following cysts? A. D. Porosity in the casting C. This procedure can result in which of the following? A. centric occlusion. postural position of the mandible (rest vertical dimension). under-affectionate. Dentigerous C. retruded contact position. B. D. overprotective. Branchial cleft A dentist relined a patient's maxillary complete denture. overindulgent. submissive children are often the product of parents who are A. Shy. Radicular B.E. A practitioner pickles gold alloy restorations by heating them to redness and plunging them into an acid bath. empathetic. transverse horizontal axis (terminal hinge position). and the negative response may be temporary. neural transmission is interrupted. Which of the following is the most likely cause? . C. This patient returned repeatedly for adjustments of the erythematous areas on the ridge crest. C.

Enamel hatchets C. Which of the following teeth have a natural tendency to drift mesially? A. The loss of even centric relation contacts D. An allergy to the acrylic resin that was used for relining B. C. Extract the four incisors and construct a fixed partial denture. Permanent mandibular central incisors C.A. Curved chisels B. Primary maxillary second molars B. A decrease in the occlusal vertical dimension The four mandibular incisors of a patient were traumatized in an automobile accident three years ago. Mandibular second premolars E. B. Primary mandibular canines D. Which of the following courses of treatment are indicated? A. Permanent maxillary second molars Handpiece stones can be used primarily to sharpen which of the following operative instruments? A. Binangle chisels D. Postpone all treatment and recheck the status of the condition periodically. Presence of a pressure spot in the relined impression C. A marked reduction in the size of the radiolucency can be expected in approximately . Spoon excavators Endodontic therapy is completed on a tooth with a periapical radiolucency. Current radiographs show bone rarefaction in the region of the apices of the incisors. Test the pulp vitality of the incisors and perform root canal therapy only in those teeth that do not respond to pulp testing. Perform root canal therapy on the incisors and curet the entire area of bone involvement. D.

Height C. Modulus of elasticity The reduction of which of the following represents the MOST significant advantage of the acidetch technique? . 1 week. mucocele. Hardness B. C. sialolith with encapsulation. B. E. squamous cell carcinoma. she has had a rubbery. lymph node. Which of the following properties of a gold alloy exceeds a base-metal alloy in numerical value? A. E. firm. Width A patient states that for almost a year now. painless nodule within the substance of the parotid gland. benign mixed tumor. What dimension of the face has reached the greatest percentage of its adult size at birth? A. B. D. D. Fusion temperature E. Casting shrinkage D. 2 months. 3 weeks. 1 year. 1 month. Specific gravity C.A. C. The condition described is MOST likely a A. Depth B.

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors A dentist is resecting (amputating) a root for periodontal reasons. Cardiac glycosides B. Tricyclic antidepressants D. when combined with a narcotic analgesic. Insert a larger drain B.A. Which of the following represents the usual treatment sequence? A. Repeat the culture and sensitivity tests D. Setting shrinkage of the matrix D. Periodontal therapy followed by root canal therapy B. Coefficient of thermal expansion Which of the following classes of drugs. Oral anticoagulants C. Pulpal irritation C. What should the dentist do next? A. is the MOST likely to produce a fatal drug interaction? A. Use proteolytic enzymes to allow the antibiotic to penetrate the abscess . Order a CBC with differential C. Root canal therapy followed by periodontal therapy C. Root canal therapy followed by a period of observation D. Microleakage B. Periodontal therapy followed by a period of observation A patient returns 10 days following incision and drainage of a submandibular space abscess. The swelling appears to have enlarged despite high doses of antibiotic therapy. Oral antidiabetic agents E.

2 mm while forming a flattened surface. B. D. B. 2 mm while following the original contour of the cusps. D. C. Loss of polarity What is the purpose of incorporating loops and/or helices into an archwire? A. 1 mm while forming a flattened surface. The organisms involved are A. . To provide a center of rotation D. 1 mm while following the original contour of the cusps. To lower the modulus of elasticity C. C.Electron microscopic examination of the bacterial flora of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues in advance of other bacteria. Hyperchromatism D. Carcinoma in situ exhibits each of the following EXCEPT one. Abnormal mitoses E. To increase anchorage B. Pleomorphism C. spirochetes. cocci. filamentous rods. bacteriophages. To facilitate bodily tooth movement E. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Invasion B. To increase the activation range The cusps to be restored with dental amalgam should be reduced by A.

C. A. working contacts. The distribution of the remaining teeth can be an important factor in determining the prognosis. B. White sponge nevus Group function occlusion is characterized by having A. the second is TRUE. A dentist will perform a Moyers' mixed dentition analysis. Which of the following lesions has the greatest malignant potential? A. inflammation) are equal in a younger patient and in an older patient. Barbital B. Leukoedema B. D. Lichen planus C. B. Phenobarbital C. protrusive contacts.Which of the following barbiturates MOST readily penetrates the blood-brain barrier? A. D. Pentobarbital When disease factors (pocketing. non-working contacts. C. prognosis is usually better in the younger patient. Secobarbital D. Both statements are FALSE. Both statements are TRUE. Actinic cheilitis D. Which of the following teeth will be measured to predict the size of the unerupted canines and premolars? . the second is FALSE. The first statement is FALSE. Thiopental E. a long centric. bone loss. The first statement is TRUE.

covalent bonding. IX. V. dehydration of the dentin. etching with dilute phosphoric acid. IX D. Mandibular incisors C. . Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. IX. III. III. V. Maxillary incisors B. VII. Tonic-clonic convulsions C. Respiratory depression Which of the following is the primary reason for using plastic teeth in a removable partial denture? Plastic teeth are A. resistant to wear. C. II. Currently. mandibular incisors for the mandibular arch Which of the following cranial nerves have parasympathetic activity? A. Each of the following side effects can occur as a result of systemic absorption of lidocaine EXCEPT one. Maxillary incisors for the maxillary arch. II. III. VII. D. Decreased cardiac output D. V. Increased gastric motility B. IX B. VII. X C. X E. bonding of composite restorative materials to dentin depends on A. Primary molars and canines D. B. VIII.A. VII. difunctional coupling agents.

Pemphigus B. Systemic lupus erythematosus A 43-year-old patient who has mitral stenosis. Streptococcus sanguis B. premedicate the patient with cephalosporin. premedicate the patient with amoxicillin. Erythema multiforme D. Initially. D. Streptococcus salivarius C. the dentist should A. secondary to rheumatic fever. Bullous lichen planus E. Which of the following represents the MOST likely diagnosis? A. tongue. esthetically acceptable. premedicate the patient with ampicillin and gentamicin. A patient has painful lesions on her buccal mucosa. gingiva. requests extraction of two periodontally involved mandibular teeth. Psoriasis C. D. Porphyromonas gingivalis D. C. A biopsy reveals acantholysis and a suprabasilar vesicle. Which of the following is an early colonizer of supragingival plaque? A. . C. B. retained well in acrylic resin. consult with the patient's physician to determine the antibiotic-of-choice. resistant to stains. Capnocytophaga gingivalis The MOST common location for a mucous retention swelling or mucocele is the A. B.B.

The axial wall is uniformly deep into dentin. B. The mesial and distal walls converge. The axial wall is flat. E. D.C. C. Acetaminophen E. Ketorolac (Toradol®) D. The needle moves with pulsation action. buccal mucosa. E. Penetration of a vessel meets resistance and is painful. A vessel tends to collapse and obstruct. The occlusal and gingival walls converge. C. Which of the following drugs is often administered intravenously to treat life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias? . D. upper lip. B. lower lip. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Aspirin In an attempted venipuncture. each of the following indicates accidental intra-arterial injection EXCEPT one. Ibuprofen (Motrin®) C. Which of the following is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agent with a tendency to produce blood dyscrasias? A. In a Class V amalgam preparation for an incipient lesion. the ideal internal form of the preparation has which of the following features? A. Aspirated blood is bright red in color. Injection of a small test dose of the agent is acutely painful. D. Indomethacin (Indocin®) B.

Quinidine B. B. ANB. SNA. distal inclines of mandibular When lowering the floor of the mouth of a patient. SNB. interferences can occur between which posterior cusp inclines? A.A. Distal inclines of maxillary. Mylohyoid and geniohyoid B. . a practitioner detaches all or part of which muscles? A. Geniohyoid and genioglossus E. Lidocaine C. Sn-GoGn. E. Propranolol In a protrusive condylar movement. Mesial inclines of maxillary. Distal inclines of maxillary. distal inclines of mandibular B. SN-Pog. Verapamil D. C. Mesial inclines of maxillary. Buccinator and genioglossus The relative position of the maxilla to the cranial base can be determined cephalometrically by the angle A. Mylohyoid and genioglossus D. mesial inclines of mandibular C. D. mesial inclines of mandibular D. Mylohyoid and buccinator C.

A patient presents with a bilateral. normal occlusal forces cause trauma to the attachment apparatus of teeth with inadequate bone support. Leiomyoma C. C. 1 mm B. B. Junctional nevus E. Which of the following lesions is the MOST likely to become malignant? A. White sponge nevus E. Which of the following is the MOST likely condition? A. 4 mm Secondary trauma from occlusion is seen in cases where A. Ideally. Lichen planus D. 3 mm D. 2 mm C. grayish-white lesion of the buccal mucosa. healthy gingival and osseous tissues are present. Lymphangioma D. Papilloma B. Leukoplakia C. the dentist should place the amalgam to what depth into each root canal to obtain satisfactory retention? A. traumatic changes are occurring in periodontal tissues of teeth with normal supporting bone. Granular cell tumor . Leukoedema B. This lesion disappears when the mucosa is stretched. Pachyonychia congenita A dentist is restoring an endodontically treated posterior tooth with a pulp chamber-retained amalgam restoration.

Which one is this EXCEPTION? . incline. 1% tincture of iodine. As the patient closes and as the teeth come into initial contact. Inner (lingual) incline. To regain stability.Which of the following is the best treatment for a recurrent ranula? A. the dentist will adjust the crown. the patient's jaw deflects to the right. Campylobacter recta B. B. C. Streptococcus gordonii Each of the following drugs has a significant anti-inflammatory property EXCEPT one. 3% hydrogen peroxide. D. Eubacterium nodatum C. Electrosurgery C. the patient's occlusal relationship had been stable. Outer (lingual) incline. facial cusp C. a betadine solution. Which of the following species is a usual constituent of floras that are associated with periodontal health? A. Marsupialization D. lingual cusp Debridement of an intraoral wound is accomplished with A. Sublingual gland excision The dentist seats a full gold crown on a patient's mandibular right second molar. Outer (facial) incline. Cryosurgery B. facial cusp B. Inner (facial). Before treatment. Porphyromonas gingivalis D. On which incline of which cusp should the adjustments be made? A. lingual cusp D. 10% hydrogen peroxide.

1 cc.000. Which of the following has been associated with localized juvenile periodontitis? A.000. 000. Indomethacin (Indocin®) A patient presents with an amalgam restoration fractured at the isthmus six months after placement. premature occlusal contact. 2 cc. B. C. Increased phagocytosis D. Lysis of neutrophils C. Cortisol C. 1 cc. 1:50. The most likely cause is A. B. 1:50. 1 : 100. excessive width of the preparation.A. Acetaminophen D. 2 cc. Diazepam (Valium®) . D.000. Cyclic eosinophilia B. C. D. A patient has a history of significant cardiovascular impairment. recurrent caries. Aspirin B. The maximum safe dose of epinephrine that can be administered to this patient is A. 1:100. inadequate depth of the preparation. Neutrophil chemotactic defects Which of the following is the current drug-of-choice for status epilepticus? A. Ibuprofen (Motrin®) E.

prevent saliva from contaminating the alveolus. Fiberglass D. Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma D. the primary purpose of the dressing is to A. Osteosarcoma B. this individual should wear which of the following types of gloves? A. Central giant cell granuloma Where is the principal site of vertical growth of the mandible? A. provide a vehicle for obtudent medication. Phenytoin (Dilantin®) C. promote the growth of the adjacent epithelium. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium®) An employee wishes to clean a dental-office operatory. Pindborg tumor C. Latex Ameloblastoma of the mandible is similar radiographically to which of the following conditions? A. Vinyl C.B. Utility B. Sigmoid notch C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine®) D. C. Condylar head B. . To receive the greatest protection during these procedures. Carbamazepine (Tegretol®) E. B. Alveolar process In the treatment of localized alveolar osteitis. Coronoid process D.

Hyperparathyroidism C. isolated ulcers on the tongue and in the oropharynx. When the dentist plans to change the vertical dimension through restorations D. and she has elevated temperature and malaise. To enhance retention of the core C. E. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. aphthous stomatitis. B. D. Each of the following is a reason for restoring an endodontically treated posterior tooth with a dowel or post EXCEPT one. Her condition is of three days' duration. To strengthen the root B. The marginal gingiva is edematous and inflamed. benign mucous membrane pemphigoid. The MOST likely diagnosis is A. Under which of the following conditions will it be critical to mount a patient's casts on the true hinge axis? A. When the patient requires several fixed partial dentures C. To enhance the lateral force resistance Which of the following is frequently accompanied by melanin pigmentation (cafe-au-lait spots)? A. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. C. acute herpetic gingivostomatitis. is painful. Osteogenesis imperfecta .D. Osteomalacia B. stimulate the formation of a blood clot. When the dentist plans to fabricate dentures with high-cusped teeth on a fully adjusted articulator A 22-year-old female patient has a diffuse erythema of the gingiva with scattered. erosive lichen planus. When the patient has a severe Class II occlusal relation B.

Trim the flap margin to the proper length during the procedure C. C. The size and shape of the bony fossae and the menisci and muscular influence D. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia In complete denture fabrication. The amount of horizontal and vertical overlap C. These results possess high A. Adhesion of the sealant C. Mechanical microretention B. Physical penetration of the sealant into the pits and fissures On the basis of diagnostic test results. The height of the cusps of posterior teeth B. Extend vertical releasing incision beyond the mucogingival junction Bradycardia is MOST commonly treated with which of the following drugs? . sensitivity. which of the following regulate(s) the paths of the condyles in mandibular movements? A. centric relation. D. Chemical bonding of the sealant with the enamel D. Avoid making the initial incision deep enough to reach bone D.D. B. and degree of compensating curve Retention of fissure sealants is chiefly the result of which of the following? A. a dentist correctly classifies a group of patients as being free from disease. Use only a sulcular incision for the initial incision B. Which of the following is necessary to allow for apically positioning a flap margin on the palatal surface of molar teeth? A. repeatability. The vertical occlusion. generalizability. specificity.

and the roots. Epinephrine C. B. A potent vasodilator The dentist plans to place a crown on a patient's maxillary canine.A. Atropine B. Less clearance on the left side--greater potential for a non-working contact C. Use of extraoral force B. less water soluble. more rapidly metabolized. the pulps. A diuretic D. Radiographs of a patient's teeth reveal that the crowns are bulbous. more extensively bound to tissue. Use of . D. Attachment to a greater number of teeth D. Porphyria B. shortened. These findings are associated with which of the following? A. Wider force distribution in the periodontal ligament Which of the following best explains why drugs that are highly ionized tend to be more rapidly excreted than those that are less ionized? The highly ionized are A. obliterated.022 rectangular slot C. Altering the existing canineguided occlusion in a right-lateral excursive movement to that of a group-function will result in which of the following? A. C. less lipid soluble. Pierre Robin syndrome . No effect on the non-working side clearance Which of the following is the LEAST effective for enhancing orthodontic anchorage? A.018 round wire in a .working contact B. Greater clearance on the left side-less potential for a non.

Restore involved teeth with onlays to preserve occlusion B. Adrenergic B. tissue displacement. Cholinergic C. Erythroblastosis fetalis A teen-aged patient presents with numerous proximal carious lesions that undermine the occlusal enamel. Place the patient on a prevention regimen and delay treatment until the effectiveness of home care is evaluated Which of the following dimensions are compared in the transitional dentition analysis? A. Leeway space to size of tooth D. B. Which of the following is the treatment-of-choice? A. Restore involved teeth as rapidly as possible using dental amalgam C. Osteogenesis imperfecta E. Amelogenesis imperfecta D. Space available to space required E. The arch perimeter of the primary and transitional dentition Which of the following groups of drugs is CONTRAINDICATED for patients who have glaucoma? A. Arch width to arch length B. Leeway space to freeway space C. Adrenergic blocking Which of the following best explains why the dentist should provide a postpalatal seal in a complete maxillary denture? The seal will compensate for A.C. Anticholinergic D. . errors in fabrication.

A tablespoon contains how many ml? A. 10 C. B. 10 D. 20 . 3 C. deformation of the impression material. It serves as a guide to determine the completed restoration.C. 1 B. Squamous cell carcinoma D. 30 Oral cytology smears are MOST appropriately used for the diagnosis of which of the following? A. An employee has just terminated employment in a dental office. Pseudomembraneous candidiasis B. It prevents escape of the amalgam during condensation. Benign mucous membrane pemphigoid Why is a matrix for a Class II dental amalgam restoration extended occlusally to the cavity preparation? A. 5 B. Lichen planus C. polymerization and cooling shrinkage. It allows for overfilling the amalgam. C. The dentist-employer should retain this individual's medical records for how many more years? A. 15 D. D.

Malignant melanoma E. the incidence of disease recurrence will be greater. Connective tissue attachment . The routine examination of a healthy 20-year-old man discloses a round. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct. asymptomatic. Its duration is unknown. Blue nevus B.Before undergoing any periodontal surgery. Vitamin K in the liver Dentists often use barrier membranes (teflon membranes) to treat osseous defects in an attempt to block which of the following? A. Compound nevus D. Phospholipase A2 in the blood vessel walls B. brown lesion 3 mm in diameter. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related. a patient should be controlling the accumulation of plaque. but the reason is NOT. on his lower lip. E. but the reason is accurate. Thromboxane synthetase in the platelets D. Osseous regeneration B. and flat. in the plaque-infected dentition after surgery. The statement is correct. B. Focal melanosis C. A. The lesion is solitary. The statement is NOT correct. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. BECAUSE. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome Low-dose aspirin therapy prevents the formation of thromboemboli by preferentially inhibiting which of the following? A. D. C. Prostacyclin synthetase in the blood vessel walls C.

D. Number D. Papillary hyperplasia is MOST frequently found in which of the following sites? A.C. a more prolonged period of setting in the mouth before the tray is removed. Surgical curettage of the affected tissue C. The coronal migration of periodontal ligament cells A tray for a polysulfide rubber impression that lacks occlusal stops may result in A. an inaccurate final impression because of elastic distortion during removal from the mouth. holding the tray for the entire time in the mouth. Extraction B. Hard palate B. Calcification The treatment-of-choice for an external inflammatory root resorption on a non-vital tooth is which of the following? A. Posterior gingival tissue Which of the following anomalies can occur with a disturbance during the initiation and proliferation stages in tooth development? A. an inaccurate final impression because of permanent distortion during polymerization. Soft palate C. Size B. The formation of a long junctional epithelium D. Removal of the necrotic pulp and placement of calcium hydroxide . Anterior gingival tissue D. C. Pulpectomy and obturation with gutta-percha and sealer D. B. Shape C.

Streptococcus salivarius D. Measure pocket depths from the cementoenamel junction E. Isoproterenol E. Streptococcus mutans C.E. Examine in detail the gingival architecture C. Actinomyces viscosus B. maxillary anterior ridge under a complete denture is frequently associated with A. C. Phenylephrine D. V shaped ridges. Relate the septal bone height to the cementoenamel junction Which of the following microorganisms is the MOST commonly associated with root surface caries? A. . Class II patients. Observation since it is a self-limiting process To determine the exact form of a bony defect. Lactobacillus acidophilus Which of the following sympathomimetic agents is the MOST potent bronchodilator? A. Take two radiographs using different angulations D. B. Amphetamine B. Methoxamine A flabby. Norepinephrine C. it will be necessary for the dentist to do which of the following? A. Expose the area surgically B. osteoporosis.

Improper deflecting contour E. Are much stiffer D. Intercuspation B.D. Place the specimen in saline. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis In obtaining an incisional biopsy of soft tissue. Have longer working time Which of the following jaw-relation records should be used for setting both the medial and superior condylar guides on an arcon articulator? A. which of the following is the main disadvantage of using polyether elastomeric impression materials? A. Centric relation C. Are not as accurate E. Obtain some adjacent normal tissue if possible D. Toothbrush abrasion D. if 10% formalin is unavailable When compared to other materials. the dentist should do each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. retained natural mandibular anteriors. Which of the following is the MOST likely to cause gingival recession? A. Systemic disease C. Lateral interocclusal records . Occlusal trauma B. Place a suture through the intended specimen before removing it C. Infiltrate local anesthetic solution around the intended site B. Tear easily B. Stick to the teeth C.

Anticonvulsant and hypnotic B. C. B. apically positioned flap. Remove the carious material completely and then treat the tooth endodontically C. Leave the carious material in the deeper areas. distribution. A dentist anticipates the possibility of a pulpal exposure of a vital. Sedation and ability to produce dependence D. asymptomatic tooth during a cavity preparation. partial or split thickness flap. Protrusive interocclusal records To prevent exposure of a dehiscence or fenestration on a prominent root. double flap. D. absorption. Analgesia and relief of anxiety C. In this situation. diazepam. and meperidine? A. temporize appropriately. full thickness flap. what should the dentist do with the carious material? A.D. stripping procedure. excretion. B. base. Leave the carious material in the deeper areas. . E. and observe in two weeks Which of the following effects are common to pentobarbital. the dentist's best approach when elevating a flap is to use a (an) A. C. Remove the carious material laterally first and then remove completely from the deeper areas of the cavity B. and restore appropriately D. Amnesia and skeletal muscle relaxation The onset of action of a drug is primarily determined by the rate of A.

increased translucency. Oblique B. biotransformation. Progesterone Which of the following soft tissue elements (fibers) are commonly associated with relapse following orthodontic rotation of teeth? A. intensified color. B. Which of the following is the primary etiology of gingivitis during puberty and pregnancy? A. Calculus D.D. The mucosa of the hard palate is the usual intraoral site for which of the following conditions? A. Minor aphthous ulcer D. increased value. This procedure will result in A. Horizontal D. Supracrestal A dentist adjusts the shade of a restoration using a complementary color. Estradiol C. Estrogen E. Major aphthous ulcer . C. Plaque B. Diagonal C. Sialolithiasis C. Mucocele (most common location is the lower lip) B. decreased value. D.

Alveolar growth C. population)? A. Buccal mucosa D. Palate B. Dorsum of the tongue .E. Plaque control B. Stapedius and stylohyoid B. Medial pterygoid and lateral pterygoid D. Use of a desensitizing dentifrice In which of the following locations do premalignant lesions of squamous epithelium MOST often appear (in the U. Apposition on the anterior surface Which of the following is the MOST effective means of controlling postsurgical root sensitivity after a periodontal surgery? A. Anterior belly of digastric and sternocleidomastoid Which of the following contributes principally to the increase in height of maxillary bones? A. Buccinator and superior constrictor C. Necrotizing sialometaplasia The pterygomandibular raphe is a tendon between which muscles? A. Levator veli palatini and tensor veli palatini E. Applications of calcium hydroxide D. Gingival tissue C. Apposition on the tuberosity D.S. Applications of formalin C. Sutural growth B.

Which of the following adverse conditions may arise if the occlusal vertical dimension is increased? A. Which of the following is related to an enzyme deficiency and involves periodontal destruction around primary teeth? A. D. The closing muscles may become strained. The chemical mediators of inflammation will present a chemical antagonism to the anesthetic. Juvenile periodontitis D. C. Cyclic neutropenia C. Floor of the mouth FOM Dental plaque is believed to adhere to teeth because A. B. D. Papillon-Lefevre syndrome . Injection of a local anesthetic into an inflamed area usually has a less than optimal result. The closing muscles may become too relaxed. levans are soluble and sticky. D. The drug will be absorbed more rapidly because of the increased blood supply. Which of the following best explains why? A. C. C.E. dextrans are insoluble and sticky. The opening muscles may become strained. B. Hypophosphatasia B. Soreness may occur at the corners of the mouth. B. the surface tension of plaque is low. bacteria secrete a lipoprotein-cementing substance. Inflammation reduces the availability of the free base. The prostaglandins stabilize the nerve membrane.

The rate may differ significantly in various animal species. Periadenitis mucosa necrotica recurrens Hepatitis B virus infection commonly occurs by each of the following routes EXCEPT one. or avitaminosis B can each cause which of the following? A. The walling-off of the infection by the body C. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. It primarily occurs in the liver microsomal enzyme system. infection. Angular cheilitis D. Xerostomia C. Sexual intercourse B. Recurrent aphthae E. Prenatal transfer C. It generally involves alterations of the chemical structure of the drug. Percutaneous inoculation D. Atrophic glossitis B. nonionized form. The neutralizing effect of tissue enzymes D. Ingestion Each of the following is true regarding drug biotransformation EXCEPT one. It usually converts a drug to its lipid-soluble. Rupture through the periosteum into soft tissue Loss of intermaxillary space. C. D. B. A corrected anterior crossbite is best retained by using .Which of the following accounts for sudden relief of severe pain from a dentoalveolar abscess? A. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. The action of bacteria-produced neurotoxins B.

Which of the following should this dentist use to establish proper placement at the impression stage? A.A. prognathism. Finger pressure to the base area only C. a maxillary Hawley retainer for stabilization. B. and a fissured tongue characterize which of the following syndromes? A. Melkersson-Rosenthal C. E. A dentist will reline an extension-base removable partial denture. a bonded lingual or palatal retainer. a mandibular acrylic guide plane. Finger pressure to the rests and indirect retainer B. B. Independent retention and resistance form for both the proximal and occlusal portions . Treacher Collins A conservative Class II preparation for dental amalgam should have which of the following characteristics? A. micrognathism. D. D. Gentle biting force Facial edema. Anterior open bites can be classified as a form of A. C. cheilitis granulomatosa. retrognathism. Frey's B. C. the overbite achieved during treatment. apertognathism. Simulated masticatory movements D. microgenia.

D.B. C. a horizontal bend with a twist. A first order bend in an orthodontic wire is A. maximizes the likelihood of success. As wide on the occlusal as one-third the intercuspal distance D. Both statements are TRUE. The first statement is TRUE. C. the second is FALSE. B. D. in the horizontal plane. Proximal retention and resistance form that depends upon a well-defined occlusal dovetail C. Which of the following drugs causes the LEAST CNS depression and impairment of psychomotor skills? A. from the beginning. 30% aqueous hydrogen peroxide. Preparation depth twice the width of the isthmus The materials used in the walking bleach technique are sodium perborate and A. A. The first statement is FALSE. Buspirone (Buspar®) . D. 3% aqueous hydrogen peroxide. Changing several aspects of oral home-care behavior simultaneously is preferable to doing so sequentially. C. Diazepam (Valium®) B. 25% ethereal hydrogen peroxide. the second is TRUE. 5% phosphoric acid. Focusing on successive approximations to the ideal. B. in the vertical plane. a twist in the wire. Both statements are FALSE. oral home-care goal. B.

B. form acute angles with the proximal walls. Trauma to extraction sites B. Impossibility for an anterior try-in D. Exposure B. Effective dose D. form acute angles with the pulpal wall. Dose C. Periapical cyst C. which of the following will be the correct unit of measurement? A. diverge from the gingival walls to the pulpal wall. Acute periapical abscess E. Dose equivalent . Increased potential for infection C. Alprazolam (Xanax®) D. Which of the following MOST commonly causes sinus tracts in the gingival tissues of children? A. Pericementitis B. Chronic periapical abscess Which of the following is a major disadvantage of immediate complete denture therapy? A. D. Excessive resorption of residual ridges The dentist would like to compare biologic-risk estimates due to radiation damage. Periodontal abscess D. converge from the gingival walls to the pulpal wall.C. For this procedure. C. Chloral hydrate The axial walls in an MOD cavity prepared for a cast gold onlay should A.

B. E. In the eruption sequence of a primary dentition. marginal gingiva. outer gingival epithelium. The nerve plexus of Rashkow is located in the A. the quantity of X rays produced. determines A. The number of electrons. On a prepayment basis. which of the following usually occurs? A. both quality and quantity of X rays produced.Crevicular epithelium is one example of non-keratinized gingival tissue. cell-free layer. attached gingiva. The second molar erupts before the first molar. D. C. the heat of the filament determines the quantity of electrons produced. C. in turn. central pulp core. odontoblast layer. B. B. The lateral incisor erupts before the central incisor. D. B. the quality of X rays produced. gingival col. The first molar erupts before the central incisor. Closed panel . D. cell-rich layer. Another example is (the) A. C. As radiographs are exposed. The canine erupts before the lateral incisor. The first molar erupts before the canine. dental patients receive care at specified facilities from a limited number of dentists. This practice plan is classified as which of the following? A. C.

preparatory to denture construction C. uses cold sterilization for his surgical instruments Following immediate denture surgery. does not wear a mask. vertical mattress.B. Correction of mandibular prognathism B. does not use an antiseptic before injection. the best suture technique to use would be A. C. continuous. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Subperiosteal D. B. Skeletal arch width discrepancies that require lateral positioning of posterior segments Two months after an extraction. B. Intrusion of the tuberosity. Open panel C. Transosteal C. Group practice D. . Solo practice Blade and root form implants are examples of which of the following types of implants? A. D. a patient becomes ill with hepatitis. does not wear gloves when performing surgery. Ceramic Each of the following is an indication for a posterior maxillary osteotomy EXCEPT one. C. Endosseous B. The dentist may be at fault if he A. Closure of the anterior open bite in some cases of apertognathia D. interrupted.

Capsular fibrosis D. immune rejection. Unilateral condylar hyperplasia To obtain the best long-term result. B. D. single tooth replacement. Silastic® onlay implant B. C. C. B. traumatic occlusion. Hemarthrosis C. horizontal mattress. E. Autogenous onlay bone graft . inadequate root length. rehabilitation of a totally edentulous ridge (especially the mandible) with a fixed appliance. An "emergency" occlusal separator should be constructed for patients who has which of the following conditions? A. Degenerative arthritis E. Myositis B. infection. D. edentulous posterior areas without posterior abutment teeth. Proplast® chin implant C. which of the following procedures for genioplasty is recommended? A.D. The major reason for loss of transplanted autogenous third molars is A. The blade type dental implant is most useful for A. never use sutures. anterior maxillary edentulous areas between first bicuspids.

Neutrophil and histiocyte D. Which of the following groups of cells are significantly phagocytic? A.E. urinary tract infection. Pedicled horizontal sliding osteotomy E. Plasma cell and lymphocyte Which of the following is the least likely use of arthroscopy of the TMJ? A. wound infection. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. atelectasis. Basophil and eosinophil C. Fever B. Neutrophil and lymphocyte E. Allogeneic freeze-dried onlay bone graft The most likely reason for a sudden temperature elevation six days after surgery is A.D. Disk manipulation D. D. Neutrophil and basophil B. Chorea C. C. Repair of disk perforations Based on the Jones criteria. Therapeutic lavage E. each of the following is a major manifestation of rheumatic fever EXCEPT one.B. S. Diagnosis of disk perforations B. B. Carditis . Lysis of adhesions C.

Exaggerated sedation due to the more direct effect of the drug Which of the following clinical findings is generally NOT found in advanced osteoarthritis of the temporomandibular joint? . Severe pain in the extremity C. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Midazolam D. Rapid decrease in respiration rate E. No significant active metabolites D. Rapid decrease in blood pressure D. Propofol Each of the following is an advantage of midazolam over diazepam EXCEPT one. Shorter elimination half-life C. Diazepam B. Lorazepam C. Hydroxyzine E. More rapid and predictable onset of action when given intramuscularly Which of the following represents the primary symptom to demonstrate that midazolam (Versed®) has been injected intra. Erythema marginatum Which of the following is usually NOT used for IV conscious sedation in the dental office because of its long duration of clinically significant sedative effect? A. Less potential for respiratory depression E. Polyarthritis E.D.arterially rather than intravenously? A. Severe cardiac arrhythmia B. Less incident of thrombophlebitis B.

ask the patient to continue taking the prednisone and consider temporarily increasing the dose. send the patient for serum prednisone levels. the practitioner should A. Less than 1% B. physical findings of rheumatoid arthritis in other joints. he has been taking 10 mg of prednisone daily for colitis. A 46-year-old male presents for multiple extractions. . Tendency toward apertognathia E. B. What percentage of liquid is in an oxygen "E" cylinder when it is half full? A. B. C. evidence of destruction of cortical bone of the condylar head on the affected side.5 D. discontinue the patient's steroid therapy preoperatively. Flattening of articular surface D. C.95 . Crepitus B. normal dentitions. D. switch the patient to another steroid for the perioperative period. Antegonial notching C. . no obvious TMJ pathology on panorex.A. D. halve the patient's dose of prednisone to 5 mg on the day of surgery. .25 C. After consulting with the patient's physician. E. Tendency toward prognathism The majority of patients with "temporomandibular joint pain/dysfunction syndrome" have A. For the last 10 years.

It is not recommended since it can indicate a too-deeply sedated patient. It is widely used by hospital anesthesiologists. 53 percent D. 73 percent When both nitrous oxide and oxygen tanks are used to one-half of their capacities. It is heavier than air.The nitrous oxide/oxygen sedation machine is set at 3 liters/min oxygen and 4 liters/min nitrous oxide. . It is recommended as an end-point. what are their gas pressures in psi (The starting gas pressures are 02 [2. E. N20 [750])? A. It minimally alters cardiac output. D. 43 percent C. D. O2 = 1000. It is recommended only when supplemental 02 is used. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. N2O = 750 C. It is essentially not metabolized. Which of the following describes the titration of diazepam to Verrill's sign for IV conscious sedation? A. N2O = 325 Each of the following describes nitrous oxide EXCEPT one. N2O = 325 B.000]. 63 percent E. What is the concentration of oxygen administered? A. It is explosive. 33 percent B. O2 = 1000. O2 = 2000. B. C. It is usually not attainable with diazepam alone. C. O2 = 2000. B. N2O = 750 D.

The only joint structure that exerts posterior traction on the articular disc is the A. discal ligament only.E. one must incise through the A. inferior head of the lateral pterygoid. the MOST common method for obtaining soft tissue coverage is by using A. B. C. fascia lata. dermis. C. a tongue flap. Lateral pterygoid . superior head of the lateral pterygoid. capsular and retrodiscal lamina. D. Teflon-proplast. Digastric B. C. It is not recommended since few patients are adequately sedated at that level. D. inferior retrodiscal lamina. When surgically entering the superior joint space. The displacement of the proximal segment in an unfavorable angle fracture of the mandible would be caused by which of the following muscles? A. Geniohyoid C. Medial pterygoid D. capsular and discal ligaments. E. If there is insufficient tissue from the oral mucosa to close an alveolar cleft. superior retrodiscal lamina. freeze-dried dura. B. D. capsular ligament only. B.

Inadvertent crush injuries to the lip are caused by which of the following parts of the forcep? A. 7 E. Beak B. 3 C. 10 The dentist is preparing a primary mandibular first molar for a stainless steel crown. Lingual D. Shank D. Herpes labialis B. Aphthous ulcer secondary to stress . Buccal B. Blade E. Which of the following represents the most likely diagnosis? A. Which of the following tooth surfaces will require the least amount of reduction? A. The ulceration appeared several hours after the patient received dental treatment. 1 B. Postanesthetic lip bite C. Handle Postextraction alveolar osteitis most commonly develops in how many days? A. 5 D. There is no history of obvious trauma. Chemical burn from aspirin D. Occlusal A child has a very sore ulceration of the lower lip. Hinge C. Mesial C.

Chlorhexidine mouthrinses C. D. Peroxide rinses Modifying fear by familiarization is a successful method to use with children who A. Systemic antibiotic therapy B. C. Free gingival grafts E. Allergic stomatitis to the rubber dam Which of the following should be done when a patient presents with a low. Internal resorption . mirror their parents' fear of the dentist.E. accompanied by a 3 mm diastema in the early transitional dentition? A. Render treatment before complete eruption of maxillary incisors D. Perform a frenectomy when first observed B. Which of the following diagnostic criteria is the least reliable in assessing the pulp status in the primary dentition? A. B. Observe until after eruption of permanent canines C. have had previous traumatic medical experience. High doses of vitamin C D. Instruct patient to wear an elastic around teeth to close diastema Which of the following should be included to ensure the best prognosis in the management of localized juvenile periodontitis? A. Swelling B. Pulp testing C. Spontaneous pain D. are handicapped. attached maxillary frenum. have a behavior problem.

Junctional epithelium is reestablished as early as one week. stimulate the epithelial attachment.Daily cleaning of the root surface by the patient has been shown to A. the course of the periodontal ligament. new junctional epithelium can form on either cementum or dentin. nylon toothbrush D. the course of the vascular channels. B. To prove its clinical effectiveness. the nutrient canals. D. specifically kills anaerobic bacteria. an antimicrobial agent must demonstrate that it A. B. C. Dental floss C. specifically kills aerobic bacteria. Following flap surgery. Toothpick B. allow remineralization of the root surface. A water-irrigating device Inflammation from periodontal disease usually extends to the bone marrow following A. Which of the following is the least effective in removing crevicular plaque? A. D. E. B. cause root sensitivity. cause root resorption. . D. Both statements are TRUE. C. C. reduces plaque mass. helps to reduce disease. A. primary trauma from occlusion. secondary trauma from occlusion. A soft.

B. the second is TRUE. E. C. It supports the non-specific plaque hypothesis. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. External oblique ridge D.B. It demonstrates the relationship between plaque formation and gingivitis. Radiograph reveals a round radiolucency in the middle third of the root. Periodontal abscess E. C. A 35-year-old patient presents with swelling facial to a mandibular premolar. The first statement is TRUE. Genial tubercles B. There is no severe pain. the second is FALSE. Lateral periodontal cyst C. Both statements are FALSE. It demonstrates that gingivitis is a reversible disease. Which of the following is primary among these factors? A. Which of the following represents the most likely diagnosis? A. It demonstrates that the bacterial ecology changes as plaque accumulates. The first statement is FALSE. Osteogenic sarcoma D. The involved teeth are vital and there are no periodontal pockets. D. It proves that gingivitis progresses to periodontitis. Mentalis muscle C. only mild discomfort. D. Gingival abscess B. Root resorption The facial surface of the posterior mandible often presents limiting factors to proper treatment of periodontal defects. Each of the following describes the experimental gingivitis model EXCEPT one. Internal pterygoid muscle .

To the tuberosity B. Anterior edentulous ridge Which of the following describes the laterotrusive movement (Bennett angle)? A. It is the difference in condylar inclination between protrusive and lateral movements. B. To avoid spreading over a large area of the slab C. It is the angle that is formed by the condyle and the horizontal plane during protrusive movements. Midline of the nose C. D. Anterior labial frenum E. To reduce the temperature influence of the mixing slab .Which of the following landmarks will best guide the most esthetic location of the maxillary anterior artificial teeth on a complete denture? A. To avoid absorption of moisture from the air B. To allow tempering of the powder by the mixing slab D. C. In selecting an impression tray for a preliminary maxillary impression. Incisive papilla B. Beyond the vibrating line D. To the fovea palatine C. It is the difference between the condylar and incisal inclinations. Median palatal suture D. It is the angle that is formed by the non-working condyle and the sagittal plane during lateral movements. To the pterygomaxillary notches Why is it advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement immediately before mixing? A. how far should the tray extend posteriorly? A.

E. Which of the following major connectors is appropriate for this patient? A. A patient presents with a restricted floor of the mouth. A lingual bar B. medial pterygoid. covered with a surface tension-reducing agent and air dried. depressor anguloris C. D. A lingual plate . To prevent evaporation of the volatile components Which of the following groups of muscles are influential in molding the lingual border of the final mandibular impression for a complete denture? A. very dry. Which of the following complications during preparation of Tooth #18 would most likely affect the restoration's long-term prognosis? A. Genioglossus. is mesially tipped 30 degrees to the plane of occlusion. Tooth #18. Irreversible pulpitis C. B. styloglossus. Latent sensitivity D. and diastema between several teeth. covered thinly with a water soluble lubricant. mylohyoid. free of surface moisture. only 6 mandibular anterior teeth. digastric B. mylohyoid. A 3-unit fixed partial denture from Tooth #18 to Tooth #20 is treatment planned for this 70-year-old patient. the dentist must ensure that the prepared tooth is A. Short distal axial wall B. E. Hyoglossus. lubricated with a petroleum-free gel exhibiting minimal film thickness and low viscosity. Mylohyoid. Pulp exposure To obtain the best results when using an elastomeric impression material. genioglossus D. superior pharyngeal constrictor. C. mylohyoid. middle pharyngeal constrictor. medial pterygoid. posterior belly of the digastric The long axis of a mandibular second molar. Palatoglossus.

Porosity of the denture base material C.C. D. long axis of the clinical crown. D. Over a period of years. Which of the following is a bactericidal antibiotic used specifically in the treatment of infections caused by Pseudomonas species and indole-positive Proteus species? A. incisal one-third of the facial surface. B. mastication. Alveolar resorption B. A lingual bar with a Kennedy bar D. C. swallowing. incisal two-thirds of the facial surface. Inadequate extension of the posterior palatal seal Proximal grooves for a partial veneer crown preparation for a maxillary central incisor are placed parallel to the A. Tetracycline C. A lingual plate with interruptions (spaces) in the plate at the diastemas Patients who have natural dentitions generate the greatest amount of occlusal force during A. which of the following is the most likely reason for the breakage of a maxillary denture along the midline? A. Carbenicillin . C. Penicillin V B. parafunctional movements. long axis of the tooth. Dicloxacillin D. Over-relief of the incisive papilla D. centric relation. B.

Aldosterone C. E. redistribution. E. Fluconazole (Diflucan®) B. excretion in the urine. binding to plasma proteins. A patient's early recovery from an ultrashort-acting barbiturate is related primarily to A. Ammonium chloride E. therapeutic application. breakdown in the blood. D. Griseofulvin (Grifulvin®) C. Clotrimazole (Mycelex® Troche) D. C.The ratio of LD50 to ED50 provides information as to the drug's A. Sodium chloride D. B. C. efficacy. Excretion of an acidic drug will be enhanced if the patient is given which of the following? A. safety. D. potency. Sodium bicarbonate Which of the following drugs is administered orally to treat vaginal candidiasis? A. breakdown in the liver. Mannitol B. Miconazole (Monistat®) . B. allergenicity.

B. Which of the following characterizes this drug's central mechanism of action? A. Streptomycin D. Alcohols B. It increases concentrations of norepinephrine. X&Y are = in potency & efficacy. Tricyclic antidepressants . It acts through a direct serotonergic action.E. C. Penicillin B. It stimulates specific L-dopa receptors. To obtain the same degree of anesthesia with local anesthetic Y. Sulfonamide C. is less potent than drug Y. is more efficacious than Y. then it is accurate to say that drug X A. 40 mg/ml) of local anesthetic X are required to obtain adequate local anesthesia. If no other information about the two drugs is available. C. is less efficacious than drug Y. D. Chloramphenicol Three carpules (2 ml carpules. Tardive dyskinesia is a neurological side effect of which of the following classes of drugs? A. 0 B. E. Cephalosporin E. D. 40 mg/ml) are required. A patient who has Parkinson's disease is being treated with levodopa. Nystatin (Mycostatin®) Respiratory difficulty due to blockade of the neuromuscular junction can be produced by which of the following? A. five carpules (2 ml carpules. It replenishes a deficiency of dopamine.

Inhibits cell wall synthesis. DFP (Isoofluorophate®) B. Ampicillin B. Which of the following drugs is an "irreversible" cholinesterase inhibitor? A. C. Effective against oral anaerobes. Phenothiazine antipsychotics E. B. Effective only against anaerobic bacteria. Penicillin VK Which of the following describes ciprofloxacin (Cipro®)? A. Penicillin G E. Methicillin D. . E. blocking muscarinic receptors. blocking nicotinic receptors. B. Barbiturate antiepileptics D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors Which of the following penicillin drugs cannot be given orally? A. Cloxacillin C. Neostigmine (Prostigmine®) D. D. Physostigmine (Antilirum®) DFP and organophosphate insecticides produce their effects by A. Effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Pilocarpine (pilocar) C.C. An antibiotic-of-choice for treating otitis media in young children.

Which of the following is an irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor? A. Ibuprofen C. Diisopropylfluorophosphate In a clinical pharmacologic comparison of atropine and its quatemary ammonium derivative methylatropine nitrate. Oxycodone B. Physostigmine C. acetylcholine.C. E. B. one might expect to observe that A. C. non-competitively inhibiting cholinesterases. atropine is more potent than methylatropine nitrate after oral administration. competitively inhibiting cholinesterases. amphetamine. Neostigmine D. Hydrocortisone E. pilocarpine. ephedrine. Pilocarpine E. homatropine bromide. Which of the following is recommended for treating the pain of tic douloureux (trigeminal neuralgia)? A. Edrophonium B. Acetylsalicylic acid Cycloplegia can be produced by A. D. Carbamazepine D. . D.

a quatemary ammonium group in the structure of the drug appears necessary for which of the following actions? A. methylatropine nitrate is more potent and effective than atropine in the treatment of Parkinson's disease. the ratio of the effective oral dose to the effective parenteral dose is higher for atropine than for methylatropine nitrate. E. has the specificity to selectively block cholinesterase at the neuromuscular junction. Nicotinic anticholinesterase B. All of these The relationship of methacholine to acetylcholine is as . Direct muscarinic stimulation E. is not a clinically useful drug. Central nervous system activity Neostigmine is different from physostigmine because neostigmine A. Which of the following statements is true regarding the directly acting cholinomimetics? A. C.B. D. has an additional direct effect at the neuromuscular junction. drowsiness and clouding of consciousness is a more prominent effect with methylatropine nitrate than with atropine. Methacholine has more prominent cardiovascular action than carbachol B. D. Among cholinergic agents. in doses equieffective in affecting the salivary glands. C. B. Bethanechol has some degree of selectively for gastrointestinal and urinary bladder smooth muscle D. Direct nicotinic stimulation C. Carbachol and bethanechol are almost completely resistant to action of ACHE C. is well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract. Muscarinic anticholinesterase D. is a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor while physostigmine is an irreversible one.

mycoplasmas and rickettsiae. . Xylidides B. Local anesthetic injections (nonintraligamentary) D. fungi and viruses. viruses and mycoplasmas. tissue cell cultures. C. a congener. Para-aminobenzoic acid esters D. bacteria and fungi. an antagonist. D. an isomer.A. D. C. Placement of rubber dams B. Meta-aminobutyric acid esters Antibiotics are obtained from growth of A. an adjuvant. E. Restorative dentistry with or without retraction cord Methylparaben preservative most likely shows cross-sensitivity with which of the following anesthetics? A. B. Subgingival placement of antibiotic fibers or strips E. Orthodontic appliance adjustment C. E. a vehicle. The 1997 American Heart Association recommendations for prevention of bacterial endocarditis includes which of the following dental procedures for antibiotic coverage? A. B. Ortho-tuluidide derivatives C.

Which of the following drugs may cause renal lithiasis (kidney stones) resulting from its limited solubility in water? A. an antiviral agent. Erythromycin C.soluble. B. Tetracycline D. Bacitracin E. C. C.Which of the following drugs is excreted primarily by renal tubular secretion? A. Sulfamethoxazole (a constituent of Bactrim DS) Which of the following combinations is appropriate for treatment of uncomplicated respiratory tuberculosis? A. Polymyxin Nalidixic acid is best described as A. Ethambutol and isoniazid. Streptomycin C. because both are lipid. . because they have different modes of action. B. Streptomycin and chloramphenicol. Deteriorated tetracyclines E. Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin. Acetaminophen D. D. Streptomycin B. E. an antituberculous agent. because both drugs inhibit bacterial folic acid synthesis. an antifungal agent. a urinary tract antiseptic. Benzylpenicillin B. an antityphoid agent.

Penicillin V C. Lincomycin E. Oxacillin Which of the following is a "third generation" cephalosporin? A. Penicillin V C. because both drugs accumulate on bacterial 50S ribosomes. Griseofulvin and streptomycin. Erythromycin D. Nystatin Which of the following tetracyclines is most slowly excreted? A. Cephamandole B. Moxalactam E. Cephalexin E. Doxycycline . Amikacin D. Methicillin B. None of these Which of the following is effective for treatment of a penicillinase-producing systemic staphylococcal infection when taken orally? A.D. Clavulanic acid Which of the following is most often associated with sensitivity of the skin to sun's rays? A. E. Demeclocycline B. Moxalactam C. Streptomycin D.

B. Tetracycline
C. Oxytetracycline
D. Chlortetracycline
Each of the following is an endogenous opioid peptide EXCEPT one. Which one is this
EXCEPTION?
A. Endorphin
B. Dynorphin
C. Bradykinin
D. Enkephalin
Which of the following penicillins would be used to treat a Pseudomonas infection?
A. Nafcillin (Unipen)
B. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
C. Benzathine penicillin (Bicillin)
D. Phenoxymethyl penicillin (Pen-Vee K)
E. Ticarcillin (Thar)
3.6 ml solution of 4% prilocaine contains how many mg?
A. 3.6
B. 36
C. 72
D. 144
E. 360
Which of the following statements best describes the action of local anesthetics in inflamed
tissue? Local anesthetics
A. diffuse or penetrate more rapidly to the nerve due to their ionic charge.

B. diffuse or penetrate more rapidly to the nerve because they are predominantly nonionized.
C. are less efficacious because of the decreased pH of extracellular fluid.
D. are quickly inactivated by inflammatory mediators.
E. generally have a longer duration of action.
A 35-year-old patient who has an acute suppurative pulpitis is scheduled for tooth extraction.
Due to this patient's history of rheumatic heart disease, the practitioner administered penicillin
chemoprophylaxis. Fifteen minutes later, this practitioner notices that the periorbital tissue and
the lips of the patient are edematous. These findings are consistent with a diagnosis of
A. hematoma formation.
B. angioneurotic edema.
C. congestive heart failure.
D. an acute anaphylactoid reaction.
Postural hypotension is a common complaint of patients who take antihypertensive agents
because many of these agents interfere with the
A. sympathetic control of vascular reflexes.
B. release of acetylcholine in the ganglia.
C. epinephrine release from the adrenal medulla.
D. parasympathetic control of vascular resistance.
E. neuromuscular transmission in skeletal muscles.
Which of the following tetracyclines with a long biological half- life allows once-per-day
dosage?
A. Doxycycline
B. Oxytetracycline
C. Chlortetracycline
D. Demethylchlortetracycline

Which of the following is the preferred pharmalogic treatment for a xerostomia?
A. 5 mg Pilocarpine
B. 1 mg Epinephrine
C. 5 mg Levonordefrin
D. 1 mg Malathion
Which of the following penicillins would be used to treat a Pseudomonas infection?
A. Ticarcillin (Ticar )
B. Ampicillin (Omnipen )
C. Cloxacillin (Tegopen )
D. Phenoxymethyl penicillin (Pen-Vee K)
Drug interaction resulting in serious adverse cardiovascular events, including death, might occur
between erythromycin and which of the following antihistamine drugs?
A. Terfenadine (Seldane®)
B. Promethazine (Phenergan®)
C. Hydroxyzine (Atarax®)
D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl®)
E. Chlorpheniramine (Chlortrimenton®)
Hypersensitivity reactions to the penicillin derivatives include which of the following classical
types?
A. Type I only
B. Types I, II, and IV
C. Type IV only
D. Types I, II, Ill, and IV
Which of the following agents is used for HIV infections?

A. Amantadine (Symmetrel®)
B. Acyclovir (Zovirax®)
C. Zidovudine (Retrovir®)
D. Ribavirin (Virazole®)
E. Isoniazid (Nydrazid®)
Which of the following drugs induced the first dramatic remission in acute leukemia in children?
A. Mechlorethamine
B. Carmustine
C. Aminopterin
D. Streptozocin
E. Mercaptopurine
Which of these opioid analgesics is associated with a serious life threatening drug interaction
when administered with an MAO inhibitor?
A. meperidine
B. morphine
C. fentanyl
D. propoxyphene
E. codeine
Which of the following groups of drugs is contraindicated for patients who have glaucoma?
A. Adrenergic
B. Cholinergic
C. Anticholinergic
D. Adrenergic blocking
Cholinomimetic drugs can produce which of the following effects?

hypothalamus. Alpha-adrenergic blockade D. Peripheral vasoconstriction C. Decreased gastrointestinal peristalsis E. An anticonvulsant The extrapyramidal syndrome seen with the antipsychotic agents is due to their action on the A. Potentiation of the action of narcotics E. B.A. cerebral cortex. An antiemetic effect C. Increased force of myocardial contraction Each of the following is a pharmacologic effect of phenothiazines EXCEPT one. basal ganglia. Increased salivation B. C. brain stem. Amphotericin B Which pair of anesthetics is most likely to show cross-allergy? . cerebellum. Decreased gastric secretions D. Which of the following compounds is used as an antiviral agent? A. Amantadine (Symmetrel) B. E. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Novobiocin C. D. Miconazole (Monistat) D. Sedation B.

Procaine . Lidocaine .tetracaine C. Frontal sinus .mepivacaine D.A. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Gamma rays E. Prilocaine . Lidocaine – benzocaine Each of the following is an electromagnetic radiation EXCEPT one. Radar B. X rays C. Pinpoint pupils with an absence of light reflex Subconjunctival hemorrhage is most commonly found in which of the following fractures? A.mepivacaine B. Dilated pupils with increased light reflex B. Pinpoint pupils with increased light reflex C. Dilated pupils with an absence of light reflex D. LeFort I C. Visible light Question 10 of 100 Which of the following physical signs indicates severe CNS oxygen deprivation? A. Alpha rays D. Procaine .lidocaine E. Nasal B.

D. B. Homatropine C. Which of the following is indicated to correct a condition of atropine poisoning evidenced by rapid heart rate. Identifies the type of skeletal deformity E. neutropenia. Performs model surgery C. lymphopenia. Determines the postoperative occlusion D. leukopenia. Zygomaticomaxillary complex Question 16 of 100 The use of study casts in orthognathic surgery does each of the following EXCEPT one. Epinephrine D. D. lymphocytosis. E. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Aids in explaining the surgical procedure to the patient Question 18 of 100 Acute pyogenic bacterial infections produce A. Pilocarpine . C. Nicotine B. dry mouth and gastrointestinal inactivity? A. Constructs splints B. Zygomatic arch E. leukocytosis.

Secretion not metabolized in the urine Which of the following systemic conditions lowers resistance. and indicates early use of antibiotics for infections? A. Excision is perpendicular to the natural skin tension lines. impairs healing. Examine the victim for bleeding and fractures A patient presents with facial lacerations that have irregular or devitalized wound edges. Physostigmine Which of the following should be performed first for a collapsed or unconscious victim of illness or accident? A. Establish pulselessness D. Diabetes mellitus C. Which of the following represents the major route of excretion of penicillin V? A.E. In excising the wound elliptically. B. Secretion in the bile and into the feces B. Which is the EXCEPTION? A. Vitamin C deficiency B. D. Establish unresponsiveness C. Open the airway B. Excision is done as conservatively as possible. The wound is undermined prior to closure. Excretion in the urine as inactive metabolites C. a practitioner takes into account each of the following EXCEPT one. Polycythemia vera D. Length to width ratio of the excision is at least 3 to 1 C. Systemic lupus erythematosus . Total metabolism by the liver and excretion in the feces D.

Lingual arch B. Computerized tomography E. Observation. Arthrography B. Band-and-loop space maintainer(s) E. Protrude the tongue. and protrude the mandible C. Extend the neck. Panoramic films D. in the maxillary arch. protrude the mandible. and protrude the tongue Which of the following is the least helpful in determining the anatomical integrity of the temporomandibular joint? A. it is between the lateral incisors and canines. How should this patient be managed? A. protrude the tongue. protrude the tongue. clear the pharynx. Magnetic resonance imaging Question 32 of 100 . An unconscious patient is suspected of having an obstructed airway. Whereas.What space management treatment should be planned for a child age 4. Extend the neck. Clear the pharynx. clear the pharynx. and clear the pharynx D. Nance holding arch D. no space maintainer necessary "PRIMATE SPACE" is more specific: In the mandibular arch. Distal shoe(s) C. Arthroscopy C. missing both primary mandibular first molars with no primate space present? A. extend the neck. extend the neck. the primate space is between the canine and the 1st molar (or 1st premolar in adults). and protrude the mandible B. protrude the mandible.

Use of controlled force when using forceps and elevators B. Neglecting to wedge the matrix band C. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril®) . Diphenhydramine (Benadryl®) C. it competes successfully with methanol for alcohol dehydrogenase. E. Use of forceps with beaks that grasp the roots more firmly Ethyl alcohol is a good antidote for methanol poisoning because A. it prevents formation of formaldehyde. Each of the following nonsedating antihistamines would be contraindicated in an individual taking cimetidine for heartburn EXCEPT one. Use of the maxillary pinch grasp to detect expansion of the alveolar bone E. D. B. Fexofenadine (Allegra®) D. Overtightening the matrix band B. A thorough presurgical analysis and planning alterations in the surgical approach D. This might have been caused by which of the following? A. Removal of buccal bone and/or sectioning of teeth C. Neglecting to contour the matrix band D.A freshly condensed Class II amalgam restoration has a deficient margin at the proximogingival cavosurface angle. it inhibits methanol metabolism. all of the above. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. it prevents damage to the optic nerve. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Astemizole (Hismanal®) B. C. Using too large an initial increment of amalgam Each of the following measures can minimize fractures of the maxillary alveolar process EXCEPT one.

E. Parotid gland . Fever of unknown origin C. D. Cycle time is short. An undiagnosed ulcer in the oral cavity E. It will not char fabrics. Facial nerve B. Solubility in water D. Rate of biotransformation Which of the following is NOT an advantage of chemical vapor sterilization? A. Allergenicity C. E. presents the potential for greatest morbidity? A. There is no need for special ventilation. which of the following anatomic structures. A history of bleeding disorder D. if damaged. It will not cause corrosion. B. In the preauricular approach to the TMJ. Instruments are dry at the end of the cycle. A nonvital tooth B. Pale gingiva with a confirmed history of anemia Question 37 of 100 Which of the following properties increases when the intermediate chain of a local anesthetic drug is lengthened? A. C. Terfenadine (Seldane®) Which of the following is a local contraindication for the surgical removal of an impacted tooth? A. Potency B.

.C. efficacy. How does the growth of the cranial base generally relate in time to the growth of the jaws? A. Precedes C. Facial artery Osteomyelitis of the mandible is most likely to develop because of A. a resistant strain of bacteria. Chlortetracycline The therapeutic index of a given drug indicates the relative A. Tetracycline C. lack of drainage from the infected area. failure of pus to localize. Streptomycin B. Auriculotemporal nerve D. Chloramphenicol D. C. Unrelated D. C. Superficial temporal vein E. Accompanies E. Follows B. safety. B. B. potency. D. Initially follows. low resistance of the patient. then accompanies Aplastic anemia is a serious toxic effect associated most frequently with which of the following antibiotics? A.

. Placing a sedative dressing in the socket to protect exposed bone D. Flushing out debris with normal saline solution B. Only after the patient is symptom-free and has shown improvement during splint therapy D. Semilunar C. duration. The area is then smoothed with a bone file. E. Prior to initiating splint therapy. The tori should be removed using a large pear-shaped acrylic bur. The tori should be removed by grooving the superior surface then shearing the torus off with a mono-beveled chisel. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. solubility. Rotation pedicle Principles for managing a localized alveolar osteitis after extraction of a mandibular first molar include each of the following EXCEPT one. while the patient has the acute symptoms B. one week after the first visit C. Vertical release D. Curetting the boney wall to promote bleeding C.D. Never. During the first visit. Which of the following statements about removal of her moderate-sized mandibular lingual tori is correct? A. Which of the following flap designs allows the best surgical access to the apical aspect of a tooth root with the least reflection of soft tissue? A. until definitive orthodontic treatment has been started You are doing some preprosthetic surgery on a patient in preparation for a new denture. Envelope B. Administering mild analgesic drugs as an adjunct to local treatment When is the most appropriate time to permanently modify/alter the occlusion of an acute TMD patient? A. B.

Ventrogluteal C. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. with a midline incision and anterior and posterior side arms extending bilaterally from the ends of the midline incision. Maxillary sinus membrane in the molar region B. The tori should be removed by inserting a rongeurs vertically under a lingual flap and "snipping off' the tori. The most optimal flap uses a midline incision which courses from the papilla between teeth #8 and 9 posteriorly to the junction of the hard and soft palates. B. C. Second and third molar teeth and a portion of the first molar tooth C. Soft palate mucosa on the side of the injection Which areas should be avoided for an IM injection before a child can walk? A. then shear the torus off with a bibeveled chisel. The most optimal flap is shaped like a "double-Y". D. Buccal alveolar bone. Which of the following statements about the flap for the removal of a palatal torus is correct? A. Penicillin . The most optimal flap is a reflection of the entire hard palate mucoperiosteum back to a line between the 2 first molar teeth. The most optimal flap uses a midpalatal incision that courses from the palatal aspect of tooth #3 across to the palatal aspect of tooth #14 D.C. The tori should be removed by grooving the superior surface of the torus with a bur. Vastus lateralis D. soft tissue and periodontium in the posterior maxilla D. Gluteal muscles B. A properly executed posterior superior alveolar nerve block will anesthetize each of the following structures EXCEPT one. Deltoid area Which of the following antibiotics has been implicated in the vast majority of cases of oral contraceptive failure during antibiotic use? A.

Erratic and incomplete absorption of drugs from the GI tract D. Phenobarbital E. Ethosuximide C. Tetracycline Which of the following is the most serious result of digoxin intoxication? A. High incidence and severity of adverse reactions C. Need for specialized training and equipment B. Keflex D. Carbamazepine D. observed in a pediatric patient under treatment for absence seizures. Renal failure C. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Atrial tachycardia D. Rifampin C. Short duration of action Spontaneous gingival hemorrhage or acute stomatitis.B. Atrial fibrillation E. Ventricular fibrillation Each of the following represents an advantage of oral sedation EXCEPT one. Bradycardia B. Phenytoin B. Valproic acid Back pressure porosity is . Erythromycin E. indicates withdrawal of which of the following anticonvulsant drugs? A.

acetone. attain development of color. D. B. D. the lingual surface is better. most likely when the wax pattern is positioned very close to the open end of the ring. C. urea. The enamel is thicker on the lingual surface. the same as suck-back porosity. . as well as access to. B. B.A. often evidenced by rounded margins on the casting. E. methanol. The main metabolite of ingested isopropyl alcohol is A. E. prevent breakdown of the initiator. the same as occluded gas porosity. Less leverage is exerted against the tooth by the lingual rest. B. C. D. under heating the parts to be joined. the processing cycle of a denture is designed to A. acetaldehyde. With respect to temperature. D. volatilize the hydroquinone inhibitor. The cingulum of the canine provides a natural surface for the recess. The most likely cause of failure in the pre-ceramic soldering technique is A. the result of using an oxidizing flame. The visibility of. C. formaldehyde. C. Which of the following explains why a properly designed rest on the lingual surface of a canine is preferred to a properly designed rest on the incisal surface? A. prevent boiling of the monomer.

1. B. increased activity of the cerebrum. removal of the inhibitory effect of the cortex. C. the diatoric. E.B. 2. B. Which of the following is a disadvantage of glass ionomer cement? A. C. Difficulty in mixing . 1. increased activity of thalamic areas. D. B. E.2%. using phosphate as the soldering investment.75%. the finish line. D. The portion of an artificial tooth that is found only in porcelain anterior teeth is A. D. 3. C.25%.2%. the pin. overheating the parts to be joined. preheating the soldering assembly. D. E. None of above The casting shrinkage of cobalt-chromium alloys is approximately A. decreased activity of medullary centers. Alcoholic euphoria results from A. C. increased activity of limbic synapses. using an incompatible solder. the collar.

it is most important for the dentist to consider which of the following? A. C. coronal to the periodontal pocket. fibrinogen to fibrin. Low bond strength to dentin D. above the mucogingival junction. PTA to PTC. One can accelerate the setting time of zinc oxide-eugenol impression pastes by adding a small amount of A. D. Moisture sensitivity during initial set The base of the incision in the gingivectomy technique is located A. B. The fluoride content of the drinking water . at the mucogingival junction. B. E. E. B. glycerin. D. plaster of paris When determining the appropriate dose of systemic fluoride supplement for a child. C. PTC to Factor VIII. petrolatum. water. at the level of the cementoenamel junction. D. prothrombin to thrombin.B. in the alveolar mucosa. proaccelerin to accelerin. C. Irritation of the pulp C. The most important anticoagulant effect of heparin is to interfere with the conversion of A.

A prescription includes each of the following parts EXCEPT one.B. sweeping up the mercury and disposing of it in a plastic bag. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. pentobarbital. Hydroxyzine (Atarax®) D. Promethazine (Phenergan®) C. an amphetamine Drug interaction resulting in serious adverse cardiovascular events. B. then dusting the spill area with sulfur powder. scrubbing the spill area with hot water and detergent. atropine. including death. Chlorpheniramine (Chlor-Trimeton®) A mercury spill in the laboratory or office is appropriately cleaned up by A. The child's weight and the fluoride content of the drinking water The drug of choice to treat overdosage with tricyclic antidepressants is A. physostigmine. Terfenadine (Seldane®) B. removing the mercury. aspirating the mercury into a wash bottle trap. then spraying the area with BAL. D. might occur between erythromycin and which of the following antihistamine drugs? A. B. The child's age and the fluoride content of the drinking water D. phenytoin. C. D. C. Superscription . E. The child's diet and caries activity C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl®) E.

Transcription E. 0.B. Nitroglycerin What percent of the blood alcohol level is the most likely to produce a lethal effect in 50 per cent of the population? A. Peripheral arteriolar dilation D.10% C. Quinidine D. Conscription Inhalation of amyl nitrite can result in each of the following EXCEPT one. 0. 0. 0. A decrease in arterial blood pressure E. Subscription D. Phenytoin B. Tachycardia B.03% E.20% D. Digitalis C. Procainamide E.05% B. Coronary artery dilation C. Which is the EXCEPTION? A. 0. Increased motility of the small bowel Which of the following drugs is commonly used in the treatment of congestive heart failure? A.05% . Inscription C.

B. Alkaloid physostigmine has the greatest number of side effects unrelated to ACHE inhibition. Agents may cause paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. . D. E. thrombocytopenia. Benzodiazepines D. E. C. B. methemoglobinemia. Organophosphates are readily absorbed through the skin.Prolonged use of amyl nitrite may result in A. Which of the following statements is true concerning anticholinesterase? A. D. a higher melting point. the base metal alloys exhibit A. Agents such as DEP inhibit only plasma cholinesterase. and generally higher yield strength and hardness. decreased specific gravity. hypoprothrombinemia. increased specific gravity. aplastic anemia. a higher melting point. Phenothiazines C. Reactivators such as 2-PAM reactivate ACHE which has undergone "aging". B. Tricyclic (imipramine-like) antidepressants When high gold content alloys are compared to base metal alloys. C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors E. granulocytopenia. Which of the following drug groups is currently the mainstay of treatment in depressive psychoneurotic disease? A. Amphetamines B. and generally higher yield strength and hardness.

increased specific gravity. and more consistent bonding to porcelain. Which of the following statements best describes why L-dopa eventually becomes ineffective in the treatment of Parkinson's disease? A. diazepam (Valium®). Patients gradually develop tolerance because L-dopa induces liver enzymeactivity. D. generally higher yield strength and hardness. B. B. Magnesium . decreased specific gravity. L-dopa absorption slows with aging. meprobamate (Equanil®). C. C. E. Dietary intake of pyridoxine speeds L-dopa metabolism. and more consistent bonding to porcelain. D. Chloride D. The cardiac glycosides will reduce the concentration of which ion in an active heart muscle cell? A. d-tubocurarine (Tubarine®). D. Sodium B. generally higher yield strength and hardness.C. and more consistent bonding to porcelain. generally lower yield strength. The central skeletal muscle relaxation produced by depressing the polysynaptic reflex arcs is brought about by all of the following drugs EXCEPT A. a higher melting point. Potassium E. Neuronal cell loss in the substantia nigra is progressive and continuous over the course of the disease. E. Dopa decarboxylase activity increases with age. lorazepam (Ativan®). Calcium C.

maleficence. Anticholinergic action B. competence. B. C. Negative inotropic action E. autonomy. Less active compound D. Streptomycin C. Decrease in heart rate C. Bacitracin E. More water-soluble compound . D. Inactive form B. on standing the patient might experience a fall in blood pressure due to which of the following? A. Stimulation of autonomic ganglia Metabolism of a drug will usually result in conversion to each of the following EXCEPT one.Which of the following drugs is excreted primarily by renal tubular secretion? A. Benzylpenicillin B. Alpha-adrenergic blockade D. When 50 mg. paternalism. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. This is known as A. the dentist attempts to control patient behavior. Polymyxin In pursuit of what the dentist believes is best for the patient. Tetracycline D. More active compound C. of chlorpromazine (Thorazine®) is administered to a patient.

hold the solder in place during heating. Phenobarbital (Luminal®) Which of the following erythromycins is both enteric coated and long acting? A. B. Binds to the mu-opioid receptor D. remove any debris that may remain in the area to be soldered. flux serves to A. Erythrocin D. Excessive heating of the acrylic resin during processing should be avoided to prevent . C. C. ERYC B. Chloral hydrate (Noctec®) D. Biotransformed into a more active metabolite E. E.E. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril®) C. D. displace gases and dissolve corrosion products. Buspirone (BuSpar®) B. Ilosone Each of the following is a characteristic of tramadol (Ultram®) EXCEPT one. Inhibits uptake of norepinephrine and serotonin During a soldering procedure. Centrally acting analgesic B. Structurally similar to morphine C.S.E. provide an oxidizing environment in the area to be soldered. Less ionized compound Which of the following sedatives is most likely to cause a dry mouth? A.

Which of the following represents the sequence in the replantation of mature. Early stage periapical cemental dysplasia is best differentiated from chronic apical periodontitis by A. periodontal examination.A. performing canal debridement. and splinting C. acrylic resin shrinkage. excessive acrylic resin expansion. and filling with gutta. C. B. D. Performing canal debridement. and filling with gutta. performing calcium hydroxide therapy. Repositioning. assure complete flow of acrylic into the mold. repositioning. and performing root canal therapy B. establish an equalized and uniform pressure in the molds. C. placing the flasks into the processing tanks at curing temperature is delayed to A. splinting. exothermic heat buildup. allows the flasks and the acrylic to reach a stable temperature. splinting. E. B. percussion. evaporation of the monomer. avulsed teeth? A. Following compression of acrylic into the denture flasks.percha . C. B. D. repositioning. D.percha D. radiographic appearance. Performing root-canal therapy. performing calcium hydroxide therapy. allow the monomer to permeate all polymer crystals. E. results of pulp testing. splinting. discoloration of the acrylic resin. Repositioning. subjective symptoms.

one-appointment root canal treatment.E. E. prescribing analgesics and antibiotics. pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide. filling with a warm gutta-percha technique. C. A 7-year-old patient fractured the right central incisor three hours ago. calcium hydroxide treatment of the coronal segment only." The treatment-of-choice is A. Oval B. A clinical examination reveals a 2-mm exposure of a "bleeding pulp. direct pulp cap with calcium hydroxide. D. apical surgery with removal of the apical segment root canal treatment on the coronal segment. Rectangular Loss of the apical seat caused by overinstrumentation is best managed by A. pulpectomy and apexification. Trapezoidal C. Which of the following outlines best describes the access cavity preparation on a mandibular molar with four canals? A. extraction with removal of the apical segment and replantation of the coronal segment. . B. B. apical surgery with a Super EBA reverse filling. B. C. D. the required treatment would be A. increasing the file size and decreasing the file length. C. Repositioning and splinting only If periapical radiolucency is present at the apex of a tooth with a middle third root fracture and the apical canal space is non-negotiable. Triangular D. extraction because of the poor prognosis.

C. Mandibular incisors B. replacement resorption. E. Use light. B. root fracture. Maxillary premolars E. using a chelating agent and packing with calcium hydroxide. Which of the following diagnoses represents an injury that causes the tooth to loosen but is not displaced? A. Concussion . D. short duration contact with the bur. D. calcific metamorphosis. normal healing response. Mandibular premolars D. E. Maxillary canines C. Keep the dentinal surface clean by frequent irrigation. Mandibular molars Rigid splinting of an avulsed permanent incisor will most likely lead to A. Which of the following teeth have the most consistent canal morphology? A. C.D. internal resorption. Minimize dehydration of the dentinal surface. Use anesthetics without vasoconstrictors. Prepare dentin with slow-speed burs. B. filling with a gutta-percha cone that is larger than the apical perforation. Which of the following is the most effective way to reduce injury to the pulp during a restorative procedure? A. E.

ankylosis. internal resorption. flattening the incisal edges. Ease of manipulation D. D. B. Esthetics Before beginning tooth preparation. calcific metamorphosis.B. establish the resistance and retention form. D. Intrusion Waiting to allow intruded permanent central incisors to reerupt in an 8-year-old child will likely lead to A. Which of the following factors is of greatest importance in selecting a restorative material for a Class V cavity on the facial surface of a mandibular premolar? A. The anterior maxillary incisors of a middle-aged patient can be given a younger appearance by selective grinding of the enamel. a healing response and reeruption. aid in the finish of enamel walls and margins. establish the convenience form. The dentist performs this procedure by A. E. prevent overcutting and overextension. Resistance to stress C. C. Reaction of gingival tissue B. tooth discoloration. C. the dentist should visualize the outline form to A. Luxation C. B. Extrusion E. . Subluxation D.

shortening the incisal edges. C. X rays C. electrons carry energy from the cathode to the anode. moving the facial height of curvature gingivally. Heat B. moving the facial line angles proximally. Into which of the following is most of this energy converted in the target? A. a longer gray scale of contrast can be achieved by A. Maxilla B. increasing the focal spot-skin distance. B. Sphenoid D. Magnetism D. Electricity E. E. D. Palatine E. rounding the incisal point angles. Turbinate Each of the following could be ruled out for the lesion distal to the mandibular third molar EXCEPT one. C. In radiography.B. D. decreasing the filtration. increasing the kilovoltage. Visible light The inferior concha is composed of all or part of which of the following bones? A. As an x-ray tube operates. increasing the milliamperage. Which one is this EXCEPTION? . Ethmoid C.

Hypoplastic sweat glands . Fibroma D. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Cementoblastoma B. Ameloblastoma B. Salivary gland inclusion defect (Stafne) Ectodermal dysplasia is characterized by each of the following EXCEPT one. Atrophic skin D. Odontogenic keratocyst D. Osteoma C. The lesion is not palpable. 0 degrees to +5 degrees D. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Focal osteoporotic bone marrow defect E. -10 degrees to -5 degrees B.5 cm radiolucency below the mandibular canal. Blue sclera C. Defective hair E. Hypodontia (oligodontia) B. -5 degrees to 10 degrees C. Traumatic bone cyst C.A. the recommended vertical angulation may vary from A. +5 degrees to +10 degrees A panoramic radiograph of an asymptomatic adult discloses a well-defined 1. Salivary gland inclusion defect (Stafne defect) When making a bite-wing exposure of the posterior teeth.

Floor of mouth and anterior lingual gingiva A radiographic examination reveals a radiolucent area in the region of the mandibular left third molar. Hyperparathyroidism Malignant melanoma most commonly occurs in which of the following intraoral sites? A. The clinical differential diagnoses should include each of the following EXCEPT one. Soft palate and tonsillar pillar complex D. . Dentigerous cyst C. Hard palate and maxillary gingiva E. Residual cyst C. Dentigerous cyst E. The patient first noticed this swelling 3 weeks ago. Lateral and ventral tongue mucosa C. The third molar is not present. 20-year-old patient reveal a sharply outlined radiolucent lesion in the mandibular first molar area. Ameloblastoma B. radicular cyst. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. The most probable diagnosis is A. Ossifying fibroma D. radiating pattern of trabeculae in the mass. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. hard swelling of his mandibular premolar region. Odontogenic myxoma Radiographs of an asymptomatic. Buccal mucosa and vestibule B. Radiographs indicate a loss of cortex and a diffuse.An 18-year-old man complains of tingling in his lower lip. An examination discloses a painless. Leukemia B. Odontogenic keratocyst D. This 2 cm lesion scallops between the roots of vital teeth. Osteosarcoma E.

Nasolabial B. tender swelling in the midline of the hard palate. Impacted mandibular third molars B. B. Flaccid paralysis of the painful side of the face C. overexposure of film D. Incisive papilla Incorrect horizontal angulation of the x-ray tubehead during exposure of a molar bite-wing leads to A. The teeth test vital. D.B. Question 89 of 100 Symptoms of pain and tenderness upon palpation of the temporomandibular joint are usually associated with which of the following? A. E. C. Flaccid paralysis of the non painful side of the face D. fluctuant. odontoma. Radiographs reveal a radiolucent area projected between the roots of the maxillary central incisors. Which of the following cysts represents the most likely diagnosis? A. foreshortening of roots. elongation of teeth. Periapical D. foreshortening of crowns. dentigerous cyst. Median palatal C. Nasopalatine duct E. overlapping of interproximals C. Examination reveals a soft. Excitability of the second division of the fifth nerve . traumatic bone cyst.

Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Atrophy D. Effective energy of the resultant beam Hypertrophy of the mandibular condyle in an adult can result in each of the following EXCEPT one. a wellcircumscribed white patch appeared on the mucosa. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Ipsilateral posterior open bite D. Number of photons generated D. Hypertrophy Increasing mA setting of an x-ray unit raises which of the following? A. Anterior open bite B. Necrosis E. Voltage between anode and cathode E. . Keratosis B. Anterior crossbite C. Hyperplasia C. Asymmetric facial appearance The hamular notch is important in complete denture construction BECAUSE it aids the dentist in positioning the maxillary posterior teeth. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related. Unilateral Class III malocclusion E. Photon speed B. A. Deviation of the jaw to the painful side upon opening the mouth A patient placed an aspirin directly in the mandibular facial sulcus. Shortly afterward.E. Photon wavelength C.

Leukemia B. D. knife-edge mandibular residual ridge. a dentist should consider which of the following? A. Infectious mononucleosis C. Space regaining in the mandibular arch A patient has a chronically tender. Which of the following diagnoses is the MOST appropriate for this patient? A. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct. Sagittal C. but the reason is accurate. while the differential CBC reveals lymphocytes--68%. The statement is correct. The statement is NOT correct. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related. monocytes--28%. but the reason is NOT. A broad occlusal table--to provide a firmer contact in eccentric jaw relations A patient presents with spontaneous necrotizing ulcers of the oral cavity. Maximal extension of the denture--to distribute forces of occlusion over a greater area B. Decreased occlusal vertical dimension--to decrease biting forces D. Space regaining in the maxillary arch E. polymorphonuclear leukocytes--2%. Agranulocytosis D. Recurrent aphthous ulcers . Minimal extension of the denture--to limit tenderness to a smaller area C. C. eosinophils--l%. E. and basophils--l%.986.B. In fabricating a complete denture for this patient. The most common type of active tooth movement in the primary dentition is correction of which type of problem? A. Vertical B. Transverse D. The WBC is 1.

D. Use physical restraints D.Individuals who are cognitively disabled (e. Access to adjacent cavities is simplified. the second is FALSE. B.g. . those who have Down syndrome) sometimes have difficulty accepting dental care. It also affects the severity of chronic inflammatory periodontal disease. Diabetes C. In attempting to improve their cooperation. the second is TRUE. Refer the patient to a special care clinic Oral hygiene improvement in the presence of systemic or nutritional deficiencies affects the incidence of chronic inflammatory periodontal disease. Use graduated exposures to the dental setting C. C. Rheumatic fever E. A. B. The first statement is FALSE. A patient who has which of the following conditions is most likely to have postoperative bleeding after multiple extractions? A. Color matching is easier. Administer sedative agents B. Angina B. The first statement is TRUE. Both statements are FALSE. Chronic bronchitis Two adjacent cavities involving proximal contact can be prepared and restored with composite resin at one appointment for each of the following reasons EXCEPT one. C. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. the dentist should do which of the following as an initial therapy? A. Cirrhosis D. Restoration of contact is enhanced. Both statements are TRUE.

it is vault-shaped. the first and last dose in radiation therapy. Bone deposition on the posterior wall of the maxillary tuberosity A 50-year-old male presents with deep fibrotic pockets and angular bone loss. Bone resorption in the palatal vault B. . Apically repositioned flap A patient who is on dicumarol therapy requires a tooth extraction.At birth. C. Prothrombin time D. radiation exposure and onset of symptoms. film exposure and image development. By which of the following does this change occur? A. The dentist reflects a flap. Complete blood cell count In radiobiology. Which laboratory test is the most valuable in evaluating this patient's surgical risk? A. the palate is relatively flat. in adults. Gingivectomy B. Clotting time B. Sedimentation rate E. Growth of the maxillary sinuses C. Osseous grafts C. cell rest and cell mitosis. Deposition of the alveolar crestal bone D. B. and performs scaling and root planing. the "latent period" represents the period of time between A. Bleeding time C. Which procedure should the dentist do next? A. D. Modified Widman flap D. debrides the two and three-walled defects.

C. 4. gender and race. Erythroplakia E.5 C. B. generalization and facilitation. vertical C. White sponge nevus Which of the following planes of space are used to classify malocclusion? A. sagittal. Horizontal.5 B. vertical. dependence and independence. sagittal. Antero-posterior. 5.A broad understanding of the development of human behavior requires knowledge of the basic concepts of A. 6. Antero-posterior. coronal Before adhesion can take place between a liquid and a solid. diagonal B. transverse. Antero-posterior. . provide some mechanical interlocking with the solid. Leukoedema B. it is essential that the liquid surface A.5 Which of the following clinical lesions MOST often reveals histologic evidence of severe dysplasia or carcinoma in situ? A. vertical D. maturation and learning. D. What is the pH threshold level at which enamel demineralization occurs? A. Leukoplakia C. Lichen planus D.

and with no periradicular lesions. C. C. Which of the following generally describes children with defiant behavior? A. enter into some form of chemical reaction with the solid. bone. exhibit a large contact angle with the solid. D. mucosa. periosteum. and checking the occlusion B. They exhibit quiet sobbing with profuse tears. They usually exhibit tremors in voice when speaking. temporizing. A patient has a mandibular molar with pulp necrosis. The emergency treatment. performing apical trephination. for this tooth is which of the following? A. exhibit a small contact angle with the solid. D. Opening the tooth. Mesial D. They are usually around 3 years of age or younger. Prescribing analgesics and antibiotics and rescheduling the patient . B. B. Which of the following root surfaces is the most likely to be strip-perforated during canal instrumentation of the mesial root of a mandibular first molar? A. They are also referred to as stubborn or spoiled. muscle. D. C. Distal To increase the anterior mandibular vestibular depth. Lingual C.B. the practitioner places the mucosal graft directly on the A. Facial B. pain to percussion.

Performing pulpotomy. Which of the following patients should preferably be hospitalized for the oral surgery procedure indicated? A. A severely retarded patient. Esthetics Fixing solution functions to A. Stability D. blocking innervation to major salivary glands. A patient with a prosthetic cardiac valve. remove undeveloped silver salts. reducing sensitivity and anxiety during tooth preparation. Debriding the canals. accurate adaptation of the border of the maxillary facial flange affects which of the following the most? A. Speech B. B. Opening the tooth for drainage and leaving the tooth open Local anesthetics aid in reducing the flow of saliva during operative procedures by A. accelerate the film processing. who requires a single tooth removed. and an alveoloplasty procedure. temporizing. D. and checking the occlusion E. temporizing. blocking the cholinergic nerve endings. remove the atomic silver. reduce silver ions to metallic silver. . C. C. B.C. D. B. blocking efferent parasympathetic nerve pathways. Support C. and checking the occlusion D. who requires full mouth gingivectomy for treatment of phenytoin-induced hyperplasia. In a complete maxillary denture.

and advanced. chemical sterilizer for sterilizing dental instruments. Prazosin and propranolol D. B. Amphetamine and propranolol A cleft lip occurs following the failure of permanent union between which of the following? A. D. Which of the following combinations of agents would be necessary to block the cardiovascular effects produced by the injection of a sympathomimetic drug? A. 40 There are four basic stages in the pathogenesis of the periodontal lesion. this dentist must maintain a temperature of 132 degrees Celsius at 20 . Atropine and propranolol C.25 times the control time. established. Atropine and prazosin B. established. D. early. incipient. To effectively kill all microorganisms and spores. initial. early. C. initial. In progressing order. and advanced. early. they are A. Phenoxybenzamine and curare E. A patient on anticoagulant therapy whose present prothrombin time is 1. early. A dentist uses an unsaturated. incipient. established. 20 C. established. A juvenile diabetic whose disease is controlled by daily insulin injections. who requires removal of a single tooth.C. 10 B. and advanced. who requires removal of a chronically infected tooth. The palatine processes .40 psi for at LEAST how many minutes? A. and advanced. 30 D.

The maxillary processes C. pregnancy. B. C. The palatine process with the frontonasal process D. This phenomenon is known as A. puberty. C. "You incompetent 'creep'--you're responsible for this problem!". The maxillary process with the frontonasal process The highest incidence of fibrous gingival enlargement (hyperplasia) is related to A. D. . You thought the tooth could be restored and now this problem has occurred. D. A patient has two or more of her teeth joined only by cementum. I can see that you're very upset. D.Of the following possible responses the dentist could make. The maxillary process with the palatine process E. I can still restore your tooth adequately. a pulp exposure occurs. C.B. dilaceration. The patient angrily shouts at the dentist. diabetes. concrescence. gemination. Not when I'm preparing a tooth with caries like you had. fusion. which one is the most emphatic? A. I wouldn't have been close to the pulp. While the dentist is preparing a large carious lesion in Tooth #30 for a restoration. leukemia. Calm down. E. B. If you took care of your mouth the way you should. hypercementosis. medication. E. B.

C. D. start first with the least stable prosthesis. C. B. The severity of disease perceived by the patient affects patient compliance. Anterior maxilla B. but we must get on with the procedure. the second is TRUE . Hemorrhage B. Renal necrosis C. A. Posterior maxilla C. Both statements are FALSE. The first statement is TRUE. start first on the maxillary complete denture.E. Hepatic necrosis D. The recommended procedure is to A. Anterior mandible D. relate first the mandibular partial denture frame. Both statements are TRUE. Gastric ulceration E. make impressions of both simultaneously. Which of the following is the most serious toxic effect that is associated with overdose of acetaminophen? A. Respiratory alkalosis A patient needs relining of both maxillary complete denture and mandibular distal-extension partial denture. Posterior mandible Duration of treatment regimens affect patient compliance. B. I'm sorry this happened. the second is FALSE. In which of the following do adenomatoid odontogenic tumors MOST often occur? A. The first statement is FALSE. D.

Which of the following groups of muscles produces this movement? A. General anesthesia C. and lateral pterygoid C. temporal. Masseter. In this instance.The Centers for Disease Control (CDC) recommends that sterilizing units be monitored at which of the following intervals? A. digastric. Voice control . the dentist should use which of the following? A. Masseter. and lateral pterygoid D. Physical restraints B. Bi-weekly D. Digastric and geniohyoid B. The hand-over-mouth exercise D. Shape A fracture through the angle of the mandible can result in an upward displacement of the proximal fragment. and medial pterygoid During an emergency dental visit. Hue B. temporal. Value C. Daily B. Size E. Weekly C. Monthly An evaluation of which of the following represents the most important aspect in shade selection (for the restoration to match an existing dentition)? A. a moderately retarded 4-year-old child resists physically and cries excessively. Chroma D. Masseter.

0 gram penicillin V orally one hour before the dental procedure and 500 mg orally 6 hours later C. 1. C. hemangioma. angiosarcoma. more reliable oral absorption. 3. 1. Working D. Non-working Lymphangioma is MOST closely related to A. According to the American Heart Association. Protrusive B. C.A practitioner is restoring the mesio-occlusal marginal ridge of a maxillary left second molar. greater resistance to penicillinase. cystic hygroma. . B.0 gram amoxicillin one hour before the dental procedure and 500 mg orally 6 hours later D. B.0 grams amoxicillin orally one hour before the dental procedure and 1. D. If the marginal ridge is higher than the adjacent tooth. penicillin V has a A. slower renal excretion. D. which of the following prophylactic antibiotic regimens is recommended for a 20-kg child who has congenital heart disease? A. 1.5 grams orally 6 hours later When compared therapeutically to penicillin G. then it can create a problem in which of the following excursions? A. hemangiopericytoma. Retrusive C. broader antibacterial spectrum.0 gram amoxicillin orally one hour before the dental procedure and 500 mg 4 times a day for 2 days postoperatively B.

Mandibular molars C. Maxillary incisors B. Which of the following teeth are usually affected by nursing-bottle caries? A. Source-object distance A patient who has a Class III malocclusion presents for treatment. Each of the following is a helpful diagnostic aid to distinguish between maxillary retrusion and mandibular protrusion EXCEPT one. kVp C. Cephalometry . He has a temperature of 100 degrees Fahrenheit and has been in considerable pain for 24 hours. lower potential for allergic reaction. mA B. Extracting the maxillary right central incisor B. A radiograph reveals that the maxillary right central incisor has a deep unbased restoration and a widened apical periodontal ligament space. Incising and draining the swelling and prescribing antibiotics and analgesics A decrease in which of the following causes an increase in radiographic density? A. Object-film distance D. Debriding the root canal of the maxillary right central incisor and prescribing antibiotics and analgesics D. Administering an antibiotic and analgesic and initiating root canal therapy when symptoms subside C. while adjacent control teeth test within normal limits. Percussion of the maxillary right central incisor causes discomfort as does palpation at its apex. Mandibular incisors D. Photography B. Pulp vitality tests are negative for this tooth. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A.E. Which of the following is the best emergency treatment for this patient? A. Maxillary molars An adult healthy patient has a marked indurated swelling.

Clinical evaluation A dentist will use a buccal coil spring to regain space for a mandibular second premolar. Oral hairy leukoplakia . Only the surface of enamel In primary teeth. Pulp calcification B. Both dentin and enamel D. Gingival irritation C. Severe mobility of the tooth D. Formation of dentin bridges Each of the following diseases has been associated with the Epstein-Barr virus EXCEPT one. Periapical pathosis C. which. Study models D. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Internal resorption D. All of the enamel C. Burkitt's lymphoma B. Dentin only B.C. Which of the following is an undesirable side effect that is most commonly associated with this procedure? A. Tendency for the first premolar to rotate Tooth bleaching affects a color change in which of the following tooth parts? A. Pain B. of the following most often causes calcium hydroxide pulpotomies to fail? A. Tendency for the first molar to intrude E.

Hardness B. C. an ANB angle of 2 degrees usually signifies that the A. B. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Which of the following mechanical properties limits the amount of adjustment of a base metal removable clasp arm? A. Elongation D. relationship of the mandible to the cranium is favorable.C. . Superinfection C. C. Discoloration of newly forming teeth How do the surface characteristics of a restoration affect its perceived form? A. A surface smoother than normal will give the impression of a larger size. Horizontal highlights give an illusion of increased length. Adenoid cystic carcinoma In a 12-year-old. D. Visual disturbance E. Diarrhea B. Tensile strength Each of the following is a common side effect of prolonged tetracycline therapy EXCEPT one. relationship of the maxilla to the mandible is favorable. Stiffness C. B. Infectious mononucleosis D. cranial growth is poor. Increasing the value of the restoration makes the tooth appear smaller. incisors are upright. Photosensitivity D.

Degeneration C. Which of the following is the most common cause of intracapsular restraint of mandibular movement? A.D. Ankylosis C. Sialolithiasis C. Disc interference disorders A patient will receive a free gingival graft. The indirect retainers are not seated as the extension bases are depressed. There is soreness on the crest of the ridges. Orthokeratinization E. Vertical highlights give an illusion of increased width. Bilateral enlargement of the parotid glands characterizes each of the following conditions EXCEPT one. Dysplasia B. D. The acrylic resin teeth are abraded and the occlusal vertical dimension is decreased. Sjogren's syndrome D. B. Formation of keratohyalin granules . Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. C. Benign lymphoepithelial lesion E. Infection B. Malnutrition B. Proliferation D. Acute epidemic parotitis Which of the following best indicates that a removable partial denture needs to be relined? A. There is a loss of retention. The graft epithelium will undergo which of the following alterations? A.

Ameloblastic fibroma B. which of the following important factors should the dentist consider? A. Pulp necrosis E. Amount of translucent enamel present Children and adolescents are the LEAST likely to develop which of the following? A.Which of the following is most likely to cause a yellowish discoloration in a primary maxillary incisor following trauma? A. the dentist should find which of the following infiltrative local anesthetics to be safe and effective? A. Pulp chamber calcification A patient is allergic to both amide and ester anesthetic derivatives. Nitrous oxide D. Diphenhydramine E. For this patient. When choosing between restoring the incisal edges or reshaping by selective grinding. Pulp hyperemia C. Internal resorption D. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor C. Location of proximal contacts B. Blood pigments B. Shape of incisal embrasures C. Bupivacaine B. Ethylaminobenzoate A patient presents with slight chipping of the enamel along the incisal edges of Teeth #8 and #9. Phenylephrine C. Compound odontoma . Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor D.

In which of the following locations is its prognosis the LEAST favorable? A. Pulpotomy D. A. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) regulates the transportation of waste from the office. D. Floor of the mouth . A 6-year-old patient has a dark brown discoloration of his maxillary central incisor. the second is TRUE. The RPD will replace the second premolars and all molars on both sides. What is the treatment-of. The first statement is TRUE. C. Which of the following is the best method for recording centric relation? A. Both statements are FALSE. Manually articulate the casts and secure with sticky wax C. Pulpectomy C. Use a plaster record of the interdigitation of teeth B.choice? A. Use an occlusal rim made on the master cast to which is added a soft wax for the registration The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is concerned with regulated waste within the office. Direct pulp treatment Squamous cell carcinoma appears in a variety of locations. the second is FALSE.A dentist is restoring a patient's mandibular arch with a removable partial denture (RPD). Both statements are TRUE. Extraction B. The discoloration started following trauma accompanied with a facial sinus tract. B. Use a wax registration that covers premolars of the mandibular arch and anterior teeth E. Lower lip B. Use the framework that has an occlusal rim attached D. The first statement is FALSE.

More B. A sedative B.C. Poor patient cooperation . Less Fluoride therapy and occlusal sealants modify which of the following four factors the most? A. An opiate D. Time C. Substrate D. As a result. Microflora Which of the following drugs produces sufficient central nervous system depression to cause a state of sleep from which one may be aroused? A. Compared to the degree of tissue covered by an actual long cone. the dentist moves the machine away from the patient's face so the source-object distance is 40 cm and adjusts the exposure time appropriately. Excessive deep bite C. the x-ray machine is equipped with only a short cone (20 cm PID). An anesthetic Which of the following usually causes the slow progress in molar uprighting in an adult patient? A. Appliance friction B. Host B. Occlusal interferences D. Buccal mucosa Although a dentist wishes to use the long-cone paralleling technique (40 cm source-object distance). The same C. A hypnotic C. this "extended" short cone exposes what amount of tissue? A. Hard palate D.

Procaine C. Stomach cramping Which of the following is the OPTIMAL reduction for the lingual cusp on Tooth #3 to receive an MODL onlay? A. 2. 1. Lungs B. Cocaine B. 1. Blurred vision E.E.5 mm C. Bones D. Bupivacaine . Diarrhea C. Sedation B. which has intrinsic vasoconstrictive actions? A.5 mm Of the following local anesthetics. Xylocaine D. the patient might experience which of the following side effects? A. 2. Liver C.0 mm B. As a result of this medication. Bradycardia D. Lack of anchorage control Squamous cell carcinoma of the tongue MOST commonly metastasizes to which of the following? A.0 mm D. a dentist has prescribed atropine. Cervical nodes To reduce a patient's salivary flow.

a flail chest. are you?" This is an example of which type of question? A. C. an orthodontic appliance must be A. Open D. intermittent forces. capable of exerting positive. Lingual surfaces of maxillary incisors C. a dentist asks a patient. Leading B. Lingual surfaces of mandibular incisors B. Which of the following conditions can cause delayed eruption of permanent teeth? A. Funneling To be effective in translating the roots of teeth. Cherubism B. Lingual surfaces of maxillary molars D. Hyperparathyroidism D. capable of exerting a torque or moment. D. B. very gentle in action. pneumothorax. "You are not afraid of dentistry. . Facial surfaces of mandibular molars Inhalation of 100% oxygen is contraindicated for a person who has A. Hyperthyroidism C. B. Closed C. Paget's disease of bone Class I carious lesions are the LEAST likely to occur on which of the following? A.During an interview. augmented with extraoral force.

Clindamycin B. A vital permanent tooth has an irreversible pulpitis and an open apex. Indirect pulp therapy C. Formocresol pulpotomy B. Which of the following antibiotics is found at much higher concentrations in crevicular fluid than in serum? A. B. Ameloblastoma B. Which of the following represents the treatment-of-choice for this tooth? A. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy . Cementoblastoma C. Tetracycline Which of the following exhibits neoplasia of both the epithelial and connective tissue components? A. facial cusps of mandibular molars. Ameloblastic fibroma D. D. acute viral pneumonia. Metronidazole D.C. Penicillin C. chronic obstructive lung disease. E. facial cusps of maxillary molars. facial cusps of maxillary premolars. acute bronchitis. lingual cusps of mandibular molars. C. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor Non-working interferences usually occur on the inner aspects of the A. D.

D. Conventional root canal therapy
E. Apexification
Each of the following is associated with Sjogren's syndrome EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
A. Arthritis
B. Xerostomia
C. Cervical caries
D. Warthin's tumor
E. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
A permanent tooth with a mature apex has become intruded deeply into the bone. As a result of
this trauma, which of the following pulpal changes is the most likely to occur?
A. Necrosis
B. Internal resorption
C. Calcific metamorphosis
D. Transient inflammation
Trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux) is characterized by
A. paralysis of one side of the face.
B. uncontrollable twitching of one eye.
C. sharp, excruciating pain of short duration.
D. prolonged episodes of pain in one side of the face.
E. dull pain when pressure is applied over the affected area.
An individual has just received the first in a series of three hepatitis B vaccines. For the
seroconversion of this series to be the most effective, the person should receive the second and
third vaccinations how many months later?
A. Second vaccination one month later, third vaccination three months later

B. Second vaccination one month later, third vaccination six months later
C. Second vaccination two months later, third vaccination three months later
D. Second vaccination three months later, third vaccination six months later
Each of the following statements describes intracanal instruments and their action EXCEPT one.
Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A. A K-type file can be used in a filing and reaming action, while a reamer can be used in
only a reaming action.
B. Clockwise-turning of a root canal instrument will force debris in an apical direction,
while counterclockwise-turning will cause debris to move in a coronal direction out of
the canal.
C. A reaming action will enlarge a root canal and produce a cross-sectional preparation that
is approximately round in shape.
D. An intracanal instrument is more susceptible to breakage if locked in dentin and then
rotated.
The usual metabolic pathway of ingested fluoride involves urinary excretion primarily, with the
remaining portion found largely in
A. teeth.
B. muscle tissues.
C. skeletal tissues.
D. epidermal tissues.
Pain that has no organic basis and that is fixed upon some portion of the anatomy is usually
referred to as
A. false.
B. psychogenic.
C. referred.
D. phantom.
In MOST instances, intraoral verruca vulgaris develops as the result of

A. trauma.
B. pipe smoking.
C. autoinoculation.
D. chronic alcoholism.
What happens to the permanent molar occlusion in the presence of a flush (straight) terminal
plane and mandibular primate spaces?
A. Erupts end-to-end; early mesial shift into Class I occlusion
B. Erupts end-to-end; late mesial shift into Class I occlusion
C. Erupts with Class II tendency
D. Erupts with Class III tendency
A patient presents for try-in evaluation of balanced occlusion of complete maxillary and
mandibular dentures. A dentist notes that protrusive excursion results in separation of posterior
teeth. This dentist can best correct this problem by
A. changing the condylar inclination.
B. increasing the incisal guidance.
C. increasing the compensating curve.
D. using a flat plane cusp for the posterior teeth.
Which of the following mucocutaneous disorders is characterized by (1) degeneration of the
basal cell layer, (2) "saw-tooth" rete pegs, and (3) a dense mononuclear inflammatory-cell
infiltrate in the subepithelial connective tissue?
A. Lichen planus
B. Erythema multiforme
C. Keratosis follicularis
D. Dermatitis herpetiformis
E. Benign mucous membrane pemphigoid

An individual's mandible is growing forward less than the maxilla. Each of the following will be
an appropriate treatment strategy EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A. Stimulating the mandibular growth
B. Inhibiting the maxillary growth
C. Redirecting the maxillary growth
D. Retracting the mandibular teeth
E. Retracting the maxillary teeth
Nausea and vomiting that are associated with administration of opioid analgesics is the result of
stimulation of the
A. limbic system.
B. emetic center.
C. chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ).
D. opioid receptors in the G.I. tract.
Orange stain is used to
A. change the hue of porcelain color.
B. increase the interproximal translucency.
C. increase the value of porcelain color.
D. decrease the chroma of porcelain color.
Vesicular lesions precede the formation of ulcers in each of the following EXCEPT one. Which
one is this EXCEPTION?
A. Herpangina
B. Herpes zoster
C. Herpetic stomatitis
D. Aphthous stomatitis
E. Hand-foot-and-mouth disease

B. Reduce moisture leakage into the cavity preparation When is the appropriate time to correct a crossbite of a permanent maxillary central incisor? A. angulation of finish lines. C. When is the appropriate time to take the first bite-wing radiographs of a clinically caries-free child? . maxillary sinus. nasal bone. Protect the gingival tissue B. D. C. After all anterior teeth are erupted D. After the tooth is fully erupted C. E. After the opposite central incisor has erupted Parallelism of abutment preparations is determined by the A. Provide space for the matrix band C. and the left side of the nose following a fracture of his midface. cheek. volume of chamfer. This symptom follows a fracture through the A. zygomatic arch.A properly trimmed wooden wedge will do each of the following EXCEPT one. D. When the tooth is erupting B. long axis of the preparations. long axis of natural teeth. B. infraorbital rim. degree of convergence. A patient experiences numbness of the left upper lip. Prevent overcontouring of the contact area D. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A.

Cerebral palsy B. C. specificity. B. D. Which condition is characterized by lesions in the central nervous system that manifests itself as various types of neuromuscular dysfunction? A. Hyperkinesis (attention deficit disorder) In a restorative problem involving all teeth in the mouth. It is a trauma that produces irreversible damage to the periodontium. When the permanent first molars have erupted D. Down syndrome C. Mobility is caused by excessive forces on a reduced periodontium. D. A learning disability D. anterior teeth only. C. . potency. incisal guidance. The maximal or "ceiling" effect of a drug is also correctly referred to as the drug's A. B. B.A. It is the first incidence of trauma that a tooth experiences. When the entire primary dentition is completely erupted C. At the first dental examination Which of the following describes primary occlusal trauma? A. the protrusive condylar path inclination has a primary influence on the A. When spaces between the posterior teeth have closed B. Mobility is caused by excessive forces on a normal periodontium. efficacy. agonism.

has no vertical components. mesial inclines of the maxillary cusps. 300-500. mesial inclines of the mandibular cusps. C. is incised at the junction of attached gingival tissue and free mucosa. Four to six years C. Maxillary second premolars E. 0. Maxillary lateral incisors B.0. In mg/kg body weight. D. Mandibular first premolars D. Birth to age three years B. D. . B. Seven to nine years D. 20-50. B. C. has anterior and posterior vertical components. Which of the following teeth are the least likely to have more than one canal? A. Maxillary second molars Child abuse/neglect most commonly involves children in which age group? A.C. the lethal dose of fluoride falls in the range of A. This dentist should use an envelope flap design that A. has an anterior vertical component only.5-1. D. A dentist will remove a mandibular lingual torus from a patient's premolar region. Mandibular lateral incisors C. All age groups are equally affected. 100-200.

decrease radiation to the patient. extrude. The most likely reason for this is the A. D. Intensifying screens are used with extraoral radiographic films to A. B. translate. D. B. Obtaining blood samples for serology D. C. the margins are all open. porcelain proximal contact areas are over-contoured If the line of force were applied through a tooth's center of resistance. rotate. increase kVp. Obtaining labial gland biopsy The dentist tried-in the metal framework for a porcelain fused-to-metal crown and the margins were closed.Each of the following will assist a dentist in diagnosing or assessing Sjogren's syndrome EXCEPT one. B. . increase exposure time. E. C. D. Obtaining sialograms B. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. the tooth would A. die was overtrimmed. casting distorted during the porcelain application. When the completed crown was returned from the lab. Determining salivary flow rate E. improve image quality. C. Performing exfoliative cytology C. lab cut off the margins. tip. intrude.

An edentulous patient has mobile. No specific condition . aching pain on the side of his face. Pulp necrosis B. psychoneurosis. The MOST probable diagnosis is A. Which of the following pulp therapies is the most appropriate for this patient? A. hyperplastic tissue in her maxillary anterior region. creating a small (1 mm) pulp exposure for about 30 minutes. Pulpotomy with formocresol D. Prolonged. Pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide A 50-year-old man complains of a burning. D. A patient's permanent tooth crown fractures. An examination reveals small white scars in the preauricular region. unstimulated night pain suggests which of the following conditions of the pulp? A. Reversible pulpitis D. the dentist should A. Direct pulp capping with calcium hydroxide C. He experiences paresthesia and itching in the same area. if necessary B. auriculotemporal syndrome. B. use the closed-mouth technique. Bell's palsy. use a high-fusing impression compound. C. In making impressions for this patient. B. Pulpectomy and apexification. post-herpetic neuralgia. register the tissue in its passive position. Mild hyperemia C. involve maximum pressure. D. C.

the retainer not involved with the keyway. Amelogenesis imperfecta E. (4) periapical granulomas and cysts. C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta When a nonrigid connector is used in a fixed partial denture. Regional odontodysplasia D. fluoride consumption. C. burnishability. castability. ADA certification. Dentin dysplasia C. diet. Green and orange stains on maxillary incisors can usually be attributed to A. B. (3) defective root formation. D. tarnish susceptibility. poor oral hygiene. B. but exhibit (1 ) globular dentin. the retainer carrying the keyway. E. mechanical properties.Some teeth appear to be clinically normal. the path of insertion of the key into the keyway should be parallel to the path(s) of insertion of A. B. Which of the following cysts is the LEAST likely to be visible radiographically? . (2) very early pulpal obliteration. and (5) premature exfoliation. The best measure of the potential clinical performance of a casting alloy is its A. The condition is known as which of the following? A. C. both retainers. Shell teeth B. drugs. D.

Alteration of the oral microflora Currently. Opioids B. Ultimate strength C. Nasopalatine C. Benzodiazepines E. Stiffness or rigidity B. Anticholinergics Which of the following is measured by the modulus of elasticity? A. Lateral periodontal D. Ductility or malleability Which of the following represent(s) the serious effects of a repeated exposure to low doses of X radiation? A. the best oral sedative drugs for dentistry fall into the class of A. Diarrhea and dehydration D. Traumatic bone Which drug group is the least likely to cause xerostomia? A.A. . Antidepressants C. Nasolabial B. barbiturates. Yield strength D. B. Purpura B. Antihistaminics D. narcotics. Carcinogenesis C.

phenothiazines. Low affinity. Mandibular first molar The rate at which new disease occurs is classified as which of the following? A. D. Mandibular first premolar C. high intrinsic activity B. benzodiazepines. Pain to palpation of the buccal mucosa near the tooth ape . High affinity.C. Incidence B. Pain to lateral percussion with a wide sulcular pocket C. high intrinsic activity C. Maxillary second premolar B. rather than an endodontic problem. Mandibular second premolar D. no intrinsic activity D. exists? A. Acute pain to percussion with no swelling B. low intrinsic activity The amalgam preparation outline for the primary mandibular second molar closely resembles that for which permanent tooth? A. High affinity. No affinity. Prevalence C. A deep narrow sulcular pocket to the apex with exudate D. Which of the following best describes the drug-receptor activity of naloxone? A. Extent D. Attributable risk Which of the following conditions indicates that a periodontal.

The primary teeth have a marked cervical constriction. The enamel rods in the gingival third of the primary first molars extend occlusally. BECAUSE the light source must contain the wavelength of the color to be matched in order to see that color. B. The dentist notes minor recurrent caries along the faciocervical amalgam margin. The statement is NOT correct. C. E. C. Replace the restoration B. Calcification C. Histodifferentiation The light source affects the perception of color. . D. but the reason is accurate. Which of the following is the treatment-of-choice? A. Proliferation D. Apposition B. B. D. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related. Observe at recall The proximal portion of a Class II cavity preparation in a primary molar extends rather deep gingivally. Repair the defect C.An 82-year-old woman presents with a large four-surface pin-retained amalgam restoration on Tooth #3. A satisfactory gingival seat may NOT be obtained because of which of the following? A. but the reason is NOT. The proximal contact of primary molars is broad and flat. During which stage of tooth development is the cariostatic effect of fluoride manifested? A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related. A. The facial and lingual surfaces of primary molars converge occlusally. The statement is correct. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct. Prepare the tooth for a crown D.

the filament becomes positively charged. C. The urine volume is decreased. Dipole-dipole bonding D. Covalent bonding B.000 degrees Centigrade. D. Expansion D. . Hydrogen bonding C. C. The percentage of salicylic acid that is ionized in urine is decreased. the anode is heated above 3. Decreasing urine pH usually increases the renal excretion of weak acids. van der Waal's forces Which of the following best explains why the renal excretion of salicylic acid is increased in an alkaline urine? A. Electrostatic bonding E. B. D. X-rays are produced when A. Rotation C. electrons strike the anode.Orthodontic correction of which of the following is the most easily retained? A. Anterior crossbite E. Diastema B. Generalized spacing Which of the following types of chemical bonding is the least likely to be involved in a drugreceptor interaction? A. B. The percentage of salicylic acid that is ionized in urine is increased. protons strike the anode.

When you don't help with the clean-up. replace it in the canal. The crown of an endodontically-treated maxillary lateral incisor is fractured near the gingival margin. pathognomonic of grand mal epilepsy. The coronal end of the silver cone used in filling that canal is visible at that level. D.A member of the dental staff routinely fails to clean up his work area. To prepare it alongside the silver cone using burs and Peeso reamers. B. and "twist-off" the coronal segment. pathognomonic of intravascular injection of a local anesthetic The axial wall of an occlusolingual amalgam preparation on a maxillary molar should be in dentin and A. If you refuse to do your part. Which of the following best exemplifies an assertive message that could be made by a co-worker? A. Which of the following is the best way to obtain the needed post space? A. . usually caused by the epinephrine in the local anesthetic. To remove the silver cone and re-treat the canal using a gutta-percha technique. The occurrence of a brief convulsion is A. After receiving one cartridge of a local anesthetic. D. a healthy adult patient became unconscious in the dental chair. I'm just going to have to report the situation to the boss. C. To carefully grind away the coronal part of the silver cone using round burs or endcutting burs. C. E. Is something bothering you? You sometimes forget to clean up. I hope you'll remember to help me clean up today. To remove the silver cone. C. notch it 4 mm from the apical end. it makes me angry because I have to do both your work and my own. I'm tired of cleaning up your mess! D. coat it with freshly mixed sealer. consistent with a diagnosis of syncope. B. B. parallel to the dentinoenamel junction. and then to create the needed post space. The findings reveal that the existing root canal filling meets all criteria to be judged successful.

A distortion of the metal during firing D. Nance holding arch C. B. Median palatal C. Nasolabial B. Proximal contacts being too tight C. which of the following appliances should be used as a space maintainer for missing primary molars in the mandibular arch? A. at an acute angle with the pulpal floor. a steel ligature around the two teeth. An expansion of the porcelain during firing . Each of the following developmental cysts appears on radiographs EXCEPT one. Globulomaxillary D. Removable acrylic functional Accepted methods for closing a diastema between maxillary central incisors include using either a removable appliance with finger springs or A. During the mixed dentition stage. bonded brackets with intertooth traction. C. a rubber elastic around the two teeth. the dentist observes that the gingival-margin finish-line integrity is excellent. parallel to the long axis of the tooth.B. Passive lingual arch D. C. but that the occlusal surface is 1 mm too high. Incorrectly related casts B. Nasopalatine When trying-in a porcelain fused-to-metal crown. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Which of the following is the most probable cause? A. Distal shoe B.

C-1q inhibitor C.The Health Belief Model attempts to explain patient recommendations by A. Repeating periodically the message on the value of flossing D. focusing on the doctor-patient relationship. Which of the following represents the MOST effective way of encouraging a child to floss regularly? A. for example. emphasizing the barriers that are external to behavior change. Arranging for the child to earn privileges for flossing C. Presenting a message that concerns the potential loss of teeth. in the mesial and occlusal line angles. C. Which of the following systems is thought to malfunction in the hereditary form of angioneurotic edema? A. in the axio-occlusal and axiogingival line angles at the expense of the axial wall. D. C-1 esterase B. D. CH50 consumption D. B. Serine phosphatase E. payment mechanisms. focusing on patients' skills at carrying out recommendations. examining patients' perceptions of disease-seriousness and of the treatment effectiveness. into the mesial and distal walls. C. Complement synthetase . retention form is gained A. should the patient not floss B. in the axio-occlusal and axiogingival line angles at the expense of the occlusal and gingival walls. Providing written material that explains the mechanism of flossing In an ideal Class V cavity preparation for amalgam in a mandibular premolar. B.

the anterior fragment of the mandible is displaced posteriorly by the action of the geniohyoid and by which other muscles? A. The relative solubility of the drug in the tissues Which of the following is MOST appropriate for testing differences between the means of two groups? A. 2000 B. Thyrohyoid and mylohyoid only B. the retentive clasp tips should A. 4000 C. Genioglossus and anterior bellies of the digastric The number of persons who die each year from oral cancer in the United States approximates A. Student's t-test When a removable partial denture is terminally seated. Chi-square test B. Multiple regression analysis C. 8000 D. The blood flow to various organs and tissues D. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. .Following a bilateral mandibular fracture in the canine region. mylohyoid. and anterior bellies of the digastric D. The binding of a drug to plasma proteins C. Thyrohyoid. Genioglossus and mylohyoid C. The intrinsic activity of the drug B. 16000 Each of the following parameters has an effect on the distribution of a drug EXCEPT one. be invisible. Correlation coefficient analysis D.

. The depth of the clinical gingival sulcus is the distance from the gingival margin to the A. resist torque through the long axis of the teeth.B. interstitial bone growth. sensitivity of the medullary respiratory center to carbon dioxide. C. you can save yourself pain and money. Additional space for successive eruption of permanent maxillary molars is provided by A. bottom of the sulcus in well-preserved histologic block sections. D. You don't want lots of cavities. B. C. continuous expansion of the dental arch due to sutural growth. D. apply retentive force into the body of the teeth. sensitivity of aortic and carotid chemoreceptors to blood oxygen concentration. most apical extension of the junctional epithelium. You really should spend the time it takes to brush and floss. an increase in palatal vault height due to alveolar growth. most apical penetration of the periodontal probe. cementoenamel junction. The decrease in ventilation caused by morphine and by some of the related opioids depends chiefly upon a decrease in A. B. Which of the following responses made by the dentist is the MOST likely to increase a patient's adherence to oral hygiene prescriptions? A. do you? B. exert no force. B. C. appositional growth at the maxillary tuberosity. C. C. blood PC02 concentration. D. D. medullary endorphin activity. If you take my advice.

Stain B. Bullous pemphigoid C. Dentin C. What do you see as some of the problems with this approach? E. Water B. I can assure you that this approach is quick and easy. Sulfide solution D. D. Pemphigus vulgaris D. Sodium hypochlorite solution The soft tissue-tooth interface that forms most frequently after flap surgery in an area previously denuded by inflammatory disease is a A. White sponge nevus E. connective tissue attachment Which of the following is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait? A. Amalgam scrap should be stored in a tightly-sealed container and covered with which of the following? A. B. Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita Which of the following is the primary substance or material removed during root planing? A. long junctional epithelium. Glycerin C. Plaque . reattachment by scar. collagen adhesion. C. Lichen planus B.D.

the second is FALSE. The first statement is TRUE. Which of the following characterize(s) the histopathologic changes in chronic gingivitis? A.D. The most probable diagnosis is A. Both statements are TRUE. degree of translucency. A strong positive association between specific nutritional deficiencies and the presence of periodontal disease in children and adults has been demonstrated. C. An inflammatory infiltrate in which macrophages predominate C. An inflammatory infiltrate in which neutrophilic leukocytes and mast cells predominate D. Most epidemiologic studies indicate that gingivitis in children is relatively common. an elderly patient complains of black-and-blue marks on her neck. degree of grayness. thrombocytopenia. Cementum Three days after full mouth extraction. The first statement is FALSE. Calculus E. C. B. postoperative ecchymosis. A. Chroma is that aspect of color that signifies the A. The destruction of the principal fibers of the periodontal ligament . B. degree of saturation of the hue. C. capillary fragility. Both statements are FALSE. B. D. hematoma formation. D. combined effect of the hue and value. The loss of rete pegs and the dissolution of the basement membrane B. the second is TRUE. D.

propranolol. when administered intravenously. Correlational studies B. Hyperparathyroidism D. Fentanyl B. Case reports D. The disruption of the gingival fibers and an inflammatory infiltrate of plasma cells. Histiocytosis-X C. Letterer-Siwe disease E. Diazepam C. is LEAST likely to produce respiratory depression? A. Which of the following drugs.E. B. Meperidine . and neutrophilic leukocytes Which of the following most strongly suggest cause-and-effect relationships? A. quinidine. Osteogenesis imperfecta The drug-of-choice for the treatment of adrenergically-induced arrhythmias is A. Epidemiologic surveys Spontaneous osteogenic sarcoma is associated with which of the following disease processes of bone? A. Paget's disease B. Controlled clinical trials C. lidocaine. lymphocytes. C. phenytoin. D. Thiopental D.

Inferiorly. anteriorly. Changing from Group D to Group E film B. B. Caries B. and inferiorly C. posteriorly. Using an automatic rather than manual processing switch D. Superiorly. It makes the metal casting larger than the wax pattern so that the casting will fit the tooth tightly. It allows for the shrinkage of the molten metal and the wax pattern. Inferiorly. and laterally A dentist who is planning to restore a tooth with gold alloy desires a certain amount of expansion in the casting investment mold. anteriorly. C. and superiorly B. . Trauma C. and medially D. Which of the following best explains why this expansion is desirable? A. Adding a cervical collar to a leaded apron Premature exfoliation of a primary mandibular canine is most often the sequela of which of the following? A. Switching from round to rectangular collimation C. posteriorly. It compensates for the shrinkage of the molten metal as it cools in the mold.E. Laterally. Serial tooth extraction D. Arch length inadequacy In lateral movements. the non-working condyle moves in what direction? A. Pentobarbital Which of the following safety techniques provides the GREATEST DECREASE in overall radiation-risk to patients? A.

C. derives energy from enamel constituents. require less mercury. so there is more matrix formed. Osteomas of the skull and jaws A practitioner who is restoring a tooth with composites wishes to be sure that the matrix has adhered to the filler. high modulus of elasticity. forms a gelatinous matrix. hydrophilic nature. have little or no tin-mercury phase. Intraoral pigmentation C. metabolizes substrate from saliva.The dentist is using polyether material to make impressions. The physical property of this material that should concern this dentist is the A. D. C. Which of the following agents adheres the resin matrix to the filler? . B. C. B. B. Streptococcus mutans is considered to be a principal etiologic agent of caries because it produces organic acids and it A. D. Which of the following best explains how high-copper amalgam restorations differ from conventional amalgam restorations? The high-copper restorations A. are unaffected by moisture contamination in the presence of zinc What do Gardner syndrome and cleidocranial dysplasia have in common? A. Impacted supernumerary teeth D. corrode at an accelerated rate due to increased copper content. lives symbiotically with Lactobacillus acidophilus. extended setting time. Intestinal polyps B. D. coefficient of thermal conductivity.

nasopalatine cyst. Demonstrating inactivation of the tuberculosis bacterium The integrity of the floor of the antrum is at greatest risk with surgery involving the removal of (a) A. Determining the ability of the sterilizer to kill the hepatitis B virus E. Scatter from the cone D. Activating An operator has chosen to use a shielded open-ended cone. E. maxillary third molar. Coupling C. Recording the temperature and/or pressure readings from the sterilizer gauges C. Using a chemical indicator strip or pouch B. torus palatinus. Catalyzing D. Scatter from the patient's face Which of the following provides the best guarantee for sterilization in a heat sterilizer? A. C.A. D. Using bacterial spore tests D. Leakage from the x-ray machine head B. Which of the following is the principal nonverbal cue that two or more people can use to regulate verbal communication? . Scatter from the operatory walls C. single remaining maxillary molar. supernumerary teeth from the maxillary canine region. B. Which of the following will contribute the most to patient gonadal dose? A. Wetting B.

vertical dimension. Medial pterygoid D. Do you have any questions about this approach? C. Lateral pterygoid C. Is this approach OK with you? The distolingual extension of a mandibular impression for a complete denture is limited by the action of which of the following muscles? A.A. B. Which of the following questions is the MOST likely to elicit this information? A. D. centric occlusion (maximum intercuspation). Body position When the mandible is in its physiologic rest position. Eye contact D. Stylohyoid B. What benefits or drawbacks do you see in this approach? D. Do you understand what I mean? B. interocclusal distance. Bell's palsy B. Movement C. Superior constrictor A defect in neuromuscular transmission causes which of the following? A. Myasthenia gravis . Posture B. the distance between the occluding surfaces of the maxillary and mandibular teeth or occlusion rims is A. The practitioner would like to learn whether or not a patient understands the treatment plan. vertical dimension of rest. C.

loosely attached areas of the oral mucosa. E. tissue anywhere in the oral mucosa. Straight chisel B. The medial pterygoid muscle B. loosely attached areas of the oral mucosa. The deep fibers of the masseter muscle D. Muscular dystrophy D. such as the soft palate and D. including both loosely. B. Which of the following structures was most probably injured? A. such as the hard palate and the attached gingiva. The inferior head of the lateral pterygoid muscle Lesions of recurrent herpetic stomatitis are usually found mainly on A. Bibeveled hatchet Which of the following most accurately describes the effect of individual plaque control instructions that are conducted in the classroom? . Trigeminal neuralgia The day after receiving an inferior alveolar nerve block. tightly attached areas of the oral mucosa. such as the buccal mucosa and the floor of the mouth. Multiple sclerosis E. Binangle chisel C. the alveolar mucosa. The posterior belly of the digastric muscle E. C. The stylomandibular ligament C.C.and tightly-attached areas. Which of the following instruments should be used to plane the facio-proximal cavosurface margin of a standard Class II preparation on a mandibular molar? A. a patient experiences limited ability to open his mouth. Enamel hatchet D.

No historical radiographs are available. The fragment is 3 mm long and is tightly lodged. C. a small periapical radiolucency is evident. Polyacrylic acid E. and there is no associated sinus tract. The root canal filling appears to be satisfactory. Apicoectomy and apical amalgam E. No radiographic changes at the apex are evident. D. Ion-leachable glass . perform an apicoectomy and place a reverse filling. However. resect the apical section of the root containing the broken instrument. the tooth is asymptomatic. A long-term decrease in gingivitis C. Which of the following is indicated? A.A. extract the tooth. A new patient had root canal therapy performed seven months ago in another country. Nonsurgical retreatment C. Zinc oxide B. Polysiloxane C. Re-evaluation in six months D. A long-term decrease in caries An endodontic instrument separated in the apical third of a root canal. Incision and drainage B. A short-term decrease in gingivitis B. complete the root canal filling to the level of the instrument and observe. B. A short-term decrease in caries D. The practitioner should A. Phosphoric acid D. Prescription of an appropriate antibiotic Which of the following do polycarboxylate and glass ionomer have in common? A.

D. C. The surface flaws have been removed. is it? An endodontically-treated permanent mandibular first molar has incipient lesions on its mesial and distal surfaces. This visit is going really well. I like it when you sit quietly in the chair. MOD amalgam. B. MOD cast gold inlay. As a result of this procedure. Which of the following explains why? A. Coming to the dentist isn't so bad after all. The stiffness has increased. 3/4 crown. You're doing a great job for me today. D. a minimal amount of tooth structure was removed. Retinal damage D. C. Cataracts C. MOD cast gold onlay. During previous treatment. The appropriate treatment for this tooth is a (an) A.A practitioner has burnished a margin. B. . The light from visible-fight polymerization units can cause which of the following? A. B. The grains have elongated. Iritis B. The gold has work-hardened. Corneal ulcerations Which of the following responses made to a child is MOST likely to reinforce positively the child's appropriate behavior in the dental setting? A. C. full crown. E. but less ductile. the dental casting gold has become stronger. don't you think? D.

knife-edge mandibular residual ridge. anterior maxillary osteotomy. Space regaining in the mandibular arch A patient has a chronically tender. a dentist should consider which of the following? E. This deformity is the result of a maxillary deficiency. Minimal extension of the denture--to limit tenderness to a smaller area . C. The statement is correct. orthodontics. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related. but the reason is accurate. The treatment-of -choice is A. E. surgical repositioning of the mandible. D. The most common type of active tooth movement in the primary dentition is correction of which type of problem? F. Vertical G. In fabricating a complete denture for this patient. F. G. posterior maxillary osteotomy. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct. Maximal extension of the denture--to distribute forces of occlusion over a greater area F. B. The hamular notch is important in complete denture construction BECAUSE it aids the dentist in positioning the maxillary posterior teeth. but the reason is NOT.A patient has a skeletal deformity with a Class III malocclusion. surgical repositioning of the maxilla. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related. J. I. Sagittal H. The statement is NOT correct. H. Space regaining in the maxillary arch J. Transverse I.

while the differential CBC reveals lymphocytes--68%.986. polymorphonuclear leukocytes--2%. In attempting to improve their cooperation. the dentist should do which of the following as an initial therapy? E. H. and basophils--l%. A broad occlusal table--to provide a firmer contact in eccentric jaw relations A patient presents with spontaneous necrotizing ulcers of the oral cavity. Infectious mononucleosis G. Refer the patient to a special care clinic Oral hygiene improvement in the presence of systemic or nutritional deficiencies affects the incidence of chronic inflammatory periodontal disease. The first statement is TRUE. Use physical restraints H. Angina . The first statement is FALSE. the second is FALSE. A patient who has which of the following conditions is most likely to have postoperative bleeding after multiple extractions? F.g. Administer sedative agents F. Decreased occlusal vertical dimension--to decrease biting forces H. Recurrent aphthous ulcers Individuals who are cognitively disabled (e. Agranulocytosis H. monocytes--28%. F. The WBC is 1. Both statements are TRUE. Which of the following diagnoses is the MOST appropriate for this patient? E. the second is TRUE.G. Both statements are FALSE. those who have Down syndrome) sometimes have difficulty accepting dental care. E. Use graduated exposures to the dental setting G. It also affects the severity of chronic inflammatory periodontal disease. eosinophils--l%. Leukemia F. G.

it is vault-shaped. Rheumatic fever J. Which procedure should the dentist do next? E.G. in adults. and performs scaling and root planing. Apically repositioned flap A patient who is on dicumarol therapy requires a tooth extraction. Which one is this EXCEPTION? D. Access to adjacent cavities is simplified. debrides the two and three-walled defects. The dentist reflects a flap. Chronic bronchitis Two adjacent cavities involving proximal contact can be prepared and restored with composite resin at one appointment for each of the following reasons EXCEPT one. Deposition of the alveolar crestal bone H. Gingivectomy F. Modified Widman flap H. the palate is relatively flat. Clotting time . Growth of the maxillary sinuses G. E. By which of the following does this change occur? E. Bone resorption in the palatal vault F. Cirrhosis I. Color matching is easier. At birth. Bone deposition on the posterior wall of the maxillary tuberosity A 50-year-old male presents with deep fibrotic pockets and angular bone loss. Restoration of contact is enhanced. Osseous grafts G. Diabetes H. F. Which laboratory test is the most valuable in evaluating this patient's surgical risk? F.

gender and race. cell rest and cell mitosis. Sedimentation rate J. the first and last dose in radiation therapy. film exposure and image development.5 Which of the following clinical lesions MOST often reveals histologic evidence of severe dysplasia or carcinoma in situ? F. A broad understanding of the development of human behavior requires knowledge of the basic concepts of E. 5. H. Leukoedema G.5 E. G.G. the "latent period" represents the period of time between E. radiation exposure and onset of symptoms. Complete blood cell count In radiobiology.5 F. dependence and independence. generalization and facilitation. Bleeding time H. G. 6. 4. F. Leukoplakia H. Prothrombin time I. Lichen planus . maturation and learning. H. F. What is the pH threshold level at which enamel demineralization occurs? D.

mucosa. . Horizontal. exhibit a large contact angle with the solid. G. Lingual G. White sponge nevus Which of the following planes of space are used to classify malocclusion? E. H. diagonal F. Distal To increase the anterior mandibular vestibular depth. G. sagittal. F. sagittal. Mesial H. vertical G. muscle. coronal Before adhesion can take place between a liquid and a solid. Erythroplakia J. exhibit a small contact angle with the solid.I. vertical H. H. bone. Antero-posterior. vertical. it is essential that the liquid surface E. F. Antero-posterior. Which of the following root surfaces is the most likely to be strip-perforated during canal instrumentation of the mesial root of a mandibular first molar? E. the practitioner places the mucosal graft directly on the E. periosteum. Facial F. Antero-posterior. provide some mechanical interlocking with the solid. transverse. enter into some form of chemical reaction with the solid.

performing apical trephination. Performing pulpotomy. In a complete maxillary denture. They are usually around 3 years of age or younger. Opening the tooth. H. A patient has a mandibular molar with pulp necrosis. temporizing. Prescribing analgesics and antibiotics and rescheduling the patient H. Opening the tooth for drainage and leaving the tooth open Local anesthetics aid in reducing the flow of saliva during operative procedures by E. Speech F. blocking efferent parasympathetic nerve pathways. accurate adaptation of the border of the maxillary facial flange affects which of the following the most? E. Stability H. H. Esthetics Fixing solution functions to . reducing sensitivity and anxiety during tooth preparation. for this tooth is which of the following? F. pain to percussion. temporizing. and with no periradicular lesions. and checking the occlusion G. temporizing. They exhibit quiet sobbing with profuse tears. They usually exhibit tremors in voice when speaking. F. They are also referred to as stubborn or spoiled. The emergency treatment. G. blocking the cholinergic nerve endings. and checking the occlusion J. F.Which of the following generally describes children with defiant behavior? E. blocking innervation to major salivary glands. G. and checking the occlusion I. Support G. Debriding the canals.

and advanced. 30 H. remove undeveloped silver salts. early. 40 There are four basic stages in the pathogenesis of the periodontal lesion. F. incipient. incipient. early. Which of the following patients should preferably be hospitalized for the oral surgery procedure indicated? E. initial. and advanced. accelerate the film processing. A dentist uses an unsaturated.E. and advanced. established. G. H. chemical sterilizer for sterilizing dental instruments. F. To effectively kill all microorganisms and spores. who requires full mouth gingivectomy for treatment of phenytoin-induced hyperplasia. who requires removal of a chronically infected tooth.40 psi for at LEAST how many minutes? E. remove the atomic silver. this dentist must maintain a temperature of 132 degrees Celsius at 20 . A severely retarded patient. A patient with a prosthetic cardiac valve. A patient on anticoagulant therapy whose present prothrombin time is 1. established. 10 F.25 times the control time. established. G. who requires a single tooth removed. 20 G. reduce silver ions to metallic silver. F. G. H. A juvenile diabetic whose disease is controlled by daily insulin injections. H. . who requires removal of a single tooth. established. they are E. early. initial. and an alveoloplasty procedure. early. and advanced. In progressing order.

Which of the following combinations of agents would be necessary to block the cardiovascular
effects produced by the injection of a sympathomimetic drug?
F. Atropine and prazosin
G. Atropine and propranolol
H. Prazosin and propranolol
I. Phenoxybenzamine and curare
J. Amphetamine and propranolol
A cleft lip occurs following the failure of permanent union between which of the following?
F. The palatine processes
G. The maxillary processes
H. The palatine process with the frontonasal process
I. The maxillary process with the palatine process
J. The maxillary process with the frontonasal process
The highest incidence of fibrous gingival enlargement (hyperplasia) is related to
F. puberty.
G. diabetes.
H. leukemia.
I. pregnancy.
J. medication.
A patient has two or more of her teeth joined only by cementum. This phenomenon is known as
F. fusion.
G. hypercementosis.
H. gemination.
I. dilaceration.

J. concrescence.
While the dentist is preparing a large carious lesion in Tooth #30 for a restoration, a pulp
exposure occurs. The patient angrily shouts at the dentist, "You incompetent 'creep'--you're
responsible for this problem!"- Of the following possible responses the dentist could make,
which one is the most emphatic?
F. Calm down, I can still restore your tooth adequately.
G. Not when I'm preparing a tooth with caries like you had.
H. I can see that you're very upset. You thought the tooth could be restored and now this
problem has occurred.
I. If you took care of your mouth the way you should, I wouldn't have been close to the
pulp.
J. I'm sorry this happened, but we must get on with the procedure.
Which of the following is the most serious toxic effect that is associated with overdose of
acetaminophen?
F. Hemorrhage
G. Renal necrosis
H. Hepatic necrosis
I. Gastric ulceration
J. Respiratory alkalosis
A patient needs relining of both maxillary complete denture and mandibular distal-extension
partial denture. The recommended procedure is to
E. make impressions of both simultaneously.
F. start first on the maxillary complete denture.
G. start first with the least stable prosthesis.
H. relate first the mandibular partial denture frame.
In which of the following do adenomatoid odontogenic tumors MOST often occur?
E. Anterior maxilla

F. Posterior maxilla
G. Anterior mandible
H. Posterior mandible
Duration of treatment regimens affect patient compliance. The severity of disease perceived by
the patient affects patient compliance.
E. Both statements are TRUE.
F. Both statements are FALSE.
G. The first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSE.
H. The first statement is FALSE, the second is TRUE
The Centers for Disease Control (CDC) recommends that sterilizing units be monitored at which
of the following intervals?
E. Daily
F. Weekly
G. Bi-weekly
H. Monthly
An evaluation of which of the following represents the most important aspect in shade selection
(for the restoration to match an existing dentition)?
F. Hue
G. Value
H. Chroma
I. Size
J. Shape
A fracture through the angle of the mandible can result in an upward displacement of the
proximal fragment. Which of the following groups of muscles produces this movement?
E. Digastric and geniohyoid

F. Masseter, digastric, and lateral pterygoid
G. Masseter, temporal, and lateral pterygoid
H. Masseter, temporal, and medial pterygoid
During an emergency dental visit, a moderately retarded 4-year-old child resists physically and
cries excessively. In this instance, the dentist should use which of the following?
E. Physical restraints
F. General anesthesia
G. The hand-over-mouth exercise
H. Voice control
A practitioner is restoring the mesio-occlusal marginal ridge of a maxillary left second molar. If
the marginal ridge is higher than the adjacent tooth, then it can create a problem in which of the
following excursions?
E. Protrusive
F. Retrusive
G. Working
H. Non-working
Lymphangioma is MOST closely related to
E. hemangioma.
F. angiosarcoma.
G. cystic hygroma.
H. hemangiopericytoma.
According to the American Heart Association, which of the following prophylactic antibiotic
regimens is recommended for a 20-kg child who has congenital heart disease?
E. 1.0 gram amoxicillin orally one hour before the dental procedure and 500 mg 4 times a
day for 2 days postoperatively

5 grams orally 6 hours later When compared therapeutically to penicillin G. Debriding the root canal of the maxillary right central incisor and prescribing antibiotics and analgesics . broader antibacterial spectrum. 1. G. Extracting the maxillary right central incisor F. Administering an antibiotic and analgesic and initiating root canal therapy when symptoms subside G. Which of the following is the best emergency treatment for this patient? E. Mandibular molars G. greater resistance to penicillinase. 1. Pulp vitality tests are negative for this tooth.0 gram penicillin V orally one hour before the dental procedure and 500 mg orally 6 hours later G.F. Mandibular incisors H. Maxillary incisors F. penicillin V has a F. Percussion of the maxillary right central incisor causes discomfort as does palpation at its apex.0 grams amoxicillin orally one hour before the dental procedure and 1. while adjacent control teeth test within normal limits. Maxillary molars An adult healthy patient has a marked indurated swelling. slower renal excretion. Which of the following teeth are usually affected by nursing-bottle caries? E.0 gram amoxicillin one hour before the dental procedure and 500 mg orally 6 hours later H. J. more reliable oral absorption. I. He has a temperature of 100 degrees Fahrenheit and has been in considerable pain for 24 hours. 3. H. A radiograph reveals that the maxillary right central incisor has a deep unbased restoration and a widened apical periodontal ligament space. lower potential for allergic reaction.

All of the enamel G. Clinical evaluation A dentist will use a buccal coil spring to regain space for a mandibular second premolar. Severe mobility of the tooth I. Each of the following is a helpful diagnostic aid to distinguish between maxillary retrusion and mandibular protrusion EXCEPT one. Photography F. Gingival irritation H. Pain G. Study models H. Source-object distance A patient who has a Class III malocclusion presents for treatment. Both dentin and enamel . Incising and draining the swelling and prescribing antibiotics and analgesics A decrease in which of the following causes an increase in radiographic density? E. Which one is this EXCEPTION? E. mA F. Tendency for the first premolar to rotate Tooth bleaching affects a color change in which of the following tooth parts? E. kVp G. Dentin only F. Tendency for the first molar to intrude J. Which of the following is an undesirable side effect that is most commonly associated with this procedure? F. Cephalometry G.H. Object-film distance H.

Stiffness G. Infectious mononucleosis H. relationship of the mandible to the cranium is favorable. which. Internal resorption H. H. of the following most often causes calcium hydroxide pulpotomies to fail? E. F.H. Elongation H. G. Which of the following mechanical properties limits the amount of adjustment of a base metal removable clasp arm? E. Oral hairy leukoplakia G. Only the surface of enamel In primary teeth. cranial growth is poor. Adenoid cystic carcinoma In a 12-year-old. Tensile strength . relationship of the maxilla to the mandible is favorable. Pulp calcification F. Burkitt's lymphoma F. Formation of dentin bridges Each of the following diseases has been associated with the Epstein-Barr virus EXCEPT one. Periapical pathosis G. Hardness F. an ANB angle of 2 degrees usually signifies that the E. Which one is this EXCEPTION? E. incisors are upright.

H. G. A surface smoother than normal will give the impression of a larger size. The acrylic resin teeth are abraded and the occlusal vertical dimension is decreased. . Discoloration of newly forming teeth How do the surface characteristics of a restoration affect its perceived form? E. There is soreness on the crest of the ridges. Visual disturbance J. F. F. G. H. Malnutrition G. Photosensitivity I. Horizontal highlights give an illusion of increased length. Sialolithiasis H. Which one is the EXCEPTION? F. Superinfection H. Which one is this EXCEPTION? F. The indirect retainers are not seated as the extension bases are depressed. Sjogren's syndrome I. Vertical highlights give an illusion of increased width. Increasing the value of the restoration makes the tooth appear smaller. Bilateral enlargement of the parotid glands characterizes each of the following conditions EXCEPT one. There is a loss of retention.Each of the following is a common side effect of prolonged tetracycline therapy EXCEPT one. Acute epidemic parotitis Which of the following best indicates that a removable partial denture needs to be relined? E. Diarrhea G. Benign lymphoepithelial lesion J.

the dentist should find which of the following infiltrative local anesthetics to be safe and effective? F. Disc interference disorders A patient will receive a free gingival graft. Ankylosis F. For this patient. Infection E. Dysplasia G. Degeneration H. Internal resorption I. Diphenhydramine . Pulp necrosis J. Pulp hyperemia H. Nitrous oxide I. Blood pigments G.Which of the following is the most common cause of intracapsular restraint of mandibular movement? D. Orthokeratinization J. Bupivacaine G. Pulp chamber calcification A patient is allergic to both amide and ester anesthetic derivatives. Proliferation I. Phenylephrine H. The graft epithelium will undergo which of the following alterations? F. Formation of keratohyalin granules Which of the following is most likely to cause a yellowish discoloration in a primary maxillary incisor following trauma? F.

The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) regulates the transportation of waste from the office. the second is FALSE. Use an occlusal rim made on the master cast to which is added a soft wax for the registration The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is concerned with regulated waste within the office. Amount of translucent enamel present Children and adolescents are the LEAST likely to develop which of the following? E. Which of the following is the best method for recording centric relation? F. The RPD will replace the second premolars and all molars on both sides. Shape of incisal embrasures F. . Manually articulate the casts and secure with sticky wax H. Ethylaminobenzoate A patient presents with slight chipping of the enamel along the incisal edges of Teeth #8 and #9. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor H. which of the following important factors should the dentist consider? D.J. Use the framework that has an occlusal rim attached I. Use a wax registration that covers premolars of the mandibular arch and anterior teeth J. Use a plaster record of the interdigitation of teeth G. F. Both statements are TRUE. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor G. The first statement is TRUE. E. When choosing between restoring the incisal edges or reshaping by selective grinding. Location of proximal contacts E. Both statements are FALSE. Compound odontoma A dentist is restoring a patient's mandibular arch with a removable partial denture (RPD). Ameloblastic fibroma F. G.

H. The first statement is FALSE, the second is TRUE.
A 6-year-old patient has a dark brown discoloration of his maxillary central incisor. The
discoloration started following trauma accompanied with a facial sinus tract. What is the
treatment-of- choice?
E. Extraction
F. Pulpectomy
G. Pulpotomy
H. Direct pulp treatment
Squamous cell carcinoma appears in a variety of locations. In which of the following locations is
its prognosis the LEAST favorable?
E. Lower lip
F. Floor of the mouth
G. Hard palate
H. Buccal mucosa
Although a dentist wishes to use the long-cone paralleling technique (40 cm source-object
distance), the x-ray machine is equipped with only a short cone (20 cm PID). As a result, the
dentist moves the machine away from the patient's face so the source-object distance is 40 cm
and adjusts the exposure time appropriately. Compared to the degree of tissue covered by an
actual long cone, this "extended" short cone exposes what amount of tissue?
D. More
E. The same
F. Less
Fluoride therapy and occlusal sealants modify which of the following four factors the most?
E. Host
F. Time
G. Substrate
H. Microflora

Which of the following drugs produces sufficient central nervous system depression to cause a
state of sleep from which one may be aroused?
E. A sedative
F. A hypnotic
G. An opiate
H. An anesthetic
Which of the following usually causes the slow progress in molar uprighting in an adult patient?
F. Appliance friction
G. Excessive deep bite
H. Occlusal interferences
I. Poor patient cooperation
J. Lack of anchorage control
Squamous cell carcinoma of the tongue MOST commonly metastasizes to which of the
following?
E. Lungs
F. Liver
G. Bones
H. Cervical nodes
To reduce a patient's salivary flow, a dentist has prescribed atropine. As a result of this
medication, the patient might experience which of the following side effects?
F. Sedation
G. Diarrhea
H. Bradycardia
I. Blurred vision
J. Stomach cramping

Which of the following is the OPTIMAL reduction for the lingual cusp on Tooth #3 to receive an
MODL onlay?
E. 1.0 mm
F. 1.5 mm
G. 2.0 mm
H. 2.5 mm
Of the following local anesthetics, which has intrinsic vasoconstrictive actions?
E. Cocaine
F. Procaine
G. Xylocaine
H. Bupivacaine
During an interview, a dentist asks a patient, "You are not afraid of dentistry, are you?" This is an
example of which type of question?
E. Leading
F. Closed
G. Open
H. Funneling
To be effective in translating the roots of teeth, an orthodontic appliance must be
E. very gentle in action.
F. augmented with extraoral force.
G. capable of exerting a torque or moment.
H. capable of exerting positive, intermittent forces.
Which of the following conditions can cause delayed eruption of permanent teeth?
E. Cherubism

F. Hyperthyroidism
G. Hyperparathyroidism
H. Paget's disease of bone
Class I carious lesions are the LEAST likely to occur on which of the following?
E. Lingual surfaces of mandibular incisors
F. Lingual surfaces of maxillary incisors
G. Lingual surfaces of maxillary molars
H. Facial surfaces of mandibular molars
Inhalation of 100% oxygen is contraindicated for a person who has
F. a flail chest.
G. pneumothorax.
H. acute bronchitis.
I. acute viral pneumonia.
J. chronic obstructive lung disease.
Which of the following antibiotics is found at much higher concentrations in crevicular fluid than
in serum?
E. Clindamycin
F. Penicillin
G. Metronidazole
H. Tetracycline
Which of the following exhibits neoplasia of both the epithelial and connective tissue
components?
E. Ameloblastoma
F. Cementoblastoma

which of the following pulpal changes is the most likely to occur? E. facial cusps of maxillary molars. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy I. lingual cusps of mandibular molars. F. Xerostomia H. G. facial cusps of maxillary premolars. Necrosis F. facial cusps of mandibular molars. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca A permanent tooth with a mature apex has become intruded deeply into the bone. Indirect pulp therapy H.G. Arthritis G. Warthin's tumor J. Which one is the EXCEPTION? F. Formocresol pulpotomy G. Cervical caries I. As a result of this trauma. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor Non-working interferences usually occur on the inner aspects of the E. Apexification Each of the following is associated with Sjogren's syndrome EXCEPT one. Internal resorption . A vital permanent tooth has an irreversible pulpitis and an open apex. Conventional root canal therapy J. Which of the following represents the treatment-of-choice for this tooth? F. Ameloblastic fibroma H. H.

third vaccination three months later F. with the remaining portion found largely in . paralysis of one side of the face. Second vaccination three months later. J. Second vaccination two months later. dull pain when pressure is applied over the affected area. third vaccination six months later Each of the following statements describes intracanal instruments and their action EXCEPT one. An individual has just received the first in a series of three hepatitis B vaccines. Second vaccination one month later. G. prolonged episodes of pain in one side of the face. A K-type file can be used in a filing and reaming action. Which one is this EXCEPTION? E. For the seroconversion of this series to be the most effective. excruciating pain of short duration. the person should receive the second and third vaccinations how many months later? E. F. third vaccination six months later G.G. uncontrollable twitching of one eye. sharp. An intracanal instrument is more susceptible to breakage if locked in dentin and then rotated. H. I. A reaming action will enlarge a root canal and produce a cross-sectional preparation that is approximately round in shape. The usual metabolic pathway of ingested fluoride involves urinary excretion primarily. third vaccination three months later H. while counterclockwise-turning will cause debris to move in a coronal direction out of the canal. Calcific metamorphosis H. Clockwise-turning of a root canal instrument will force debris in an apical direction. Transient inflammation Trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux) is characterized by F. while a reamer can be used in only a reaming action. H. G. Second vaccination one month later.

autoinoculation.E. epidermal tissues. In MOST instances. G. What happens to the permanent molar occlusion in the presence of a flush (straight) terminal plane and mandibular primate spaces? E. F. chronic alcoholism. intraoral verruca vulgaris develops as the result of E. H. muscle tissues. F. changing the condylar inclination. trauma. G. phantom. Erupts end-to-end. Erupts with Class II tendency H. Erupts with Class III tendency A patient presents for try-in evaluation of balanced occlusion of complete maxillary and mandibular dentures. pipe smoking. This dentist can best correct this problem by E. G. H. false. referred. late mesial shift into Class I occlusion G. psychogenic. H. skeletal tissues. Erupts end-to-end. F. . early mesial shift into Class I occlusion F. Pain that has no organic basis and that is fixed upon some portion of the anatomy is usually referred to as E. teeth. A dentist notes that protrusive excursion results in separation of posterior teeth.

opioid receptors in the G. increasing the incisal guidance. Which of the following mucocutaneous disorders is characterized by (1) degeneration of the basal cell layer.F. Stimulating the mandibular growth G. and (3) a dense mononuclear inflammatory-cell infiltrate in the subepithelial connective tissue? F. using a flat plane cusp for the posterior teeth. Inhibiting the maxillary growth H. G. (2) "saw-tooth" rete pegs. G. Orange stain is used to . Keratosis follicularis I. Retracting the maxillary teeth Nausea and vomiting that are associated with administration of opioid analgesics is the result of stimulation of the E. chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ).I. H. Which one is this EXCEPTION? F. Each of the following will be an appropriate treatment strategy EXCEPT one. emetic center. Lichen planus G. Erythema multiforme H. Benign mucous membrane pemphigoid An individual's mandible is growing forward less than the maxilla. H. F. Dermatitis herpetiformis J. increasing the compensating curve. Redirecting the maxillary growth I. limbic system. tract. Retracting the mandibular teeth J.

Protect the gingival tissue F. Aphthous stomatitis J. decrease the chroma of porcelain color. Hand-foot-and-mouth disease A properly trimmed wooden wedge will do each of the following EXCEPT one. Provide space for the matrix band G.E. Which one is this EXCEPTION? E. Vesicular lesions precede the formation of ulcers in each of the following EXCEPT one. H. Herpangina G. F. Herpes zoster H. After the opposite central incisor has erupted Parallelism of abutment preparations is determined by the F. When the tooth is erupting F. Prevent overcontouring of the contact area H. After all anterior teeth are erupted H. change the hue of porcelain color. G. increase the interproximal translucency. volume of chamfer. Herpetic stomatitis I. After the tooth is fully erupted G. . Reduce moisture leakage into the cavity preparation When is the appropriate time to correct a crossbite of a permanent maxillary central incisor? E. Which one is this EXCEPTION? F. increase the value of porcelain color.

and the left side of the nose following a fracture of his midface. J. maxillary sinus. . At the first dental examination Which of the following describes primary occlusal trauma? E. When the entire primary dentition is completely erupted G. The maximal or "ceiling" effect of a drug is also correctly referred to as the drug's E. H. potency. F. nasal bone. A patient experiences numbness of the left upper lip.G. infraorbital rim. degree of convergence. cheek. G. It is the first incidence of trauma that a tooth experiences. zygomatic arch. F. This symptom follows a fracture through the E. long axis of the preparations. F. Mobility is caused by excessive forces on a reduced periodontium. When spaces between the posterior teeth have closed F. When the permanent first molars have erupted H. G. It is a trauma that produces irreversible damage to the periodontium. H. H. I. angulation of finish lines. Mobility is caused by excessive forces on a normal periodontium. When is the appropriate time to take the first bite-wing radiographs of a clinically caries-free child? E. agonism. long axis of natural teeth.

H. H. F.G. H. Which of the following teeth are the least likely to have more than one canal? F. Maxillary lateral incisors G. the lethal dose of fluoride falls in the range of E. Cerebral palsy F.5-1. 300-500. G. F. G. 0. Mandibular lateral incisors H. specificity. Hyperkinesis (attention deficit disorder) In a restorative problem involving all teeth in the mouth. efficacy. In mg/kg body weight. mesial inclines of the mandibular cusps. Maxillary second premolars .0. 20-50. A learning disability H. the protrusive condylar path inclination has a primary influence on the E. incisal guidance. Mandibular first premolars I. mesial inclines of the maxillary cusps. 100-200. Which condition is characterized by lesions in the central nervous system that manifests itself as various types of neuromuscular dysfunction? E. anterior teeth only. Down syndrome G.

has anterior and posterior vertical components. Obtaining blood samples for serology I. H.J. Maxillary second molars Child abuse/neglect most commonly involves children in which age group? E. Which one is this EXCEPTION? F. This dentist should use an envelope flap design that E. F. G. G. the margins are all open. Obtaining sialograms G. is incised at the junction of attached gingival tissue and free mucosa. Determining salivary flow rate J. has no vertical components. Four to six years G. Seven to nine years H. Performing exfoliative cytology H. . Birth to age three years F. lab cut off the margins. has an anterior vertical component only. die was overtrimmed. casting distorted during the porcelain application. All age groups are equally affected. F. Obtaining labial gland biopsy The dentist tried-in the metal framework for a porcelain fused-to-metal crown and the margins were closed. The most likely reason for this is the E. A dentist will remove a mandibular lingual torus from a patient's premolar region. When the completed crown was returned from the lab. Each of the following will assist a dentist in diagnosing or assessing Sjogren's syndrome EXCEPT one.

G. F. H. creating a small (1 mm) pulp exposure for about 30 minutes. F. An edentulous patient has mobile. if necessary F. G. Pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide . Which of the following pulp therapies is the most appropriate for this patient? E.H. register the tissue in its passive position. translate. hyperplastic tissue in her maxillary anterior region. I. H. Direct pulp capping with calcium hydroxide G. Pulpectomy and apexification. Intensifying screens are used with extraoral radiographic films to E. G. improve image quality. the dentist should E. use the closed-mouth technique. H. J. increase exposure time. intrude. decrease radiation to the patient. use a high-fusing impression compound. rotate. involve maximum pressure. extrude. Pulpotomy with formocresol H. tip. the tooth would F. porcelain proximal contact areas are over-contoured If the line of force were applied through a tooth's center of resistance. increase kVp. A patient's permanent tooth crown fractures. In making impressions for this patient.

Bell's palsy. G. Reversible pulpitis H. Regional odontodysplasia I. Mild hyperemia G. The condition is known as which of the following? F. (4) periapical granulomas and cysts. (2) very early pulpal obliteration. unstimulated night pain suggests which of the following conditions of the pulp? E. The MOST probable diagnosis is E. Pulp necrosis F. (3) defective root formation. Shell teeth G. No specific condition Some teeth appear to be clinically normal. the retainer carrying the keyway. Green and orange stains on maxillary incisors can usually be attributed to . H. post-herpetic neuralgia. and (5) premature exfoliation. Prolonged. An examination reveals small white scars in the preauricular region. Amelogenesis imperfecta J. He experiences paresthesia and itching in the same area. the retainer not involved with the keyway.A 50-year-old man complains of a burning. Dentin dysplasia H. the path of insertion of the key into the keyway should be parallel to the path(s) of insertion of D. both retainers. Dentinogenesis imperfecta When a nonrigid connector is used in a fixed partial denture. F. psychoneurosis. auriculotemporal syndrome. but exhibit (1 ) globular dentin. F. E. aching pain on the side of his face.

Antihistaminics I. G. Stiffness or rigidity . Opioids G. mechanical properties. G. burnishability. tarnish susceptibility. Nasopalatine G. fluoride consumption. diet.E. Benzodiazepines J. Traumatic bone Which drug group is the least likely to cause xerostomia? F. Anticholinergics Which of the following is measured by the modulus of elasticity? E. Lateral periodontal H. poor oral hygiene. castability. Which of the following cysts is the LEAST likely to be visible radiographically? E. H. F. J. The best measure of the potential clinical performance of a casting alloy is its F. I. drugs. Nasolabial F. Antidepressants H. H. ADA certification.

high intrinsic activity G. low intrinsic activity The amalgam preparation outline for the primary mandibular second molar closely resembles that for which permanent tooth? E. G. Which of the following best describes the drug-receptor activity of naloxone? E. phenothiazines. H. benzodiazepines. High affinity. Carcinogenesis G. High affinity. no intrinsic activity H. narcotics. Purpura F. Ultimate strength G. barbiturates. Mandibular second premolar . No affinity. high intrinsic activity F. Yield strength H. Maxillary second premolar F. Low affinity. Diarrhea and dehydration H. Ductility or malleability Which of the following represent(s) the serious effects of a repeated exposure to low doses of X radiation? E. Mandibular first premolar G.F. the best oral sedative drugs for dentistry fall into the class of E. Alteration of the oral microflora Currently. F.

Incidence F. The enamel rods in the gingival third of the primary first molars extend occlusally. exists? E. The dentist notes minor recurrent caries along the faciocervical amalgam margin. A satisfactory gingival seat may NOT be obtained because of which of the following? E. Prevalence G. Acute pain to percussion with no swelling F. Prepare the tooth for a crown H. A deep narrow sulcular pocket to the apex with exudate H. Observe at recall The proximal portion of a Class II cavity preparation in a primary molar extends rather deep gingivally. The proximal contact of primary molars is broad and flat. The facial and lingual surfaces of primary molars converge occlusally. Repair the defect G. rather than an endodontic problem. Which of the following is the treatment-of-choice? E. Attributable risk Which of the following conditions indicates that a periodontal. Extent H.H. Pain to palpation of the buccal mucosa near the tooth ape An 82-year-old woman presents with a large four-surface pin-retained amalgam restoration on Tooth #3. H. Pain to lateral percussion with a wide sulcular pocket G. Replace the restoration F. The primary teeth have a marked cervical constriction. Mandibular first molar The rate at which new disease occurs is classified as which of the following? E. . F. G.

Covalent bonding G. J. H. Electrostatic bonding . Rotation H. Orthodontic correction of which of the following is the most easily retained? F. Histodifferentiation The light source affects the perception of color. Diastema G. Apposition F. The statement is NOT correct. but the reason is accurate. G.During which stage of tooth development is the cariostatic effect of fluoride manifested? E. Anterior crossbite J. Dipole-dipole bonding I. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related. Proliferation H. I. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related. Calcification G. Generalized spacing Which of the following types of chemical bonding is the least likely to be involved in a drugreceptor interaction? F. Hydrogen bonding H. BECAUSE the light source must contain the wavelength of the color to be matched in order to see that color. Expansion I. but the reason is NOT. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct. F. The statement is correct.

J. H. Which of the following is the best way to obtain the needed post space? E. F. Which of the following best exemplifies an assertive message that could be made by a co-worker? F. When you don't help with the clean-up. .000 degrees Centigrade. G. van der Waal's forces Which of the following best explains why the renal excretion of salicylic acid is increased in an alkaline urine? E. I hope you'll remember to help me clean up today. J. I'm tired of cleaning up your mess! I. G. The crown of an endodontically-treated maxillary lateral incisor is fractured near the gingival margin. the filament becomes positively charged. To prepare it alongside the silver cone using burs and Peeso reamers. F. Is something bothering you? You sometimes forget to clean up. A member of the dental staff routinely fails to clean up his work area. The coronal end of the silver cone used in filling that canal is visible at that level. it makes me angry because I have to do both your work and my own. Decreasing urine pH usually increases the renal excretion of weak acids. electrons strike the anode. The percentage of salicylic acid that is ionized in urine is increased. X-rays are produced when E. G. If you refuse to do your part. The urine volume is decreased. the anode is heated above 3. I'm just going to have to report the situation to the boss. H. protons strike the anode. The percentage of salicylic acid that is ionized in urine is decreased. H. The findings reveal that the existing root canal filling meets all criteria to be judged successful. F. To carefully grind away the coronal part of the silver cone using round burs or endcutting burs.

at an acute angle with the pulpal floor. and "twist-off" the coronal segment. a rubber elastic around the two teeth. The occurrence of a brief convulsion is E. F. and then to create the needed post space. bonded brackets with intertooth traction. Distal shoe F. replace it in the canal. pathognomonic of grand mal epilepsy. consistent with a diagnosis of syncope.G. After receiving one cartridge of a local anesthetic. H. parallel to the dentinoenamel junction. coat it with freshly mixed sealer. Removable acrylic functional Accepted methods for closing a diastema between maxillary central incisors include using either a removable appliance with finger springs or D. E. pathognomonic of intravascular injection of a local anesthetic The axial wall of an occlusolingual amalgam preparation on a maxillary molar should be in dentin and D. To remove the silver cone and re-treat the canal using a gutta-percha technique. Nance holding arch G. parallel to the long axis of the tooth. During the mixed dentition stage. H. G. usually caused by the epinephrine in the local anesthetic. a healthy adult patient became unconscious in the dental chair. notch it 4 mm from the apical end. which of the following appliances should be used as a space maintainer for missing primary molars in the mandibular arch? E. Passive lingual arch H. F. To remove the silver cone. F. a steel ligature around the two teeth. E. .

for example. payment mechanisms. Incorrectly related casts F. Nasopalatine When trying-in a porcelain fused-to-metal crown. A distortion of the metal during firing H. focusing on patients' skills at carrying out recommendations. Proximal contacts being too tight G. should the patient not floss F. the dentist observes that the gingival-margin finish-line integrity is excellent. Which one is this EXCEPTION? E. G. An expansion of the porcelain during firing The Health Belief Model attempts to explain patient recommendations by E. Providing written material that explains the mechanism of flossing . focusing on the doctor-patient relationship. Repeating periodically the message on the value of flossing H. examining patients' perceptions of disease-seriousness and of the treatment effectiveness. Globulomaxillary H.Each of the following developmental cysts appears on radiographs EXCEPT one. Median palatal G. Which of the following represents the MOST effective way of encouraging a child to floss regularly? E. H. Arranging for the child to earn privileges for flossing G. Which of the following is the most probable cause? E. but that the occlusal surface is 1 mm too high. Nasolabial F. Presenting a message that concerns the potential loss of teeth. F. emphasizing the barriers that are external to behavior change.

C-1 esterase G. Serine phosphatase J. Thyrohyoid. and anterior bellies of the digastric H. 4000 G. Genioglossus and mylohyoid G. 8000 H. H. into the mesial and distal walls. Complement synthetase Following a bilateral mandibular fracture in the canine region. in the axio-occlusal and axiogingival line angles at the expense of the axial wall. 16000 . Genioglossus and anterior bellies of the digastric The number of persons who die each year from oral cancer in the United States approximates E. Which of the following systems is thought to malfunction in the hereditary form of angioneurotic edema? F. Thyrohyoid and mylohyoid only F. G. F. 2000 F.In an ideal Class V cavity preparation for amalgam in a mandibular premolar. in the mesial and occlusal line angles. CH50 consumption I. retention form is gained E. C-1q inhibitor H. in the axio-occlusal and axiogingival line angles at the expense of the occlusal and gingival walls. mylohyoid. the anterior fragment of the mandible is displaced posteriorly by the action of the geniohyoid and by which other muscles? E.

The binding of a drug to plasma proteins G. be invisible. G. medullary endorphin activity. the retentive clasp tips should E. F. F. The relative solubility of the drug in the tissues Which of the following is MOST appropriate for testing differences between the means of two groups? E. The depth of the clinical gingival sulcus is the distance from the gingival margin to the E. sensitivity of the medullary respiratory center to carbon dioxide. H. Multiple regression analysis G. H. sensitivity of aortic and carotid chemoreceptors to blood oxygen concentration. The blood flow to various organs and tissues H. apply retentive force into the body of the teeth. resist torque through the long axis of the teeth. The decrease in ventilation caused by morphine and by some of the related opioids depends chiefly upon a decrease in E. G. . exert no force. cementoenamel junction. The intrinsic activity of the drug F. blood PC02 concentration. Student's t-test When a removable partial denture is terminally seated.Each of the following parameters has an effect on the distribution of a drug EXCEPT one. Chi-square test F. Correlation coefficient analysis H. Which one is this EXCEPTION? E.

Glycerin G.F. Water F. Additional space for successive eruption of permanent maxillary molars is provided by E. H. reattachment by scar. Amalgam scrap should be stored in a tightly-sealed container and covered with which of the following? E. F. an increase in palatal vault height due to alveolar growth. interstitial bone growth. most apical penetration of the periodontal probe. G. I can assure you that this approach is quick and easy. You don't want lots of cavities. bottom of the sulcus in well-preserved histologic block sections. continuous expansion of the dental arch due to sutural growth. appositional growth at the maxillary tuberosity. H. Which of the following responses made by the dentist is the MOST likely to increase a patient's adherence to oral hygiene prescriptions? F. F. . I. do you? G. What do you see as some of the problems with this approach? J. Sulfide solution H. If you take my advice. most apical extension of the junctional epithelium. Sodium hypochlorite solution The soft tissue-tooth interface that forms most frequently after flap surgery in an area previously denuded by inflammatory disease is a E. you can save yourself pain and money. collagen adhesion. You really should spend the time it takes to brush and floss. G. H.

Dentin H. postoperative ecchymosis. Most epidemiologic studies indicate that gingivitis in children is relatively common. capillary fragility. Both statements are TRUE. Cementum Three days after full mouth extraction. E. F. thrombocytopenia. Lichen planus G. Both statements are FALSE. Bullous pemphigoid H. F. H. A strong positive association between specific nutritional deficiencies and the presence of periodontal disease in children and adults has been demonstrated. Pemphigus vulgaris I. G.G. connective tissue attachment Which of the following is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait? F. hematoma formation. Plaque I. White sponge nevus J. The most probable diagnosis is E. Stain G. . long junctional epithelium. an elderly patient complains of black-and-blue marks on her neck. Calculus J. H. Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita Which of the following is the primary substance or material removed during root planing? F.

Histiocytosis-X H. combined effect of the hue and value. Chroma is that aspect of color that signifies the E. Which of the following characterize(s) the histopathologic changes in chronic gingivitis? F. Case reports H. H. F. and neutrophilic leukocytes Which of the following most strongly suggest cause-and-effect relationships? E. An inflammatory infiltrate in which neutrophilic leukocytes and mast cells predominate I. the second is FALSE. The loss of rete pegs and the dissolution of the basement membrane G. The first statement is FALSE. degree of translucency. degree of saturation of the hue. Epidemiologic surveys Spontaneous osteogenic sarcoma is associated with which of the following disease processes of bone? F. the second is TRUE. The disruption of the gingival fibers and an inflammatory infiltrate of plasma cells. H. degree of grayness. lymphocytes. Controlled clinical trials G. Correlational studies F. G.G. Paget's disease G. The first statement is TRUE. The destruction of the principal fibers of the periodontal ligament J. Hyperparathyroidism . An inflammatory infiltrate in which macrophages predominate H.

quinidine. Using an automatic rather than manual processing switch H. Osteogenesis imperfecta The drug-of-choice for the treatment of adrenergically-induced arrhythmias is E. Diazepam H. Letterer-Siwe disease J. Meperidine J. is LEAST likely to produce respiratory depression? F. Changing from Group D to Group E film F. Fentanyl G. lidocaine. G.I. H. Serial tooth extraction . Thiopental I. Trauma G. when administered intravenously. F. phenytoin. Which of the following drugs. propranolol. Caries F. Adding a cervical collar to a leaded apron Premature exfoliation of a primary mandibular canine is most often the sequela of which of the following? E. Pentobarbital Which of the following safety techniques provides the GREATEST DECREASE in overall radiation-risk to patients? E. Switching from round to rectangular collimation G.

high modulus of elasticity. forms a gelatinous matrix. derives energy from enamel constituents. posteriorly. Which of the following best explains why this expansion is desirable? D. It makes the metal casting larger than the wax pattern so that the casting will fit the tooth tightly. H. It allows for the shrinkage of the molten metal and the wax pattern. extended setting time. Inferiorly. Arch length inadequacy In lateral movements. and superiorly F. It compensates for the shrinkage of the molten metal as it cools in the mold. coefficient of thermal conductivity. and laterally A dentist who is planning to restore a tooth with gold alloy desires a certain amount of expansion in the casting investment mold. Superiorly. F. Laterally. G. lives symbiotically with Lactobacillus acidophilus. posteriorly. and medially H. metabolizes substrate from saliva. hydrophilic nature. F. anteriorly. E. Inferiorly. and inferiorly G. . the non-working condyle moves in what direction? E.H. F. G. anteriorly. The dentist is using polyether material to make impressions. Streptococcus mutans is considered to be a principal etiologic agent of caries because it produces organic acids and it E. The physical property of this material that should concern this dentist is the E. H.

corrode at an accelerated rate due to increased copper content. Catalyzing H. Osteomas of the skull and jaws A practitioner who is restoring a tooth with composites wishes to be sure that the matrix has adhered to the filler. Wetting F. Intraoral pigmentation G. F. Leakage from the x-ray machine head F. require less mercury. G. Coupling G. Intestinal polyps F. Which of the following will contribute the most to patient gonadal dose? E. so there is more matrix formed. have little or no tin-mercury phase. Using a chemical indicator strip or pouch . Scatter from the cone H. are unaffected by moisture contamination in the presence of zinc What do Gardner syndrome and cleidocranial dysplasia have in common? E. Impacted supernumerary teeth H. Scatter from the patient's face Which of the following provides the best guarantee for sterilization in a heat sterilizer? F. Which of the following agents adheres the resin matrix to the filler? E. Activating An operator has chosen to use a shielded open-ended cone. Scatter from the operatory walls G. H.Which of the following best explains how high-copper amalgam restorations differ from conventional amalgam restorations? The high-copper restorations E.

The practitioner would like to learn whether or not a patient understands the treatment plan. G. Movement G. Which of the following is the principal nonverbal cue that two or more people can use to regulate verbal communication? E. Determining the ability of the sterilizer to kill the hepatitis B virus J. Recording the temperature and/or pressure readings from the sterilizer gauges H. Body position When the mandible is in its physiologic rest position. centric occlusion (maximum intercuspation). Which of the following questions is the MOST likely to elicit this information? . single remaining maxillary molar. vertical dimension. the distance between the occluding surfaces of the maxillary and mandibular teeth or occlusion rims is E. supernumerary teeth from the maxillary canine region. vertical dimension of rest. Using bacterial spore tests I. H. H. maxillary third molar. I. G. Demonstrating inactivation of the tuberculosis bacterium The integrity of the floor of the antrum is at greatest risk with surgery involving the removal of (a) F. interocclusal distance. torus palatinus. J. nasopalatine cyst.G. Posture F. Eye contact H. F.

Medial pterygoid H. Which of the following structures was most probably injured? F. Do you understand what I mean? F. The inferior head of the lateral pterygoid muscle Lesions of recurrent herpetic stomatitis are usually found mainly on . Lateral pterygoid G. The deep fibers of the masseter muscle I. What benefits or drawbacks do you see in this approach? H. Is this approach OK with you? The distolingual extension of a mandibular impression for a complete denture is limited by the action of which of the following muscles? E. Myasthenia gravis H. Do you have any questions about this approach? G. Muscular dystrophy I. a patient experiences limited ability to open his mouth. The medial pterygoid muscle G. Multiple sclerosis J. The stylomandibular ligament H. Bell's palsy G. The posterior belly of the digastric muscle J.E. Superior constrictor A defect in neuromuscular transmission causes which of the following? F. Trigeminal neuralgia The day after receiving an inferior alveolar nerve block. Stylohyoid F.

the alveolar mucosa. including both loosely. tissue anywhere in the oral mucosa. Enamel hatchet H. Straight chisel F. . tightly attached areas of the oral mucosa. H. The practitioner should E. A long-term decrease in caries An endodontic instrument separated in the apical third of a root canal. G. H. The fragment is 3 mm long and is tightly lodged. A short-term decrease in gingivitis F. J. Binangle chisel G. No radiographic changes at the apex are evident. such as the soft palate and I.and tightly-attached areas. A long-term decrease in gingivitis G.F. such as the buccal mucosa and the floor of the mouth. F. perform an apicoectomy and place a reverse filling. extract the tooth. resect the apical section of the root containing the broken instrument. A short-term decrease in caries H. G. loosely attached areas of the oral mucosa. Which of the following instruments should be used to plane the facio-proximal cavosurface margin of a standard Class II preparation on a mandibular molar? E. such as the hard palate and the attached gingiva. Bibeveled hatchet Which of the following most accurately describes the effect of individual plaque control instructions that are conducted in the classroom? E. complete the root canal filling to the level of the instrument and observe. loosely attached areas of the oral mucosa.

Polysiloxane H. Polyacrylic acid J. Re-evaluation in six months I. Prescription of an appropriate antibiotic Which of the following do polycarboxylate and glass ionomer have in common? F. and there is no associated sinus tract. The stiffness has increased. the tooth is asymptomatic. Cataracts G. As a result of this procedure. Phosphoric acid I. F. Which of the following is indicated? F. The gold has work-hardened. Nonsurgical retreatment H. Apicoectomy and apical amalgam J. However.A new patient had root canal therapy performed seven months ago in another country. The surface flaws have been removed. No historical radiographs are available. H. Zinc oxide G. Incision and drainage G. The grains have elongated. Retinal damage . the dental casting gold has become stronger. but less ductile. Which of the following explains why? E. G. Iritis F. The root canal filling appears to be satisfactory. Ion-leachable glass A practitioner has burnished a margin. The light from visible-fight polymerization units can cause which of the following? E. a small periapical radiolucency is evident.

F. orthodontics. The appropriate treatment for this tooth is a (an) F. The treatment-of -choice is F. . G. A patient has a skeletal deformity with a Class III malocclusion. full crown. 3/4 crown. This visit is going really well. a minimal amount of tooth structure was removed. During previous treatment. Coming to the dentist isn't so bad after all. G. Corneal ulcerations Which of the following responses made to a child is MOST likely to reinforce positively the child's appropriate behavior in the dental setting? E.H. don't you think? H. is it? An endodontically-treated permanent mandibular first molar has incipient lesions on its mesial and distal surfaces. MOD cast gold inlay. surgical repositioning of the mandible. anterior maxillary osteotomy. This deformity is the result of a maxillary deficiency. H. You're doing a great job for me today. posterior maxillary osteotomy. MOD cast gold onlay. I. I. J. MOD amalgam. I like it when you sit quietly in the chair. G. H. surgical repositioning of the maxilla. J.